Examify_Test_Questions Flashcards

(203 cards)

1
Q

What are the three vital components of the reactionary gap?

A

(1) Space
(2) Time
(3) Distance

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2
Q

What is the area required for an officer or individual to react effectively to a potential threat?

A

The Reactionary Gap

(1) Space
(2) Time
(3) Distance

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3
Q

The physical area between an officer and a potential aggressor, providing room to maneuver or retreat

A

Space

‘The Reactionary Gap’

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4
Q

The available duration an officer has to assess a situation and decide on the appropriate action—whether to engage, retreat, or employ an alternative response

A

Time

‘The Reactionary Gap’

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5
Q

What is closely related to space but emphasizes the measurement between the officer and the threat, allowing for effective tactical movement and decision-making

A

Distance

‘The Reactionary Gap’

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6
Q

Ethyl Alcohol is classified as what?

A

CNS Depressant

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7
Q

Characterized by the absence of any coercive influence exerted by the officer. In such encounters, individuals are free to leave at any time, and they are not required to answer questions or provide identification

A

Voluntary or Consensual Encounter

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8
Q

Stands in contrast to other types of encounters, which have specific legal thresholds that must be met for officers to justify their actions

A

Voluntary or Consensual Encounter

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9
Q

True/False - Temporary detention, arrest, and search and seizure all involve varying degrees of legal justification or evidentiary requirements.

A

True

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10
Q

True/False - In a temporary detention, for instance, officers must have reasonable suspicion that a person is involved in criminal activity

A

True

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11
Q

What characterizes a power-reassurance rapist?

A

Premeditated and ritualistic with a need to reassure masculinity

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12
Q

The characterization of a Power-Reassurance rapist is marked by behavior that is _________ and ___________

A

Premeditated and Ritualistic

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13
Q

This type of rapist typically seeks to gain a sense of control and domination over their victim while simultaneously addressing their own insecurities about masculinity

A

Power-Reassurance Rapist

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14
Q

This type of rapist often involves planning and might include specific methods that align with their psychological needs

A

Power-Reassurance Rapist

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15
Q

True/False - Alcohol consumption is a ‘Status Offense’.

A

False

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16
Q

True/False - curfew violations or running away from home are considered ‘Status Offenses’ for minors

A

True

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17
Q

What is defined as a status offense?

A

A behavior illegal strictly based on the age of the individual

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18
Q

These offenses are not inherently criminal acts; rather, they are violations of laws that apply specifically to minors

A

Status Offense

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19
Q

Truancy, underage drinking, or running away from home are all examples of what?

A

Status Offenses

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20
Q

What are the (3) three most common CNS stimulants?

A

(1) Cocaine
(2) Amphetamines
(3) Methamphetamines

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21
Q

How should a brush be used when applying fingerprint powder?

A

With Light Strokes

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22
Q

What does diminished sound during a shooting typically indicate?

A

Perceptual Distortion Affecting The Officer

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23
Q

What is the minimum safe distance from a suspect armed with an edged weapon?

A

30 to 35 Feet

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24
Q

What type of finger print makes a complete circle near the center of the print?

