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Flashcards in Animal Nursing Lab Deck (165):
1

Trace the flow of O2 through the system to the patient.

E tank -> pressure reducing valve -> flow meter -> vaporizer -> unidirectional valves -> patient -> unidirectional valves ->manometer -> soda lime -> reservoir bag -> scavenger

2

How do you know when to change the scavenge system?

after each use you weigh it and once it has gained 50 grams of its initial weight you replace it

3

What are areas on the patient's body that should be observed to gain information about the patient's behavior?

the chest, thorax, eyes, the mouth, the heart, temperature, the femoral artery or dorsal pedal for pulse

4

Why is it important to keep the power control set to a lower setting?

so it doesn't heat up and cause damage to the teeth

5

Used to detect softened areas and defects in enamel.

explorers

6

How deep can periodontal probes measure?

up to 6 sites around a tooth's circumference

7

This instrument is used to assess periodontal disease.

periodontal probes

8

Periodontal explorer that has a sharp, thin tip curved into a _______

Shepard's hook "crook"

9

This instrument is used to remove heavy calculus from the surface of the tooth

Calculus removal forceps

10

This instrument removes calculus and plaque from the surface of the crown of the tooth

scalers

11

What area are scalers used?

supragingival use only

12

Why are scalers limited to that area?

because of the potential for gum damage

13

What is the recommended care of curettes and scalers?

they must be sharpened after every use with an oiled flat stone at a 110 degree angle

14

What instrument is used to remove subgingival deposits form the root surface and debride tissue lining

curettes

15

Why are pulse oximeters readings inaccurate in the presence of carbonoxyhemoglobin and methemoglobin?

because it only measures the percentage of hemoglobin with oxygen

16

What other patient situations cause a reduced pulse oximeter signal?

anemia and vasoconstriction

17

Why would a capnograph be inaccurate in hypoventilation but useful when controlling ventilation?

because it measures the end tidal volume of CO2

18

When is complete sterilization of items obtained?

most items is achieved after 9-15 minutes(doesn't matter) of exposure to 250 degrees F minimum of 15 psi

19

What are the 2 main types of autoclaves and the difference between them?

1) gravity displacement autoclaves-the steam gradually displaces the air contained within a chamber and forced out through a vent
2) prevacuum autoclaves-is larger and is equipped with a boiler to generate steam and a vacuum system

19

How is exposure time related to internal pressure and steam temperature?

Heat is the killing agent and steam is the vector that supplies the heat and promotes penetration of the heat. Pressure is the means to create adequately heated steam.

19

What are the PPE use when performing a dental prophy?

gloves, mask, an eye shield

20

List the veins and animals that are used for IV catherterization.

dog: cephalic, lateral saphenous, jugular
cat: cephalic, femoral, jugular

21

List the two main different types of fluids and then give an example for the use of each type.

1) crystalloids- lactated ringer's solution/0.9% NaCl, can pass through a semipermeable membrane and eneter all body compartemnts
2) artificial colloids-hetastarch/tetrastarch, are used in conditions which the vascular space cannot retain an adequate fluid volume

22

List the veins and animals that are used for venipuncture

dog: cephalic, jugular
cat: femoral, jugular

23

List the two main different types of fluids and then give an example for the use of each type.

1) crystalloids- lactated ringer's solution/0.9% NaCl, can pass through a semipermeable membrane and eneter all body compartemnts
2) artificial colloids-hetastarch/tetrastarch, are used in conditions which the vascular space cannot retain an adequate fluid volume

24

Why should the leg be cleaned of any blood that is outside the catheter?

blood is a good culture medium for bacterial growth so removing that will help decrease the possibility of infection

25

How often should the fluid administration set be changed if continuous IV fluid administration is maintained?

change fluid administration set every 24 to 72 hours

26

How often should the catheter be flushed with heparinized saline if not on continuous fluid administration?

every 8 to 12 hours

27

What is the most common support bandage placed on the patients?

Robert-Jones, vetwrap, elasticon

28

What is the major complication associated with intraosseous catheters?

1) sepsis
2) osteomyelitis
3) contraindicated in fractured bones

29

What is a limiting factor when addressing wounds and how should this factor be addressed?

1) Evaluate location, size and depth, exudates, tissue in wound bed, any signs of infection-Erythema, edema, pus, fever, pain, change in color of exudates, or uncharacteristic odor
2) # 1control hemorrhage

30

What is important to remember about the layers?

