ALL SAQ Block 2 Flashcards
1
Q
Who is typically present during an internal waterside inspection?
A
The water treatment specialist and the owner/operator
2
Q
What is the primary consequence of scale formation in firetube boilers?
A
Overheating of boiler metal
3
Q
What issue can extreme scale buildup cause in watertube boilers, particularly in coil tube designs?
A
Impeded water flow
4
Q
What should be done if the refractory liner in the furnace shows signs of deterioration?
A
Perform a full replacement if necessary, following the manufacturer’s instructions
5
Q
What should be done after cleaning the waterside of a boiler?
A
Replace all waterside handhole and manhole gaskets
6
Q
What is a sign of combustion issues on the fireside of a firetube boiler?
A
Flame impingement and soot deposits
7
Q
What should be done if deposits are not fully removed by flushing during an inspection?
A
Consult the boiler manufacturer’s authorized representative
8
Q
What should be done before entering a boiler for inspection?
A
Notify operators and workers
Lockout/tagout online valves
Test oxygen levels and ensure proper ventilation
9
Q
What is the main cause of deterioration in the pressure vessel?
A
Improper water treatment
10
Q
What should be checked during an external boiler inspection?
A
Piping connections for leaks
Signs of flue gas condensation
Painted surfaces for gasket failures
11
Q
What is a proper procedure when performing a pop test on a safety valve?
A
Allow the valve to open and reseat under normal service conditions
12
Q
Why should a boiler be cooled gradually during shutdown?
A
To avoid damaging temperature differentials and harmful stresses
13
Q
What is the preferred method for long-term boiler storage?
A
Dry layup with complete drainage and ventilation
14
Q
What is the maximum amount of time between an internal inspection for steam boilers?
A
Every 2 years
15
Q
How often should the pressure vessel waterside be inspected after the initial three-month inspection?
A
Every 6, 9, or 12 months depending on conditions
16
Q
Who is responsible for ensuring a boiler is maintained and inspected?
A
The equipment owner and operator
17
Q
What is a sign of active oxygen corrosion?
A
Black iron oxide or shiny metal under a reddish-brown cap
18
Q
In extreme cases, what method may be necessary to remove scale buildup?
A
Acid cleaning
19
Q
What is the primary reason for maintaining a boiler on a regular schedule?
A
To maintain boiler safety and efficiency
20
Q
What is the recommended action after inspecting the low water cut-off (LWCO) head(s)?
A
Remove all sludge and scale
21
Q
What is a key function of a boiler inspection?
A
To provide assurance of equipment integrity and minimize safety issues
22
Q
Why should serviced safety valves not be stored on shelves for long periods?
A
The serviced date is time-sensitive
23
Q
Where is scaling most likely to be observed in a boiler system?
A
At the point where feedwater enters the boiler
24
Q
What does excessive sludge deposit in a firetube boiler indicate?
A
Hard water intrusion or insufficient bottom blowdown
25
What should be checked when installing gaskets and sealing materials?
Ensure proper alignment and smooth application of the pulp layer
26
What should be checked for signs of wear, imbalance, or damage that could affect airflow in gas-fired appliances?
Fans
27
What is the objective of performing diagnostics during the maintenance of gas-fired appliances?
To ensure proper functioning and identify potential issues
28
Which of the following should be verified to ensure the electrical components are operating properly?
Measure voltage and current levels
29
What should be done to detect excessive vibration that may indicate misalignment or mechanical issues?
Use vibration monitoring tools
30
What should be inspected regularly for cracks, corrosion, or other signs of damage in gas-fired appliances?
Heat Exchanger
31
What should be done with consumable parts that are not serviceable?
Replace them at each maintenance interval
32
What should be done to ensure proper exhaust of combustion gases in the venting system?
Verify the vent termination is clear and free from blockages
33
What is the purpose of following the manufacturer's documentation during maintenance?
To ensure compliance with detailed diagnostic procedures and troubleshooting guidelines
34
Which component should be cleaned to remove dirt, dust, and debris that could affect performance in gas-fired appliances?
Burner
35
What should be done to maintain a comprehensive record of the system’s condition during diagnostics?
Document all measurements, observations, and adjustments
36
What should be done if the regulator is installed upside down or horizontally?
Readjust the regulator
37
What should be done if a safety shutoff valve continues to exceed allowable leakage limits after retesting?
