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Flashcards in Animal lab procedures lab Deck (299):
1

The magnification of the high dry objective is

40x

2

The condenser and diaphragm are used to

take full advantage of the microscope's resolving capacity and adjust the amount of light

3

T/F more light is needed when evaluating a direct fecal smear than when using oil immersion

false

4

Purple tops contain

EDTA

5

What is hemolysis?

ruptured RBCs

6

How can one tell is hemolysis has occurred?

any variation of pink to red

7

T/F heparin imparts the best preservation of cellular morphologic detail

false

8

Serum/plasma that is opaque and "milky" is called _____

lipemia

9

What causes serum/plasma to be lipemic?

fat in the blood

10

Why should blood films be prepared immediately after blood collection?

to reduce artifacts in cell morphology caused by anticoagulants

11

What is the most common cause of a falsely elevated PCV?

not spun for 5 minutes

12

When we measure the PCV column on a spun microhematocrit what are we assessing in the animal?

RBC, or possibly anemia

13

If a dog has a PCV of 33% what is its est hemoglobin value?

11 g/dl

14

List 4 different parameters that can be evaluated by spinning whole blood in a microhematocrit tube

est hemoglobin, tp, pcv, wbc

15

List the types of cells found in whole blood

RBCs, WBCS

16

What is rouleaux?

aggregation of RBC into linear formations resembling stacks of poker chips

17

What is agglutination?

aggregation of RBC into grapelike clusters

18

What is left shift?

increased number of immature neutrophils

19

What is right shift and what causes it?

increased number of hypermature neutrophils, aging

20

What are reactive lymphocytes?

lymphocytes with certain morpholic changes

21

What is monocytosis and what causes it?

(immature macrophil) increased number of monocytes, stress or necrosis

22

What is lymphocytosis?

(epinephrin)increased number of lymphocytes

23

What is lymphopenia?

decreased number of lymphocytes

24

What is eosinphilia and what causes it?

increased number of eosinophils caused by allergic reactions

25

What are some variables that affect the results of a fecal examination?

history of the patient (recent travel), timing (on heartworm preventative?), proper sample size ( 1g of fecal required), specific gravity for the desired flotation media (check solution routinely)

26

What is the specific gravity of the floatation media used in lab (fecasol)?

1.25-1.30

27

______ has a higher specific gravity than the eggs in a fecal

solution

28

How do you make a direct smear?

drop of saline on a slide, mix feces to saline, place coverslip over the drop

29

How do you make a centrifugal flotation?

prepare fecal using 2-5g, strain, fill tube, place in centrifuge for 10 mins, take out wait 5 mins, coverslip on slide

30

What do you do to encourage clients to control measures of parasites?

remove feces from the yard and play areas, wash hands following pet contact, clean dogs and cats promptly, feed only cooked or prepared food

31

Why is the centrifuge better to do a fecal on?

it allows for a more rapid and effeicnt separation of parasites and debris

32

The WBCs include what cell types?

neutrophils, band cells(immature neutrophils), lymphocytes, monocytes, eosinophils, and basophils

33

_______ are the most prevalent in WBC and are primary infection fighters of the body

neutrophils

34

________ are immature neutrohpils and are released from bone marrow whenever there is an increased need somewhere in the body

bands

35

_____ are associated with immune functions

lymphyocytes

36

_______ eliminate cells and debris of inflammation and infection

monocytes

37

______ respond to antigen stimulation in hypersensitive reactions

eosinophils

38

____ are a rare cellular component of the blood

basophils

39

How much of a fecal is needed to do any tests?

1 g of feces

40

What is crenation?

hypertonic solution shrinking and it looks spiky

41

What type of cell is this

neutrophil

42

What kind of cell is this?

eosinophil

43

What type of cell is this?

basophil

44

What type of cell is this?

lymphocytes

45


What type of cell is this?

monocyte

46

What type of cell is this?

reactive lymphocyte

47

What kind of cell is this?

left shift- increase in immature neutrophils by inflammation

48

Label microscope parts.

