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Flashcards in Animal Medicine 2 Deck (423):
1

Modified neurons in the hypothalamus produce two hormones:

oxytocin, ADH

2

Pituitary Gland (Hypophysis) "master gland" has two separate structures which are?

Anterior (adenohypophysis):
-Derived from glandular tissue
-7 hormones produced when stimulated by the hypothalamus & direct feedback from target organs & tissues

Posterior (neurohypophysis):
-Derived from the nervous system
-Does not produce hormones
-Stores and releases two hormones (produced by the hypothalamus)

3

Adrenal cortex produces too much glucocorticoid hormone(cortisol), Excessive administration of glucocorticoid drugs

Hyperadrenocorticism (Cushing’s Syndrome)

4

Deficiency of adrenocortical hormones
Sudden withdrawal of corticosteroid drugs that have been given long-term

Hypoadrenocorticism (Addison’s Dz)

5

Inner portion derived from nervous tissue, Two very similar hormones are produced Epinephrine, Norepinephrine

adrenal medulla

6

The two methods that control hormone secretion are?

1) Negative Feedback Systems (ex thyroid gland)
2) Direct stimulation from the nervous system (ex adrenal medulla)

7

Most commonly diseased organs in ___

SA (thyroid, adrenal, pancreas, parathyroid and gonads)

8

The thyroid gland produces what?

T3 and T4 produced and stored in gland, Also produces calcitonin

9

Most common endocrine dz in cats is?

hyperthyroid (cause is unknown)

10

Beta cell tumor hypersecretion of insulin

insulinoma

11

Adrenal gland cortex produces what hormones?

glucocortiocoids (cushings), mineralcorticoids, androgenic (sex) hormones

12

What does the parathyroid hormone do?

1) Stimulates bone resorption
2) Renal calcium resorption
3) Mediates intestinal calcium absorption

13

What's the most common endocrine disease in birds?

thyroid

14

Helps maintain normal blood calcium level by exerting an effect opposite to that of calcitonin -> helps prevent hypocalcemia

Parathyroid Hormone (PTH) or Parathormone

15

T/F Parathyroid disease is a primary disease usually from adenoma or carcinoma, which many animals will not show any signs

true

16

Pancreas:
1) ____ – “pushes” blood glucose into cells -> lowers blood glucose
2) ___– effects are opposite those of insulin -> stimulates liver to convert glycogen to glucose & stimulates gluconeogenesis -> raises blood glucose
3) _____ – inhibits secretion of insulin & glucagon and reduces activity of gi tract

1) insulin
2) glucagon
3) somatostatin

17

Regulation of blood levels of glucose by beta cells (islets of Langerhaans) and produces insulin

pancreas

18

Which gland acts as a bridge between the nervous system and the endocrine system?

Pituitary gland

19

List two clinical signs seen in pets suspected of having hyperthyroidism.

-Weight loss with increased appetite
-Polyphagia
-Vomiting
-Tachycardia w/ or w/o murmur

20

Pertaining to Addison’s disease, what gland is malfunctioning?

Adrenal gland (cortex)

21

With Addison's disease, what group of chemicals is not being secreted adequately?

Mineralcorticoids

22

Which endocrine disease can be caused by either a pituitary gland or an adrenal gland tumor in dogs?

Hyperadrenocorticism (Cushing’s Dz)

23

Which domestic species is presented most commonly for hypothyroidism? hyperthyroidism? Insulinoma?

Dog, Cat, Ferret

24

What is the difference between diabetes mellitus (DM) and an insulinoma with regards to lab results?

-DM: hyperglycemia, +/- decreased insulin levels; -insulinoma: hypoglycemia, increased insulin

25

List the 2 endocrine diseases that are very commonly seen in pet ferrets in the United States.

AAE/Hyperadrenocorticism, insulinoma

26

Avian thyroid problems result primarily from what husbandry issue

all seed diet

27

Besides administration of insulin, treatment of DM involves regulation of the pet’s ____

diet

28

Diabetes insipidus results from a deficiency of or lack of response to which hormone?

ADH

29

Clinical signs of periodontal disease

-Halitosis
-Reluctance to chew
-Pawing at mouth
-Nasal discharge
-Facial swelling
-Tooth loss

30

Lip-Fold Dermatitis: signs, cause, prevention

-Common in breed with pendulous upper lips and prominent lower lip folds
-Constant moisture from saliva creates environment for bacterial growth
-halitosis, debris collection
-clean area/keep dry

31

Salivary Mucocele: signs, cause, prevention

-Accumulation of excessive amounts of saliva in the SC tissue and the subsequent tissue reaction (Young adult dog dz most commonly GSD and miniature poodles)
-Slowly enlarging, nonpainful, fluid swelling on neck or under tongue, reluctant to eat or swallow
-cause unknown

32

Oral Neoplasms: 2 categories, clinical signs, treatment

-Malignant melanoma and SCC
-Benign tumors
-Halitosis, Blood in saliva, Oral pain, tooth loss
-Surgical removal, jaw removal, chemo

33

Most common trauma of small animals?

oral trauma

34

Esophagitis/gastroesophageal reflux: causes, treatment

-Usually traumatically induced
-Contact with irritants or FB
-Obstruction
-Foreign body ingestion
-Dietary changes to achieve weight loss using high-protein and low-fat diet to normalize gastric emptying

35

A Chronic Enteropathies most common in small animals.

Lymphocytic-plasmacytic enteritis (Chronic antigenic stimulation of the intestinal mucosa)

36

Intestinal Lymphangiectasia: cause, treatment

-Chronic PLE due to impaired lymphatic drainage, Back up of lymph releases fluids into the intestinal lumen
-Treatment aim: reduce protein loss, food, surgery

37

What is Intussusception (Large Bowel Dz)

Etiology usually idiopathic but can be multifactorial, Invagination of smaller bowel into larger, usually near the ileocolic junction

38

Megacolon (Large Bowel Dz) is ___% idiopathic

62%

39

Largest organ of mammalian body except skin is known as

the liver

40

Factors affecting extent of intoxication and damage to the liver are

-Species
-Sex
-Dose
-Route
-Duration of exposure

41

Cholangiohepatitis what is it and what animal is it common in?

-Common in cats, especially Persians
-Bile duct inflammation involves hepatocytes progressing to cirrhosis

42

Most common hepatopathy seen in cats

Feline Hepatic Lipidosis

43

Portosystemic Shunts: cause/what is it.

-Shunts blood away from the liver into the general systemic circulation
-May be intra- or extrahepatic; single or multiple
-Usually caused by failure of ductus venosus to close at birth

44

Perianal Hernias (Rectoanal) are seen in?

Older, intact male dogs

45

Perianal Gland Adenoma (Rectoanal) is directly related to?

to plasma androgen levels

46

What are the two distinctive processes of digestion?

Mechanical, chemical

47

T/F Treating cases of esophagitis caused by ingestion of irritating substances involves inducing vomiting, administering sucralfate and neutralizing compounds and withholding food for several days.

False

48

On what side of the trachea is the esophagus found?

Left

49

Where does most of the digestion occur in animals that do not require fermentation?

Small intestine

50

List 2 viral causes of diarrhea.

Canine parvovirus, canine distemper virus, feline panleukopenia virus

51

List 3 functions of the liver.