-thick enough to absorb moisture
-pad wound from trauma
-inhibit wound movement

31

What is a limiting factor when addressing wounds and how should this factor be addressed?

1) Evaluate location, size and depth, exudates, tissue in wound bed, any signs of infection-Erythema, edema, pus, fever, elevated neutrophil count, pain, change in color of exudates, or uncharacteristic odor
2) # 1control hemorrhage

32

What are the main principles for bandage application?

-Protection
-Supports both bone & soft tissue
-Secure splints
-Provide compression
-Restrict motion, prevent self-grooming

33

When checking the catheter, what signs would indicate a change of site is needed?

swelling, pain, or redness around the skin

34

How is the catheter checked to see if a change of site is needed?

the bandage should be changed immediately if it is wet or soiled and the leg is inspected

35

Give two reasons why patients should be intubated for a dental procedure.

1) to conduct more thorough dental work
2) spare the pet of pain

36

The patient is anesthetized and intubated, what procedure would be performed to ensure the tube is correctly cuffed?

by listening tot he cuff: place 20 cm in cuff if loud hiss needs more air, slight hiss is okay recheck 15-20mins

37

How is the length of the ET determined for the patient?

should sit halfway between the pharynx and thoracic inlet, note where it sits at end of nose-this is where it should be when you insert it

38

What are 3 reasons why the reservoir bag on the anesthetic machine would be too full?

1) the oxygen flow is set too high
2) patient is not breathing
3) the pop-off valve is closed

39

What are 3 reasons for the reservoir bag to be empty?

1) the oxygen flow is too low
2) the pop-off valve is too far open
3) a leak is present

40

List the 2 main methods of determination of the efficacy of the CO2 granules.

1) the color change of the granules
2) granules may be hard or brittle
3) hypercapnia in patient
4) the time it has been used

41

What is the best patient position to visualize the larynx for the placement of the endotracheal tube?

sternal recumbency

42

Explain the difference in location when using a laryngoscope between cats and dogs.

you wait for the glottis to open and carefully not touch it

43

Why is the location different in cats, what might be prevented when using the different locations?

laryngospasms can be prevented

44

List 4 reasons to perform a dental prophylaxis.

1) to remove calculus and stain from teeth
2) to improve condition of gingivual tissues
3) to control periodontal disease
4) to treat halitosis

45

What are the 3 instruments found in each autoclave pack? What are there functions?

-explorer: checks for roughness/loose teeth
-scaler: cleans the surface supragingivually
-periodontal probe: measures 6 sites of a tooth's circumference

46

What are the potential complications of dental scaling and how can each occur? Give a method of troubleshooting each.

1) injury to gingival tissues: from using the tip of the instrument, use the side of the instrument for which it is intended for
2) damage to the enamel: keeping the scaler on it too long causing to heat up, limit the scaler 5 seconds per tooth
3) bacteremia: from the blood accumulation from the patient, wipe the blood away as much as possible

47

What is the recommended position for the patient once under anesthesia and prior to the initiation of the dental procedure?

lateral recumbency

48

List 2 abnormalities that the dental explorer can identify.

1) defects in enamel
2) resorptive areas (Feline odontoclastic resorptive lesions)

49

What are the steps when preparing the ultrasonic scaler to achieve proper water flow, basically what is the initial rate and then final rate of the water prior to initiating cleaning?

1gtt/sec low power and low water

50

What is the adult cat dental formula? Dog?

cat: 2(C1/1 I3/3 P3/2 M 1/1) 30
dog: 2(C1/1 I3/3 P4/4 M2/3) 42

51

What are the three parts of a scaler? Which part should be oiled and how often?

Handle, shank, and working hand-oiled/every use

52

What is the purpose of the water spray?

since it is diluted with chlorhexadine 0.12% it should disinfect the patient's mouth

53

Where on the tooth can the ultrasonic scaler be used?

suprginigival only

54

What is the purpose of the gingival curette?

used to remove subginigval deposits form the line root surface and debride tissue lining

55

When changing from the scaler to the polisher, are there any adjustments that need to be made to the machine?

the power should be adjusted and the water should be turned off

56

Why are the teeth polished when finished with the scaling?

polishing removes stains and plaque and smoothes the tooth surface, which slows subsequent

57

Why are enemas used, list 2 reasons?

1) to stimulate bowel activity
2) to irrigate the colon

58

List 2 complications of enemas.