1) eye piece focus 2) turret 3) travel knobs 4) aperature lever 5) condenser centering knob 6) coarse focus knob 7) fine focus knob

49


Label microscope parts

1) objective lenses 2) specimen 3) stage 4) condenser 5) aperture diaphragm

50

Where do you start a WBC differential and look for rouleux?
 

in the monolayer

51


Where are platetet clumps in a blood smear?

feathered edge

52

What does leukocytosis mean?

an increase in leukocytes

53


What is the term for an increased number of neutrophilic bands?

left shift

54


What is the best index of RBC mass?

PCV

55


What is the term used for decreased RBC mass? increased?

anemia, dehydration

56


What is neutrophil hypersegmentation? List one cause of it.

when a nucleus of a neutrophil is segmented with 5 or more lobes, aging

57


Refractile artifact in RBCs on a blood film stained with Diff-Quick stain is usually due to?

water/moisture in the fixative

58

Explain how specific gravity is used to float parasite ova

the specific gravity needs to be greater than the ova for the ova to float

59


The fecal floation media used in our lab and in most small animal pracitces is

sodium nitrate

60

T/F Sodium chloride solution is the least desirable floation solution because it corrodes expensive labortatory equipment, forms crystals on the microscope slide and distorts parasite ova morphology.

true

61

The ova of which parasite will not float?

fluke

62

TWBC=15,500/microliters     eos=3%        solve this

0.03 x 15,500= 465/microliters

63


What specific gravity is required to make most parasite ova float?

greater than 2.5

64


What parasite ova is this?

roundworm

65


What parasite ova is this?

tapeworm egg baskets

66


What parasite ova is this?

hookworm

67


What parasite ova is this?

whipworm

68


What parasite ova is this?

coccidia oocyst

69


Low light, condenser down for?

fecals, unstained preps

70

Higher light, condeser up for?

stained smears especially oil immersion

71

T/F The advanced technology of today's hematology analyzers has made it unnecessary to perform routine peripheral blood film evaluation

false

72

A high PCV can indicate dehydration. Elevation of what other parameter supports this?

total protein

73

The fecal solution that we use in lab contains?

zinc nitrate

74

When a drop of plasma or serum is placed on the refractometer prisim, it is the ____ of the sample that is being evaluated

protein concentration

75

Properly scanning a blood flim at low power includes observation of?

RBC distribution/density, PLT clumping, large reactive/atypical lymphocytes, WBC density and predominant cell type

76

T/F When performing a direct fecal smear examination, a thick smear gives the best result.

false

77

A high number of eosinophils is usually associated with either  ___ or ___

parasitism and/or allergry

78

How are canine and feline eosinophils differentiated on a blood smear?

cats have rod shaped granules

79

Water/moisture in the fixative usually causes ____ on blood films stained with diff-quick?

refractile artifacts in RBCs

80

T/F Lipemia can cause hemolysis of erythrocytes

true

81

What is lipemia?

fat/lipids in the blood

82

The presence of stain precipitate in a blood film stained with diff-quick stain is an indication that?

clean new slides should be used, the stains should be filtered or changed

83

An increased number of neutrophillic bands in different leukocyte count is often associated with?

bacterial infection

84

T/F Zinc sulfate solution floats protozoal organisms with the least amount of distortion.

true

85

T/F Saturated sodium chloride solution is the least desirable because it corrodes laboratory equipment, forms crystals and severly distorts parasite ova.

true

86

Fecal sedimentation is used to detect dense parasite ova that will not float in standard flotation solutions. Parasite eggs with a specific gravity too high for flotation include ___ ova

trematode

87

T/F Neutrophils are the prime infection fighters of the body, have a short life span of a few hours, and they have the capability to engulf/kill/remove invaders from the body.

true

88

In the dog, monocytosis may be caused by?

stress, necrosis, chronic inflammation

89

T/F Direct smears are only used to identify protozoa; nematode ova cannot be identified with this test.

false

90

Which is the best (most sensitive and efficient) technique for recovery of parasite ova when only small numbers of ova are present?

centrifugal flotation

91

Fecal flotations are examined using which power objective?

