ALL SAQ Block 1 Flashcards
1
Q
What type of meter uses Bernoulli’s principle to calculate flow based on pressure differences?
A
Orifice or Venturi Meter
2
Q
What type of meter measures gas flow by using the velocity of the fluid?
A
Turbine Flow Meter
3
Q
What level of accuracy can be expected when using the orifice flow formula in the field with careful measurement?
A
±3%
4
Q
According to Boyle’s law, what happens to the energy in a gas if the gas is compressed?
A
The energy in a smaller volume is more than 1000 btu
5
Q
What is the purpose of a Temperature Compensated (TC) meter?
A
To correct the flow rate for temperature fluctuations
6
Q
What is the primary function of a gas meter?
A
Measure the volume of fuel gases like natural gas
7
Q
What is the range of the K factor (coefficient of discharge) for most orifices?
A
0.6 to 0.9
8
Q
The Annubar is a type of:
A
Averaging Pitot Tube
9
Q
How is the area of an orifice typically related to its geometry?
A
It is calculated from the diameter of the orifice
10
Q
Why is the pressure drop across the orifice plate more reliable at higher flow rates (high fire)
A
The pressure drop is more pronounced at higher flows
11
Q
What constant is used in the orifice flow formula to align units, viscosity, and time?
A
1658.5
12
Q
Which type of orifice tap is commonly used for pipe sizes 2 inches (50 mm) and larger?
A
Flange taps
13
Q
Rotary meters often use two counter-rotating parts known as:
A
Lobes or impellers
14
Q
What is the purpose of an Instrument Drive (ID) meter in gas flow measurement?
A
To allow the connection of external instrumentation for pressure and temperature corrections
15
Q
What happens to the pressure when a flow condition is established in a system with an orifice plate installed?
A
A pressure drop occurs across the orifice
16
Q
What is the disadvantage of using vena contracta taps in large pipe installations?
A
The need to drill through the pipe wall
17
Q
The calorific value of natural gas listed in the B149.1 under standard conditions is:
A
1000
18
Q
What type of meter physically measures the quantity of gas by dividing it into fixed volumes?
A
Positive Displacement Meter
19
Q
In a rotary meter, what determines the amount of gas that passes through the meter?
A
The rotational speed of the lobes
20
Q
Which of the following is an example of a positive displacement meter?
A
Diaphragm (Bellows) Meter
21
Q
Pressure compensation in the clocking formula is applied when meter pressure exceeds which value?
A
.5 psi
22
Q
Which orifice plate design is commonly used for gas pressure measurement?
A
Square-edge, concentric design
23
Q
What is the main purpose of ensuring the correct installation of an orifice plate with the label on the upstream side?
A
To ensure proper flow restriction and pressure drop
24
Q
In the clocking formula, when is temperature correction most significant?
A
When temperature difference (∆T) is 80℉
25
What principle is used to calculate flow rate when using an orifice plate?
Bernoulli's Principle
26
Which of the following meters uses sound waves to measure gas flow?
Ultrasonic Flow Meter
27
What standard pressure is used for gas measurement calculations, according to B149.1?
14.7
28
What is the primary function of an orifice plate in a flow measurement system?
To create a pressure drop for calculating flow rate
29
What does the "t" represent in the clocking formula for determining burner input when clocking a gas meter?
Time in seconds per rotation of the test dial
30
What is the typical MAOP (Maximum Allowable Operating Pressure) range for bellows meters used in residential and light commercial applications?
10 to 25 psig
31
Which type of meter uses piezoelectric sensors to detect pressure oscillations caused by flow disturbances?
Vortex Flow Meter
32
What does the term “K Factor” in an orifice flow calculation represent?
The coefficient of discharge
33
What does "ACFM" stand for in the context of gas flow meters?
Actual Cubic Feet per Minute
34
What does "Custody Transfer" refer to in gas metering?
The point where gas is transferred from one location to another
35
What type of tap is used for smaller pipes (less than 2 inches in diameter)?
corner taps
36
The B149.1 reference lists the standard temperature for fuel gas measurements as:
60
37
What is a key characteristic of a rotary gas meter?