1) perforating the colon and leakage of fluid into the peritoneal cavity
2) vomiting if fluid is administered to quickly

59

When the patient is ready to discharge, why is it important to have the owners clean the teeth at home?

to prevent periodontal disease, to decrease bacteria, plaque, tartar

60

What is the optimum schedule for the owner to clean the pet's teeth?

in the morning before they eat and at night after they eat (whatever the owner will do?)

61

What is the actual schedule most clients follow?

their own or none at all

62

Into what increments are the periodontal probes divided?

they are marked in millimeter increments by notches or color change

63

When performing the pre-anesthetic chemistry profile, what organ systems are being evaluated?

renal, cardiac, neuro, respiratory

64

When using the tiger top tube, how long should blood sit to allow complete clotting to have occurred?

30 mins

65

What anticoagulant is in the green top tube?

heparin

66

When is chlorhexadine used in the dental prophy procedure?

before probing/scaling/explorering (or during?)

67

What is the concentration of the chlorhexadine used in the cleaning?

0.12%

68

When preparing for a dental film exposure, what is used to hold the film in place?

vetwrap

69

What is the purpose for the use of flurofoam?

strengthens tooth enamel and prevents tooth decay, it is used to prevent cavities in the teeth

70

When is flurofoam used in a dental prophy?

after the teeth are polished

71

What anesthetic gas is used in the dental labs on campus?

isoflurane

72

What type of precision vaporizer is needed for isoflurane?

precision vaporizer

73

Name 2 instruments that will be used to monitor the patient. List the parameters that will be measured.

1) ECG: electrical impulses of the heart rate
2) pulse oximeter: the saturation of hemoglobin in oxygen

74

Give two signs of impending cardiopulmonary arrest.

1) tachycardia on ECG
2) tachypnea

75

List the correct placement of the ECG leads.

white: goes on right arm (newspaper, christmas, good, evil)
black: left arm
red: left leg
green: right leg

76

List 2 parameters that can interfere with the correct interpretation of the ECG reading.

1) muscle tremors
2) patient positioning

77

List 2 reasons for taking dental radiographs.

1) to view the parts of the teeth that cannot be seen with just an oral examination
2) to see how a tooth is forming if it is growing normally or abnormal

78

Identify 1 nerve block and where it would be desensitized in the mouth:

infraorbital: it would be inside the foreman towards the surface of the maxilla rostral to the zygomatic arch

80

What are 3 reasons for IV catheters?

1) to administer fluids, medications, anesthetic agents, blood components, and certain test substances
2) to measure central venous pressure
3) to provide ready access to the circulatory system for anticipated metabolic emergencies (seizures, shock)

80

Why is it important to select the appropriate size-what would determine the best size for the vein?

the animal's weight and size

81

Why is the bevel up when inserting a needle into a vein?

to do as less damage as possible

82

What 4 potential complications of IV catheters?

1) occlusion, malpositioning, and breakage of the catheter
2) thrombophlebitis
3) infection
4) hemorrhage and subcutaneous hematoma formation
5) pyrogenic reaction

83

How is the continued position of the needle from a winged infusion set checked to insure proper placement?

by aspiration of blood into a syringe or by lowering fluid bottle below animal's body level

84

What type of catheter is not recommended for use in the jugular vein for an adult patient?

over-the-needle

85

Why are winged infusion catheters not recommended to be used as indwelling catheters?

if an animal moves, the butterfly needle can easily become dislodged or puncture the opposite wall of the vein

86

Why should the venipuncture site be cleaned prior to the final taping of the catheter?

because blood is a medium for bacteria, cleaning it will decrease the possibility of infection

87

Periodontal disease can lead to what?

tooth/bone loss, decreased appetite/weight loss, liver/kidney/cardiac

88

What are the 4 structures that hold a tooth in place?

periodontal ligament, alveolar bone, cementum, gingiva

89

What are signs of periodontal disease?

1) loss of gingiva
2) halitosis
3) bone reabsorption
4) gingivitis
5) mobility of teeth

90

Calcified connective tissue (bony tissue) that covers the root surface of the tooth and acts as an attachment for the periodontal ligament

cementum

91

The junction where the crown and root meet

cementoenamal junction

92

The exposed or visible portion of the tooth above the ginigival tissue

crown

93

Feline deciduous/permanent:
1) Incisors
2) Canines
3) Premolars
4) Molars

1) 2-3 weeks/3-4 months
2) 3-4 weeks/4-5 months
3) 3-6 weeks/4-6 months
4) 4-6 months

94

Canine deciduous/permanent
1) Incisors
2) Canines
3) Premolars
4) Molars

1) 3-5 weeks/3-5 months
2) 3-6 weeks/3-6 months
3) 4-10 weeks/3-6 months
4) 3-7 months

95

What are the 3 skull types?