10x

92

Dipylidium caninum is what phylum?

cestode

93

What can increase a lymphocyte count?

excitement, fear, and antigen stimulation

94

T/F Gray-top tubes should be used to collect whole blood for hematology studies in reptiles.

false

95

Serum/plasma that is also opaque should be characterized as being?

hemolyzied and lipemic

96

Hypersegmentation of neutrophils is caused by

corticosteriod release by the adrenal glands

97

Hypersegmentation of the neutrophils causes what of the neutrophils?

left shift

98

Which flotation is best for detecting the cyst form of giardia?

zinc sulfate

99

T/F EDTA provides the best preservation of morphologic detal, in excess can cause RBC shrinkage, and causes a bluish backround on stained films

true

100

What species is rouleaux commonly seen on blood smears?

cats

101

Elongated; segmented nucleus; cytoplasmic granules usually not visible

neutrophil

102

Large cell; pleomorphic nucleus; blue-grey cytoplasm +/- vacuoles

monocyte

103

Small, very dark, shurnken nuclei

pyknosis

104

Segmented nucleus; blue-black to lavendar (depending on species cytoplasmic granules)

basophil

105

Variably sized; round, often slightly indented nucleus, scant to small amounts of cytoplasm that can be blue; high N:C ratio

lymphocyte

106

Segmented nucleus; pink to red cytoplasmic granules

eosinophils

107

Anuclear cells with short, evenly spaced, uniform spicule-like surface projections

RBC crenation

108

Generally horseshaped nucleus with rounded ends

band neutrophil

109

T/F More light is needed when evaluating a direct fecal smear than when using oil immersion.

false

110

An increase in the space between the cells in the thin area on a blood smear indicates

anemia

111

What is the term for erythrocyte destruction? List 2 causes of RBC destruction.

hemolysis: too many unclean sticks, putting too much pressure on the syringe when transferring the blood

112

Name the three areas on a blood smear.

feathered edge, monolayer, and thick area

113

What is cutaneous larval migrans? What is it caused by?

hookworm

114

List one artifact of RBC and one of leukocyte cell morphology which can occur secondary to anticoagulants if blood films are not made promptly following blood collection.

RBC: crenation WBC: hemolysis

115

List 3 recommendations that technicians can review with clients when discussing the prevention of zoonotic dieases associated with parasites.

1) always pick up and throw away feces 2) taking their prevention 3) get their shots/vaccinations

116

List two examples of PPE. List 2 instances when it must be worn in lab.

gloves, gown: when working with nonhuman primates, you need it when handling blood samples

117

List 2 parasites that cannot be detected by fecal flotation.

flukes and protozoa trophozoites

118

Characteristics that should be recorded when performing a gross examination of feces.

consistency, color, blood, mucous, parasites, foreign material

119

After running a manual (spun) PCV, a technician told the doctor that the test results indicated that the patient may have a liver problem. What made her be concerned about liver diease?

yellow plasma icturic

120

After running a manual (spun) PCV, a technician told the doctor that the test results indicated that the patient may have a liver problem. What else could the diagnosis be?

hemalytic disease

121

List and explain 4 variables stated in the article on fecal examination which can directly effect fecal examination.

fecal sample size, specific gravity of a solution, timing(is sample fresh/monthly preventative), history of the patient(houseing evr/new pets)

122

Name two common parasites between cats and dogs that suck blood and can cause anemia

hookworm, ticks

123

What are two ways to evaluate anemia in the laboratory?

Low PCV, low RBCS on blood smear

124

List the granulocytic leukocytes.

neutrophil, basophil, eosinophil

125

What is the difference between serum and plasma?

plasma still retains the fibrinogen that helps in clotting while serum is the part of the blood that remains after this fibrinogen is removed

126

What type of blood tube is used when serum is needed?

red top tube

127

What is the minimum sample size for centrifugal flotation?

