The magnification of the high dry objective is
The condenser and diaphragm are used to
take full advantage of the microscope's resolving capacity and adjust the amount of light
T/F more light is needed when evaluating a direct fecal smear than when using oil immersion
Purple tops contain
What is hemolysis?
How can one tell is hemolysis has occurred?
any variation of pink to red
T/F heparin imparts the best preservation of cellular morphologic detail
Serum/plasma that is opaque and "milky" is called _____
What causes serum/plasma to be lipemic?
fat in the blood
Why should blood films be prepared immediately after blood collection?
to reduce artifacts in cell morphology caused by anticoagulants
What is the most common cause of a falsely elevated PCV?
not spun for 5 minutes
When we measure the PCV column on a spun microhematocrit what are we assessing in the animal?
RBC, or possibly anemia
If a dog has a PCV of 33% what is its est hemoglobin value?
List 4 different parameters that can be evaluated by spinning whole blood in a microhematocrit tube
est hemoglobin, tp, pcv, wbc
List the types of cells found in whole blood
What is rouleaux?
aggregation of RBC into linear formations resembling stacks of poker chips
What is agglutination?
aggregation of RBC into grapelike clusters
What is left shift?
increased number of immature neutrophils
What is right shift and what causes it?
increased number of hypermature neutrophils, aging
What are reactive lymphocytes?
lymphocytes with certain morpholic changes
What is monocytosis and what causes it?
(immature macrophil) increased number of monocytes, stress or necrosis
What is lymphocytosis?
(epinephrin)increased number of lymphocytes
What is lymphopenia?
decreased number of lymphocytes
What is eosinphilia and what causes it?
increased number of eosinophils caused by allergic reactions
What are some variables that affect the results of a fecal examination?
history of the patient (recent travel), timing (on heartworm preventative?), proper sample size ( 1g of fecal required), specific gravity for the desired flotation media (check solution routinely)
What is the specific gravity of the floatation media used in lab (fecasol)?
______ has a higher specific gravity than the eggs in a fecal
How do you make a direct smear?
drop of saline on a slide, mix feces to saline, place coverslip over the drop
How do you make a centrifugal flotation?
prepare fecal using 2-5g, strain, fill tube, place in centrifuge for 10 mins, take out wait 5 mins, coverslip on slide
What do you do to encourage clients to control measures of parasites?
remove feces from the yard and play areas, wash hands following pet contact, clean dogs and cats promptly, feed only cooked or prepared food
Why is the centrifuge better to do a fecal on?
it allows for a more rapid and effeicnt separation of parasites and debris
The WBCs include what cell types?
neutrophils, band cells(immature neutrophils), lymphocytes, monocytes, eosinophils, and basophils
_______ are the most prevalent in WBC and are primary infection fighters of the body
________ are immature neutrohpils and are released from bone marrow whenever there is an increased need somewhere in the body
_____ are associated with immune functions
_______ eliminate cells and debris of inflammation and infection
______ respond to antigen stimulation in hypersensitive reactions
____ are a rare cellular component of the blood
How much of a fecal is needed to do any tests?
1 g of feces
What is crenation?
hypertonic solution shrinking and it looks spiky
What type of cell is this
What kind of cell is this?
What type of cell is this?
What type of cell is this?
What type of cell is this?
What type of cell is this?
What kind of cell is this?
left shift- increase in immature neutrophils by inflammation
Label microscope parts.
1) eye piece focus 2) turret 3) travel knobs 4) aperature lever 5) condenser centering knob 6) coarse focus knob 7) fine focus knob
Label microscope parts
1) objective lenses 2) specimen 3) stage 4) condenser 5) aperture diaphragm
Where do you start a WBC differential and look for rouleux?
in the monolayer
Where are platetet clumps in a blood smear?
What does leukocytosis mean?
an increase in leukocytes
What is the term for an increased number of neutrophilic bands?
What is the best index of RBC mass?
What is the term used for decreased RBC mass? increased?