1) Mesaticephalic: poodles, labs, shorthair cats
2) Brachycephalic: boxers, pugs, persian cats
3) Dolichocephalic: collie, greyhounds

96

______ loose incisors because less bone in jaw due to small size of mouth

toy breeds

97

T/F Brachycephalics have a higher incidence of periodontal disease.

true

98

T/F Brachycephalics have teeth crowding, rotated and overlapped teeth.

true

99

Stabilizes, absorbs shock. Cementum must remain healthy to maintain attachment of ligament to tooth.

Periodontal ligament

100

What are the directional terms for a tooth

1) Labial-direction toward the outside of the teeth usually towards the lips, maxilla; anterior teeth only
2) Buccal- direction toward the outside of the teeth, usually towards the cheeks, mandible and maxilla; only the posterior teeth
3) Palatial-direction of the inside surface of the teeth of the maxilla, facing the hard palate
4) Lingual-direction of the inside surface of the teeth of the mandible, facing the tongue
5) Distal- surface of the tooth that is away from the midline arch
6) Mesial-toward the midline of the dental arch
7) Occlusal-chewing surface of the caudal teeth
8) Incisal- Biting surface the anterior teeth

101

Explain the rule of 4 and 9. Example with the cat's maxilla and mandible is?

-canine is always 4, 1st molar is always 9
-204-206-207-208-209 (left upper q 2)
-304-307-308-309 (left lower q 3)

102

Which teeth are the Carnassial teeth?

upper 4th PM, lower 1st molar

103

Loss of tooth structure at neck of the tooth. Commonly at buccal surface.

Resorptive lesions

104

T/F Patients do not chatter under anesthesia

false-do

105

Normals under Anesthesia:
1) HR-
2) RR-
3) BP- Systolic + Diastolic
4) MAP-
5) Pulse Oximeter-
6) ETCO2-

1) 60-120
2) 8-20
3) 120 (90-160) and 80 (50-90)
4) 70-90 (decrease of MAP indicates decrease in flow of blood to organs)
5) >96%
6) 35-45

106

A decrease in MAP(mean arterial pressure) indicates?

decrease of MAP indicates decrease in flow of blood to organs

107

End tidal CO2 is increased indicates? Decreased?

-Increase indicates exhausted CO2 granules
-Decrease indicates dead space, decrease body temp, increase RR, too much bagging

108

What reflexes are monitored during anesthetic procedure?

PLR(pupillary light reflex), swallowing, jaw tone

109

What should the eye position be of an anesthetized patient during the surgical plane?

central, ventral medial

110

What procedure ensures that atelectasis (alveolar rupture) does not occur?

bagging

111

The capnograph measures?

end tidal CO2

114

2 causes of abnormal capnograph readings

hyperventilation, hyopventiliation

115

How do you calculate the size of the rebreather bag?

the weight (kg) x 10-20mls/kg= mls x 5
19kg x 10mls/kg= 190mls x 5= 950mls= 1L

116

Calculate drip rate for patient using 2 x maintenance rate (50 ml/kg/24h)

19kg x 50ml/kg/24h=950mls/kg/24h
950mls/kg/24h x 2=1,900mls/24h
1,900mls/60min=31.6mls/min= 32mls/min
32mls/60sec=0.533=0.5mls/sec
1 gtt/1 sec

117

What needs to be done with the patient prior to surgical prep to ensure patient comfort and avoid contamination of surgical wound?

take the pet out to use the bathroom

118

How should you hold the clippers?

pencil grip

119

Hair is removed by clipping ____ the grain of hair growth.

against

120

What is the rule of thumb when clipping hair?

2 clipper blade widths in every direction from the incision site

121

How to clip hair for:
1) abdominal procedures/exploratory
2) bladder procedures
3) OVH

1) mid-sternum to pubis ,laterally to edge of ribs
2) umbilicius to pubis, laterally to edge of ribs
3) xiphoid to pubis, laterally to edge of ribs

122

What are the scrubbing agents?

1) povidone-iodine (dilute 50/50) contact time
2) chlorhexidine gluconate (dilte 60:40) best residual effect

123

What are the rinsing agents?

1) alcohol 70%
2) sterile water or saline

124

Move sponge back and forth for approximately ___ sec and move in an outward circle until you reach margins.