2grams

128

What is this?

dohle body

129

What is that?

metamyelocyte

130

The steps to do when using the machine to do a CBC.

click the test tube icon, select patient id, enter patient id number, enter species, doctor: is your initials, name of animal, age/sex: neutered, press accept, mix blood, put blood in rotor, then start

131

A result of an increased amount of ribosomal RNA, diffuse cytoplasmic staining in immature and mature neutrophils

cytoplasmic basophillia

132

More mature neutrophils than bands

regenerative left shift

133

Total leukocyte count varies from being below normal to occasionally slightly elevated.

degenerative left shift

134

What is right shift?

an increase in the percent of the older cells (hypersegmentation)

135

Irregularly shaped, small, pale-blue gray particles in the cytoplasm or gray cytoplasmic inclusions due to abnormal cell maturation

dohle bodies

136

Caused by prominent lysosome or dilated cytoplasmic organelles, indistinct vacuoles giving a foamy appearance to the cytoplasm

cytoplasmic vacuolation

137

Which type of reticulocyte is most prevalent normally in cats?

punctate

138

T/F Young platelets are often as large or larger than an RBC, called megaplatelets/macroplatelets/giant platelets or shift platelets, and fully functional.

true

139

What does the Vetscan Rapid Canine Heartworm Test detect?

D. immitis antigen

140

What are two reasons why the hematology machine might give a low PLT result?

1) macroplatelets are counted as RBCs or WBCs 2) platelet clumping

141

What cell is this?

atypical lymphocyte

142

What dog breed has normal macrocytosis?

poodle

143

What dog breeds normally have microcytic RBCs?

Asian breeds: chow chow, shiba inu

144

What breed often has decreased or giant PLTs?

Cavalier King Charles Spaniels

145

When performing a low power evaluation what do you record?

parasites, RBC distribution(normal, anemic, rouleaux, agglutination), WBC distribution(not a lot in feathered edge/normal amount)

146

Total leukocyte count is 8,430/microliter, seg: 67%, lymph: 15%, mono: 8%

How can you find the absolute WBC?

0.67 x 8,430=5,648.1=5,648/microliter

0.15 x 8,430= 1,264/microliter

0.08 x 8,430= 674/microliter

147

What is the most common cause of hypochromatophillic RBCs on a blood film in dogs and cats?

iron defiency

148

Why is it important to differentiate D. immitis from A. reconditum?

since A. reconditum is nonpathogenic you don't want to give the animal treatment for the heatworm which has harmful chemicals if it A. reconditum

149

You counted 10 OIFs and got 199 platelets in a dog, give a rough estimate of platelets. What about for a cat?

199/10=19.9 19.9 x 15,000= 298, 500/microliter

19.9 x 20,000= 398,000/microliter

150

What animal has the smallest RBCs?

purdue deer

151

What kind of cell is that?

polychromatophil

152

What kind of cell?

sphereocyte

153

What kind of cell?

shizocyte

154

Top arrow? Bottom?

top: blister cell bottom: helmet cell (both keratocytes)

155

What is the echinocyte burr cell?

crenation

156

What cell?

acanthocyte (spur cell)

157

What cell?

leptocyte: target cell (codocyte)

158

What parasite is this?

Mycoplasma haemofelis

159

What is this?

heinz body

160

What is this?

howell-jolly body

161

How is lyme disease spread?

ticks in their saliva

162

T/F an immunoassay is any test that uses interactions between antibodies and antigens to produce a result.

true

163

What are the components of an Elisa test?

1) the conjugate 2) chromogen

164

The _____ is an antibody that is bound to an enzyme. It usually consists of monoclonal antibodies bound to an enzyme.

conjugate

165

___ is a photosensitive reagent that produces a color change in the test system.

chromogen

166

When doing a platelet count what do you have to do before starting oil immersion?

scan the feathered edge for platelet clumps

167

What cell is this?

leptocyte folded cell

168

When recorded PLT morphology if everything is normal you write?

WNL (within normal limits)

169

If you're doing a reticulocyte count and you count 159 reticulocytes calculate the percentage, absolute, and corrected.