A

Whorl Prints

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25
Which category of drugs is known to cause muscles to become rigid?
Dissociative Anesthetics
26
What category of drugs include Ketamine?
Dissociative Anesthetics
27
What category of drugs include Phencyclidine (PCP)?
Dissociative Anesthetics
28
What category of drugs primarily interact with the NMDA receptor in the brain leading to altered perceptions, immobility and muscle rigidly?
Dissociative Anesthetics
29
What effect occurs when two drugs both influence an indicator in the same matter?
Additive Effect
30
What is the ‘Additive Effect’?
When effects of two drugs both influence an indicator in the same manner
31
What is activated specifically when a child has been abducted and there is an imminent threat to their safety?
Amber Alert
32
True/False - The urgency of an Amber alert is predicated on the belief that if immediate action is not taken, the child may be at significant risk
True
33
Which rapist typically hangs out in bars and may express anger through sexual behavior?
Anger Retaliatory Rapist
34
What type of rapist exhibits feelings of inadequacy or has past experiences of rejection?
Anger Retaliatory Rapist
35
This subtype of rapist typically frequents bars and similar venues, seeking out opportunities where they can exert control over potential victims, reflecting their underlying rage and desire for retribution
Anger Retaliatory Rapist
36
Which component of bias is related to preconceived negative beliefs about a group?
Prejudices
37
________ encompass strong, often irrational, negative feelings or judgments directed toward individuals based on their membership in a particular group, such as race, gender, ethnicity, or other characteristics
Prejudices
38
_________ often stem from misinformation, socialization, and lack of exposure to the group in question
Prejudices
39
What Constitutional Amendment safeguards individuals from unreasonable searches and seizures, ensuring that law enforcement does not engage in intrusive actions without proper justification
The 4th Amendment
40
The concept of a reasonable expectation of privacy is central to this Amendment
The 4th Amendment
41
What does the term 'discrimination' refer to?
Making distinctions based on a group Affiliation
42
What is best understood as making distinctions based on group affiliation
Discrimination
43
True/False - “Discrimination’ is best understood as making distinctions based on group affiliation
True
44
This can involve treating individuals differently based solely on their membership in a particular group rather than merit
Discrimination
45
______________ often manifests in various forms, such as racial, gender, or age discrimination, where individuals face unequal treatment or disadvantage due to attributes related to their identity or group
Discrimination
46
What Schedule of drug is ‘Cocaine’?
Schedule II
47
Schedule ______ are substances that have a high potential for abuse, which can lead to severe psychological or physical dependence, but they also have approved medical applications
Schedule II
48
What Schedule of drug is ‘Heroin'
Schedule I
49
Schedule ____ are substances that have no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse
Schedule I
50
What Schedule of drug is ‘LSD”?
Schedule I
51
What drug is known for its hallucinogenic properties and is not recognized for medical use?
LSD
52
What Schedule of drug is ‘Marijuana’?
Schedule I
53
What is rigor mortis?
Stiffening of muscles after death
54
What is postmortem stiffening of the muscles that occurs due to biochemical changes in the body after death
Rigor Mortis
55
True/False - After death the body no longer produces adenosine triphosphate (ATP), which is essential for muscle relaxation
True Leads to Rigor Mortis
56
True/False - Rigor Mortis usually begins within a few hours after death and can last for several days, depending on various factors such as temperature and the physical condition of the deceased
True
57
What is ‘Algor Mortis’?
Cooling of the body after death
58
What is postmortem cooling of the body?
Algor Mortis
59
_____________ involves the drop in body temperature as the metabolic processes cease
Algor Mortis
60
What is the postmortem settling of blood on the body?
Livor Mortis
61
What is the pooling of blood in the body due to gravity after death?
Livor Mortis
62
What is the process of tissue decay after death called?
Decomposition
63
True/False - Loss of coordination is a general indicator of hallucinogen use
True
64
What are known to alter perceptions and enhance sensory experiences
Hallucinogens
65
True/False - heightened senses stands out as the most direct and relevant indicator of hallucinogen use
True
66