-Metabolizes products of digestion
-Storage of vitamins & minerals
-Recycling of hormones
-Bile synthesis
-Synthesizes plasma proteins

52

Describe the stool from a patient with exocrine pancreatic insufficiency (EPI).

Gray, fatty, foul-smelling, watery

53

What is EPI?

Loss of pancreatic acinar cells resulting in decreased digestive enzymes

54

What is one of the most common gastrointestinal problems/presentations in ferrets?

FB ingestion

55

List 2 rectoanal conditions that occur in older, intact male dogs that are treated with castration.

Perianal hernia, perianal gland adenoma

56

List 2 causes of colic in horses.

-Impaction
-Gastric ulcers
-Displacement/entrapment

57

T/F The Pericardial cavity is located in mediastinum. Enclosed by fibroserous membranous sac known as the Parietal & visceral layers.

true

58

Heart contains 3 layers of muscle which are?

1) Epicardium
2) Myocardium
3) Endocardium

59

Only muscle that does not fatigue after continued contractions is known as

the heart

60

What are the names of the Atrioventricular valves? Semilunar?

1) Bicuspid or mitral, tricuspid
2) Aortic and Pulmonic

61

Systole is a ______ (1st sound) Lub - AV valves closing

contraction

62

Diastole is ______ (2nd sound) Dub - semilunar valves closing

relaxation

63

Called a ____ rhythm when hear 3 or 4 sounds and indicates dz in SA

gallop

64

____ depolarizes initiating contraction
Initial stimulus spontaneous

SA node

65

Irregular heartbeat due to normal cyclic changes in vagal tone associated with respiration (HR inc w/ inspiration & dec w/ expiration)

Sinus arrhythmia (AKA Respiratory arrhythmia)

66

What is blood pressure?

force the blood exerts upon the blood vessels

67

Angiotensinogen produced by the ___. Converted to angiotensin I by ____. Converted to angiotensin II by ACE (produced by cells within blood vessel in the lung & kidney), which constricts blood vessels resulting in increased BP

liver, renin

68

4 Effects of Angiotensin II

1) Secretion of aldosterone by adrenal cortex
2) Stimulates secretion of ADH
3) Stimulates thirst
4)Vasoconstrictor (causing increased BP)

69

What are some Circulatory (volume insufficiency) diseases?

1) Hypovolemia
2) Anemia
3) Valvular dysfunction
4) Congenital defects

70

T/F Canine Dilated Cardiomyopathy can be genetic in some breeds

true

71

Vasodilator that is an ACE-inhibitor and helps decrease vascular resistance and improve cardiac output

Enalapril (DCM treatment)

72

T/F Canine Dilated Cardiomyopathy patients may die suddenly of an arrhythmia

true

73

Arrhythmogenic Right Ventricular Cardiomypathy is known as

“Boxer Cardiomyopathy” (genetic dz of boxer)

74

Boxer adults present with ventricular arrhythmias and ____ and are at risk for sudden death

syncope (passing out)

75

T/F Boxer Cardiomyopathy may be subclinical (no signs)

true

76

Feline DCM is attributed to what?

Attributed to lack of taurine in feline diets

77

Feline DCM is typically in older cats, but what genetic predisposition breeds?

Abyssinian, Siamese, Burmese

78

Feline DCM Most dangerous time during treatment is the _____. Those that respond to taurine supplementation have a better prognosis than those that don’t.

1st two weeks

79

T/F Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy is rare in dogs

true

80

Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy in inherited in what breeds?

Pointers (inherited), Rott, G. Shep, Dalm, Boston Terr, Cocker, Shi Tzu

81

What is Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy?

Thickening of left ventricular myocardium with reduction in chamber size

82

Most common form of cardiomyopathy in cats & most frequent cause of sudden death

Feline Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy

83

Feline Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy is common in what breeds?

Maine Coon Cats & Ragdolls; also Persian, Amer & British Shorthair, Devon Rex & Sphynx

84

T/F As with HCM in dogs, left ventricular hypertrophy is the predominant lesion in Feline HCM.

true

85

HCM Treatment:

-Furosemide
-ACE inhibitors (enalapril)
-Propanolol (Beta-blocker, Decreases oxygen demand or decreases sinus HR)
-Diltiazem (Calcium channel blocker, Inhibits cardiac and vascular smooth contractility, Reduces blood pressure and cardiac afterload)

86

Feline HCM can lead to what type of embolism in cats?

Thromboembolism -> blockage of vessel by a part of a blood clot that has broken off at the site of thrombus formation and traveled to lodge in more distal vessel

87

Serious sequela (pathological condition resulting from a disease) to heart disease in cats

Thromboembolism

88

90% of Thromboembolism lodge in distal aortic trifurcation, this is know as _____.

Saddle thrombus

89

______ results in hindlimb pain and paresis.

Thromboembolism

90

Clinical signs of Thromboembolism

-Acute onset of rear leg pain (vocalizing) & paresis
-Cold, blue foot pads; no palpable pulses

91

What is the most common cardiomyopathy in ferrets?

Dilatative Cardiomyopathy

92

What is the most common cardiomyopathy in dogs? Cats?

dogs-DCM
cats-HCM

93

DA fails to close resulting in shunting of blood from systemic circulation to pulmonary artery. Functional closure should occur within 72 hrs after birth. Lung is hyperperfused and machinery murmur created as left side of the heart becomes volume overloaded.

Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA)

94

Retained vascular arch forms ring around esophagus causing obstruction and regurgitation of solid food

Persistent Right Aortic Arch (PRAA)

95

Why do you feed a dog with Persistent Right Aortic Arch (PRAA) from a height?

It causes regurgitation of solid food leading to aspiration pneumonia

96

Most commonly encountered CV dz in the dog?

Chronic Mitral Valve Insufficiency

97

Heart arrhytmias are deviations from normal heart rate rhythm or rhythms originating from abnormal locations within the heart. They are either abnormal impulse ____ or ___ within cardiac muscle fibers

formation, conduction

98

T/F Avian heart is larger than mammalian heart in proportion to body mass and is designed for rapid depolarization due to their rapid HR

true

100

Canine Dilated Cardiomyopathy is common in what breeds?

Doberman pincer, Boxer, Irish Wolfhound, Great Dane

101

What are the 4 things that occur with Tetralogy of Fallot?

1) Pulmonic stenosis
2) Secondary RV hypertrophy
3) Subaortic VSD
4) Overriding aorta

102

List and describe the tunics of eye.

Outermost fibrous, supporting layer (sclera, cornea); middle vascular tunic (uvea – choroid, ciliary body, iris); inner nervous tunic (retina)

103

What are the functions of the aqueous humor?

Provide nutrition to the avascular lens and cornea; remove waste products of metabolism; occupy space to maintain shape

104

What is the main structural difference between the corneas of nocturnal versus diurnal animals?

Nocturnal animals have a relatively larger cornea to sclera ratio, allowing more light penetration

105

Which part of the nervous system dilates the pupil?

Sympathetic

106

Describe the process of accommodation.

Contraction of ciliary body muscle fibers (causes forward and inward movement of ciliary body which) decreases tension on the suspensory ligaments allowing the lens to become more convex.