It is ideal for high-pressure, high-volume applications
38
Where are the upstream and downstream taps typically located for larger pipe with flange taps?
2.5 pipe diameters upstream and 8 pipe diameters downstream
39
When applying both pressure and temperature correction in the clocking formula, what should be ensured about the test dial volume?
It should be non-compensated
40
What is the turndown ratio of a typical bellows gas meter?
100:1
41
What is the importance of converting gas flow rate to standard conditions (SCFM)?
To account for variations in temperature and pressure
42
What must happen if a provincial safety manager finds a registered automated control system design to be defective?
The design must be revised, and installation or use halted until the revisions are approved
43
In the case of a boiler fuel system, what information must be submitted to the provincial safety manager upon request?
Schematic drawings and logic data of the fuel system
44
What must happen before a non-certified gas appliance can be placed into operation?
It must have a label or mark as detailed in section 31 of the Gas Safety Regulations
45
What is included in the design registration process for automated control systems according to Regulation 84.1?
Approval from a professional engineer, design specifications, and additional information required by the provincial safety manager
46
Which of the following gas systems require design registration under the Safety Standards Act and Gas Safety Regulation?
Industrial and commercial gas systems using natural gas, propane, and hydrogen
47
Which of the following is a requirement for a gas appliance to be legally sold, installed, or operated in British Columbia?
It must be certified or approved and display a mark or label
48
What is the primary purpose of design registration with Technical Safety BC?
To review and register a design of a regulated product or installation for certain technologies
49
Which document is NOT listed as required for the Commercial/Industrial Gas Equipment Design Registration?
Service manual for appliance maintenance
50
What is a prerequisite to obtaining a Product Approval for an unapproved gas appliance under the CSA B149.3 standard?
Obtaining a design registration with Technical Safety BC
51
What must a gas contractor obtain after registering a gas appliance design in order to allow for a field approval assessment by a gas safety officer?
A product approval and installation permit
52
What type of log must be used to record maintenance on steam boilers?
A dedicated hard-bound logbook
53
What must be done to logbooks used for boiler maintenance?
They must be hard-bound and kept for at least 7 years
54
What kind of training may be required for onsite personnel for system maintenance?
Apprenticeship or Journeyperson training
55
What kind of maintenance training is recommended for steam boiler systems?
Quarterly tuning by a qualified technician
56
What should maintenance records include?
Detailed notes of maintenance activities
57
According to B149.1 4.3.3, what is the installer required to do regarding the manufacturer's instructions for appliances?
Leave them with the user
58
What document must be provided to the owner along with operator training?
As-built diagrams
59
Who is responsible for instructing the user on the safe and correct operation of appliances or equipment installed?
The installer
60
Who is responsible for performing chemical tests related to boiler systems?
The chemical company or trained personnel
61
What is forbidden to be written in logbooks?
Foul and abusive language
62
If the initial notification regarding unsafe gas equipment is verbal, what must be done next?
A written statement must be promptly provided
63
What material is typically used as a special backfill to enhance performance of galvanic anodes?
Bentonite & Gypsum
64
When is an initial survey for cathodic protection required after piping system installation?
Within 12 months
65
What should be done with ancillary equipment when decommissioning an appliance?
Isolate and remove it
66
In impressed current systems, which terminal is connected to the anodes?
Positive terminal
67
Which of the following systems is used to prevent corrosion using low electrical current?
Galvanic anode systems & Impressed current systems
68
According to B149.1 - 6.12.1, how should an outlet be made tight when an appliance is not connected to a piping system?
By means of a plugged valve or a compatible cap or plug
69
What should be done if a pipeline is found to have inadequate cathodic protection?
Apply a new protective coating
70
When an appliance is decommissioned, what must be done with venting and ducting?
Remove and cap them
71
What is the preferred method of inspecting coating application prior to installation in the ditch?
Holiday detection
72
Which section of OCC-1-2013 discusses external protective coatings for buried or submerged piping?
