A2 Flashcards

(62 cards)

1
Q

What is the first step in the seven-step legal process for a patrol officer?

A

Seizure

This step involves the officer seizing the citizen, which brings into effect the 4th Amendment of the U.S. Constitution.

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2
Q

What protections are guaranteed by the 4th Amendment to the U.S. Constitution?

A

Protection against unreasonable searches and seizures.

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3
Q

What is the legal burden of proof for a temporary detention?

A

Reasonable Suspicion

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4
Q

What is the legal burden of proof for an arrest?

A

Probable Cause

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5
Q

What are the four burdens of proof?

A
  • Reasonable Suspicion
  • Probable Cause
  • Preponderance of the Evidence
  • Beyond a Reasonable Doubt
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6
Q

What is the difference between a frisk and a search during a seizure?

A

A frisk is a limited pat-down for weapons; a search is a more thorough examination.

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7
Q

What are the five basic elements of a crime?

A
  • Name
  • Date
  • Location
  • Act
  • Intent
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8
Q

What is the definition of arrest per the Idaho Code?

A

An arrest is the taking of a person into custody.

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9
Q

What is the statute of limitations for misdemeanors?

A

Typically 1 year.

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10
Q

List the four types of arrest warrants in Idaho.

A
  • Arrest
  • Bench
  • Agent
  • Board
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11
Q

What are the possible consequences of making a false arrest?

A
  • Criminal Liability
  • Civil Liability
  • Evidence Suppressed
  • Departmental Discipline
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12
Q

What is the main purpose of report writing in law enforcement?

A

To document enforcement actions and establish necessary elements for court.

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13
Q

What is the role of the 5th Amendment during an interrogation?

A

It protects against self-incrimination.

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14
Q

What are the four warnings provided to citizens in reference to Miranda v. Arizona?

A
  • Right to remain silent
  • Anything said can be used against you
  • Right to an attorney
  • If you cannot afford an attorney, one will be provided
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15
Q

What is the difference between a detention and an arrest?

A

A detention is temporary and investigative; an arrest is a formal charge.

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16
Q

What is the purpose of the exclusionary rule?

A

To prevent illegally obtained evidence from being used in court.

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17
Q

Define ‘reasonable expectation of privacy’.

A

The standard that determines whether a person’s privacy rights have been violated.

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18
Q

What are the exceptions to the warrant requirement?

A
  • Consent
  • Search Incident to Arrest
  • Automobile Exception
  • Terry Stop & Frisk
  • Plain View, Feel or Smell
  • Exigent Circumstances
  • Regulatory Searches
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19
Q

What is the burden of proof required for a conviction in a criminal case?

A

Beyond a Reasonable Doubt

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20
Q

Fill in the blank: The _______ Amendment protects against unreasonable searches and seizures.

A

4th

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21
Q

What is the definition of a felony?

A

A serious crime typically punishable by imprisonment for more than one year.

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22
Q

What is the role of an officer in courtroom testimony?

A

To present evidence and recount their actions during the legal process.

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23
Q

What are the three rights an arrested person has under the 5th Amendment?

A
  • Right to remain silent
  • Right to an attorney
  • Protection against double jeopardy
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24
Q

What are the three rights an arrested person has under the 5th Amendment?

A
  • Right to remain silent
  • Right to Counsel
  • Right to Attorney

These rights protect individuals during the arrest and interrogation process.