107

What is the purpose of accommodation?

It shortens distance of the light rays focusing on retina facilitating close vision.

108

What is nuclear sclerosis?

Aging change caused by compression of lens fibers

109

What does nuclear sclerosis look like?

Blue-gray cloudy appearance of the eyes

110

List 3 signs of conjunctivitis.

Hyperemia, chemosis, ocular discharge

111

List 2 causes of conjunctivitis.

Immune-mediated follicular conjunctivitis, allergic conjunctivitis (atopy), anatomic conjunctivitis (entropion, ectropion), bacterial conjunctivitis secondary to disruption of tear production, trauma, FB; FHV-1, Calicivirus, Chlamydophila psittaci

112

What is another name for the nictitating membrane?

Third eyelid, nictitans

113

What is the term for the overflow of tears?

Epiphora

114

List 3 functions of the skin.

1) Protection
2) Sensory
3) Body temperature regulation (heat dissipation & retention)

115

The flea is the intermediate host for which parasite (scientific name only)?

Dipylidium caninum

116

What are the common sites for localized lesions in dogs with demodectic mange caused by Demodex canis?

Especially face, around eyes, mouth and ears; sometimes limbs; occasionally trunk

117

What are the common sites for localized the lesions in dogs with sarcoptic mange?

Ears, elbows, hocks, ventrum

118

Where are the lesions found in cats with feline scabies?

Head, face

118

What is the scientific name of the organism that causes feline scabies?

Notoedres cati

119

Name a skin disease of neglect.

Pediculosis (lice infestation), myiasis (maggots)

120

Name a superficial dermatophyte. What is the commonly used lay term for this infection?

Microsporum canis, M.-ringworm

121

Name an equine skin disorder.

SCC, onchocerciasis 'rain scald', exuberant granulation tissue (“proud flesh”)

122

What are the 3 forms of heart disease in a ferret and which is most common?

1) Dilatative – most commonly
2) Hypertrophic
3) Restrictive - uncommon

123

Increases pressure into the chambers causing ventricular hypertrophy +/- atrial enlargement, stenosis (abnormal narrowing) due to dysplastic or malformed valves

Pulmonic & Aortic Stenosis

124

T/F You can treat Ventricular Tachycardia with Lidocane.

true

125

Given for treatment of adult heart worms. Injections into very specific sites in lumbar epaxial muscles.

Melarsamine dihydrochloride (ImmiticideR)

126

T/F Felines are less susceptible to heart worm infection than dogs which are the definitive host for the parasite

true

127

T/F Felines harbor few heart worm adults which have a shorter life span than they do in dogs; microfilariae are rare

true

128

What are the common heart conditions for a hamster?

Cardiomyopathy and atrial thrombosis

129

Retina is black due to presence of _____

melanin

130

What are the 5 layers of the cornea

1) Anterior epithelium
2) Subepithelial basement membrane (Bowman’s membrane)
3) Substantia propria or stroma
4) Posterior limiting lamina (Descemet’s membrane)
5) Posterior endothelium (Descemet’s endothelium)

131

One of the most sensitive tissues in the body

cornea

132

Increased water uptake results in decreased transparency

Cornea-edema = cloudy appearance

133

Colored portion of the eye that controls the amount of light entering

iris

134

The iris contains two sets of muscles, the one controlled by the ____ that constricts and the one controlled by the _____ that dilates

parasympathetic, sympathetic

135

Positioned in posterior chamber between the iris and retina held in place by suspensory ligaments that are attached to the ciliary body

lens

136

T/F Accommodation is limited in domestic animals, the exception is the cat.

true

137

Aging change caused by compression of lens fibers resulting in blue-gray cloudy appearance of the eyes

nuclear sclerosis

138

Sandwiched between the sclera & retina

choroid

139

Tapetum lucidum is not found in humans or __

pigs

140

Aqueous humor:
1) behind the iris but in front of the lens
2) behind the cornea but in front of the iris

1) Posterior chamber
2) Anterior chamber

141

Not as fluid-like, more gelatinous aka vitreous body

Vitreous humor

142

Through pupil into anterior chamber, out through iridocorneal angle

primary flow of aqueous

143

Innermost tunic of eye

retina

144

Membranes lining the eyeball and palpebrae, the space between globe & conjunctiva is conjunctival sac

conjunctiva

145

What 3 things is the lacrimal apparatus responsible for?

1) Formation of tears
2) Transport to sac
3) Drainage to the nasal cavity

146

The third eyelid is the fold of the ______. Well developed in the dog, highly mobile. Large enough to cover the entire cornea and is reinforced by ______

conjunctiva, T-shaped cartilage

147

T/F Conjunctivitis is commonly a primary disease in dogs.

false-rare

148

What are some breeds prone to epiphora?

cocker spaniels, poodles, brachycephalic breeds

149

Inflammation of eyelids -> swelling of eyelids

Blepharitis

150

What are some causes of Blepharitis?

1) Demodex
2) Allergiec
3) Bacterial
4) Other eye diseases (dry eye)

151

Eyelids roll in

entropion

152

Eyelids roll out

Ectropion 'diamond eye'

153

What breeds are most likely to have ecto and endotropions?

brachycephalic (congenital), with large orbits and deep set eyes

154

What do you not use when treating Ulcerative Keratitis (Corneal Ulcers)?

steriods

155

Superficial vascularization and infiltration of granulation tissue (pink or tan)

Chronic Superficial Keratitis (Pannus)

156

What breed is most prone to Chronic Superficial Keratitis (Pannus)?

german shepards

157

Inadequate tear production (AKA “Dry Eye”)

Keratoconjunctivitis Sicca (KCS)

158

Failure to treat Dry Eye will result in _____

blindness

159

Causes of Dry Eye?

Idiopathic atrophy of lacrimal glands-most commonly

160

What is the first eye test that is performed?

Schirmer Tear Test (STT)

161

Opacity of the lens sufficient to cause a reduction of function

cataracts

162

What are some causes of cataracts?

uveitis, lens luxation, trauma, hyopcalcemia, electric shock, nutritional deficiencies

163

What part of the eye is infected with anterior uveitis?

iris, ciliary body, and choroid (uveal tract)

164

What are some signs of anterior uveitis?

-Blepharospasm
-Photophobia
-Epiphora
-Corneal edema
-Change in iris color with chronic

165

Aqueous humor unable to leave eye causing increased pressure inside of a closed system

Glaucoma

166

What are the primary and secondary cause of glaucoma?

1) primary-inherited (Cocker, basset hound)
2) secondary-Obstruction of drainage from another disease process
3) acute-emergency!

167

Loss of vision in low light or at night often is the 1st sign

Progressive Retinal Atrophy (PRA)

168

T/F Progressive Retinal Atrophy (PRA) has no cure or treatment.

true

169

How can cats get Progressive Retinal Atrophy (PRA)?

acquired dz due to taurine deficient diet

170

Progressive Retinal Atrophy (PRA) can be hereditary in what breeds?

Lab Ret, Gold Ret,Toy/Mini Poodle, Irish Setter, Schn, Collie

171

T/F Any ocular disease in Equine is an emergency.

true

172

What are Filoplumes?

specialized feathers at lid margins that function like eyelashes in birds

173

T/F Birds have a tapetum lucidium.

false

174

Ctenocephalides spp. are known as the

cat flea

175

What are the 3 types of mange?