Section 3
73
What should be done to electrical wires during a temporary appliance disconnection?
Cap the wires properly
74
What may be required to avoid site contamination during removal?
A remedial action plan (RAP)
75
Which of the following systems does not require an external power source for cathodic protection?
Galvanic anode systems
76
According to the SOR-99-294, how soon must a company submit a proposed plan if a pipeline's class location changes to a higher designation?
6 months
77
What type of welding is used to connect copper conductors to steel pressure piping?
Thermite welding
78
The first line of defense against corrosion for buried or submerged piping is:
Protective coating
79
What does placing an appliance "out of service" mean?
Physically disconnecting both the gas and electrical connections
80
What regulation is used to establish and implement a process for identifying changes that affect safety, security, or environmental protection?
SOR-99-294
81
What is the primary function of an external protective coating?
Isolate reactive material from electrolytes
82
What frequency is recommended for the inspection and maintenance of all impressed current facilities?
Once per calendar year
83
Records of the operation and maintenance of corrosion control facilities shall be retained according to
OCC-1-2013
84
How often should pipe-to-soil potential surveys be conducted for a short, electrically isolated length of pipe?
Once every 5 years
85
When disconnecting a gas appliance that will not be replaced, which of the following actions is required?
Cap the gas and electrical connections
86
What must be included in an application for deactivation of a pipeline for 12 months or more?
Reasons for deactivation
87
What should be done when a section of piping is found to be susceptible to stress corrosion cracking?
Conduct an examination for SCC
88
What should be done with recyclable materials during the removal process?
Check with a local recycling depot for proper disposal
89
What material is specified in B.C. Gas Safety Regulations 6.15.19 for use as anodes?
Magnesium
90
What is required if a boiler is being replaced but not permanently removed?
Disconnect water/steam connections and blank and lock out the valves
91
Which of the following is not an external direct current source used in impressed current systems?
Capacitors
92
When removing materials during decommissioning, what must be consulted to ensure safe removal?
Safety Data Sheets (SDS)
93
What must be done if a gas-fired appliance is found to be beyond repair or unsafe?
Place the appliance out of service and notify a safety officer
94
What type of protective measure should be taken when testing motors with a Megger?
De-energize the motor
95
What is the importance of discharging capacitance after an insulation resistance test?
To prevent electric shock hazard
96
Which insulation level is considered "Critical" based on Megger test readings?
2 - 5 Megohms
97
Which of the following is a benefit of using a Megger for insulation testing?
Preventing short circuits by verifying insulation quality
98
What is the primary purpose of a Megger?
Test the insulation quality of electrical circuits
99
What is the main cause of most electrical motor failures?
insulation breakdown
100
nsulation breakdown
OL (Open Line)
101
Why is regular insulation testing important in high-voltage systems?
To prevent catastrophic insulation failure
102
Which voltage setting for a Megger is used for insulation testing on low voltage motors (208-600 VAC)?
500v
103
Which of the following is used to prevent reenergization of electrical power systems during testing?
temporary protective grounds
104
Which smoke level is generally considered acceptable for most oil burners?
0-1
105
What is a common misconception about oil-fired appliances and CO production?
They cannot produce CO without visible smoke
106
What is indicated by a yellow tint on the smoke test dot?
Unburned raw fuel escaping the flame
107
Which of the following is NOT a manufacturer of smoke spot test equipment?
Makita
108
How is the smoke test conducted?
By drawing flue gases through a filter paper with a vacuum sampling pump
109
Which type of tester can also produce a smoke level number without the use of a hand-operated pump?
Electronic soot tester
110
What can high levels of soot in the oil burner exhaust lead to?
Reduced heat transfer
111
What does a smoke level of 0 on the Bachrach/Bosch scale indicate?
No black soot visible
112
What is the purpose of a smoke spot test for fuel oil fired heating equipment?
Identify complete combustion
113
What should be done to the smoke tester if it still measures smoke after two atmospheric tests?