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25
What is the right under the 8th Amendment for an arrested person?
Right to Bail ## Footnote This right allows for the possibility of release from custody before trial.
26
What are the three types of evidence an officer may later use in court?
* Tangible (Real/Physical) * Testimonial * Demonstrative ## Footnote These types of evidence can support the prosecution's case in court.
27
What is the difference between direct evidence and circumstantial evidence?
Direct evidence directly proves a fact, while circumstantial evidence requires inference to connect it to a conclusion of fact. ## Footnote Direct evidence includes eyewitness testimony, while circumstantial evidence may involve physical evidence that suggests a conclusion.
28
List the five basic elements of a crime according to Idaho Code.
* Actus Reus (guilty act) * Mens Rea (guilty mind) * Concurrence * Causation * Harm ## Footnote These elements are essential to establish criminal liability.
29
What is the definition of evidence?
Evidence is any material presented in court to prove or disprove a point in a legal case. ## Footnote Evidence can include documents, witness testimony, and physical items.
30
What are the three types of federal courts?
* District Courts * Courts of Appeals * Supreme Court ## Footnote These courts handle federal cases and appeals.
31
How does a traffic infraction proceed through the court system?
A traffic infraction typically begins with a citation, followed by possible court appearances and a determination of guilt or innocence. ## Footnote The process may involve plea deals or trials depending on the circumstances.
32
What is the difference between a grand jury hearing and a preliminary hearing?
A grand jury hearing determines whether there is enough evidence for an indictment, while a preliminary hearing assesses if there is enough evidence to proceed to trial. ## Footnote Grand jury proceedings are usually secret, whereas preliminary hearings are public.
33
What is the burden of proof at an infraction trial?
The burden of proof is on the State to prove the infraction by a preponderance of the evidence. ## Footnote This means the evidence must show that it is more likely than not that the infraction occurred.
34
What is the burden of proof at a felony trial?
The burden of proof is on the prosecution to prove the defendant's guilt beyond a reasonable doubt. ## Footnote This is a higher standard than in civil cases.
35
What is the difference between a jury trial and a bench trial?
A jury trial is decided by a group of jurors, while a bench trial is decided by a judge alone. ## Footnote The choice between the two may depend on the case and the preferences of the parties involved.
36
What is hearsay?
Hearsay is an out-of-court statement offered to prove the truth of the matter asserted. ## Footnote Hearsay is generally inadmissible in court unless it falls under an exception.
37
What does 'reasonable suspicion' mean?
Reasonable suspicion is a standard used to justify temporary detentions based on specific and articulable facts. ## Footnote It is a lower standard than probable cause.
38
What is 'probable cause'?
Probable cause exists when facts and circumstances are sufficient to warrant a prudent person in believing that a crime has been committed. ## Footnote This standard is necessary for obtaining search and arrest warrants.
39
What is 'preponderance of the evidence'?
Preponderance of the evidence means that the evidence shows that something is more likely true than not. ## Footnote This is the standard used in civil cases.
40
What does 'clear and convincing evidence' mean?
Clear and convincing evidence is a higher standard than preponderance but lower than beyond a reasonable doubt. ## Footnote It requires a high probability that the claim is true.
41
What is the presumption of innocence?
A defendant is presumed innocent until proven guilty. ## Footnote This principle is fundamental to the criminal justice system.
42
What is the role of the magistrate in the warrant process?
The magistrate reviews the affidavit and determines if there is probable cause to issue a warrant. ## Footnote The magistrate relies on the officer's training and experience.
43
What must be included in a search warrant application?
* Probable cause * Description of person or property to be seized * Description of the place to be searched ## Footnote These elements ensure the warrant is specific and lawful.
44
What is the importance of the particularity requirement in warrants?
The particularity requirement prevents general searches and protects individual rights. ## Footnote This requirement ensures that searches are limited to specific areas and items.
45
What is the standard for probable cause under the 4th Amendment?
A fair probability that contraband or evidence of a crime will be found in a particular place. ## Footnote This is based on the totality of the circumstances set forth in the affidavit before the magistrate.
46
What is the reasonable suspicion standard?
A burden of proof standard lower than probable cause that allows for temporary investigative detention. ## Footnote Established in Terry v. Ohio (1968).
47
What constitutes reasonable suspicion?
Information sufficient to cause an officer to reasonably believe a person is involved in criminal activity. ## Footnote Must be more than a mere hunch.
48
What is the relationship between a hunch and reasonable suspicion?
A hunch is not sufficient; reasonable suspicion must be based on articulable facts describing suspicious behavior. ## Footnote A hunch may lead to an investigation but cannot justify a 4th Amendment intrusion.
49
What does 'totality of the circumstances' mean in the context of reasonable suspicion?
All relevant factors must be considered, even those that might seem innocuous in isolation. ## Footnote The suspect's conduct does not need to be unlawful.
50
What is the definition of probable cause according to the U.S. Supreme Court?
Facts and circumstances that warrant a person of reasonable caution to believe that an offense has been or is being committed. ## Footnote Applies to both arrests and searches.
51
What is the preponderance of the evidence standard?
Evidence that is more likely than not to favor the plaintiff's outcome. ## Footnote Requires at least 51 percent of the evidence.
52
How does preponderance of the evidence apply in criminal cases?
Used in contexts like Miranda rights and consent searches to establish burdens of proof. ## Footnote The State must prove voluntary waiver and consent by a preponderance.
53
What is the clear and convincing evidence standard?
A heightened standard of proof requiring evidence that is highly probable or reasonably certain. ## Footnote Used in cases like termination of parental rights.
54
What is the highest standard of proof in any trial?
Beyond a reasonable doubt. ## Footnote Must be met by the prosecution in criminal cases.
55
What is the presumption of innocence?
The defendant is presumed innocent until proven guilty. ## Footnote The State has the burden of proving guilt throughout the trial.
56
What does it mean to prove something beyond a reasonable doubt?
Proof that leaves jurors firmly convinced of the defendant's guilt, not requiring proof beyond all possible doubt. ## Footnote Doubts must be reasonable and based on evidence.
57
What are the stages of the burden of proof in a trial?
The party with the burden presents first, and if their evidence is insufficient, they lose. If persuasive, the burden shifts to the other party. ## Footnote This process continues until a conclusion is drawn based on the evidentiary standard.
58
What is the range of the evidentiary standard?
From a mere preponderance to beyond a reasonable doubt ## Footnote Preponderance means just over 50 percent, while beyond a reasonable doubt implies a high degree of moral certainty.
59
What determines if a party prevails under the evidentiary standard?
If the evidence persuades the fact finder to believe the party with the legal burden of proof is correct ## Footnote The opposing party prevails if the evidence does not meet this standard.
60
What does the burden of persuasion operate on?
The principle that the party with the legal burden of proof must persuade the fact finder ## Footnote This is crucial in legal proceedings to determine outcomes.
61
Why must an officer understand the required burden of proof?
To appropriately apply the correct burden in relation to the stage of investigation or officer-citizen encounter ## Footnote This understanding is essential to ensure proper legal conduct.
62
What does the complexity of the burden of proof underscore?
The importance of understanding the burden to ensure the right actions are taken for the right reasons ## Footnote Misunderstanding can lead to legal errors in officer conduct.