Clinical Flashcards Preview

Veterinary Technician > Clinical > Flashcards

Flashcards in Clinical Deck (89):
1

Location of anal glands.

8 and 4 o'clock

2

Describe DA2LPP.

1) Distemper-respiratory
2) Adenovirus type 2-hepatitis
3) Leptospirosis-from rats
4) Parainfluenza-respiratory
5) Parvo-GI

3

What are the core vaccines for a dog? What is noncore?

-parvovirus, distemper, adenovirus 2, and rabies
-lepto, bordetella

4

Core vs noncore vaccines.

-core-vital to all dogs based on risk of exposure, severity of disease or transmissibility to humans.(should have these)
-noncore-are given depending on the dog’s exposure risk(only some may need depends)

5

Describe FVRCP.

1) Feline Viral Rhinotracheitis-respiratory herpes
2) Calicivirus-respiratory
3) Panleukopenia-feline distemper by parvovirus

6

What are the core vaccines for a cat? What is noncore?

-panleukopenia, calicivirus, feline viral rhinotracheitis rabies
-feline leukemia virus (FeLV)

7

Genus and species of canine and feline roundworm? Cat? Dog? Prepatent?

1) Toxascaris leonina
2) Toxacara catia
3) Toxocara canis
4) 14-21 days

8

Genus and species coccidia of Dog? Cat? Prepatent?

1) Isospora canis/Isopora ohioensis
2) Isopora felis/Isosphora rivolta
3) 7-10 days

9

How can you diagnose Clostridium perfringens?

high number of CP spores with clinical signs

10

What is the SG of most parasite ova?

between 1.18 and 1.27

11

For EDTA what is collected? Used for?

-serum
-CBC, morphology, platelet count

12

For RTT what is collected? Used for?

-serum (wait for it to clot, then spin it to get firbrin)
-chemistrys

13

For Heparin what is collected? Used for?

-plasma
-chemistrys

14

For Sodium Citrate is used for?

-platelet clotting and coagulation tests

15

Revolution-generic name and what it controls?

Selamectin, fleas, heartworm, roundworm, hookworm, scabies, ear mites

16

First Shield Trio-what it repels and kills?

fleas, ticks, mosquitos

17

Iverhart max-what it is for?

roundworm, hookworm, and tapeworm (Ivermectin/Pyrantel pamoate/Praziquantel)

18

Trifexis-what is the name and what it kills and prevents?

combination of Comfortis and Interceptor (Spinosad and Milbemycin), prevents heartworm, fleas, hookworm, roundworm, and whipworm

19

Comfortis-generic name and what is kills and prevents?

Spinosad, fleas

20

ProHeart-generic name and what it's for?

Moxidectin, heart worm and hooks for 6 months

21

What is the name of the cat scabies mite?

Notoedres cati, rare

22

What is the name of ear mites?

Otodectes cynotis

23

What is the liver specific function test?

Bile acids (enzymes GGT, ALKP)

24

Stages of heart worm and prepatent period.

7-9months
L1-microfilaria
L2-inside the mosquito
L3-infective stage/saliva

25

Genus and species of Whipworm for cat.

Trichuris campanula
Trichuris serrate

26

Explain the rabies procedure.

tag #, paper with county info don't register there, 3 copies 1 to keep 1 to send 1 for banfield, serial # and expiration, first time 1 yr 2nd time 3 yrs

27

What makes the system closed, semi closed, or open?

A Semi-closed circle system is a partial rebreathing system that is safe, practical, and an economical system to use in general practice in all patients, the pop-off valve is partially open, which the oxygen flow rate is higher than the metabolic needs of the patient, and waste gases exit through the pop-off valve. A closed circle system is a total rebreathing system where the pop-off valve is nearly or entirely closed, and the oxygen flow rate is just enough to meet metabolic needs of the patient

28

Name some nonrebreathers.