What is neutrophil hypersegmentation? List one cause of it.
when a nucleus of a neutrophil is segmented with 5 or more lobes, aging
Refractile artifact in RBCs on a blood film stained with Diff-Quick stain is usually due to?
water/moisture in the fixative
Explain how specific gravity is used to float parasite ova
the specific gravity needs to be greater than the ova for the ova to float
The fecal floation media used in our lab and in most small animal pracitces is
T/F Sodium chloride solution is the least desirable floation solution because it corrodes expensive labortatory equipment, forms crystals on the microscope slide and distorts parasite ova morphology.
The ova of which parasite will not float?
TWBC=15,500/microliters eos=3% solve this
0.03 x 15,500= 465/microliters
What specific gravity is required to make most parasite ova float?
greater than 2.5
What parasite ova is this?
What parasite ova is this?
tapeworm egg baskets
What parasite ova is this?
What parasite ova is this?
What parasite ova is this?
Low light, condenser down for?
fecals, unstained preps
Higher light, condeser up for?
stained smears especially oil immersion
T/F The advanced technology of today's hematology analyzers has made it unnecessary to perform routine peripheral blood film evaluation
A high PCV can indicate dehydration. Elevation of what other parameter supports this?
The fecal solution that we use in lab contains?
When a drop of plasma or serum is placed on the refractometer prisim, it is the ____ of the sample that is being evaluated
Properly scanning a blood flim at low power includes observation of?
RBC distribution/density, PLT clumping, large reactive/atypical lymphocytes, WBC density and predominant cell type
T/F When performing a direct fecal smear examination, a thick smear gives the best result.
A high number of eosinophils is usually associated with either ___ or ___
parasitism and/or allergry
How are canine and feline eosinophils differentiated on a blood smear?
cats have rod shaped granules
Water/moisture in the fixative usually causes ____ on blood films stained with diff-quick?
refractile artifacts in RBCs
T/F Lipemia can cause hemolysis of erythrocytes
What is lipemia?
fat/lipids in the blood
The presence of stain precipitate in a blood film stained with diff-quick stain is an indication that?
clean new slides should be used, the stains should be filtered or changed
An increased number of neutrophillic bands in different leukocyte count is often associated with?
T/F Zinc sulfate solution floats protozoal organisms with the least amount of distortion.
T/F Saturated sodium chloride solution is the least desirable because it corrodes laboratory equipment, forms crystals and severly distorts parasite ova.
Fecal sedimentation is used to detect dense parasite ova that will not float in standard flotation solutions. Parasite eggs with a specific gravity too high for flotation include ___ ova
T/F Neutrophils are the prime infection fighters of the body, have a short life span of a few hours, and they have the capability to engulf/kill/remove invaders from the body.
In the dog, monocytosis may be caused by?
stress, necrosis, chronic inflammation
T/F Direct smears are only used to identify protozoa; nematode ova cannot be identified with this test.
Which is the best (most sensitive and efficient) technique for recovery of parasite ova when only small numbers of ova are present?
Fecal flotations are examined using which power objective?
Dipylidium caninum is what phylum?
What can increase a lymphocyte count?
excitement, fear, and antigen stimulation
T/F Gray-top tubes should be used to collect whole blood for hematology studies in reptiles.
Serum/plasma that is also opaque should be characterized as being?
hemolyzied and lipemic
Hypersegmentation of neutrophils is caused by
corticosteriod release by the adrenal glands
Hypersegmentation of the neutrophils causes what of the neutrophils?
Which flotation is best for detecting the cyst form of giardia?
T/F EDTA provides the best preservation of morphologic detal, in excess can cause RBC shrinkage, and causes a bluish backround on stained films
What species is rouleaux commonly seen on blood smears?
Elongated; segmented nucleus; cytoplasmic granules usually not visible
Large cell; pleomorphic nucleus; blue-grey cytoplasm +/- vacuoles
Small, very dark, shurnken nuclei
Segmented nucleus; blue-black to lavendar (depending on species cytoplasmic granules)
Variably sized; round, often slightly indented nucleus, scant to small amounts of cytoplasm that can be blue; high N:C ratio
Segmented nucleus; pink to red cytoplasmic granules
Anuclear cells with short, evenly spaced, uniform spicule-like surface projections
Generally horseshaped nucleus with rounded ends
T/F More light is needed when evaluating a direct fecal smear than when using oil immersion.