1) Demodectic
2) Sarcoptic
3) Notoedric

176

T/F No products are currently approved for in cats for Demodex.

true

177

Demodex aurati and Demodex criceti usually reside where on a hamster?

hair follicles & sebaceous glands

178

What dip can you not use with cats in treatment of Demodex?

ParamiteR Dip

179

T/F Notoedric Mange is rarely found in cats, but it can be found in rabbits.

true

180

Flies will deposit their eggs in warm, wet areas which will the hatch into ____

Myiasis (maggots)

181

How do you treat Lice (Pediculosis)?

All pets in house with insecticide dip-Ivermectin (off-label)

182

Deep Pyoderma-____ is the 1o organism causing infection

Staphylococcus intermedius

183

Explain what is meant by ‘core vaccine’.

According to current guidelines, core vaccines are those recommended as “mandatory for every patient”

184

Rabies is a core vaccine for both dogs and cats. List one other core vaccine for the dog and one for the cat

-DA2P (canine distemper virus, adenovirus, parvovirus)
-FVRCP (feline rhinotracheitis virus (herpesvirus), calicivirus, feline panleukopenia virus (feline parvovirus).

185

According to the updated vaccination guidelines, based on the duration of immunity demonstrated by commercial vaccines, how often should booster vaccinations with core vaccines be given to adult dogs and cats?

Every 3 years

186

In general, noncore vaccines should be administered ____ to maintain adequate immunity.

annually

187

The vaccine ‘cold chain’ must be maintained throughout transport, storage and handling of vaccines to preserve maximum effectiveness of the vaccines. The recommended temperature range for this is?

35-45 F (2-7 C).

188

In addition to excessive heat (and cold), exposure to what else can cause vaccines to be rendered ineffective?

Exposure to light

189

List 4 specific tips for storage and handling of vaccines that will help ensure that vaccines retain efficacy.

1) store in center of fridge
2) keep a log of the expiration date
3) order from a reputable manufacturer
4) have a full-size refrigerator for storage

190

List 2 reasons why vaccines should not be reconstituted and/or drawn up into a syringe until needed.

May be more temperature sensitive (and likely will have increased exposure to light), risk of bacterial contamination and overgrowth, risk of mistaken identity/using wrong vaccine

191

The American Association of Feline Practitioners recommends using vaccines within _____ of reconstitution.

30 minutes

192

T/F After vaccination, patients commonly experience mild fever, inappetence and/or lethargy that can last for 1 or 2 days.

true

193

List 2 mild adverse reactions that can occur secondary to vaccine administration.

Local irritation, inflammation, swelling, pain hair loss, abscess formation; failure to immunize

194

List 2 severe vaccine reactions.

Anaphylaxis, autoimmune disorders, immunosuppression, development of long-term carrier state or, rarely, of tumors (injection-associated sarcomas in cats), hypertrophic osteodystrophy (rare), juvenile cellulitis associated with MLV distemper vaccine in Weimaraners (rare)

195

The details of any adverse event associated with administration of a vaccine should be recorded in the medical record and reported to?

to the vaccine manufacturer and the USDA Center for Veterinary Biologics (CVB)

196

Regarding how specific immunity is acquired, what is the difference between active and passive immunity?

Active - direct exposure of antigen, Passive - antibodies are transferred from one animal to another

197

List 2 primary organs of the immune system.

Thymus, bone marrow, bursa of Fabricius, Peyer’s patches, lymphoglandular complexes

198

List 2 secondary organs of the immune system.

Lymph nodes, hemal nodes, tonsils, spleen

199

List the 5 peripheral lymph nodes that are evaluated during physical examination of dogs and cats

Submandibular, prescapular, axillary, inguinal, popliteal

200

List 2 diseases for which vaccines typically provide long-lived immunity.

K-9 distemper, adenovirus & parvovirus; feline panleukopenia; rabies

201

List 1 disease for which immunity is short-lived with vaccination.

Feline rhinotracheitis, calicivirus & chlamydophila; leptospirosis

202

List 2 reasons for vaccine failure assuming the vaccine was administered correctly.

1) Correct administration but failure to respond
2) May have been incubating the dz at time of vaccination

203

List 2 of the 5 categories of adverse consequences of vaccines.

1) Residual virulence and toxicity
2) Allergic responses
3) Disease in an immunodeficient host
4) Neurological complications
5) Harmful effects on the fetus

204

What are the primary cells of the immune system and where are they produced?

Lymphocytes, bone marrow

205

What are serum antibody titers?

The relative concentration of circulating Ab to a particular Ag

206

List the classes of immunoglobulins.

IgG, IgM, IgA, IgE, IgD

207

Define ‘immunologically competent’.

Ability of an animal to produce an immune response on exposure to an Ag

208

Innate Immune Responses known as ______ are composed of chemical mediators of inflammation, plasma proteins and phagocytic cells which are the _____

Natural Immunity, 'first responders’

209

Natural Killer (NK) cell are a specific type of ______

lymphocyte

210

Small proteins released by macrophages, lymphocytes and cells infected by viruses

interferons

211

Protein in plasma that assists and enhances antibody action by labeling organisms and infected cells so other cells can destroy them

Complement

212

What are the 5 cardinal signs of inflammation?

Rubor (redness), Calor (hot), Tumor (pain), Dolor (swelling), loss of function

213

What are the 2 primary lymphocytes?

T-cells and B-cells

214

Migrate to thymus & mature there
Associated with GALT & found in spleen & LN. Have specific antigen (Ag) receptors on cell surface. Attach to antigens and destroy by the secretion of cytotoxic substances. Cell-mediated immunity.

T-cells

215

Migrate to spleen, LN
Produce antibodies (Ab) to specific antigens. Contain surface Ab. Antibody related or humoral immunity.

B-cells

216

Secreted by plasma cells in spleen, LN and BM. Smallest Ig molecule - can escape from blood vessels easiest. Binds to surface Ag on bacteria. Activates complement

IgG

217

Produced by plasma cells in spleen, LN & BM. Major Ig produced in primary response. Produced in small amounts but more active in complement activation than IgG. Rarely enter tissues due to extremely large size. Neutralizes viruses and Agglutinates some Ag .

IgM

218

Secreted by plasma cells under mucosal surfaces. Intestinal walls, respiratory tract, urinary system, skin, mammary glands. Passes through epithelial cells into external secretions. Major protection for intestines, respiratory tract, mammary glands, eyes. Can agglutinate Ag and Can neutralize viruses.

IgA

219

Made by plasma cells beneath the body’s surface. Very small so cannot bind Ag. Triggers acute inflammation. Binds to mast cells and basophils. Ag binds to IgE to stimulate release of other molecules. Type I sensitivity.

IgE

220

Not detected in all mammals. Found mainly attached to B cells. Easily destroyed by proteases, especially those found when blood clots.

IgD

221

What are the two types of immunization? What are there differences?

1) Active - give Ag
Animal must mount own response
Second exposure mounts quicker response
Immunity long lasting
2) Passive – give Ab
Immediate protection
Short lived

222

Passive Immunity is most effective in protecting against _____ organisms

toxigenic

223

Vaccines are divided into ____ and ___ vaccines due to safety and efficacy issues.

core, noncore

224

What are some examples of the vaccines associated with the third group?