Mapleson A (Magill and Lack circuits), modified Mapleson D (Bain coaxial circuit), Mapleson E (Ayre’s T piece and Bain) or Mapleson F circuits (Jackson-Rees’ modification of Ayre’s T-piece and Normans mask elbow), and the Humphrey ADE

29

Describe the parts of the machine involved with a nonrebreather

delivery tube->reservoir bag->scavenger
delivery tube->vaporizer->flowmeter->pressure reducing valve->oxygen tank

30

How do you calculate the size of the rebreather bag?

the weight (kg) x 10-20mls/kg (tidal volume)= mls x 6
19kg x 10mls/kg= 190mls x 6= 950mls= 1L

31

Explain the function of the soda lyme and the different ways to see if it is viable

1) It removes carbon dioxide from the exhaled gases before the gases are returned to the patient by using crystals that absorb the exhaled carbon dioxide
2) 6-8 hours
3) the color change of the granules
4) granules may be hard or brittle
5) hypercapnia in patient

32

Describe how excess gases are captured.

the scavenger, CO2, pop-off valve, reservoir bag

33

What are 3 reasons why the reservoir bag on the anesthetic machine would be too full?

1) the oxygen flow is set too high
2) patient is not breathing
3) the pop-off valve is closed

34

What are 3 reasons for the reservoir bag to be empty?

1) the oxygen flow is too low
2) the pop-off valve is too far open
3) a leak is present

35

What is the difference between precision vaporizers and non-precision vaporizers? Which is used?

Non-precision vaporizers are intended to be used only with low vapor pressure anesthetics and are located in the breathing circuit (VIC) because they do not impede the flow of gases around the circuit as the patient breathes. (Precision vaporizers?) allows precise delivery of high vapor pressure inhalant agents and is located out of the breathing circuit because of their high resistance to gas flow and are therefore known as vaporizer out-of-circle of VOC

36

Describe MAC-define and why is it useful to know.

-minimum alveolar concentration
-assess anesthetic potency
-helps predict how much anesthetic will be required to keep patients from moving during surgery

37

Normal values for spO2, hr, temp, pulse, bp, end tidal co2

-HR: 60-120bpm
-RR: 8-20
-BP: 110-190 (120-170) systolic, 55-110 (70-120) diastolic
-MAP: 70-90
-Pulse Oximeter: >95%
-ETCO2: 35-45
-TEMP: 99-102.5

38

EKG:
1) ____: depolarization and subsequent contraction of atria
2) ____: action potential to ventricles to contract
3) ____: period of ventricular recovery (ventricular repolarization)

1) P-wave
2) QRS
3) T-wave

39

Midazolam: class, indications, side effects, contraindications

1) Class: Benzodiazepine
2) Indications: Midazolam is used principally as a premedicant for general anesthesia. -muscle relaxant
3) Side Effects: Potential for respiratory depression is of most concern.
4) Contraindications: Seizures, muscle tremors, Hypersensitivity to benzodiazepines, acute narrow-angle glaucoma. Hepatic or renal disease, debilitated or geriatric patients, and those in coma, shock, or with significant respiratory depression.

40

Dexdomitor: class, indications, side effects, contraindications

1) Class: Synthetic alpha2-adrenoreceptor agonist
2) Indication: use as a sedative and analgesic in dogs and cats to facilitate clinical examinations, clinical procedures, minor surgical procedures, and minor dental procedures. Dexdomitor is also indicated for use as a preanesthetic to general anesthesia in dogs.
3) Side Effects: Arrhythmias, bradycardia during treatment, apnea, severe hypothermia, prolonged recovery, muscle spasms
4) Contraindications: Do not use Dexdomitor in dogs or cats with cardiovascular disease, respiratory disorders, liver or kidney diseases, or in conditions of shock, severe debilitation, or stress due to extreme heat, cold or fatigue.

41

Rimadyl: class, indications, side effects, contraindications

1) Class: NSAID
2) Indication: Carprofen is labeled for the relief of pain and inflammation in dogs.
3) Side Effects: Mild gastrointestinal effects (vomiting, diarrhea, inappetence) or lethargy
4) Contraindications: In dogs with bleeding disorders (Von Williebrand’s), history of serious reactions to it or other propionic-class NSAIDs.

42

Convenia (Cefovecin Sodium): class, indications, side effects, contraindications

1) Class: Cephalosporin
2) Indication: FDA-approved for dogs to treat skin infections caused by susceptible strains of Staphylococcus intermedius and Streptococcus canis and in cats to treat skin infections caused by susceptible strains of Pasteurella multocida.
3) Side Effects: Appears to be well-tolerated, mild to moderate increase in liver enzymes (GGT, ALT).
4) Contraindications: In animals with a known allergy to cefovecin or to other beta-lactam antibiotics.