Disassemble and clean it with warm water and detergent
114
What is the purpose of the carbon pricing system under the GGPPA?
To place a price on carbon emissions, including methane, and incentivize reductions
115
Which federal agency is responsible for regulating environmental emissions, including methane, in Canada?
Environment and Climate Change Canada (ECCC)
116
What activities in the oil and gas sector are targeted by federal methane emission regulations?
Venting, flaring, and fugitive emissions
117
Which technological requirement might be included in the regulations to reduce methane emissions in the oil and gas sector?
Improved leak detection and repair practices
118
What is the purpose of monitoring and reporting systems in the oil and gas sector regarding methane emissions?
To track and report methane emissions for transparency and accountability
119
How do provincial and territorial carbon pricing systems relate to the federal carbon pricing system?
They can replace the federal system if they meet certain criteria
120
What percentage reduction target has Canada set for its methane emissions by 2025 compared to 2012 levels?
40-45%
121
What is the primary regulation governing methane emissions in Canada?
Federal Greenhouse Gas Pollution Pricing Act (GGPPA)
122
Which of the following sectors has specific federal regulations aimed at reducing methane emissions?
Oil and Gas
123
What year did the Federal Greenhouse Gas Pollution Pricing Act come into effect?
2018
124
What is flue gas recirculation (FGR) used for in combustion processes?
To reduce the production of NOx by lowering flame temperature
125
What is the typical efficiency of SCR in reducing NOx emissions?
90% or more
126
What is the key difference between Selective Catalytic Reduction (SCR) and Selective Non-Catalytic Reduction (SNCR)?
Selected
SCR uses a catalyst, while SNCR does not
127
What is the main chemical reagent used in Selective Non-Catalytic Reduction (SNCR)?
Ammonia
128
How does the SCR process operate to reduce NOx emissions?
By injecting a reductant to react with NOx over a catalyst
129
How do air registers help in reducing CO emissions?
By controlling the amount of air supplied
130
How does photolysis of NO contribute to the formation of VOCs?
By producing ozone, which reacts with hydrocarbons
131
What is the purpose of using the Ultra-Lean Premix method for NOx control?
To minimize NOx formation by maximizing air in the fuel-air mix
132
What are the two principal nitrogen pollutants generated by gas-fired equipment?
NO and NO2
133
What is the major disadvantage of using the SNCR process compared to SCR?
Lower effectiveness in reducing NOx
134
What is the purpose of refractory materials in combustion chambers?
To promote complete combustion and reduce CO
135
What is the primary reason NOx is considered an environmental problem?
It initiates reactions that produce ozone and acid rain
136
What happens when excess air is used in a combustion process?
It reduces CO by forming CO2
137
Which gas is primarily formed during combustion and accounts for about 95% of NOx emissions?
NO
138
Which of the following is a potential downside of using steam injection to control NOx levels?
Reduction in efficiency by 3-10%
139
What is the main environmental impact of VOCs?
They contribute to smog formation and climate change
140
How much NOx reduction can be achieved by using flue gas recirculation?
Up to 50%
141
Which of the following is a major component of smog?
O3
142
What is the role of the burner damper in flue gas recirculation?
To control the flow of recirculated gases
143
Which of the following methods is used to reduce CO emissions by controlling the shape of the flame?
Flame Retention Heads
144
What does the vacuum gauge in the oil supply system measure?
Suction pressure in the supply line
145
Which atomization method requires fewer piping components?
Pressure atomization
146
What ensures proper combustion by atomizing fuel oil?
Oil injection nozzle
147
What does the air filter in the CB-LE model do?
Cleans air supply entering the pump
148
What maintains a constant oil supply pressure in the fuel system?
Oil relief valve
149
What type of atomization requires an air compressor?
Air atomization
150
What is the turndown ratio for pressure atomizing burners?
3:1 to 4:1
151
Which part of the oil system supplies oil from the storage tank to the burner?
Oil supply
152
What does the oil metering valve do?
Regulates the flow of oil to the burner nozzle
153
Which component is optional in smaller oil-fired burners?