Remove the valve from service
38
What parts are typically NOT included in OEM rebuild kits for lever action regulators?
Lever or linkage sets
39
What is the maximum allowable leakage during a safety shutoff valve leak test?
15 bubbles per minute
40
What does a combustion air pressure switch ensure?
Proper combustion air flow before ignition
41
What is an indication that a combustion air pressure switch is faulty?
The switch has visible corrosion
42
Which manual should be referred to for the repair and maintenance of the Fisher LS200 Regulator?
Fisher LS200 Regulator Manual
43
What should be done if the air switch tests okay but the equipment is still not working correctly?
Jumper the air switch to see if the problem goes away
44
How often should motor bearings be greased?
Based on the motor load, run time, and ambient temperature
45
What is a good practice after installing a new motor bearing?
Test the motor without a load for any issues
46
What is the standard slope required for a sensing line to drain correctly?
1/4 inch per foot
47
What type of test is used to check for imbalances or misalignments for an electric motor?
Vibration test
48
What is the maximum recommended interval for parts replacement on larger regulators as per Fisher's recommendations?
10 years
49
What should be done before adding oil to bearings and linkage joints?
Ensure they are clean
50
What is one of the top causes of motor failure?
Bearing failure
51
What should be done if the sealant injection system is blocked within a lubricated plug valve?
Use valve purge compound to remove the blockage
52
What is an alternative method to measure leakage for a safety shutoff valve?
Measuring bubbles per minute in water
53
What precaution should be taken when loosening the diaphragm casing cap screws
Ensure the control spring has no force applied
54
What can over-greasing a motor bearing cause?
Pressure buildup leading to heat and damage
55
Why should sandpaper not be used to clean the motor shaft?
It leaves behind grit particles
56
What is a sign that enough grease has been added?
Grease coming out of the purge valve
57
When inspecting a regulator disk or pad, what should be done
Replace if damaged
Check all O-rings and replace if necessary
Lubricate the O-rings and apply anti-seize compound
58
What could happen if the orifice sealing edge is damaged during removal or reinstallation?
The regulator will fail to lock up properly
59
Why should risky shortcut methods like torches or oil baths be avoided when heating bearings?
They may overheat or damage the bearing
60
What should the pressure switch be set to for proper operation?
80-90% of the high fire air pressure
61
What test ensures the motor insulation is intact?
Megger test
62
What should be done when reassembling a pilot-operated relief valve?
Replace all O-rings and lubricate them
63
What should be inspected before applying oil to cams?
The track spring and the wheel it rides on
64
Before performing maintenance on a gas pressure regulator, what must be done first?
Isolate the regulator from system pressure and relieve internal pressure
65
What component in air handling equipment requires lubrication?
Blower wheels
66
What material is introduced into a lubricated plug valve to create a gas-tight seal?
Specific sealant material
67
What should be done before applying grease to a bearing?
Remove the purge valve cover and clean grease fittings
68
What tool should be used to remove old bearings?
A bearing puller
69
Why is system integration with boiler control and other relevant equipment crucial?
To ensure synchronized operation and overall system stability
70
What is the purpose of calibrating instruments in the draft control system?
To ensure accurate readings and reliable data for monitoring and control
71
What is the main goal of conducting system response tests?
To ensure the draft control system responds correctly to changes in operating conditions
72
What is the main purpose of commissioning draft control systems for gas-fired industrial appliances?
To regulate air flow and maintain proper combustion conditions
73
What should be inspected for loose connections, damaged wiring, and potential issues?
Electrical connections
74
Why is documentation of compliance with B149.1 code clauses necessary?
To verify that all materials, dimensions, and installation practices comply with the code's requirements
75
What code clauses should be consulted for non-engineered sizing of the draft control system?
B149.1 code clauses
76
Why is it important to verify all necessary permits during the commissioning process?
To ensure legal operation and adherence to safety standards
77
What should be verified during the correct installation of the draft control system?
Compliance with relevant industry standards and manufacturer guidelines
78
Why is interlock functionality important in a draft control system?
To ensure safe operation by activating under the correct conditions
79
Which system ensures the furnace has a reliable and safe ignition of the fuel?
Ignition system
80
What is the primary goal of engineering design approval for furnace and oven systems?
To guarantee engineering design is approved by recognized standards organizations
81
What should be done if air is present in the fuel lines during fuel system checks?
