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Flashcards in Small Animal Nursing Deck (537):
1

Acepromazine causes what?

vasodilation which leads to hypotension

2

What is a normal dog's temperature?

100-102.5

3

What is perfusion?

blood flow to the tissues and organs

4

What is known as an elevated temperature?

hyperthermia

5

What are the 4 major systems that are vital for a patient to live?

neuro (central ns), respiratory, cardiac, urinary (renal)

6

What are the 4 parts of a nursing plan?

1) Assessment (collection and analysis of data)
2) Planning (setting goals for patient)
3) Implementation (do what discussed in plan)
4) Evaluation (observe patient for improvement or deterioration)

7

Assesment->______->analysis->______->implementation->_______

data collection, planning, evaluation

8

How do you evaluate respiratory?

CRT, breathing patterns, blood gases

9

How do you evaluate cardiac?

CRT, heart rate, pulse, rhythm and quality, ECG, blood pressure

10

How do you evaluate renal?

urine output, laboratory values, color of urine

11

What are the vitals?

temperature, pulse, respiration

12

How do you evaluate hepatic?

presence of icterus, laboratory values, edema

13

What's the difference between a depressed and dull animal?

depressed to be in the hospital but happy to be out of the hospital, dull unresponsive and does not necessarily care about being out of the kennel

14

What are the common causes for mucous membranes to be pale or white?

anemia, vasoconstriction

15

What are the most common causes of mucous membranes to be excessively red?

vasodilation, fever, venous pooling

16

What can cause a shortened CRT? (<1sec)

anxiety, fever, pain, shock

17

What can cause a lengthened CRT?

late shock, heart disease

18

Increase in carbon dioxide in the blood is called?

hypercapina

19

The amount and composition of blood in the underlying capillary beds is indicated by

mucous membrane color

20

What are overlooked of patient care besides cleanliness?

environment, temperature, noise, hygiene, smell

21

How can technicians avoid errors according to the DOVE article?

readback method, checklist

22

How would you implement a plan at your hospital for a nosocomial patient?

-microbial cleaning
-changing disinfectants
-proper dilutions and time

23

What order do you treat animals according to the DOVE video?

isolation patients last

24

Explain protocols to prevent infectious diseases.

-don't bring anything in the isolation room have it already in there
-foot bath for 30 seconds
-PPE booties first, gloves second, gown third remove in isolation
-wash hands

25

How often do you move patients with decubital ulcers (bed sores)?

2-4 hours

26

What are the tests on a chemistry that test renal function, which is more accurate?

BUN and Creatinine (more accurate)

27

What is the only part of a urinalysis that tests renal function?

specific gravity

28

If an animal's pupils are unequal what system could be causing this?

neuro

29

Where can you take an animal's pulse?

-Femoral artery (most common, hard to palpate in cats)
-Dorsal pedal artery

30

What do you assess when taking the pulse?

-rhythm
-rate
-quality

31

Normal pulse is ______ with the heartbeat and should be the same rhythm as the heart.

synchronous

32

If a pulse is lacking fullness this is known as?

thready or weak

33

Term used to describe a very strong pulse

bounding

34

What is cardiac output?

volume of blood pumped by the heart each minute

35

What is stroke volume?

volume of blood ejected per heart beat

36

Normal respiratory rate?

10-30 bpm

37

Cardiac output is determined by ____ and _____.

stroke volume and heart rate

38

How can tissue and organ perfusion be assessed by?

-palpation of peripheral pulses
-mm color
-CRT
-body temperature

39

________ is a valuable indicator of renal perfusion.

urine output

40

What can yellow mm indicate? Brown? Moistness? Red? Blue?

1) liver disease, hemalysis, obstruction of bile flow
2) tylenol in cats, met hemoglobin
3) hydration status
4) blood loss, anemia, vasodilation
5) hypoxemia, cynosis

41

What are some clinical signs of a patient with dypsnea or in respiratory distress?

-standing rather than sitting
-extended neck
-open mouth breathing
-abduction of the elbows
-flaring nostrils

42

What are some physiological signs of an animal in pain?

tachycardia, vasoconstriction, dilated pupils

43

What is the normal urine output?