What term is defined as the tactical approach that concentrates on specific problem areas
Directed Enforcement
67
This strategy involves focused policing efforts directed at specific locations or types of crimes that have been identified as problematic
Directed Enforcement
68
This strategy refers generally to efforts aimed at preventing crime before it occurs, without necessarily targeting specific areas
Preventative Enforcement
69
What is a philosophy that encourages police to anticipate and prevent crime through community engagement and partnerships, rather than focusing on specific criminal hotspots
Proactive Policing
70
True/False - The one leg stand test specifically evaluates an individual's ability to maintain balance and coordination
True
71
What type of rapist uses a moderate level of force and feels entitled to dominance?
Power Assertive Rapist
72
This type of rapist is often motivated by a desire to assert their power and authority, viewing the act as a means of reinforcing their dominance rather than solely from anger or sexual gratification
Power Assertive Rapist
73
What type of rapist may believe that the victim's compliance is a reflection of their power and control, which is a central aspect of their behavior?
Power Assertive Rapist
74
Who is typically involved in the membership structure of a gang?
Members and Initiates
75
What are the main components of bias?
(1) Stereotypes (2) Prejudices (3) Attitudes
76
What are oversimplified beliefs about a group, often generalized and applied to all individuals within that group
Stereotypes
77
________ refer to preconceived opinions or judgments about someone based on their perceived group affiliation, which can lead to discrimination
Prejudices
78
________ are the settled ways of thinking or feeling about someone or something, which can be influenced by stereotypes and prejudices
Attitudes
79
_________ __________ refers to the mental processes that occur quickly and without conscious deliberation
Automatic Thinking
80
How soon after death can lividity be present?
In as little as 30 minutes
81
What refers to the gravitational pooling of blood in the body after death, leading to a purplish-red discoloration of the skin in certain areas?
Lividity
82
As time progresses ________ becomes more pronounced and fixed, making it an important factor in determining the time of death during an investigation
Lividity
83
What does the term "time" refer to in law enforcement?
The period an officer has to manage cues and stimuli
84
What is the period an officer has to manage cues and stimuli?
Time
85
What are the priorities of life when performing a water rescue?
(1) Officers (2) Innocents (3) Victims (4) Property
86
What is the primary source of income for gangs?
Narcotics
87
What type of drug is ‘Benzodiazepines’?
CNS Depressant
88
What type of drug are ‘Barbiturates’?
CNS Depressant
89
What type of drug is ‘Alcohol’?
CNS Depressant
90
What type of drug has sedation effect that results from these substances frequently leads to a state of drowsiness, lethargy, or fatigue
CNS Depressant
91
What type of drug will show signs of ‘Wakefulness’?
CNS Stimulants
92
What type of Drug will show signs of. ‘Drowsiness’?
CNS Depressants
93
What type of drug will show signs of ‘Lethargy’?
CNS Depressants
94
What type of drug will show signs of ‘Fatigue’?
CNS Depressants
95
What type of drug will show signs of ‘Rapid Speech’?
CNS Stimulant
96
What type of drug will show signs of ‘Heightened Reflexes’?
CNS Stimulant
97
True/False - CNS depressants result in reduced activity and sedation
True
98
True/False - CNS Stimulants elevate alertness, energy levels, and can lead to an increase in heart rate and activity
True
99
What perimeter acts as a barrier to restrict access by unauthorized individuals, thus protecting the scene from contamination and preserving the integrity of collected evidence
Outer Perimeter
100
What perimeter is established to restrict access to the immediate area where the crime occurred?
Inner Perimeter
101
This area allows for careful examination and processing by investigators and forensic teams without interference
Inner Perimeter
102
How soon after death can rigor mortis appear?
Within 2 hours
103
A good communicator who influences others is a?
Statesman
104
True/False - It is possible to determine when a latent print was deposited on a surface
False
105
What is the leading cause of sudden death?
Hear Disease
106
What are the three major factors identified by the Below 100 initiative?
(1) Ballistic Vests (2) Speed (3) Seat Belts
107
How many judges serve on the Idaho Court of Appeals?
(4) Four One Chief and Three Associate Judges
108
What is the punishment for solicitation compared to the completed crime?