Canine Coronavirus, Canine Adenovirus 1, Giardia (dog & cat) and FIP vaccines are examples

225

What are the most common routes to administer vaccines?

SC or IM

226

Residual Virulence and Toxicity from vaccines result most commonly from ____

sting from formaldehyde

227

What test is this: Used to detect FIV Ab, RBCs have Ag on their cell surface

Hemagglutination

228

What test is this: Detects Heartworm Ab or Ag (Heska, Abaxis), Ab or Ag is attached to a material that can migrate through a membrane support

Lateral Flow

229

What test is this: Detects Borrelia Ab (IDEXX) and HTW Ab (Synbiotics), Enzyme linked immunosorbent assay

Indirect ELISA

230

What test is this: Detects HTW Ag, FeLV, CPV (IDEXX SNAP Tests)

Sandwich ELISA

231

What is a pansystemic disease?

Those diseases that involve multiple body systems in addition to the primary target organ

232

Feline Panleukopenia can infect all species of Felidae as well as Procyonidae (raccoons, coatimundi) & some Mustelida (mink, skunks) but not ____

ferrets

233

Severe, highly contagious Parvovirus (‘old timers’ may refer to as “feline distemper”)

Feline Panleukopenia

234

T/F Feline Panleukopenia is shed through feces, and that is the only part that is contagious.

false-All body secretions are contagious

235

T/F Survivors of Feline Panleukopenia acquire life-long immunity

true

236

Caused by a Retrovirus and is associated with both neoplastic & nonneoplastic conditions (immunosuppression) that frequently results in death

Feline Leukemia

237

Clinical signs seen in FeLV (Feline Leukemia) result primarily from immunosuppression, neoplasia and/or _____

anemia

238

If you are going to vaccinate a kitten/cat for FeLV what must you do first?

test before vaccinating, no point in vaccinating a cat already positive

239

Is there a cure for FeLV?

no-restrict free roaming cats

240

Caused by a Lentivirus that is morphologically & biochemically similar to HIV but antigenically different. Infects lymphocytes, macrophages, salivary glands & CNS.

Feline Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (Feline AIDS)

241

T/F Maternal ab may be passed through colostrum, so kittens must be retested for FIV after they are 6 months old

true

242

FIV tests cannot distinguish Ab due to natural infection (or passive transfer) from Ab produced by vaccination -> vaccinated cats will be + on testing for at least ___ after vaccination

1 yr

243

What are some clinical signs of FIV?

-Gingivitis, stomatitis - may require extraction of all teeth
-Skin, ear
-URI (upper respiratory infection)
-Fever, cachexia (muscle wasting) – common
-Anemia

244

T/F Lentiviral infections are lifelong so detection of FIV-specific Ab in blood is considered a reliable indicator of infection in adult cats that are not vaccinated

true

245

Is there a cure for FIV? Does it pose a health hazard to humans?

No, no

246

Progressive, fatal systemic disease caused by Feline Coronavirus (FCoV)

Feline Infectious Peritonitis (FIP)

247

Risk factors for development of FIP

-Young, intact males < 4 mos; most often 6 mos – 2 yr; but any age
-Purebred cats (polygenic mode of inheritance suggested*)
-Bengal, Abyssinian, Himalayan, Birman, Ragdoll, Rexes – reportedly at higher risk*
-Group confinement
-Concurrent infection with FeLV

248

How is FCoV transmitted?

-Excreted in oral & respiratory secretions, feces and urine
-Ingestion (fecal-oral) most commonly; possibly inhalation also

249

Lesions of FIP result from immune-mediated reactions to virus-infected ______

macrophages

250

What are the 2 forms of FIP?

1) effusive = wet (75% of cases)
2) noneffusive = dry

251

What are clinical signs of the wet form of FIP?

Fluid distention of the abdomen (ascites)

252

What are clinical signs of the dry form of FIP?

-neurological signs
-eye lesions

253

Fatal neurologic disease of mammals caused by a Rhabdovirus in the genus Lyssavirus

Rabies

254

____ is not technically a pansystemic disease but exposure & potential transmission occurs after examination of animal with vague signs that may be referable to various organ systems

Rabies

255

What are the stages for the clinical signs in Rabies?

1) Prodromal-Characterized by changes in behavior (greatest risk of exposure for humans)
2) Furious (Excitatory phase)- animal may attack and be hyperactive
3) Paralytic-paralysis, difficulty swallowing, hypersalivation

256

How is rabies spread?

Spread via saliva of an infected animal (enters body through bite or other open wound or through mucous membranes; aerosol transmission can occur

257

What are considered the "Rabies species" in the US?

Raccoon, skunk, bat, fox & coyote

258

T/F There is no specific tx for rabies and tx is not attempted with animals

true

259

How do you prevent Rabies?

vaccination! -all dogs, cats, ferrets, horses

260

Severe, highly contagious multisystemic dz caused by Canine Distemper Virus (CDV), a Paramyxovirus in the genus Morbillivirus

Canine Distemper

261

Many wild carnivores are susceptible to Canine Distemper (canids, large felids (but not ____, mustelidae, procyonidae spp., etc.)

domestic cats

262

How is Canine Distemper transmitted?

Shed in all body secretions and excretions. Primary source of exposure via aerosolized secretions.

263

What are some clinical signs of Canine Distemper?

-Respiratory-bronchopneumonia
-GI – diarrhea, vomiting
-Nervous – “chewing gum seizures”, myoclonus
-Neurologic signs may appear wks to yrs after infection
-Eye – conjunctivitis, uveitis
-Hyperkeratosis of foot pads (“hard pad dz”)

264

Canine Distemper prognosis guarded (for survival) to poor (for return to normal function) if neurologic signs are present. Euthanasia is recommended for ___ with CDV as it is about 100% fatal in this species even with treatment.

ferrets

265

Acute, highly contagious viral enteritis

Canine Parvovirus

266

How is Canine Parvovirus transmited?

Fecal-oral transmission

267

What are some breeds prone to Canine Parvovirus?

-Rott
-Doberman
-Am Staff/Pit bull terrier
-GSD
-Lab Ret

268

What are some clinical signs of Canine Parvovirus?

*Intractable fluid, bloody diarrhea
*Vomiting
-Anorexia
-Depression
-Fever

269

T/F Weak positives seen for 1-2 wks after vaccination of Canine Parvovirus

true

270

What is the definition of rhinitis?

Inflammation of the nasal passages

271

List 3 general causes of rhinitis.

Infectious, allergic, foreign body tumor/polyp

272

What will one see when examining the oropharyngeal cavity of a dog with tonsillitis?

Reddened, hypertrophied (swollen/enlarged) tonsils that may be coated with mucus or pus or have superficial abscesses

273

List 2 clinical signs seen with nasal tumors.

Unilateral, mucoid nasal discharge; nasal hemorrhage

274

List a common type of nasal tumor.

SCC, adenoCA

275

Why must animals who present with laryngitis or loss of voice initially be handled with caution?