1-2ml/kg/hr

44

What is Prerenal? Postrenal?

-Prerenal: blood flow (cardiac issues, dehydration)
-Postrenal: blockage (obstruction)

45

Diseases that require close observation of renal output are?

-Acute renal disease
-Cardiac disease
-Dehydrated patients
-Shocky patients

46

What is known as heat stroke?

hyperthermia

47

Weight changes can indicate ____ loss

fluid

48

_______ class of drugs dry the mouth and slow down secretions.

anticholinergics

49

What is a normal CRT?

1-2 sec

50

Normal heart rate for dog? Cat?

dog: 80-120
cat: up to 200

51

1 liter of fluid loss = __ kg

1kg

52

MM evaluation gives indication of what two major systems?

cardiac and respiratory

53

What is a compensatory mechanism of the heart to increase cardiac out put?

tachycardia

54

Where are places to check for mm besides the mouth?

-prepuce/vulva
-conjunctiva

55

What is the term for constricted pupils?

miotic

56

What temperature do you worry about for pathology? What about effecting organs?

97, 92

57

What tool do you not use to heat up an animal?

electric heating pads

58

What are some ways to cool down an animal?

-alcohol on paw pads
-IV fluids
-active cooling by wet towel and fan (convection)

59

Cooling by convection means

Cooling by contact with something cool

60

T/F Because extreme thermal injury can break the brain's temperature set-point it is important not to 'over cool' a patient and drop them to below normal body temperature.

true

61

Fluid compartments:
1) Approximately __% of the body weight is fluids
2) __% Intracellular
3) __% Extracellular
4) __% is interstitial
5) Approx __% Plasma
6) <__% Transcellular

1) 60%
2) 40%
3) 20%
4) 15%
5) 5%
6) 1%

62

Osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus detect an increase in ____ concentration. Stimulates thirst and the release of ___ and in turn acts on the kidneys causing the _____ of water.

plasma, ADH, reabsorption

63

Stimulates the release of renin from the juxtaglomerular cells

Renal hypoperfusion

64

Movement from extracellular fluid to intracellular fluid-

Alkalosis (excessive base ions)

65

____ acts on angiotensinogen in the plasma to convert it to angiotensin I which converts to angiotensin II

Renin

66

What is the main intracellular cation? What is the main extraceullar cation?

Potassium, Sodium

67

What is hypokalemia?

abnormal low amount of potassium in the blood

68

Clinical signs of hypokalemia:

-Muscle weakness
-PU & PD
-Lethargy

69

Dehydration Normal Water Output:
1) Sensible losses- ____ losses
2) Insensible-_____ and _____

1) urinary
2) fecal, respiratory

70

Define dehydration.

Net reduction in the free water content of the body

71

_____ is the primary extracellular anion.

Chloride

72

T/F Even with initial rewarming efforts in place, a hypothermic animal's body temperature will often continue to decrease

true

73

Which of the following is not a mentioned clinical sign of hypothermia:
a. Cardiac arrhythmia
b. Tachycardia
c. Weak pulses
d. Dull mentation

b. Tachycardia

74

T/F Thermal injury causes damage to all of the body's organ systems

true

75

Bruising, petichiation, and elevated clotting times can be evidence of damage to which organ system?

hepatic

76

Solutes exert a force on the interior of their respective compartment and helps keep water in the compartments

osmotic pressure

77

Fluid that makes up 40% of the water in the body

intracellular fluid

78

Water moves into the compartment with _____ solute concentration restoring balance

higher

79

Movement of water, low solutes to high concentration

osmosis

80

Hypoperfusion of this organs causes the release of renin which acts on angiotensinogen