The Same as attempt, generally half the sentence for the completed crime
109
What are the basic components of a crime scene sketch?
Heading Diagram Area Legend Title Block
110
Beliefs that a person holds true are?
Values
111
What is a potential effect of using anesthetic gases?
Nausea and Disorientation
112
What type of rapist gains pleasure for torturing victims?
Anger Excitation Rapist
113
What type of rapist is characterized by a desire to inflict suffering upon their victims as a source of pleasure
Anger Excitation Rapist
114
What type of surface allows for some liquid penetration but not entirely?
Semi Porous
115
What type of surfaces do not allow any penetration of liquids, as they are solid and impervious
Non-Porous
116
What type of surfaces allow for full liquid penetration through numerous pores, leading to complete absorption
Porous
117
What feeling may someone experience when under the influence of hallucinogens?
Paranoia
118
What kind of drugs alter a person's perception of reality, often leading to distorted thoughts?
Hallucinogens
119
What refers to the settling of blood in the body after death, which results in a purplish-red discoloration of the skin in the areas closest to the ground due to gravity?
Livor Mortis
120
How soon can Livor Mortis start?
20 minutes - a few hours after death
121
What effect do narcotic analgesics typically have on the user?
Relieve Pain and Produce Sedation
122
What type of drugs relieve pain and produce sedation?
Narcotic Analgesics
123
True/False - Impaired dived attention is associated with cannabis use?
True
124
What is the maximum amount of time a juvenile can be held in an adult facility?
6 hours
125
What order does evidence collection typically follow after identifying the scene?
Documenting, Searching, Collecting
126
What is considered the most basic aspect of crime scene processing?
Observing
127
True/False - PCP and Ketamine are the two main types of ‘Dissociative Anesthetics'
True
128
What are the (2) Main Type of ‘Dissociative Anesthetics’?
(1) PCP (2) Ketamine
129
True/False - All out-of-state vehicles must submit to a VIN inspection when being registered in Idaho for the first time
True
130
What strategy is primarily utilized for officer visibility and community interaction?
Preventative Patrol
131
What can cause a dry mouth as an indicator?
Narcotic Analgesics
132
What is a common eye indicator of someone under the influence of Narcotic Analgesics?
Eyelids Droopy
133
What type of surface is leather?
Semi-porous
134
What percentage of focus does the cover officer maintain on the contact during a law enforcement scenario?
20%
135
Which type of courts deal with matters below $10,000 in civil disputes?
Magistrate Courts
136
True/False - Increased heart rate is a psychophysical indicator of hallucinogen use
False
137
What are the (2) stages of the one leg stand test?
(1) Instruction Stage (2) Counting Stage
138
True/False - Juvenile offenders must be transported separately from adult offenders
True
139
True/False - Family and media are normally allowed in the outer perimeter of a crime scene, but not the inner perimeter
False
140
The walk and turn test consists of how many clues or decision points?
8
141
What is the first clue of the Walk and Turn Test?
1. Starting before the instructions are completed
142
What is the second clue of the Walk and Turn Test?
2. Stopping while walking
143
What is the third clue of the Walk and Turn Test?
3. Not touching heel-to-toe
144
What is the fourth clue of the Walk and Turn Test?
4. Stepping off the line
145
What is the fifth clue of the Walk and Turn Test?
5. Using arms for balance
146
What is the sixth clue of the Walk and Turn Test?
6. Making an improper turn
147
What is the seventh clue of the Walk and Turn Test?
7. Wrong number of steps taken
148
What is the eighth clue of the Walk and Turn Test?
8. Inability to balance during the test
149
What are the 8 clues of the Walk and Turn Test?
1. Starting before the instructions are completed. 2. Stopping while walking. 3. Not touching heel-to-toe. 4. Stepping off the line. 5. Using arms for balance. 6. Making an improper turn. 7. Wrong number of steps taken. 8. Inability to balance during the test.
150
In the one leg stand test, what is the first stage called?
Instruction Stage
151
How can an officer demonstrate sound decision-making as per the ACT model?
152
rapid, involuntary eye movements, is a well-documented physiological response associated with the use of dissociative anesthetics, such as PCP (phencyclidine) and Ketamine
Nystagmus
153
True/False - The role of a cover officer predominantly focuses on assessing the surroundings during a law enforcement contact
True
154