Purge air from the fuel lines
82
What does the start-up sequence verification involve?
Ensuring each step follows the manufacturer's guidelines
83
Which of the following should be confirmed during permit and approval verification?
installation permits and product approval permits are in place
84
During performance validation, which parameter is measured to ensure optimal operation?
External static pressure and temperature rise
85
What is included in the inspection of oven components?
Inspecting burners, ignition systems, controls, sensors, and safety devices
86
Which of the following systems requires TSBC design registration even if CSA approved?
DFMA (Direct-Fired Makeup Air) Systems
87
What is one of the key steps in the calibration of instruments?
Ensuring accurate readings from temperature, pressure, and airflow sensors
88
During the ductwork inspection, what should be checked to avoid compromising the system's performance?
Damage, leaks, or improper connections
89
Why is it necessary to balance airflow in the exhaust system?
To ensure uniform distribution and proper ventilation
90
What should be documented and reported during the commissioning process?
All inspections, tests, and adjustments made
91
What is the importance of ensuring proper ventilation in the ducting system for furnaces and ovens?
To maintain optimal indoor air quality
92
What is the objective of the ignition system test?
To verify reliable and safe ignition of the gas
93
What is the first step in the pre-commissioning checks for an industrial furnace?
Reviewing design and documentation
94
Why is it important to check the temperature control system?
To ensure accurate setpoints and stable temperature control
95
What is the purpose of reviewing the oven design and documentation during pre-commissioning checks?
To ensure all aspects of the setup align with the original design intent
96
Which of the following is a critical aspect of inspecting exhaust fans?
Verifying proper installation and functioning
97
Why is it essential to test the pilot burner?
To ensure proper ignition and flame stability
98
What should be included in the comprehensive documentation of the start-up process?
Data logs, calibration records, and changes to initial settings
99
During gas system checks, what method can be used to detect gas leaks?
Soap solution or pressure decay test
100
What is the objective of the temperature control system verification?
To ensure sensors are correctly positioned and calibrated
101
Which of the following is checked during the safety system verification?
Emergency shut-offs, alarms, and interlocks
102
What is the purpose of leak testing in the fuel system checks?
To detect any leaks and prevent hazardous conditions
103
What is one of the key steps in verifying control systems?
Testing them to ensure they respond appropriately to changes
104
What should be verified during ventilation and exhaust system checks?
Correct installation and no obstructions in the airflow path
105
What must field-designed systems go through before proceeding with the TSBC registration?
Engineering design stamped by a certified engineer
106
Why is it essential to calibrate sensors used in the exhaust system?
To ensure accurate readings and reliable operation
107
What should be documented and reported during the commissioning process?
Data logs, calibration records, and changes to initial settings
108
What is the purpose of performing a combustion analysis during pilot and main burner testing?
To verify that the combustion system operates within the specified air-fuel ratio
109
What is the purpose of the low gas pressure safety device according to B149.3 clause 12.5.2?
To initiate shut off of the gas supply if pressure drops below 50% of the lowest normal operating pressure
110
What is the purpose of the overtravel linkage on a fuel cam system?
To set and lock high fire and low fire stops
111
What is the first step when checking the tightness of closure of a fuel valve?
Install a manometer or pressure gauge
112
What is the opening time for electro-hydraulic SSOVs?
13 seconds or 23 seconds
113
Which type of VPS uses a pump and advanced instrumentation?
Active VPS
114
How are oil burner valve trains different from gas fuel valve trains?
Oil valve trains often combine components into an "oil block"
115
What is a common feature of the SSOVs in oil burner valve trains?
Normally closed solenoid valves piped in series and wired in parallel
116
Which system allows precise adjustment to a single valve or damper position without affecting other components?
Parallel Position system (FARC)
117
What does a modern unified valve combine into a single device?**
Pressure regulation
Valve closing
Variable flow rate and pressure switches
118
Where should a high gas pressure safety device be installed according to B149.3 clause 12.5.1?
Downstream of the pressure regulator
119
According to ASME CSD1, where is the installation of a strainer recommended in the gas train?
Before the horizontal components
120
For appliances with inputs in excess of 400,000 Btu/h (120 kW), where should a low gas pressure safety device be installed?
Downstream of the pressure regulator and upstream of the safety shutoff valve
121
What is the purpose of the B149.3 Annex A procedure?