An increase in the space between the cells in the thin area on a blood smear indicates
What is the term for erythrocyte destruction? List 2 causes of RBC destruction.
hemolysis: too many unclean sticks, putting too much pressure on the syringe when transferring the blood
Name the three areas on a blood smear.
feathered edge, monolayer, and thick area
What is cutaneous larval migrans? What is it caused by?
List one artifact of RBC and one of leukocyte cell morphology which can occur secondary to anticoagulants if blood films are not made promptly following blood collection.
RBC: crenation WBC: hemolysis
List 3 recommendations that technicians can review with clients when discussing the prevention of zoonotic dieases associated with parasites.
1) always pick up and throw away feces 2) taking their prevention 3) get their shots/vaccinations
List two examples of PPE. List 2 instances when it must be worn in lab.
gloves, gown: when working with nonhuman primates, you need it when handling blood samples
List 2 parasites that cannot be detected by fecal flotation.
flukes and protozoa trophozoites
Characteristics that should be recorded when performing a gross examination of feces.
consistency, color, blood, mucous, parasites, foreign material
After running a manual (spun) PCV, a technician told the doctor that the test results indicated that the patient may have a liver problem. What made her be concerned about liver diease?
yellow plasma icturic
After running a manual (spun) PCV, a technician told the doctor that the test results indicated that the patient may have a liver problem. What else could the diagnosis be?
List and explain 4 variables stated in the article on fecal examination which can directly effect fecal examination.
fecal sample size, specific gravity of a solution, timing(is sample fresh/monthly preventative), history of the patient(houseing evr/new pets)
Name two common parasites between cats and dogs that suck blood and can cause anemia
What are two ways to evaluate anemia in the laboratory?
Low PCV, low RBCS on blood smear
List the granulocytic leukocytes.
neutrophil, basophil, eosinophil
What is the difference between serum and plasma?
plasma still retains the fibrinogen that helps in clotting while serum is the part of the blood that remains after this fibrinogen is removed
What type of blood tube is used when serum is needed?
red top tube
What is the minimum sample size for centrifugal flotation?
What is this?
What is that?
The steps to do when using the machine to do a CBC.
click the test tube icon, select patient id, enter patient id number, enter species, doctor: is your initials, name of animal, age/sex: neutered, press accept, mix blood, put blood in rotor, then start
A result of an increased amount of ribosomal RNA, diffuse cytoplasmic staining in immature and mature neutrophils
More mature neutrophils than bands
regenerative left shift
Total leukocyte count varies from being below normal to occasionally slightly elevated.
degenerative left shift
What is right shift?
an increase in the percent of the older cells (hypersegmentation)
Irregularly shaped, small, pale-blue gray particles in the cytoplasm or gray cytoplasmic inclusions due to abnormal cell maturation
Caused by prominent lysosome or dilated cytoplasmic organelles, indistinct vacuoles giving a foamy appearance to the cytoplasm
Which type of reticulocyte is most prevalent normally in cats?
T/F Young platelets are often as large or larger than an RBC, called megaplatelets/macroplatelets/giant platelets or shift platelets, and fully functional.
What does the Vetscan Rapid Canine Heartworm Test detect?
D. immitis antigen
What are two reasons why the hematology machine might give a low PLT result?
1) macroplatelets are counted as RBCs or WBCs 2) platelet clumping
What cell is this?
What dog breed has normal macrocytosis?
What dog breeds normally have microcytic RBCs?
Asian breeds: chow chow, shiba inu
What breed often has decreased or giant PLTs?
Cavalier King Charles Spaniels
When performing a low power evaluation what do you record?
parasites, RBC distribution(normal, anemic, rouleaux, agglutination), WBC distribution(not a lot in feathered edge/normal amount)
Total leukocyte count is 8,430/microliter, seg: 67%, lymph: 15%, mono: 8%
How can you find the absolute WBC?