15 seconds

125

T/F Crossmatching is not a substitute for blood typing.

true

126

When you place a drop of whole blood and saline on a slide. What do you do? What are you looking for?

rotate slide and observe for agglutination

127

The red cells are washed, which means that they are mixed with saline and spun in a centrifuge, and then the saline is removed. This gets rid of what?

excess proteins which might cause a false reaction

128

What samples are needed for cross matching of blood?

an EDTA and serum sample from both recipient and donor

129

T/F Compatible cross matched does not necessarily indicate that both donor and recipient have the same blood type, merely the antibodies against the RBCs cannot be detected.

true

130

What measures pressure in the breathing circuit?

manometer

131

Name 1 purpose of the reservoir bag.

It allows the anesthetist to observe the animal's respirations

132

When you are manually bagging a patient, what is the maximum pressure?

20mmHg

133

What is primarily a safety device on an anesthetic machine?

the negative pressure relief valve

134

What does the pressure reducing valve reduce the O2 pressure to?

40-50psi

135

How long are penrose drains in place for?

2-5 days

136

Before transporting a patient for first aid, what needs to be done to the wound?

cover to protect wound

137

Name 1 combination to preform CPR.

-1 ventilation/3-5 chest compressions with 2 people
-1 ventilation/15 compressions 1 person

138

What organ metabolizes drugs?

liver

139

How do you measure the ET tube?

from the thoracic inlet to the incisors

140

Phosphate enemas should not be used in feline or canine patients. What does it cause?

can cause hypocalcemia or hyperosmality

141

What is the correct eye position during adequate anesthetic depth?

central during light anesthesia, ventromedial during medium anesthesia, and central during deep anesthesia (ventromedial)

142

While preforming a dental cleaning, how do you add more iso?

turn vaporizer off first, fill it to the line, turn back on

143

Calculate the dose for a 19kg patient for 0.2mg/kg of Butorphanol at 10mg/ml

19kg x 0.2mg/kg=3.8mg
3.8mg/10mg/ml= 0.38mg=0.4ml

144

What are 2 signs of overhydration in an anesthetized patient?

-crackles/wheezes in chest
-serous nasal discharge

145

How many anesthetic stages are there?

4 stages

146

The plane of anesthesia most suitable for surgical procedures is generally considered to be:

stage 3, plane 2

147

What are the reasons for abnormalities:
1) ALT
2) ALK Phos
3) Gluc
4) Creat
5) TP
6) BUN

1) corticosteroids (liver)
2) glucocorticoids
3) diabetes
4) renal/kidney problem
5) dehydration
6) renal/kidney

148

What happens if an enema is administered too rapidly?

vomiting

149

What are the purposes of urinary catheters?

1) to collect urine fro analysis or bacterial culture if percutaneous sample cannot be obtained
2) to administer medication or radiographiccontrast media directly into the urinary bladder
3) to provide closed continuous drainage of urine
4) to relieve urethral obstructions

150

What are the best sites for intraosseous catheterizations?

1) trochanteric fossa of the proximal femur
2) the iliac crest
3) the medial side of the proximal tibia

151

With the picture of the dog label the muscles. (right to left)

1) triceps
2) epaxial (top)
3) quadriceps (in front of)
4) semimembranosis/semitendonusis

152

How do you label the PQRST?

-----r
---p_____q -----t

____s

153

What does ventricular tachycardia look like?

-SSSSS-

154

What drugs do we use for preanesthetics?

1) acepromazine (pheonthiazine/antihistamine/hypotension)
2) butorphanol (opioid/pain)

155

What induction agent do we use?

Propofol

156

Acepromazine causes what in cats? What does it do for seizures?

excitability, decreases seizure threshold

157

What is important to remember about giving Propofol?

giving it slowly and bolus half of it (dilates eyes)

158

Since Propofol vasodilates, when do you not place an ET tube?

anemia, fluid loss, shock

159

What does Butorphanol cause? What can it also be used as?

bradycardia, antitussive

160

Does atropine have any analgesia?

no

161

Why are drug calculations for atropine done before a procedure?

in case of an emergency

162

What class of drug is ketamine? What is it useful for?

cyclohexamine, reducing windup

163

What do you do after you use ketamine?

use ointment in the eyes because it causes no blinking

164

Acepromazine can also be used as a? It can cause?

antitussive, hypotension

165

Acepromazine can also be used as a? It can cause?

antitussive, hypotension