renal

81

Pressure exerted by the proteins within the vascular space

oncotic

82

Depletion of this ion leads to lethargy, depression, weakness

sodium

83

Dissolved substances that reside within body fluids

solutes

84

Increase of K+ major side effect

bradycardia

85

Causes cells to shrink because of the movement of water outside of the cell

hypertonic

86

Most abundant ion extracellulary

sodium

87

Most common k+ imbalance

hypokalemia

88

100# 50ml/kg/24 6% dehydrated

maintenance: 40-60 ml/kg/24hr
dehydration deficit: kg x % x 100
replacement/ongoing losses: 2 x estimate in ml
45.5kg x 50ml= 2,272.5mls
45.5kg x 0.06% x 1000= 2,730ml
vomited 3x 1 c(240ml) x 2= 480mls x 3= 1440mls
2,272.5mls + 2,730ml + 1440mls= 6,445mls/24hr
6,445/24=268.5=0.08mls/1sec
venoset 10gtt/ml
0.08ml x 10=0.8gtt
268.5/60= 4.5/60= 0.8ml/1sec
0.8 ml/sec 0.8 x 10= 8gtt/10sec or 0.8 x 5=4gtt/5sec

89

Proteins with high molecular weight are called

colloid

90

Fluid found in the vasculature, interstitial, transcellular

extracellular fluid

91

Distribution of water that occurs evenly throughout the interstitial and intravascular spaces

isotonic

92

Most significant intracellular cation

potassium

93

Water loss through urine is termed

sensible

94

Most significant anion extracellulary

chloride

95

Dehydration occurs when fluid losses from the body _____ fluid intake

Exceed

96

How is dehydration categorized?

By type of fluid lost and the effect on the tonicity of the remaining body fluids

97

Clinical signs of dehydration.

skin is doughy, inelastic, eyes sunken in, prolonged crt, dry mm, muscle weakness, weak pulse, decrease urine output, increase in temperature

98

Serial weights can be used to assess hydration status: 1 lb=_____

(1 lb = a pint or 480ml of fluid)

99

Fluid therapy is used in clinical medicine to:

-replace hydration deficits
-maintain normal hydration status
-replace electrolytes
-nutrients
-serve as a vehicle for infusing certain intravenous drugs

100

What are the three fluid types?

Crystalloids, Colloids, Blood Products

101

_____ is necessary for the maintenance of several body functions most notably electrical potential in muscles and _____

potassium, nerves

102

T/F Even small changes in K+ levels can lead to serious side effects involving the nervous and cardiac systems

true

103

____ therapy is used for severe depletions of K+

IV

104

Maximum rate is _____mEq/kg/hr

0.5

105

Why do you never give undiluted K+ directly into the vein?

it can cause cardiac arrest

106

Volume of fluid and amount of electrolytes needed normally in a 24 hour period is _____ml/kg/day

40-60

107

What are the dehydration 3 factors for maintenance?

1) Volume of fluid needed to rehydrate the patient
2) Volume of fluid needed for maintenance requirements
3) Volume of fluid needed to correct ongoing losses

108

What do you monitor during fluid therapy?

-Temperature
-Cardiovascular (pulse, rhythm, rate, strenght, heart rate)
-Respiratory
-Urine output (should be increased)
-Body weight (1 lb=1pt 480mls)
-Peripheral edema
-Mentation (weak, depressed)
-CRT

109

Catheters are removed after ___ hours

72

109

What are some complications of catheters?

-Phlebitis
-Localized inflammation
-Thrombosis
-Blood clot
-Infection

109

Clinical signs of fluid overload

-Serous nasal discharge
-Restlessness
-Coughing
-Hyperpnea

109

What is Acute fluid therapy?

–Hypovolemic patients
–Rapid loss requires rapid replacement

110

Advantages of Lactating ringers:

-It is an effective replacement solution and works quickly to rapidly resuscitate vascular volume and correct dehydration.
-The low amount of potassium makes it an ideal replacement solution because large volumes can be given rapidly without the concern of hyperkalemia (high potassium levels).
-It contains a buffer that helps correct acid-base disturbances and stabilizes blood pH.

111

What is Chronic fluid therapy?

–Dehydrated but not seriously hypovolemic, not dire
–Fluids replaced over 12-24 hours

112

Disadvantages of Lactating ringers:

-Because lactate is metabolized by the liver, lactate solutions should not be given to animals with hepatic compromise.
-Though not designed for this use, LRS is sometimes used as a maintenance solution. This can lead to mild electrolyte disturbances due to its high sodium and chloride levels and low potassium levels. Often, KCL will need to be added if LRS is used as a maintenance solution.
-Because it contains calcium, LRS should not be given with blood products.