0.67 x 8,430=5,648.1=5,648/microliter
0.15 x 8,430= 1,264/microliter
0.08 x 8,430= 674/microliter
What is the most common cause of hypochromatophillic RBCs on a blood film in dogs and cats?
Why is it important to differentiate D. immitis from A. reconditum?
since A. reconditum is nonpathogenic you don't want to give the animal treatment for the heatworm which has harmful chemicals if it A. reconditum
You counted 10 OIFs and got 199 platelets in a dog, give a rough estimate of platelets. What about for a cat?
199/10=19.9 19.9 x 15,000= 298, 500/microliter
19.9 x 20,000= 398,000/microliter
What animal has the smallest RBCs?
What kind of cell is that?
What kind of cell?
What kind of cell?
Top arrow? Bottom?
top: blister cell bottom: helmet cell (both keratocytes)
What is the echinocyte burr cell?
acanthocyte (spur cell)
leptocyte: target cell (codocyte)
What parasite is this?
What is this?
What is this?
How is lyme disease spread?
ticks in their saliva
T/F an immunoassay is any test that uses interactions between antibodies and antigens to produce a result.
What are the components of an Elisa test?
1) the conjugate 2) chromogen
The _____ is an antibody that is bound to an enzyme. It usually consists of monoclonal antibodies bound to an enzyme.
___ is a photosensitive reagent that produces a color change in the test system.
When doing a platelet count what do you have to do before starting oil immersion?
scan the feathered edge for platelet clumps
What cell is this?
leptocyte folded cell
When recorded PLT morphology if everything is normal you write?
WNL (within normal limits)
If you're doing a reticulocyte count and you count 159 reticulocytes calculate the percentage, absolute, and corrected.
159/1,000= 0.159 x 100= 15.9%
0.159 x 2.29=.36411=absolute: 364,110/microliter
15.9 x (18.2/45) = corrected: 6.4%
Why is it better do to a modified knott's test?
because it differentiates the microfilaria species
It is important to make avian blood smears immediately after blood collection. Why?
because their cells are delicate and deteriorate faster and the counts witll be altered
What type of blood tube is recommended for collection of whole blood samples for CBCs for most avian species and why?
EDTA because it preserves the morphology
List the components of avian blood.
WBCs(mono, eso, lymph, baso), RBCs, thrombocytes, plasma, heterophil
What is the major difference between avian and mammalian blood?
avian cells are nucleated
Birds normally without anemia have a relatively high % of reticulocytes, why? How short?
because avian's life span is shorter, RBC lifespan is 25-40 days
Which WBC is the most prevalent normally in avian species and also is similar to a neutrophil?
List 2 characteristics of avian thrombocytes that are different from mammalian platelets. List 2 that are very similiar or the same.
Different: 1) avian's are nucleated, mammals not 2) avian's thrombocytes are a lot larger than mammals
Same: 1) both same shape-round to oval 2) both function for hemostasis
How many thrombocytes/OIF are considered adequate in birds?
Which other cell in avian blood can be mistaken for a thrombocyte?
What parasite is this?
canine distemper virus
Babesia canis phylum, intra/epi, how is it transmitted and does it cause a disease?
protozoa, intra in RBCs, ticks, anemia
Ehrlichia canis what organism, intra/epi, how is it transmitted and does it cause a disease?
protozoa, rickettsial, intra in monocytes, no disease
Canine distemper virus intra/epi?
intra RBCs and neutrophils
Mycoplasma haemofelis intra/epi, how is it transmitted and does it cause a disease?
epicellular, by fleas, causes hemolytic anemia
Cytauxzoon felis how is it transmitted and does it cause a disease, definitive host?
ticks, fatal hemolytic anemia, bobcat
Hemoproteus intra/epi, how is it transmitted?
intra RBC, through hippoboscid flies and bitting midges
Plasmodium intra/epi, how is it transmitted and does it cause a disease?
in RBCs, through mosquitos, causative agent for malaria
Anaplasma phagocytophilium transmitted, disease it causes, organism, intra/epi?
ticks-ixodes scapularis and ixodes pacifus, human granulocytic anaplasmosis, rickettsial, intra neutrophils(morulae)
Immature RBCs containing residual RNA and organelles that are lost a the cell matures, what are they called when they are on a wright's type stain?