159/1,000= 0.159 x 100= 15.9%

0.159 x 2.29=.36411=absolute: 364,110/microliter

15.9 x (18.2/45) = corrected: 6.4%

 

170

Why is it better do to a modified knott's test?

because it differentiates the microfilaria species

171

It is important to make avian blood smears immediately after blood collection. Why?

because their cells are delicate and deteriorate faster and the counts witll be altered

172

What type of blood tube is recommended for collection of whole blood samples for CBCs for most avian species and why?

EDTA because it preserves the morphology

173

List the components of avian blood.

WBCs(mono, eso, lymph, baso), RBCs, thrombocytes, plasma, heterophil

174

What is the major difference between avian and mammalian blood?

avian cells are nucleated

175

Birds normally without anemia have a relatively high % of reticulocytes, why? How short?

because avian's life span is shorter, RBC lifespan is 25-40 days

176

1) heterophil

2) lymphocyte

3) eosinophil

4) monocyte

5) basophil

6) thrombocyte

 

177

Which WBC is the most prevalent normally in avian species and also is similar to a neutrophil?

heterophil

178

List 2 characteristics of avian thrombocytes that are different from mammalian platelets. List 2 that are very similiar or the same.

Different: 1) avian's are nucleated, mammals not 2) avian's thrombocytes are a lot larger than mammals

Same: 1) both same shape-round to oval 2) both function for hemostasis

179

How many thrombocytes/OIF are considered adequate in birds?

1-2/OIF

180

Which other cell in avian blood can be mistaken for a thrombocyte?

small lymphocytes

181

What parasite is this?

D. immitis/microfilaria

182

What parasite?

Babesia canis

183

What parasite?

Ehrlichia canis

184

What parasite?

canine distemper virus

185

What parasite?

Cytauxzoon felis

186

What parasite?

Hemoproteus

187

What parasite?

Plasmodium

188

Babesia canis phylum, intra/epi, how is it transmitted and does it cause a disease?

protozoa, intra in RBCs, ticks, anemia

189

Ehrlichia canis what organism, intra/epi, how is it transmitted and does it cause a disease?

protozoa, rickettsial, intra in monocytes, no disease

190

Canine distemper virus intra/epi?

intra RBCs and neutrophils

191

Mycoplasma haemofelis intra/epi, how is it transmitted and does it cause a disease?

epicellular, by fleas, causes hemolytic anemia

192

Cytauxzoon felis how is it transmitted and does it cause a disease, definitive host?

ticks, fatal hemolytic anemia, bobcat

193

Hemoproteus intra/epi, how is it transmitted?

intra RBC, through hippoboscid flies and bitting midges

194

Plasmodium intra/epi, how is it transmitted and does it cause a disease?

in RBCs, through mosquitos, causative agent for malaria

195

What parasite?

Anaplasma phagocytophilium

196

Anaplasma phagocytophilium transmitted, disease it causes, organism, intra/epi?

ticks-ixodes scapularis and ixodes pacifus, human granulocytic anaplasmosis, rickettsial, intra neutrophils(morulae)

197

What parasite?

giardia trophozoite

198

Immature RBCs containing residual RNA and organelles that are lost a the cell matures, what are they called when they are on a wright's type stain?

reticulocytes, polychromatophils

199

0.5% NMB stain causes precipitation of the residual RNA and proteins and makes reticulocytes appear as aggregates or chains of dark blue granules forming a

reticular pattern

200

How do you do a reticulocyte count?

2(1) drops of whole blood in a test tube, 3(2) drops of NMB stain in the tube, mix them by tapping the tube, incubate for 15-20 mins, prepare blood film and let it air dry, examine smear in oil

201

T/F In dogs and cats, the reticulocyte count is corrected for the degree of anemia.

true

202

T/F The corrected reticulocyte % has not been validated and not used in species other than cats and dogs.

true

203

The reticulocyte % can be used if a total RBC count is not available, but quantification of reticulocytes by calculation of _______ is the best indicator of bone marrow response to anemia.

absoulte reticulocyte numbers

204

Reticulocytosis is a significant number of reticulocyte released from the bone marrow into the peripheral circulation due to increased ______ in response to anemia.

erythropoiesis

205

T/F Reticulocytes are not evident until 48-72 hours after the onset of anemia.