Change in phonation or loss of voice occurs with infection with Rabiesvirus

276

A canine patient presents with a dry, hacking cough of several days duration but otherwise appears healthy. The owner reports that his dog has received all of the vaccines on the immunization schedule recommended for his dog based on their lifestyle and wants to know why his dog has clinical signs. What do you tell him?

Vaccines for kennel cough (and CI also) are geared toward reducing the severity of clinical signs not to prevent infection.

277

List the 3 most common clinical signs associated with infection with FHV-1.

Acute onset of sneezing, rhinitis (may be purulent), conjunctivitis

278

List a clinical sign/lesion less commonly seen but is consistent with feline herpesvirus particularly when seen with respiratory signs.

Herpetic keratitis, ulcerated nasal planum (will accept abortion also)

279

For how long should cats with signs of FVH-1 be isolated from healthy, uninfected cats? Why?

3 weeks, Shed virus for 3 wks

280

Most dogs with Canine Influenza have mild disease consisting of a persistent soft, moist cough +/- a low-grade fever and purulent nasal discharge. What signs do dogs with the more severe form of CI have?

Signs of pneumonia -> fever of 104-106 F, increased RR & effort

281

Cats with serous oculonasal discharge and oral ulceration most likely are infected with ___

FCV

282

List 3 major differences between infection with common strains of feline calicivirus and virulent systemic calicivirus.

Vaccine doesn’t protect from VS-FCV; different more severe dz/clinical signs including cutaneous edema, ulceration & alopecia on head & limbs, coagulopathies due to DIC, liver necrosis & pancreatitis (icterus), pulmonary edema, TE; common strains affect young but VS-FCV most often in adults; 67% mortality with VS-FCV despite tx

283

List all the possible components of Feline Infectious Respiratory Disease Complex.

FHV-1, FCV, Chlamydophila felis, Mycoplasma spp.

284

Family Rickettsiaceae includes Spotted Fever Group (SFG) _____

Rickettsia

285

T/F In most, transmission is suspected to require prolonged tick attachment and feeding of 5-24 hours or more

true

286

Anaplasma phagocytophilum, Ehrlichia chaffeensis, E. ewingii, Rickettsia rickettsia, some Neorickettsia spp. & possibly E. canis are _____

zoonotic

287

Canine Monocytic Ehrlichiosis is caused by ____ whose primary vector is the _____, Rhipicephalus sanguineus, but also can be transmitted by Dermacentor variabilis, the American Dog Tick .

Ehrlichia canis, Brown Dog Tick

288

Canine Monocytic Ehrlichiosis incubation period?

1-3 weeks

289

E. chaffeensis, mainly transmitted by the ______, Amblyomma americanum, is the cause of human monocytic ehrlichiosis and occas. causes this dz in dogs

Lone Star Tick

290

T/F Canine Monocytic Ehrlichiosis has multiple stages that occur which may not be easily distinguished in naturally infected dogs

true

291

____ form of canine monocytic ehrlichiosis: Organism multiplies in circulating mononuclear cells & in spleen & liver and then spreads to other organs

acute

292

Canine monocytic ehrlichiosis has a wide variety of clinical signs occur, from mild to severe - some nonspecific including:

fever, lethargy/depression, anorexia, lymphadenomegaly

293

Canine Monocytic Ehrlichiosis signs of bleeding disorders

anemia, mild epistaxis

294

Canine Monocytic Ehrlichiosis ocular signs including anterior uveitis, hyphema, tortuous retinal vessels & subretinal hemor w/ detachment & blindness lasts ___ and signs usually resolve spontaneously

1-4 wks

295

T/F Canine monocytic ehrlichiosis the subclinical Stage – dogs recovering from acute stage may remain subclinically infected for months or years

true

296

Canine monocytic ehrlichiosis ____ phase – commonly see fever, dep., weakness, anorexia, chronic weight loss, edema of limbs, tail, scrotum as well as bleeding disorders -> death

chronic

297

How can you diagnose Canine monocytic ehrlichiosis?

-ELISA (IDEXX 4DX)
-PCR
-CBC/Chem – nonregenerative anemia, thrombocytopenia, +/- pancytopenia/hyperglobulinemia

298

Canine monocytic ehrlichiosis treatment? Prevention?

-Doxycycline
-tick control

299

Canine Granulocytic Anaplasmosis caused by Anaplasma phagocytophilum (formerly Ehrlichia phagocytophila)transmitted by Ixodes spp. ticks – incubation period = ___

1-14 days

300

Also causes Equine Granulocytic Anaplasmosis (formerly E. equi) and Human Granulocytic Anaplasmosis (formerly “the agent of Human Granulocytic Ehrlichiosis”)

Canine Granulocytic Anaplasmosis

301

T/F Canine Granulocytic Anaplasmosis Infects a wide range of mamals including dogs, cats, horses, ruminants, people & many wildlife spp. WT deer & several species of rodents are the primary reservoir hosts

true

302

Canine Granulocytic Anaplasmosis when clinical signs are present in dogs, they most often are assoc. w/ ____ phase of the infection – severity varies; usually lasts from one to several days

acute bacteremic

303

Canine Granulocytic Anaplasmosis clinical signs.

Most common more specific signs are joint pain & lameness due to polyarthritis (must R/O Lyme Dz). Less commonly seen signs include vom/diar, coughing, labored breathing and neuro. signs due to meningitis

304

How can you diagnosis Canine Granulocytic Anaplasmosis?

-Identification of morulae in neutrophils
-PCR
-ELISA (IDEXX SNAP 4Dx)

305

Why do you take blood for testing purposed before giving antibiotics?

Take blood for testing before giving antibiotics or may get false negative results!

306

What will you see on a blood smear with a dog that has Canine Granulocytic Anaplasmosis? CBC?

-Thrombocytopenia (More than 80% will have this)
-Lymphopenia initially then an increase Reactive lymphocytes
-CBC: Hyperfibrinogenemia, Elevated serum Alk Phos

307

Canine Granulocytic Anaplasmosis treatment and prevention?

-Doxycycline (Resolution of clinical signs usually accomplished but organisms may not be completely cleared)
-tick control

308

What type of organisms are rickettsiae?

Gram-negative, obligate intracellular bacteria

309

How are rickettsial diseases transmitted?

Tick-borne

310

List 2 species (include full genus and species names) of rickettsial organisms that are zoonotic.

Anaplasma phagocytophilum, Ehrlichia chaffeensis, E. ewingii, Rickettsia rickettsia

311

While evaluating a blood film from a dog you see a morula within the cytoplasm of a lymphocyte. Which rickettsial organism is the dog most likely infected with? What should be done next to support this finding?

Ehrlichia canis, IDEXX SNAP 4Dx

312

List 2 physical examination findings that would suggest infection with Ehrlichia canis. What information in the history (or perhaps also from the physical exam) would support this?

Lymphadenomegaly, splenomegaly, edema in hind legs & scrotum, anemia, mild epistaxis, petechiae & ecchymoses, hyphema, anterior uveitis. Tick problem/see ticks on the dog.

313

Dogs that recover from the acute stage of ehrlichiosis may remain subclinically infected for long periods of time. What else can occur during the subclinical phase of the disease?

They also may clear the organism or develop chronic dz.