43

Morphine: class, indications, side effects, contraindications

1) Class: Opioid
2) Indication: Used for the treatment of acute pain.
3) Side Effects: Histamine release, respiratory depression, bronchoconstriction, CNS depression, physical dependence, hyperthermia, hypothermia, GI effects like nausea and vomiting.
4) Contraindications: Hypersensitivity to morphine.

44

Glycopyrrolate: class, indications, side effects, contraindications

1) Class: Anticholinergic (Antimuscarinic)
2) Indication: The FDA-approved indication for these species is as a preanesthetic anticholinergic agent. The drug is also used to treat sinus bradycardia, sinoatrial arrest, and incomplete AV block.
3) Side Effects: Dry secretions; intial bradycardia, then tachycardia; slowing of gut and urinary tract motility; mydriasis/cycloplegia.
4) Contraindications: It should not be used in pregnant animals or if hypersensitivity to it.

45

What is the nonrebreather they use called?

Modified Jackson A

46

What is the rebreather they use called?

Universal F circuit

47

What is the name of the drug that is the reversal for opioids?

Naloxone

48

What is the pop-off valve used for?

First it can act as a vent, when it is in the completely open position the pop-off valve prevents buildup of pressure in the system. Second, the pop-off valve can be used to determine flow rate techniques. When varying degrees of “open” are used, different oxygen flow rate can be used. Higher flow rates need to be used with a wide-open pop-off valve and lower rates can be used with the valve partially closed or “closed” meaning mostly closed.

49

What is considered to be in the breathing circle?

tubes, CO2 absorber, reservoir bag, scavenger, manometer, pop-off valve (not-vaporizer, flow meter, O2 tank)

50

The capnograph measures the amount of ___ in the air that is breathed in and out by the patient.

CO2

51

ETCO2 is?

the partial pressure or maximal concentration of carbon dioxide (CO2) at the end of an exhaled breath

52

What do you do when the SPO2 and end tidal CO2 are abnormal?

bag patient, turn down sevo

53

Taking a radiograph of the abdomen.

You can count from either the 6th rib up or the 7th rib down (diaphragm) to the caudal femoral head. It was taken on expiration.

54

Taking a radiograph of the thorax.

The thoracic spine is centered to the cassette, and the field of view should include the area from the seventh cervical vertebral body to the first lumbar vertebral body.

55

When the ETCO2 is increased what does this mean? How do you fix it?

hypoventilation-too deep

56

If an ET tube is too long or too short what is this creating?

more dead space

57

What does the pulse oximeter measure?

the saturation of oxygen in hemoglobin

58

What does kVp stand for?

kilovoltage peak

59

What does mAs stand for?

milliamperage a second

60

What is elongation?

this is a distortion that occurs when the x-ray beam is not directed perpendicular to the film surface

61

What is foreshortening?

when the image appears shorter than actual size due to the plane of interest not being parallel to the film surface

62

What is magnification?

distortion because the area is far from the image receptor

63

What is the SID (source image distance)

the distance between the x-ray tube and the image receptor or film (casette)

64

What does the mAs control?

darkness

65

What does the kVp control?

penetration

66

What are 2 advantages to Alpha-2 agonists?

they can be reversed and they have some analgesia

67

What is a benefit of ketamine?

it helps with muscle rigidity, prevents wind-up

68

What reflexes are monitored under anesthesia?

jaw tone, swallowing, PLR, anal tone, dorsal pedal pinching, ears

69

How do you measure the width of the ET tube?

by the nasal septum

70

What are the two general categories/type of x-ray film?

The two types are screen film and nonscreen film

71

Telazol: class, indications, side effects, contraindications

1) Class: Tiletamine HCL and Zolazepam HCL and the class is a combination of a dissociative and a nonnarcotic, nonbarbiturate, injectable anesthetic agent.
2) Indication: It’s indicated for restraint or anesthesia combined with muscle relaxation in cats, and for restraint and minor procedures of short duration (30 minutes) which require mild to moderate analgesia in dogs.
3) Side Effects: Respiratory depression, apnea may occur, pain after the IM injection, athetoid movements, tachycardia.
4) Contraindications: Pancreatic disease, rabbits, severe cardiac disease, use in cesarean section, or pulmonary disease.