To ensure safe start-up of high input gas-fired equipment
122
What is a suitable option for selecting overpressure protection (OPP) when high inlet pressure is encountered?
Monitor regulation
123
What is the purpose of the Proof of Closure switch?
To prove the valve is in the closed position
124
How is fuel adjusted on a burner with a fuel cam?
By changing the position of the input flow control valve
125
When adjusting a flow control valve, what tool should be used to ensure accurate adjustments?
Combustion analyzer
126
Which type of valve shall be of the quarter-turn type according to B149.3 - 6.2?
Test firing valve
127
What action is recommended if a fuel valve leakage is detected?
Correct any conditions causing leakage
128
What should be checked to ensure gas-tightness of the valve seats according to B149.3 clause 15.1?
Appliance shutoff valve
Test firing valves
SSOV valves
129
Which clause in B149.3 specifies the outlet pressure maintenance capability of a pressure regulator?
Clause 4.4
130
What is the required accuracy of a pressure regulator outlet pressure during burner operation?
Within 10% above or below the regulator set pressure
131
Why is it essential to prove the stack damper is open before allowing the combustion air blower to start?
To ensure safety and proper operation of the system during the purge sequence
132
When setting FGR rates, why are two emissions analyzers required?
To measure the stack O2 levels, CO, NOx emissions, and oxygen content in the burner housing
133
What is the function of the FGR duct temperature switch?
To shut down the burner if duct temperature exceeds the set point
134
What should be tested and set to correct settings during operating and limit controls check?
All operating and limit controls
135
What should be done if the low fire light off position results in noticeable physical vibration of the equipment?
Decrease the burner firing rate
136
What should be done if temperature and pressure variations in the boiler room prevent repeatable operation of the burner?
Add control components such as oxygen trim
137
What should be the maximum pressure drop between the stack and burner inlet in the FGR ductwork?
1-inch w.c.
138
What is the primary function of the FGR inlet box?
To pull flue gas from the stack and deliver it to the combustion air fan inlet
139
Why is it important to have provisions to drain condensate in the FGR system?
To prevent water vapor accumulation and condensation in low points
140
When setting FGR rates, why are two emissions analyzers required?
To measure the stack O2 levels, CO, NOx emissions, and oxygen content in the burner housing
141
How should the stack temperature switch be set during FGR system start-up?
A few degrees below the normal low fire stack temperature (approximately 200°F)
142
What should be confirmed before showing up on-site for commissioning an appliance
All appropriate permits are in order
143
Why is an impulse line used in combustion systems?
To connect the combustion chamber to the air/gas ratio regulator, correcting regulator action
144
What should be confirmed before operating the burner for an extended period?
The FGR blower is in operation
145
How should the air damper position be adjusted if the system uses linkages?
Adjust in increments of 10% using a potentiometer
146
What is the purpose of adjusting fan speed during combustion optimization?
To find the optimal point where combustion is efficient and stable
147
What is the primary function of the FGR inlet box?
To pull flue gas from the stack and deliver it to the combustion air fan inlet
148
What should be confirmed before performing a combustion analysis?
Drafts for the appliance are correct
149
Why is it important to note the stack temperatures during commissioning?
To compare them to the manufacturer's specifications
150
What is the purpose of the FGR flow control damper?
To regulate the quantity of flue gas to the FGR inlet box
151
How should FGR damper position adjustments be made, especially at low firing rates?
In very small increments while observing readings and burner operation
152
Why is it important to have provisions to drain condensate in the FGR system?
To prevent water vapor accumulation and condensation in low points
153
How should FGR damper position adjustments be made, especially at low firing rates?
In very small increments while observing readings and burner operation
154
Why is it important to insulate the duct, FGR damper, and inlet box assembly?
To prevent accidental burns in high-temperature areas
155
What information does a gas safety officer need to check permits?
Customer name, company site name, and address
156
When adjusting initial damper positions, why is it important to follow the manufacturer's recommendations?
To achieve proper air-fuel mixing and combustion stability
157
What is primary air in the context of combustion?
The air supplied to achieve stoichiometric combustion
158
What is the role of the PID gain settings in an integrated or standalone draft control system?
To adjust for the correct draft and set response and accuracy if modulating
159
What effect does a positive combustion chamber pressure have on the system?