Low oil pressure switch
154
Which part starts and stops with the forced draft fan motor in the CB-LE model?
Air pump motor
155
What controls the movement of the metering stem?
Modulating motor through linkage and cam
156
What is the typical turndown ratio for an air atomized burner?
6:1 to 8:1
157
What ensures proper atomization in steam atomizing burners?
Low oil pressure and high steam pressure
158
What is the role of the fuel oil strainer?
Prevent foreign matter from entering the system
159
Which component is used to cool lubricating oil in the atomizing air system?
Lube oil cooling coil
160
Which component mixes atomizing air and oil?
Mixing manifold block
161
What causes a safety shutdown if atomizing media pressure drops below design pressure?
Low-pressure interlock switch
162
What is included in the fuel oil controller?
Oil metering valve, regulator, and gauge
163
What method of atomization is commonly used in small power plants?
Steam atomization
164
What type of safety shutoff valves (SSOVs) are used in oil systems?
Electro-hydraulic actuators
165
What is the oil pressure range for pressure atomizing burners?
100-300 psi
166
What is used to supervise high oil temperature in preheated oil systems?
High oil temperature interlock switch
167
Which component holds a supply of lubricating oil for the air pump?
Air/oil receiver tank
168
What supervises low oil pressure for systems greater than 20 gph?
Low oil pressure interlock switch
169
What component prevents surging back through the pump and air filter?
Check valve
170
What is the main function of the oil heater for heavy oil?
Reduce viscosity for effective atomization
171
What is the purpose of the atomizing air proving switch?
Ensures sufficient atomizing air pressure is present for oil firing
172
What component prevents backflow in the oil supply system?
Check valve
173
What controls oil flow to meet load demands?
Oil modulating cam
174
What is the primary purpose of using a gasket between the burner and the combustion chamber?
To ensure a proper seal and prevent air leakage
175
What is required for industrial and commercial gas systems to comply with regulations?
The design registration process
176
What is recommended to reduce stresses and strains on the burner due to piping
Use flexible connections in all piping
177
What is the first step when installing an ICI burner?
Follow the manufacturer's instructions and specifications
178
When installing wiring for the burner, what must it be compatible with?
Burner nameplate ratings and the Canadian Electrical Code
179
In what type of wall installation is a burner block sleeve typically required?
Soft wall
180
Which material is recommended for making a gasket if an OEM gasket is unavailable?
Rope or fiber gasket material
181
What must be obtained for a non-certified gas appliance before it can be operated?
A gas appliance approval label or mark
182
What should be done after tightening the burner bolts for the first time?
Retighten all bolts after the first firing and regularly during commissioning
183
What material should be used to pack the remaining space around a refractory block in a soft wall installation?
Ceramic fiber insulation
184
When is ducting for air heaters typically unnecessary?
For make-up air heaters
185
What is a common characteristic of atmospheric generator installation?
Wiring and controls are installed in operation control rooms.
186
How do industrial furnaces differ from domestic furnaces?
They mix fuel with air or oxygen for industrial processes.
187
What is a key purpose of vibration isolation for ICI air heaters?
Prevent damage from vibration transmission
188
What is typically required when installing a rotary dryer
Vibration isolation hoses
189
Why are filters in a DFMAU typically installed at an angle?
To optimize airflow volume
190
What determines ducting placement for heating or cooling?
Ceiling or floor placement of vents
191
Which vibration isolation method is ideal for low-frequency and highly damped vibration?
Wire rope isolators
192
What document outlines seismic restraint requirements in Canada?
Canadian Standards Association (CSA) Standard S832
193
Which humidification system uses ionic beds to absorb solids from water?
Gas-fired humidifiers
194
What is the main purpose of a neutralizing tank in condensate treatment?
Adjusting pH levels
195
What is typically included in the material list for installation?
Mounting brackets, gas piping, and electrical supplies
196
Which of the following is a typical example of a heat exchanger?
Indirect make-up air unit
197
Which type of dryer is commonly used for food processing?