0.5% NMB stain causes precipitation of the residual RNA and proteins and makes reticulocytes appear as aggregates or chains of dark blue granules forming a
How do you do a reticulocyte count?
2(1) drops of whole blood in a test tube, 3(2) drops of NMB stain in the tube, mix them by tapping the tube, incubate for 15-20 mins, prepare blood film and let it air dry, examine smear in oil
T/F In dogs and cats, the reticulocyte count is corrected for the degree of anemia.
T/F The corrected reticulocyte % has not been validated and not used in species other than cats and dogs.
The reticulocyte % can be used if a total RBC count is not available, but quantification of reticulocytes by calculation of _______ is the best indicator of bone marrow response to anemia.
absoulte reticulocyte numbers
Reticulocytosis is a significant number of reticulocyte released from the bone marrow into the peripheral circulation due to increased ______ in response to anemia.
T/F Reticulocytes are not evident until 48-72 hours after the onset of anemia.
T/F A regenerative response may not be evident unless there is a 50% decrease in PCV.
T/F Species with a shorter RBC lifespan have a higher % of reticulocytes normally, without anemia.
T/F Reticulocytes are not seen in healthy or anemic horses.
Absolute reticulocyte counts that indicate regeneration for dog and cat.
greater than 80,000 dog, greater than 60,000 cat
Lack of reticulocytosis after anemia suggests that the bone marrow is not responding or is?
Why might bone marrow not respond?
insufficient time for a reticulocyte response (need 48-72 hours)
deficiency in the existing response (not producing enough reticulocytes or destruction of reticulocytes)
Cats produce 2 types of reticulocytes that differ only in the amounts of residual ___ they contain which is proprotional to the degree of maturation of the cells.
Punctate and aggregate increase secondary to incerased erthropoiesis in the bone marrow, but which one circulates for at least 2 weeks and can persist for up to 4 weeks after the initial anemia?
___ reticulocytes are less reliable than _____ reticulocytes as indicators of the current demand for RBCs because of their persistance in the peripheral ciruclation
When do you count only aggregate reticulocytes in cats? When do you count both?
moderate or marked anemia(PCV <20%), mild anemia
Report platelet numbers estimated from a smear using ____, ____, ___ instead of PLTS/microliter
adequate, increased, or decreased
If there seems to be a decrease in platelets why might that be?
you need to scan the feathered edge for clumps to make sure
Spontaneous petechial to ecchymotic hemorrhage occurs when PLT numbers are less than or equal to?
10,000 to 50,000 PLTs/microliter
What are the 4 general catagories why platelets are decreased?
1) PLT production defect in the bone marrow
2) accelerated PLT destruction
3) abnormal distribution of PLT stores
4) combination of all the above
What number is considered to be thrombocytosis?
greater than 800,000 PLTs/microliter UNCOMMON
Significant numbers of unusually large PLTs(larger than an RBC) resulting in PLT anisocytosis suggests what?
early release of PLTs from the bone marrow(often a response to thrombocytopenia)
Shift platelets are fully functional to slightly hyperreactive and have an increase ___.
What size platelets are often seen in cats?
megaplatelets (the size of RBCs or larger)
Abnormal CBC counts should be verified with?
evaluation of the blood smear
Impedance counters may count PLTs as ____ resulting in a falsely low PLT count.
Really giant cat PLTs(or clumps) may be counted as ____ resulting in a faslely elevated ___ count.
What size platelet suggests a early immune-mediated event?
What might type of platelets might you also see with iron deficiency anemia?
Platelet fragmentation can be an artifact of storage in?