Adds a closing force on the regulator, upsetting control of the system
160
What should be the maximum pressure drop between the stack and burner inlet in the FGR ductwork?
1-inch w.c.
161
What is the purpose of the FGR flow control damper?
To regulate the quantity of flue gas to the FGR inlet box
162
What should be checked during a site visit ahead of time?
Gas piping size, pressure, and testing
163
What should be done if the low fire light off position results in noticeable physical vibration of the equipment?
Decrease the burner firing rate
164
How should the draft be adjusted if it is too low during commissioning?
Add weight to the damper chain to choke dilution air and increase draft
165
How should initial airflow be set during commissioning?
By adjusting the air damper(s) or fan speed
166
What is the main goal when setting the high fire air/gas ratio in a zero governor system?
To achieve the correct high fire setting using a limiting orifice
167
Why is it important to perform a pilot turn down test?
To ensure the smallest pilot flame will ignite the main flame safely
168
What should be done if temperature and pressure variations in the boiler room prevent repeatable operation of the burner?
Add control components such as oxygen trim
169
What should be confirmed before operating the burner for an extended period?
The FGR blower is in operation
170
Why is it important to insulate the duct, FGR damper, and inlet box assembly?
To prevent accidental burns in high-temperature areas
171
What should be done if clocking is not possible due to other appliances firing?
Install an orifice plate
172
What is the function of the FGR duct temperature switch?
To shut down the burner if duct temperature exceeds the set point
173
Which of the following should be verified with pilot and main gas firing valves closed?
Prove high fire purge
174
How should the stack temperature switch be set during FGR system start-up?
A few degrees below the normal low fire stack temperature (approximately 200°F)
175
Which of the following steps is part of the process for non-certified appliances that lack Canadian certification?
Apply to register the uncertified gas appliance
176
What should be checked during the pre-start-up inspection for shipping damages?
The function of gaskets
Alignment of burner components
Electrical terminations for tightness
177
What must gasfitters submit to Technical Safety BC as part of the documentation and reporting process?
A detailed appliance start-up report including combustion information and flue gas analysis results
178
Who evaluates applications for product approvals on a case-by-case basis in British Columbia?
Technical Safety BC
179
What are the potential penalties for operating a regulated product without the required permit under the Safety Standards Act?
Fines up to $100,000 and/or imprisonment up to 18 months for individuals
180
Under section 31 of the Gas Safety Regulations, an appliance must display which of the following before installation?
A certification mark
An approval mark
181
What are the essential regulatory requirements for gas appliances?
Obtaining the necessary permits
Securing product approval
Completing field inspections
182
What should be performed upon arrival at a worksite to identify potential risks and hazards?
A Job Hazard Assessment
183
What must be confirmed before start-up of the appliance?
Adequate load for commissioning
The site is ready for commissioning
All packing and shipping supports are removed
184
Which of the following appliances requires a mandatory commissioning approval inspection under section 26 (2) of the Gas Safety Regulations?
Any direct-fired non-recirculating type make-up heater
185
Which of the following is essential during a static checkout?
Ensuring normal operation for each test before continuing
186
How should the flame safeguard respond during the flame failure response test?
Lock out in less than 1 second
187
When should you remove the flame safeguard from its mounting base?
Before starting static checks
188
What indicates the blower should start during Test #3 (Check lockout interlocks)?
Installing a jumper between 4 – 5
189
During the Pilot Flame Establishing Period (PFEP), what action is taken?
Manually open the pilot valve
190
What is the purpose of the Ultraviolet Ignition Spark Response Test?
To ensure ignition spark does not actuate the flame relay
191
What could you do if the flame relay pulls in during the Ultraviolet Ignition Spark Response Test?
Reposition the detector farther from the spark
Relocate or re-sight the detector
Construct a barrier to block the ignition spark
192
What should be done if an appliance fails to start up correctly during commissioning?
Verify all connections and components
193
What should be checked during the first static checkout test (Test #1)?
Voltage between terminals 5 (L1) and L2
194
What tool is required to perform a static checkout readings on a subbase?
Multimeter
195
What does ladder logic resemble?
A ladder with vertical rails and horizontal rungs
196
What is a PLC?
A programmable logic controller used to automate industrial processes
197
What is the range for controlling a 4-20mA actuator in a PID loop?
0-100%
198
What programming language is typically used for PLCs?