true

206

T/F A regenerative response may not be evident unless there is a 50% decrease in PCV.

true

207

T/F Species with a shorter RBC lifespan have a higher % of reticulocytes normally, without anemia.

true

208

T/F Reticulocytes are not seen in healthy or anemic horses.

true

209

Absolute reticulocyte counts that indicate regeneration for dog and cat.

greater than 80,000 dog, greater than 60,000 cat

210

Lack of reticulocytosis after anemia suggests that the bone marrow is not responding or is?

nonregenerative anemia

211

Why might bone marrow not respond?

insufficient time for a reticulocyte response (need 48-72 hours)

deficiency in the existing response (not producing enough reticulocytes or destruction of reticulocytes)

defective erythropoiesis

212

Cats produce 2 types of reticulocytes that differ only in the amounts of residual ___ they contain which is proprotional to the degree of maturation of the cells.

RNA

213

Punctate and aggregate increase secondary to incerased erthropoiesis in the bone marrow, but which one circulates for at least 2 weeks and can persist for up to 4 weeks after the initial anemia?

punctate

214

___ reticulocytes are less reliable than _____ reticulocytes as indicators of the current demand for RBCs because of their persistance in the peripheral ciruclation

punctate, aggregate

215

When do you count only aggregate reticulocytes in cats? When do you count both?

moderate or marked anemia(PCV <20%), mild anemia

216

Report platelet numbers estimated from a smear using ____, ____, ___ instead of PLTS/microliter

adequate, increased, or decreased

217

If there seems to be a decrease in platelets why might that be?

you need to scan the feathered edge for clumps to make sure

218

Spontaneous petechial to ecchymotic hemorrhage occurs when PLT numbers are less than or equal to?

10,000 to 50,000 PLTs/microliter

219

What are the 4 general catagories why platelets are decreased?

1) PLT production defect in the bone marrow

2) accelerated PLT destruction

3) abnormal distribution of PLT stores

4) combination of all the above

220

What number is considered to be thrombocytosis?

greater than 800,000 PLTs/microliter UNCOMMON

221

Significant numbers of unusually large PLTs(larger than an RBC) resulting in PLT anisocytosis suggests what?

early release of PLTs from the bone marrow(often a response to thrombocytopenia)

222

Shift platelets are fully functional to slightly hyperreactive and have an increase ___.

MPV

223

What size platelets are often seen in cats?

megaplatelets (the size of RBCs or larger)

224

Abnormal CBC counts should be verified with?

evaluation of the blood smear

225

Impedance counters may count PLTs as ____ resulting in a falsely low PLT count.

RBCs

226

Really giant cat PLTs(or clumps) may be counted as ____ resulting in a faslely elevated ___ count.

WBC

227

What size platelet suggests a early immune-mediated event?

microplatelets

228

What might type of platelets might you also see with iron deficiency anemia?

microplatelets

229

Platelet fragmentation can be an artifact of storage in?

EDTA for longer than 24 hours

230

An increased MPV with decreased PLT numbers suggests?

thrombopoeisis(production of platelets)

231

What are some condiitions that may be associated with increased MPV and decreased PLT numbers?

1) hyperthyroidism

2) immune mediated thrombocytopenia

3) myeloproliferative disorders

232

If there is PLT swelling (where the PLTs appear larger and more round) that may occur secondary to storage in?

EDTA for longer than 4 hours

233

When blood cools to room temperature(25 C) or is refrigerated(4 C) it can result in?

falsely elevated MPV

234

Disorders most often associtaed with decreased MPV include?

1) insufficient megakaryocytes in the bone marrow

2) lack of megakaryocyte response

3) immune-mediated thrombocytopenia

235

T/F EDTA can induce PLT clumping, especially in the horse.

true

236

What kind of plaletels are spider-like in apperance with small cytoplasmic pseudopodia?

activiated platelets

237

Significant numbers of PLTs that are poorly granulated or have a few large granules may be indicative of?

PLT developmental abnormalities or defects in the bone marrow

238

Really large granules should be examined as potential parastitic inclusions like?