314

The most common specific clinical sign/lesion seen with disease caused by Anaplasma phagocytophilum in dogs is? What other disease is the major rule out based on the above?

joint pain/lameness due to polyarthritis. Lyme Dz

315

List one clinical pathological (lab work) abnormality seen with both E. canis and A. phagocytophilum.

Thrombocytopenia, reactive lymphocytosis

316

Your patient "Zeus," a 10 yr old poodle with a history of depression, ataxia, and weakness. His owner reports that these clinical signs are intermittent and appear worse with exercise or excitement. Recently he exhibited odd behavior last night and had a seizure. He appears a little dull in the exam room but he perks up after eating several chewy dog snacks. Based on his history and clinical signs, but can be ruled out?

insulinoma

317

Laboratory examination of a patient with diarrhea should always include:

fecal examination/analysis

318

Your patient is "Bella" a 1 1/2 yr old intact female GSD presented for weight loss, very loose stool, and flatulence. Her owner reports that she's always hungry and eats everything in sight including the cat's as well as her own feces. Bella is BAR, bcs of 3 of 9, and a poor hair coat. Parasites are not seen on fecal examination, but there is a lot of fat droplets and her stool is pale tan to grey. You suspect she has

exocrine pancreatic insufficiency

319

A heart murmur and dog's cough are consistent with _____

chronic mitral valve insufficiency

320

T/F Hypertropic cardiomyopathy is the most common form of myocardial disease in cats.

true

321

What ventricle is affected with HCM?

left ventricle

322

T/F Sinus bradycardia is not an uncommon finding in highly conditioned athletic dogs.

false-generally not recommended

323

T/F Gastrointestinal and neurologic signs are usually seen in cats with heartworm disease

true

324

What is the scientific name of heartworm

Dirofilaria immitis

325

Individuals with arrythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy are symptomatic with ventricular arrhythmias and ____

syncope

326

List 2 clinical signs or lab findings associated with Addison's disease

lethargy, depression, weakness

327

What would you tell Bella's owners to educate them about EPi?

it's never going away it can be managed not cured

328

You examine a 1 yr old English Bulldog with a heart murmur and prominent jugular pulses a history of exercise intolerance and fainting. Radiographs reveal right ventricular enlargement. What is it most likely? Besides discussing the diagnosis and treatment options with the owner what else should the client be told?

pulmonic stenosis, don't breed

329

What is not true regarding the iris:
a) controls the amount of light entering the eye
b) may change color when inflamed
c) contains smooth muscles in mammals
d) contains striated muscle in birds and reptiles
e) all are correct

e) all are correct

330

T/F The retinas of domestic mammals control mainly rods used for night vision.

true

331

Pannus is a progressive, degenerative eye disease of the dog that can cause blindness. It is also known as? Name a breed with this as a predisposition.

kertoconjuncitivitis sicca, GSD

332

T/F Otodectes cynotis is the ear mite that infests cats, dogs, rabbits, and ferrets

false

333

A neurotoxin in the saliva of what causes an ascending flaccid paralysis in dogs?

hard tick

334

T/F Demodex spp. mites are host specific and that infect dogs do not infect cats and vice versa

true

335

List 2 endocrine diseases that produce bilateral alopica in the dog.

1) hypothyroidism
2) hyperadrenocorticism

336

List 2 endocrine disease commonly found in the cat

1) hyperthyroidism
2) DM

337

List 2 endocrine organs that become commonly effected in a ferret.

1) adrenal gland
2) pancreas

338

List 2 clinical signs seen with diabetes mellitus

1) increased water intake
2) pu/pd

339

Name clinical finding secondary to DM that is common in dogs but rare in cats

cataracts

340

List 2 types of oral neoplasms

1) SCC
2) fibrosarcoma

341

List 4 accessory organs.

1) liver
2) pancreas
3) gallbladder
4) teeth

342

Explain why the liver is so susceptible to ingested toxins.

because its still part of the GI tract and it goes to the iiver first

343

List 2 infectious causes of hepatitis in a dog

1) leptosporsis
2) infectious canine hepatitis (adenovirus 2)

344

What is the most common liver disease in cats?

feline hepatic lipidosis

345

What does supraventricular mean?

above the ventricles

346

Name some difference in heatworm in a dog and a cat

1) cats are not as susceptible and are not the definite host
2) dogs have more worms
3) harder to diagnose in cats
4) no treatment in cats

347

What is the main difference in cat heartworm vs ferrets

in ferrets you can see the microfilaria

348

What is the term for inflammation of the eyelids?

blepharitits

349

What is the function of the tapetum lucidium?

amplifies light for low light conditions

350

Name 2 types of eye diseases/eye conditions

1) glaucoma
2) cataracts

351

List the difference between demodectic and sarcoptic mange

-demodectic can be hereditary
-demodectic is not zoonotic
-demodectic is associated with immunosuppression

352

List 3 canine or feline disease that are zoonotic

1) Sarcoptic Mange-scabies
2) Ringworm
3) Noedrec mange

353

List 3 diseases, from any of the organ systems, which the GSD is predisposed to

1) canine hypertropic cardiomyopathy
2) ventricular tachycardia
3) persistent right aortic arch

354

Which of these do not cause immunosuppression:
a) CDV
b) FeLV
c) FIPV
d) CPV
e) FIV

c) FIPV

355

What is the primary mode of transmission for each virus:
1) FIV
2) CDV
3) RV
4) FPV
5) FeLV
6) CPV
7) FIPV

1) bite
2) aerosolized droplets
3) bite
4) fecal-oral
5) oronasal
6) fecal-oral
7) fecal-oral

356

What's the difference between vertical and horizontal transmission?

vertical: parent to offspring
horizontal: everything else animal to animal, fomite

357

When maternal immunity is too low in the young to protect against disease, why is it helpful in determining frequency of vaccinations?

it counteracts the vaccine

358

List 2 reasons for CORE vaccines

1) morbidity and mortality
2) widespread (risk of exposure)

359

Give 1 reasons for performing a vaccine titer

if they have a titer to see if we can vaccinate or to find a nonresponder

360

What might i mean if there is a negative titer but has been vaccinated several times throughout their life?

the animal does not respond

361

List 3 clinical signs that may be from acute vaccine reactions

1) acute anaphylaxis
2) swelling
3) inflammation

362

When discharging a patient who has had previous reactions to vaccines what do you tell the owner?

don't leave animal alone and watch for signs of a reaction

363

2 things that are important when caring for a hospitalized CPV patient.

1) isolation
2) strict aseptic of IV catheter

364

List 2 of the 3 organ systems affected with CPV

1) neuro
2) respiratory

365

List 2 clinical forms of FIP and which is most common.

1) effusive = wet (75% of cases)
2) noneffusive = dry

366

What is the most common clinical sign seen with the common form of FIP?

ascites

367

How is FIV prevented other than vaccination

restrict free roaming cats

368

Why is the FIV vaccination generally not recommended for shelter cats?

Does not protect against all strains of virus

369

What can be used as a prognostic indicator in patients with parvovirus?

total WBC count

370

What advice would you give an owner with a young clinically normal but positive FeLV test

retest the kitten

371

List 2 species that are not felids that are susceptible to FPV

1) racoons
2) coati

372

List 3 species that are not felids that are susceptible to CPV

1) ferrets
2) racoons
3) coati

373

What is the usual incubation period of rabies?