113

0.9% NaCl Advantages:

-It is an effective replacement solution and works quickly to rapidly resuscitate vascular volume and correct dehydration.
-It contains no potassium, so it can be given in large volumes and to animals with high potassium concentrations.
-Because it only contains sodium and chloride, it can be given safely with blood products.
-Saline is a great carrier solution because it has few to no incompatibilities with commonly used drugs. It can be used to dilute a drug that needs to be given over a length of time.

114

What is Acute fluid therapy?

–Hypovolemic patients
–Rapid loss requires rapid replacement
-Hemorrhage/blood loss

118

T/F The most common source of contamination for IV is the hands of personnel.

true-wash hands

119

0.9% NaCl disdvantages:

-Saline contains no buffers so it won't help to correct an acid-base problem.
-Is contraindicated with an animal that has heart disease
-Saline contains no potassium, calcium, or magnesium. If being used for a long period of time, electrolyte additives would need to be added to prevent decreased levels of these essential electrolytes.

120

If you see small leaks in the bag of IV fluids, what do you do?

Discard the bag

121

What are the two types of fluid?

crystalloids and colloids

122

This type of fluid will stay within the vessels for a short period of time before redistributing throughout the body

crystalloids

123

Which of the following fluids is an example of a colloid:
a. 0.9% NaCl
b. Fresh Frozen Plasma
c. Normosol-R
d. Lactated Ringers Solution

b. Fresh Frozen Plasma

124

Which of the following is not mentioned as a pitfall for increasing IV catheter problems:
a. Taping over blood hair or skin
b. Placing a finger directly over the insertion point
c. Using chlorhexadine instead of betadine scrub
d. Dragging the catheter through hair

c. Using chlorhexadine instead of betadine scrub

125

In normal circumstances, where would you expect to find the highest levels of potassium?

intracellular

126

T/F When giving calcium gluconate it should be administered as a bolus.

false

127

Define and give 2 examples of insensible fluid loses.

feces, respiratory (fluid that cannot be easily quantitatied)

128

What are the two fluid compartments?

extracellular and intracellular

129

Which fluid compartment is larger and what percentage?

intracellular is larger with 40%, extracellular is 20%

130

List 4 of the main electrolytes and what space they are found.

1) sodium-extra
2) potassium-intra
3) chloride-extra
4) phosphorus-intra

131

The electrolyte that greatly influences the movement of water is _____.

sodium

132

An increase in this electrolyte can cause bradycardia and arrhythmias that can lead to cardiac arrest

potassium

133

When the solute concentration of a compartment is higher on one side of the compartment fluid will move in what direction?

fluid will move into the higher concentration to balance out each side

134

What is the first physiological sign that occurs when the body is in need of water?

thirst

135

Fluids that are transcellular, give an example.

synovial fluid

136

What is the term for decrease in potassium?

hypokalemia

137

What hormone initially acts on the distal convoluted tubules causing reabsoprtion of sodium?

aldosterone

138

15% of the body's fluids is interstitial fluid which is what type of fluid?

fluid between the tissues

139

5% of the body's fluids is plasma, give an example.

vascular, proteins

140

The 3 things keep water in or out depends on:

1) the amount of solutes
2) the osmotic pressure
3) oncotic pressure (colloid) based on proteins in fluid

141

What 3 things do electrolytes do?

1) acid-base balance (pH of blood)
2) maintains osmotic pressure
3) regulates movement of water

142

What are the words for sodium imbalance?

hypernetrinia and hyponetrinia

143

What are some clinical signs of hyponetrinia?