Anaplasma platys in the dog

239

Significant numbers of elongated, cigar-shaped PLTs suggest?

systemic hemorrhage

240

T/F Like lymphocytes, bird thrombocytes have a high N:C ration(more nucleus to cytoplasm) and can be mistaken for small mature lymphocytes.

true

241

Normal range for avian platelets?

20,000-30,00/microliter 10-15 thrombocytes per 1,000 RBCs

242

If RBCs have a higher MCV that means?

they have increased volume and are larger than normal RBCs

243

Most breeds of dogs have an MCV of _____fl. However, the Akita and Shiba Inu breeds normally have a smaller MCV(58 fl) and the MCV of the RBCs of some healthy miniature nad toy poodles is 90-100fl.

60-70

244

Which indices is the best index of Hb saturation?

HCHC

245

What can cause an increased MCHC?

hemolysis

246

When performing RBC evalutation, what must you always do?

record the degree for size(anisocytosis 1+), color(polychromasia 2+), shape(polikocytosis-spherocytes 1+), distribution(severe anemia), and abnormalities/artifacts(refractile artifacts with degree)

247

____ increases with inflammatory or neoplastic disease or in other condtions associated with increased fibrinogen (hyperfibrinogenemia) or increased globulin (hyperglobulinemia) concerntration.

rouleaux

248

What does the saline aggultination test do?

differentiates aggultination from rouleaux

249

Dilution of the blood with saline will cause ____ to disperse but true ____ will still be present.

rouleaux, aggultination

250

Agglutination occrus in _____ disorders.

immune-mediated disorders

251

_____ of RBCs can cause the MCV to be falsely increased.

aggultination

252

Reticulocytes are macrocytic(bigger than mature RBCs) and blood samples with a significant macrocytosis will have an increased ___

MCV

253

What infection is the most common cause of nonregenerative, macrocytic anemia in the cat?

Feline Leukemia

254

Animals with a significant number of microcytic RBCs will have a decreased ____

MCV

255

Burr cell(echinocyte) is often seen in diseases such as?

1) renal disease

2) lymphosarcoma in dogs

3) conditions resulting in electrolyte depletion

256

Acanthocytes(spurr cell) are often seen in animals with?

1) dogs with hepatic hemangiosarcoma (liver HSA)

2) dogs with other liver diseases or portosystemic shunts (PSS)

3) hepatic lipidosis in cat

4) high cholesterol diets

5) sever iron deficiency

257

What cell is considered the hallmark of conditions associated with RBC fragmentation?

schistocyte

258

Schiztocytes are often seen in animals what diseases?

1) HSA

2) disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC

 

259

Oxidative injury to the RBC membrane with lipid peroxidation and exclusion of Hb results in a type of schistocyte called _________ the hemi-ghost RBCs with Hb condensed in one portion of the cell leabing a clear blister-like area in the remaining part of the RBC. Further fragmentation results in a _____ (helmet cell).

eccentrocyte=blister cell, keratocyte

260

Spherocytes have a normal ___ because the volume of the cells have not changed.

MCV

261

The presence of spherocytes suggests immune-mediated destruction of RBCs and disease conditions associated with:

1) immune-mediated hemolytic anemia (IMHA)

2) some stages of heinz body anemia

3) following transfusion reactions

262

What's another name for an elliptocyte?

ovalocyte

263

Spiculated RBC with numerous, short, uniformly sized and evenly spaced surface projections

echinocyte

264

True poikliocytosis, attributed to altered or fluxing electrolytes resulting in expansion of the outer layer of the cell membrane due to the fluid/electrolyte flux

types II and III=burr cell

265

What is the type I echinocyte that is most common type seen which is caused by artifacts occuring in vitro

crenation

266

Spiculated RBC with a few irregular, often blunted, unevenly distributed surface projections of variable length thought to result from an altered phospholipied: cholestrol ration in the RBC membrane

acanthocyte(spur cell)