3-8 weeks

374

What is the appropriate specimen for rabies virus? What is important to remember about specimen handling?

brain tissue, don't freeze it and appropriate biohazard labeling

375

List the vaccine administration sites: FeLV ____, RV _____, FVRCP ____

left rear leg, right rear leg, left front limb

376

T/F Primary organs of the immune system include thymus, bone marrow, and spleen

false-spleen secondary

377

Natural killer cells (lymphocytes) are part of the innate immune system and can rapidly recognize and destroy abnormal cells. Which is true:
a) they detect ab on the surface
b) they release substances that cause cell destruction
c) they engulf and destroy abnormal cells
d) they bind to pathogens and destroy them

b) they release substances that cause cell destruction

378

When a virus infects cells of the body, the cells are stimulated to release small proteins that prevent replication of the virus in neighboring cells. These protective proteins are called

interferons

379

The production of antibodies in response to specific antigen stimulation is known as the immune response. The cells of the immune system that produce antibodies are

b cell lymphocytes

380

Where are b lymphocytes found after birth?

spleen and lymph nodes

381

Which class of antibody has the highest concentration in serum and is the smallest molecule that can escape from blood vessels easiest.

igG

382

Give 2 examples of noncore vaccines

Lepto, FeLV

383

T/F Noncore vaccines are either directed against disease of little clinical significance or confer protection against infection or development of clinical signs

false-not recommended

384

T/F Passive immunity provides immediate protection but it short lived compared to active immunity

true

385

The presence of an antigen stimulates the production of antibodies and of memory cells which can recognize and respond to that antigen if it presented to them again. This is the process utilized by vaccines. The memory cells are:

b lymphocytes

386

Which class of antibody is associated with class I hypersensitivity?

IgE

387

A good effective vaccine should protect ____ of animals

80%

388

An acute inflammatory response that occurs when antigen binds IgE receptors on mast cells is an example of which type of hypersensitivity? If this is was an acute allergic reaction it would be called?

type I, anaphylaxis

389

A positive reaction to tuberculin testing is an example of a type of

IV

390

In the US, standardized laboratory methods for determining serum antibody titers for vaccine antigens have only been established for?

RV-rabies virus

391

Perinatal infection with this virus can cause cerebellar hypoplasia

FPV-feline panleukopenia virs

392

List 2 other neurological clinical signs seen in young animals with FPV

ataxia, falling to side

393

Which of the following is labile (cannot survive in environment):
a) FPV
b) CDV
c) CPV
d) FIPV

b) CDV

394

The great exposure to RV to humans is the ____ stage

prodomal

395

List 2 clinical signs seen with rabies in humans

1) change in behavior
2) fever

396

The vaccine for this virus is noncore but i highly recommended for all kittens after a negative test.

FeLV

397

Which of the following is not a risk factor for FIP:
a) exposure to feline coronovirus
b) housing in a shelter/multi cat household
c) middle to older age (6 ys plus)
d) being purebreed

c) middle to older age (6 ys plus)

398

T/F FIV is a lentivirus that has characteristics of HIV but is not a health threat to humans.

true

399

T/F Feline asthma is cured.

false-managed not cured

400

Progressive disease of incompletely known cause in which there is a defect in hyaline cartilage resulting in tracheal rings that lose the ability to remain rigid and collapse during respiration "goose honk." Most common in what breed?

collapsing trachea, yorkies (managed not cured)

401

Canine Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever is caused by Rickettsia rickettsii is transmitted by the _____, Dermacentor variabilis, & D. andersonii, the _________; Brown Dog Tick has been assoc. w/ outbreaks, also

American Dog Tick, Rocky Mountain Wood Tick

402

T/F Most cases of RMSF occur in SE & south central US (NC, OK, AK, TN, MO account for over 60% of RMSF cases in people)but geographic distribution is expanding

true

403

Human RMSF is a _____ disease in the US.

reportable-zoonotic

404

Organisms infect & replicate in vascular endothelial cells causing inflammation (vasculitis), necrosis & increased vascular permeability resulting in: Abnormal hemostasis (thrombocytopenia), edema & microthrombosis

RMSF

405

Severe dz of RMSF may occur in what breed?

GSD

406

RMSF clinical signs.

-Lymphadenomegaly is common
-Ocular signs discharge
-Mucocutaneous & cutaneous hyperemia, petechiae, ecchymosis, edema and necrosis
-rule out other tick-borne diseases

407

RMSF lab findings:

-Thrombocytopenia = most common lab finding (83%)
-Leukocytosis w/ toxic change in neutrophils

408

RMSF diagnosis:

-Serology - microimmunofluorescence
-PCR

409

Lyme is a complex multiorgan dz caused by _____, a spirochete bacterium transmitted by ____ ticks

Borrelia burgdorferi, Ixodes spp

410

Lyme Borrelisosis is a sporadic dz that occurs worldwide but it is endemic in most of the NE states w/ 90% of cases occurring in _______

CT, NY, NJ & PA

411

T/F There are no hematologic or biochemical changes characteristic of Lyme Dz, the only way to diagnose it is the Idexx snap 3DX.

true

412

Toxoplasmosis is caused by ____, an intracellular coccidian with worldwide distribution

Toxoplasma gondii

413

T/F For Toxoplasmosis, Felines are the only definitive hosts, but other animals and humans serve as intermediate hosts (IH)

true

414

How is Toxoplasmosis transmitted?

Transmission occurs by eating meat from infected IH, fecal-orally and transplacentally

415

Toxoplasmosis, oocysts are not infective until they sporulate which takes ____, but can remain infective in soil for mos to years. After ingestion of ____ oocysts, tachyzoites form & invade tissues.

24 – 48 hrs, sporulated

416

Toxoplasmosis clinical signs in cats:

lung & eye (anterior uveitis, glaucoma, retinal lesions) in the cat

417

Toxoplasmosis clinical signs in people:

influenza-like w/ swollen lymph nodes or muscle aches & pains that last for a month or more; w/ severe dz in immunocompromised people the brain and eye are often affected

418

Prevention of Toxoplasmosis

-Don’t allow cats to hunt or feed them raw meat
-Follow good hygiene practices when handling cat feces
-Wear gloves when gardening & wash hands after
-Immunosuppressed people should avoid w/ contact kittens or infected cats
-Avoid immunosuppressive drugs in seropositive cats
-Avoid acquiring a new kitten/cat during pregnancy
-Treatment: Antibiotics (Clindamycin)

419

What is sinusitis? What is a clinical sign?

Inflammation of sinuses, most commonly due to tooth root abscess in dogs (horses too). Swelling under eye on the side of the bad tooth.

420

AKA Kennel cough

Infectious Canine Tracheobronchitis, Bordetella bronchiseptica

421

Influenza A subtype H3N8 virus mutated from Equine H3N8 Influenza Virus and adapted to canine species to emerge as a canine-specific virus

Canine Influenza (CI)-First recognized outbreak believed to occur in racing greyhounds at a track in Florida

422

25 % of cases have BM suppression resulting in

pancytopenia (GSD!)-Canine Monocytic ehrilichiosis

423

What pansystemic disease can cause Cerebellar Hypoplasia?

Feline Panleukopenia