Ladder logic
199
What do contacts in ladder logic represent?
Inputs or conditions that must be met for the instruction to execute
200
What is the purpose of analog outputs in PLC ladder logic?
To control parameters such as temperature, pressure, flow rate, and voltage
201
What do PID loops in PLCs do?
Generate an output to apply corrective effort to a process
202
What are digital inputs in PLC ladder logic?
Binary signals that are either "on" or "off"
203
What kind of outputs do PLCs typically control?
Electrical loads such as lights and motors
204
What is the scale factor in a PID process loop used for?
To map the process value to the output value
205
What is the main concern when selecting a Burner Management System (BMS)?
Safety features such as flame and pressure sensors
206
What is the significance of response time in selecting a thermistor?
Indicates how quickly it reacts to temperature changes
207
Which of the following is NOT typically part of a combustion control system?
Air conditioning systems
208
Which control strategy aims to adjust the air supply to prevent incomplete combustion and reduce pollutants?
Excess Air Control
209
What is the primary role of a combustion control system?
To optimize burner performance and ensure safe combustion
210
What is the primary function of control point instrumentation?
To monitor, measure, and regulate critical variables in a system
211
Why is energy management an important feature of a BAS?
To monitor and improve energy efficiency and sustainability goals
212
What is the significance of compliance in the selection of a Burner Management System (BMS)?
To ensure legal requirements and safe operation are met
213
Which type of gas flow meter is best suited for measuring high-pressure, high-temperature gases?
Thermal mass flow meter
214
What does a Burner Management System (BMS) do?
Ensures safe ignition and flame monitoring
215
Which of the following components detects changes in physical or chemical properties and converts them into electrical signals?
Sensors and transducers
216
When selecting a combustion control system, why is understanding the combustion process crucial?
It ensures that the control system works efficiently with the combustion process
217
Which of the following is a key factor when selecting a Building Automation System (BAS) for a large building?
Ability to handle multiple subsystems and functions
218
What does a communication device in a Building Automation System (BAS) primarily facilitate?
Data transfer and real-time communication between system components
219
What is the primary consideration when selecting a resistance temperature detector (RTD)?
Compatibility with the temperature range of the application
220
When selecting a PID controller, why is understanding system dynamics essential?
It defines the response time, process delay, and nonlinearity of the system
221
What factor is most important when selecting a pressure transducer for dynamic applications?
Response time
222
What is not an environmental factor must be considered when selecting an oxygen (O₂) sensor?
Sound levels
223
What is the main reason for ensuring redundancy in a lead/lag system?
To guarantee continuous operation even if one system fails
224
Which sensor is primarily used to monitor the oxygen level in exhaust gases to adjust the air-to-fuel ratio?
Oxygen (O₂) sensor
225
What is the benefit of having a user-friendly interface in a BAS?
Makes it easier to navigate, monitor, and control systems efficiently
226
Which of the following is NOT a safety feature typically included in a Burner Management System (BMS)?
Energy-saving recommendations
227
What is an essential feature of a good Building Automation System (BAS)?
energy efficiency and sustainability integration
228
When selecting a gas-fired appliance actuator, why is environmental performance an important consideration?
It ensures the actuator performs reliably under varying conditions like extreme temperatures
229
In a lead/lag system, what happens when the lead system fails?
The lag system automatically takes over to maintain operation
230
In which type of facility is an ammonia/water absorption system commonly found?
ice arenas
231
Which substance in a lithium bromide system is highly corrosive to ferrous metals?
Lithium bromide
232
Why is a formal risk assessment important for ammonia exposure control?
To identify affected workers and determine the extent of exposure
233
At what concentration is ammonia considered immediately dangerous to life and health?
300 ppm
234
Which refrigerant is associated with risks such as toxicity, flammability, and asphyxiation?
Ammonia
235
What is the odor threshold of ammonia
2 ppm
236
What should exposure control plans include?
Procedures for reducing exposure risks
237
Which formula calculates the energy required to absorb or liberate heat without a phase change?
Sensible heat formula
238
What is a potential hazard of ammonia exposure to workers?
Severe eye irritation and burns
239
What is the primary safety advantage of lithium bromide systems?
Non-flammable and nonreactive under most circumstances
240
What is the typical cooling limit of lithium bromide systems?
Around 41°F (5°C)
241
What type of heat causes a change in temperature without a change in state?