EDTA for longer than 24 hours
An increased MPV with decreased PLT numbers suggests?
thrombopoeisis(production of platelets)
What are some condiitions that may be associated with increased MPV and decreased PLT numbers?
2) immune mediated thrombocytopenia
3) myeloproliferative disorders
If there is PLT swelling (where the PLTs appear larger and more round) that may occur secondary to storage in?
EDTA for longer than 4 hours
When blood cools to room temperature(25 C) or is refrigerated(4 C) it can result in?
falsely elevated MPV
Disorders most often associtaed with decreased MPV include?
1) insufficient megakaryocytes in the bone marrow
2) lack of megakaryocyte response
3) immune-mediated thrombocytopenia
T/F EDTA can induce PLT clumping, especially in the horse.
What kind of plaletels are spider-like in apperance with small cytoplasmic pseudopodia?
Significant numbers of PLTs that are poorly granulated or have a few large granules may be indicative of?
PLT developmental abnormalities or defects in the bone marrow
Really large granules should be examined as potential parastitic inclusions like?
Anaplasma platys in the dog
Significant numbers of elongated, cigar-shaped PLTs suggest?
T/F Like lymphocytes, bird thrombocytes have a high N:C ration(more nucleus to cytoplasm) and can be mistaken for small mature lymphocytes.
Normal range for avian platelets?
20,000-30,00/microliter 10-15 thrombocytes per 1,000 RBCs
If RBCs have a higher MCV that means?
they have increased volume and are larger than normal RBCs
Most breeds of dogs have an MCV of _____fl. However, the Akita and Shiba Inu breeds normally have a smaller MCV(58 fl) and the MCV of the RBCs of some healthy miniature nad toy poodles is 90-100fl.
Which indices is the best index of Hb saturation?
What can cause an increased MCHC?
When performing RBC evalutation, what must you always do?
record the degree for size(anisocytosis 1+), color(polychromasia 2+), shape(polikocytosis-spherocytes 1+), distribution(severe anemia), and abnormalities/artifacts(refractile artifacts with degree)
____ increases with inflammatory or neoplastic disease or in other condtions associated with increased fibrinogen (hyperfibrinogenemia) or increased globulin (hyperglobulinemia) concerntration.
What does the saline aggultination test do?
differentiates aggultination from rouleaux
Dilution of the blood with saline will cause ____ to disperse but true ____ will still be present.
Agglutination occrus in _____ disorders.
_____ of RBCs can cause the MCV to be falsely increased.
Reticulocytes are macrocytic(bigger than mature RBCs) and blood samples with a significant macrocytosis will have an increased ___
What infection is the most common cause of nonregenerative, macrocytic anemia in the cat?
Animals with a significant number of microcytic RBCs will have a decreased ____
Burr cell(echinocyte) is often seen in diseases such as?
1) renal disease
2) lymphosarcoma in dogs
3) conditions resulting in electrolyte depletion
Acanthocytes(spurr cell) are often seen in animals with?
1) dogs with hepatic hemangiosarcoma (liver HSA)
2) dogs with other liver diseases or portosystemic shunts (PSS)
3) hepatic lipidosis in cat
4) high cholesterol diets
5) sever iron deficiency
What cell is considered the hallmark of conditions associated with RBC fragmentation?
Schiztocytes are often seen in animals what diseases?
2) disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC
Oxidative injury to the RBC membrane with lipid peroxidation and exclusion of Hb results in a type of schistocyte called _________ the hemi-ghost RBCs with Hb condensed in one portion of the cell leabing a clear blister-like area in the remaining part of the RBC. Further fragmentation results in a _____ (helmet cell).
eccentrocyte=blister cell, keratocyte
Spherocytes have a normal ___ because the volume of the cells have not changed.
The presence of spherocytes suggests immune-mediated destruction of RBCs and disease conditions associated with:
1) immune-mediated hemolytic anemia (IMHA)
2) some stages of heinz body anemia
3) following transfusion reactions
What's another name for an elliptocyte?