Tray dryer
198
What type of humidifier works by air passing over media with water trickling down?
Evaporative humidifier
199
Which type of mount is most economical for medium-weight equipment?
Vibration isolation pad mounts
200
What type of system is typically installed in a direct-fired kiln?
Control systems for temperature and airflow
201
Why is a drip tray used in fog humidification systems?
To catch water droplets before they enter the air stream
202
What is the primary purpose of atmospheric generators in heat treating?
To minimize oxidation or decarburization of materials
203
What method does an electric steam humidifier use to generate steam?
Electrode or resistance heating
204
What is a critical consideration when installing a makeup air heater?
Adequate structural support
205
What should be adjusted to balance the airflow in a ductwork system?
Dampers
206
What must you verify on the rating plate during shipment inspection?
Electric and fuel type requirements
207
Which of the following must always be followed during installation, besides the manufacturer’s specifications?
Local and national codes
208
What control ensures air is moving over dispersion tubes in a humidifier system?
Sail switch
209
What is the primary resource to consult when installing gas-fired appliances?
Manufacturer's documentation
210
What is typically controlled in a spray booth using a PLC?
Circulation and exhaust fan speeds
211
Air dryers are primarily designed to:
Remove moisture from products and materials
212
What is a primary requirement for seismic restraint systems?
Compliance with CSA Standard S832
213
What is a high limit sensor's function in a humidification system?
To prevent exceeding maximum humidity levels
214
What additional equipment is likely installed with industrial furnaces?
Electrical wiring and controls
215
What type of kiln uses steam to heat the kiln’s atmosphere?
Conventional kiln
216
What is a common maintenance concern for steam-to-steam humidifiers?
Cleaning due to water impurities
217
What type of filtration is commonly used in a DFMAU?
Bird/leaf screen and particulate filters
218
Which type of humidifier uses a heat exchanger to separate boiler steam from the air stream?
Steam-to-steam humidifier
219
Which of the following is NOT a type of ICI air heater?
Boilers
220
Which component prevents airflow loss when installing a humidifier?
Airflow proving switch
221
What is required for seismic restraint installation in Canada?
Installation by a qualified person
222
What is essential before balancing a ductwork system?
Sealing and insulating ducts
223
What material is often used for vibration isolation pad mounts?
Rubber or dense foam
224
Which type of mount is recommended for vibration isolation in rooftop equipment?
Roof-mounted isolators
225
Which type of vibration isolation is commonly used for roof-mounted air handlers?
Roof-mounted vibration isolators
226
What is a primary benefit of gas-fired steam humidifiers?
Does not use electricity for heating
227
Which control system component is necessary for balancing ductwork?
Dampers
228
What is a key feature of an indirect-fired kiln?
A heat exchanger separates combustion gases from kiln air.
229
What is the main purpose of a flexible duct connector?
Provide vibration isolation between ductwork and equipment
230
What type of burner is commonly used in powder coating booths?
Direct-fired line burner
231
What is a key component of a fog humidification system?
High-pressure pumps
232
What are the two stages of a vehicle spray booth?
Spray stage and baking stage
233
What is the first step in installing an ICI air heating appliance?
Determine the appropriate location
234
What type of humidifier requires treated water due to potential impurities?
Electric steam humidifier (electrode type)
235
What ensures the gas pressure is within the required range?
Gas pressure regulator
236
What should be considered when installing air and gas piping for a furnace?
Proper supports and flexible connectors
237
What is the role of a humidistat in a humidification system?
It controls the humidity level based on a set point.
238
What distinguishes the installation of indirect-fired makeup air heaters?
They require a flue vent for heat exchanger flue passages.
239
What tool is used to measure airflow during ductwork balancing?
Airflow meter
240
What is a primary purpose of insulation in condensate management systems?
To maintain the temperature above the dew point
241
What type of humidifier is suitable for non-ducted applications?
Evaporative humidifier
242
What is the primary purpose of a direct-fired makeup air heater?
To provide tempered air to replenish exhausted air
243
What type of vent placement is most effective for heating?
Floor vents