True/False - Euphoria and anxiety are a general indicator of a CNS stimulant
True
155
What type of racism is - Internalized, unexpressed biases and prejudices based on race
Individual Racism
156
What is meant by the overlapping effect in drug interaction?
One drug has an effect while another does not
157
What responsibilities are handled by the magistrate court?
Infractions Misdemeanors Juvenile Cases Family Law Small Claims
158
How many types of burglaries are there based on the timing of the crime?
3 Daytime Burglaries Nighttime Burglaries Commercial Burglaries
159
What is the most common CNS depressant?
Alcohol
160
What enforcement strategy focuses on preventing crime through visible presence?
Preventative Patrol
161
What is the unlawful confinement of an individual, where that individual is held against their will under certain conditions set by the captor
Hostage Situation
162
What is a primary goal of an officer in a civil dispute?
To safeguard persons and property
163
What is a key responsibility of the court of appeals in Idaho?
To hear appeals from district courts assigned to them by the supreme court
164
What are criminal offenses that are incomplete or not fully realized, but still represent a step towards committing a more serious crime
Inchoate Crimes
165
What are the (3) main Inchoate Crimes?
(1) Conspiracy
166
What schedule of drug is ‘Anabolic Steriods’?
Schedule III
167
True/False - Cyclic behavior is usaully seen by those under the influence of dissociative anesthetics?
True
168
What is sharp force trauma?
Cutting of Tissue
169
What type of dependence is associated with the abuse of Schedule III drugs?
Moderate to low physical dependence and/or high psychological dependence
170
What is the first step to preserve and protect a crime scene?
Secure the Scene
171
True/False - facial itching is a general sign that someone is on the ‘nod'
True
172
What is a common eye indicator of someone under the influence of dissociative anesthetics?
Normal Pupil size
173
True/False - Benadryl is considered to be a barbiturate
False
174
True/False - Strangulation and asphyxia are the same thing
False
175
True/False - Being part of a status offense means a juvenile has been accused of a crime
False
176
What percentage of latent prints found at a crime scene are estimated to be palm prints?
10% to 30%
177
How is institutional racism best described?
Discriminatory policies and treatment from institutions
178
What is a common street name for PCP?
Dust
179
What are the three types of blunt force traumas?
Abrasions, contusions, lacerations
180
More likely than not - referring to evidence
Preponderance of Evidence
181
What physical response is commonly observed in someone using dissociative anesthetics?
Slurred Speech
182
True/False - A career in law enforcement is statistically more likely to end with an ethical violation than an officer being killed in duty
True
183
True/False - Delinquent offenses are automatically classified as status offenses
False
184
Flaccid muscle tone may result from which category of drugs?
Narcotic Analgesics
185
In terms of drug interaction, what does the additive effect refer to?
Both drugs independently enhance a particular impairment
186
Which three conditions make evidence admissible?
The evidence is… Relevant Competent Legally Obtained
187
What is the numerical identifier for the Surenos gang?
13
188
What type of rapist is characterized by a sadist who inflicts pain to dominate?
Anger Excitation Rapist
189
What characterizes an antagonistic effect in drug interactions?
One drug's effect opposes the other's
190
What defines a delinquent offender?
A juvenile who has committed a crime
191
True/False - Discrimination is based on Race, gender, age, religion, or sexual orientation
True
192
True/False - Paint thinner is an aerosol
False
193
What is defined as products that disperse liquid substances into the air in fine droplets, typically through a propellant system within a pressurized can
Aerosols
194
What element of the OODA loop follows the 'Observe' step?
Orient
195
What type of rapist is described as having sexually aggressive fantasies and often carries a rape kit?
Anger Excitation Rapist
196
What is characteristic of a tangential gunshot wound?
Projectile skims the skin, causing shallow wounds
197
What are the decision points for the one leg stand test?
4
198
When does lividity typically become fixed?
Within 8 hours of death
199
What does the 21-foot "rule" demonstrate regarding distances in threats?
distance a suspect have cover while an officer responds
200
What effect do narcotic analgesics have on mood?
Induced Euphoria
201
A code of values that guides choices and actions
Morals
202
Universally held values that never change
Principles
203