Spiculated RBC with numerous, short, uniformly sized and evenly spaced surface projections
True poikliocytosis, attributed to altered or fluxing electrolytes resulting in expansion of the outer layer of the cell membrane due to the fluid/electrolyte flux
types II and III=burr cell
What is the type I echinocyte that is most common type seen which is caused by artifacts occuring in vitro
Spiculated RBC with a few irregular, often blunted, unevenly distributed surface projections of variable length thought to result from an altered phospholipied: cholestrol ration in the RBC membrane
Small, irregular RBC fragment that usually results from mechanical trauma by intravascular fibrin strand deposition or by turbulent blood flow within the vasculature
Small, dark dense RBC with reduced or no central pallor and a decreased cell membrane surface area caused by phagocytosis by splenic macrophages secondary to antibody or complement coating of the rbc membrane, epicellular RBC parasites or other conditions causnig an altered membrane
Thin RBC with increased membrane to volume ratio that results in folding orr distortion of the RBC membrane
RBC with a round central area of Hb surrounded by a clear zone then a dense ring of the Hb around the periphery of the cell
targert cell (codocyte)
RBC with a transeverse, raised fold that extends across the center of the cell
Folded cells can be seen with?
1) iron deficieny anemia
3) liver disease
RBC with an oval area of central pallor due to expansion of the inner layer of the cell membrane
Hereditary stomatocytosis of what breeds?
miniature schnauzer, alaskan malamute
Tear drop shaped RBC resulting from the inability of the RBC to return to its original shape after being deformed in the blood vessels
dacrocyte (tear drop cell)
Blood samples with normochromic RBCs should have normal ____ and ___ values.
RBCs with a bluish basophilic tint
Immature RBCS that have increased amounts of residual RNA(increased blue color) and decreased concentrations of Hb(decresed red color) and are larger than normal mature RBCs
Because polychromatophils have decreased Hb, blood will have a decreased ___. Since, they are larger than mature RBCs, blood with have an increased ___
Less intense red staining(pale RBCs) and increased central pallor caused by insuffient Hb within the RBC.
Blood samples with significantly low Hb concentration in RBCs will have a decreased ___
In animals, hypochromic RBCs are usually associated with ______ and almost always occurs with ___(decreased MCV)
iron deficiency, microcytosis
Earlier stages of erythroid development prematurely released into the peripheral circulation
_____ is an expected or appropriate response in strongly regenerative anemias accompanied by reticulocytosis/polychromasia
T/F Metarubricytosis occuring without a regenerative response is appropriate.
Inappropriate responses of metarubricytosis are:
1) lead toxicity
2) iron/copper deficiency
3) FeLV infection
T/F NRBCs can be seen on a blood film at scanning power (10x)
How are NRBCs reported?
separately from the WBCs as # of NRBCS per 100 WBCs
When there's 5 or more NRBCs counter per 100 WBCs, the total WBC count must be corrected, why?
because they would have been counted as WBCs with both automated and manual methods
Small, usually singular and round, basophillic nuclear remnants in the RBC cytoplasm
Multiple, small, dark blue, dot-like structures representing residual RNA in the RBC cytoplasm
When basophillic stippling is accompanied by marker metarubricytosis with minimal polychromasia, basophillic stippling may be indicative of ___.
A knob-like structure protuding from the RBC membrane or a small, pale, refractile spot in the RBC cytoplasm composed of denatured, precipitated Hb that is often attached to the inner cell membrane.
What can heinz bodies result in?
Loss of membrane integrity, decreased cell deformability and cell lysis due to binding of the denatured Hb to BC membrane proteins
Heinz bodies in cats are aslo called?
erythrocyte refractile bodies or ER bodies
In sick cats, increased numbers of heinz bodies may be seen with:
1) diabetes mellitus
4) renal disease
Variably sized, irregular to round to ring-shaped structures, most often seen in canine polychromatophils, that stain magents with diff-quick and blue-gray with wright's or giemsa stains.
Distemper inclusions are composed of aggregates of viral nuclecapsids and are present only during the __________
viremic stage of canine distemper virus infection