267

Small, irregular RBC fragment that usually results from mechanical trauma by intravascular fibrin strand deposition or by turbulent blood flow within the vasculature

shistocyte

268

Small, dark dense RBC with reduced or no central pallor and a decreased cell membrane surface area caused by phagocytosis by splenic macrophages secondary to antibody or complement coating of the rbc membrane, epicellular RBC parasites or other conditions causnig an altered membrane

spherocyte

269

Thin RBC with increased membrane to volume ratio that results in folding orr distortion of the RBC membrane

leptocyte

270

RBC with a round central area of Hb surrounded by a clear zone then a dense ring of the Hb around the periphery of the cell

targert cell (codocyte)

271

RBC with a transeverse, raised fold that extends across the center of the cell

folded cell

272

Folded cells can be seen with?

1) iron deficieny anemia

2) PSS

3) liver disease

273

RBC with an oval area of central pallor due to expansion of the inner layer of the cell membrane

stomatocyte(mouth cell)

274

Hereditary stomatocytosis of what breeds?

miniature schnauzer, alaskan malamute

275

Tear drop shaped RBC resulting from the inability of the RBC to return to its original shape after being deformed in the blood vessels

dacrocyte (tear drop cell)

276

Blood samples with normochromic RBCs should have normal ____ and ___ values.

MCHC, MCH

277

RBCs with a bluish basophilic tint

polychromasia

278

Immature RBCS that have increased amounts of residual RNA(increased blue color) and decreased concentrations of Hb(decresed red color) and are larger than normal mature RBCs

polychromatophil

279

Because polychromatophils have decreased Hb, blood will have a decreased ___. Since, they are larger than mature RBCs, blood with have an increased ___

MCHC, MCV

280

Less intense red staining(pale RBCs) and increased central pallor caused by insuffient Hb within the RBC.

hypochromasia

281

Blood samples with significantly low Hb concentration in RBCs will have a decreased ___

MCHC

282

In animals, hypochromic RBCs are usually associated with ______ and almost always occurs with ___(decreased MCV)

iron deficiency, microcytosis

283

Earlier stages of erythroid development prematurely released into the peripheral circulation

metarubricytosis

284

_____ is an expected or appropriate response in strongly regenerative anemias accompanied by reticulocytosis/polychromasia

metarubricytosis

285

T/F Metarubricytosis occuring without a regenerative response is appropriate.

false-inappropriate

286

Inappropriate responses of metarubricytosis are:

1) lead toxicity

2) iron/copper deficiency

3) FeLV infection

4) HSA

287

T/F NRBCs can be seen on a blood film at scanning power (10x)

true

288

How are NRBCs reported?

separately from the WBCs as # of NRBCS per 100 WBCs

289

When there's 5 or more NRBCs counter per 100 WBCs, the total WBC count must be corrected, why?

because they would have been counted as WBCs with both automated and manual methods

290

Small, usually singular and round, basophillic nuclear remnants in the RBC cytoplasm

howell-jolly bodies

291

Multiple, small, dark blue, dot-like structures representing residual RNA in the RBC cytoplasm

basophillic stippling

292

When basophillic stippling is accompanied by marker metarubricytosis with minimal polychromasia, basophillic stippling may be indicative of ___.

lead toxicosis

293

A knob-like structure protuding from the RBC membrane or a small, pale, refractile spot in the RBC cytoplasm composed of denatured, precipitated Hb that is often attached to the inner cell membrane.

heinz body

294

What can heinz bodies result in?

intravascular hemolysis

295

Loss of membrane integrity, decreased cell deformability and cell lysis due to binding of the denatured Hb to BC membrane proteins

intravascular hemolysis

296

Heinz bodies in cats are aslo called?

erythrocyte refractile bodies or ER bodies

297

In sick cats, increased numbers of heinz bodies may be seen with:

1) diabetes mellitus

2) hyperthyroidism

3) lymphosarcoma

4) renal disease

298

Variably sized, irregular to round to ring-shaped structures, most often seen in canine polychromatophils, that stain magents with diff-quick and blue-gray with wright's or giemsa stains.

distemper inclusions

299

Distemper inclusions are composed of aggregates of viral nuclecapsids and are present only during the __________

viremic stage of canine distemper virus infection