72

Hydromorphone: class, indications, side effects, contraindications

1) Class: Opiate agonist
2) Indication: Is used in dogs and cats as a sedative/restraining agent, analgesic and preanesthetic.
3) Side Effects: Panting, whining, vocalization, vomiting, and defecation.
4) Contraindications: Hypersensitivity to it, diarrhea caused by a toxic ingestion prior to GI obstructive surgery may cause vomiting.

73

Maropitant Citrate (Cerenia): class, indications, side effects, contraindications

1) Class: Antiemetic
2) Indication: For the prevention and
3) Side Effects: Pre-travel vomiting and hyper salivation are the two most common side effects seen.
4) Contraindications: Use caution in dogs with hepatic dysfunction as maropitant is hepatically metabolized. Use caution with other medications that are highly protein bound. Use caution in puppies less than 11 weeks old.

74

Famotidine: class, indications, side effects, contraindications

1) Class: H2-receptor Antagonist
2) Indication: May be useful for the treatment and/or prophylaxis of gastric, abomasal, and duodenal ulcers, uremic gastritis, stress-related or drug-induced erosive gastritis, esophagitis, duodenal gastric reflux, and esophageal reflux.
3) Side Effects: Too rapid IV infusion may cause bradycardia.
4) Contraindications: Patients with cardiac disease significantly impaired hepatic or renal function.

75

Cephalexin: class, indications, side effects, contraindications

1) Class: Cephalosporin-Antibiotic
2) Indication: It has been used clinically in dogs, cats, horses, rabbits, ferrets, and birds, particularly for susceptible Staphylococcal infections.
3) Side Effects: GI in nature, hypersensitivity reactions possible.
4) Contraindications: In patients with a history of hypersensitivity to them, or other antibiotics such as beta lactam antibiotics.

76

Proin (Phenylopropanolamine HCL): class, indications, side effects, contraindications

1) Class: Sympathomimetic
2) Indication: For the treatment of urethral sphincter hypotonus and resulting incontinence in dogs and cats.
3) Side Effects: Restlessness, irritability, hypertension, and anorexia.
4) Contraindications: Glaucoma, prostatic hypertrophy, hyperthyroidism, diabetes mellitus, cardiovascular disorders, or hypertension.

77

What's the difference between trichomonas and giardia?

giardia moves in place and trichomonas trucks or moves across the screen (protozoa)

78

Coccidia: genus and species, phylum, pre-patent period, intermediate host/life cycle.

-Isospora canis/isosphora ohioensis (isospora ohioenis is smaller than canis, rivolta is smaller than felis)
-isospora felis/isosphora rivolta
-Protozoa
-7-10 days

79

Toxoplasmosis: genus and species, phylum, pre-patent period, intermediate host/life cycle.

-1-5 days
-mammals, birds, people
-protozoa
-Toxoplasma gondii

80

Heart worm: genus and species, phylum, pre-patent period, intermediate host/life cycle.

-Dirofilaria immitis
-nematode
-7-9 months
-mosquito
-L1-microflaria, L2-inside mosquito, L3-saliva goes into blood of animal, L4-develops to the heart

81

What's the difference between A. reconditum (Acanthocheilonema) and D. immitis?

A. reconditum is non pathological and has a blunt head with a curved body, D. immitis is pathological has a tapered head and straight body

82

Spirocera lupi: genus and species, phylum, pre-patent period, intermediate host/life cycle.

-nematode
-eating raw chicken and dung beetles
-esophageal worm

83

Physaloptera rara: genus and species, phylum, pre-patent period, intermediate host/life cycle.

-nematode
-stomach worm
-eating cockroaches

84

Baycylisacsaris: genus and species, phylum, pre-patent period, intermediate host/life cycle.

-nematode
-raccoon roundworm
-ingesting eggs

85

Tapeworm: genus and species, phylum, pre-patent period, intermediate host/life cycle.

-Dipylidium caninum
-cestode
-flea
-14-21 days

86

Whipworm: genus and species, phylum, pre-patent period, intermediate host/life cycle.

-Trichuris vulpis
-Trichuris serrate and campunela
-70-90 days
-nematode

87

Platynosomum fastosum: genus and species, phylum, pre-patent period, intermediate host/life cycle.

-cat liver fluke
-trematode
-eating lizards, toads, geckos

88

Genus and species of the cat hookworm.

Ancylostoma tubaformae

89

The degree of blackness or “darkness” on a radiograph

radiographic density