Sensible heat
242
What is the primary advantage of lithium bromide systems?
They are nontoxic and safer to use.
243
What is required in an effective program for ammonia use and storage?
Regular inspections and a WHMIS program
Written safe work procedures
Emergency response plans and training
244
What is latent heat associated with?
Phase changes in a substance
245
What does an absorption refrigeration system use to create a cooling effect?
Heat, refrigerant, and adsorbent
246
Why is ammonia considered flammable and explosive?
It has an explosive range between 15% and 28% in air.
247
What substance is used as the absorbent in an ammonia/water system?
Water
248
What defines a "strong solution" in a lithium bromide/water system?
High lithium bromide concentration with no water
249
At what pressure range does the ammonia system typically operate?
200-230 Psig
250
What is the primary refrigerant used in an ammonia/water absorption system?
Ammonia
251
Which of the following best describes the weak solution in a lithium bromide system?
A mixture of lithium bromide and water
252
What is the approximate temperature of the chilled water as it exits the evaporator?
7°C (45°F)
253
In the evaporator, what causes the tubes to become cold?
Evaporation of ammonia in a hydrogen atmosphere
254
Which substance acts as the absorber in a lithium bromide/water system?
Lithium bromide
255
What is the primary function of the generator in an ammonia absorption refrigerator?
Separate ammonia from the water solution
256
What is the term for lithium bromide saturated with water?
Weak solution
257
What is the purpose of cooling tower water in a lithium bromide system?
Condense vapor particles and remove heat from the system
258
Which component removes heat from the ammonia vapor, causing it to condense into a liquid?
Condenser
259
What happens to water vapor in the condenser of a lithium bromide system?
It condenses into liquid
260
What causes the boiling point of water to change in an absorption system?
Variations in system pressure
261
What is the primary purpose of the evaporator in both ammonia and lithium bromide systems?
Remove heat from the refrigerated space
262
What happens to lithium bromide in the generator?
It remains as a concentrated liquid at the base
263
At what pressure does water boil at approximately 4.5°C in a lithium bromide absorption system?
0.84 kPa
264
What is the role of the heat exchanger in a lithium bromide system?
Improve system efficiency by preheating the solution
265
What creates the vacuum condition in the absorber chamber of a lithium bromide/water system?
Strong attraction between water vapor and lithium bromide
266
Which energy sources can be used for the generator in an absorption system?
Natural gas, propane, or steam
267
What is the role of the absorber in an ammonia/water absorption system?
Attract and absorb ammonia from the evaporator
268
Why is lithium bromide used in absorption chillers?
It can easily separate from water when heated
269
What does the term "flash" mean in the context of the evaporator?
Sudden evaporation of water at low pressure
270
What issue does vent blockage most commonly cause?
Incomplete combustion
271
Why does LG recommend a yearly maintenance contract
To ensure stable operation through scheduled upkeep
272
How often should safety devices like pressure relief valves be checked?
Annually
273
Which component must be inspected for wear, corrosion, or damage during combustion system maintenance?
Burner assembly
274
Which of the following requires a separate maintenance contract?
Cleaning heat transfer tubes
275
What is the recommended solution for fouling on heat exchanger surfaces?
Perform a thorough cleaning
276
How frequently should major inspections for safety devices and adjustments be performed according to LG?
Yearly
277
Which safety device ensures proper draft in a venting system?
Draft regulator
278
How often should the burner main body components be checked?
Annually
279
What is the primary purpose of annual maintenance on industrial direct-fired refrigeration chiller equipment?
Detect potential issues early
280
What is the key indicator of improper combustion during air-fuel ratio checks?
Excessive CO levels
281
According to CARRIER, what should be done if multiple systems share the same exhaust stack?
Prevent backflow of exhaust gases
282
What should be done if refrigerant levels are low?
Refill and check for leaks
283
What tool is recommended for cleaning condenser fins?
Brush-tipped vacuum
284
What is the first step in the maintenance shutdown procedure?
Disconnect power sources
285
What is the purpose of a condensate drain in a venting system?
Handle moisture from high-efficiency systems
286
What is the first step in troubleshooting a heat input issue?
Verify fuel supply
287
Why is it important to calibrate temperature and pressure sensors?
To maintain accurate system control
288
Which maintenance task prevents heat loss and ensures energy efficiency?
Repairing damaged insulation