1) lethargy
2) weakness
3) depression
4) vomiting

144

NaCl (saline) is normal at _____% and half is _____%

0.9%, 0.45%

145

What is the most common electrolyte imbalance?

hypokalemia

146

What is the most common cause of hypokalemia?

vomiting and diarrhea

147

T/F There is no fluid high enough to replace a potassium deficit, so potassium must be added to a fluid bad.

true

148

What is the most common cause of hyperkalemia?

urinary obstruction

149

What does hyperkalemia lead to?

bradycardia, arrhythmias, and addison's disease

150

Little urine output

oliguria

151

How does an animal lose water on a hot summer day?

panting->thirst(compensatory mechanism)

152

Potassium is vital to cellular _____ and cell _____

metabolism, death

153

Fluid inside a cell increases in solutes and moves into the cell and causes it to burst

hypotonic

154

What does hyperkalemia lead to?

bradycardia, arrhythmias, and addison's disease

155

10kg patient, Venoset 15 gtt/ml
Maintenance: 50ml/kg/24hr
Dehydration Deficit: 10% dehydrated
Apply 80% rule
Contemporary Losses: Vomited 4x 2tsp for 2 days

10kg x 50ml/kg/24 hr = 500ml/24 hrs
10kg x 0.1 x 1000ml = 1000ml x 0.8 (80% rule)= 800ml (1st 24 hours then 200ml the 2nd 24 hours)
Contemporary losses: 4 x (10ml x 2)= 80ml x 2 days= 160ml
500ml + 800ml + 160ml=1460ml
1460ml/24hrs = 60.8 ml/hr
60.8/3600 sec= 0.016ml/sec or 0.02ml/sec
Venoset 15gtt 0.02ml/sec x 15gtt/ml= 0.3 gtt/sec or 1 gtt/3sec

156

Plasma protein concentration:
1) increase in proteins causes an increase in ____ and will cause movement of ____

1) oncotic pressure, water

157

Concentration of proteins

oncotic pressure

158

22kg patient 4%dehydrated, no vomiting or diarrhea Maintenance ordered at 60ml/kg apply 80% rule Venoset 15gtt/ml

22 x 60=1320 maintenance
22 x .04 x 1000ml = 880ml x .8= 704ml
2024ml/24 hrs, 84/hr 0.02 ml sec x 15= .3 gtt/sec or 1 gtt/3 sec

159

How long does it take for SQ fluids to be absorbed? Why?

6-8 hours, severely dehydrated because of constriction

160

What are some errors when shaving for a catheter?

clipper burn, not shaving far enough down

161

One mechanism to gain water: Sends message to hypothalamus->__-> animal drinks dehydration hypoperfusion of the ___.

ADH, kidneys

162

Second mechanism to gain water: Hypoperfusion of the kidneys->juxtaglomerular->_____->angiotensen I->angiotensen II->sodium reabsorption(h20 goes)->DCT->_____ increases

renin, urine

163

Third mechanism to gain water: adrenal cortex (by kidney)->______->DCT->sodium reabsorption->conserves water

aldosterone

164

The first two compartments that effected first are?

plasma and intracellular fluid

165

10kg patient, Venoset 15 gtt/ml
Maintenance: 50ml/kg/24hr
Dehydration Deficit: 10% dehydrated
Apply 80% rule
Contemporary Losses: Vomited 4x 2tsp for 2 days

10kg x 50ml/kg/24 hr = 500ml/24 hrs
10kg x 0.1 x 1000ml = 1000ml x 0.8 (80% rule)= 800ml (1st 24 hours then 200ml the 2nd 24 hours)
Contemporary losses: 4 x (10ml x 2)= 80ml x 2 days= 160ml
500ml + 800ml + 160ml=1460ml
1460ml/24hrs = 60.8 ml/hr
60.8/3600 sec= 0.016ml/sec or 0.02ml/sec
Venoset 15gtt 0.02ml/sec x 15gtt/ml= 0.3 gtt/sec or 1 gtt/3sec

166

Patient weighs 13# is 12% dehydrated, has had diarrhea for 24 hours ½ cup 4 times.
Dr orders maintenance 40ml/kg/24 hrs, use the 80% rule. Venoset is a microdrip (60gtt/ml –need to memorize this) Round to the nearest 10th when appropriate, How many drops/sec round answer to nearest whole gtt.

Dehydration deficit: 5.9kg x .12 x 1000= 708ml x .8 = 566.4ml 1st 24 hrs
Maintenance: 5.9 x 30 = 236ml
Ongoing losses: 4(120 x 2)= 960ml
1762.4 ml/24 hr
73.4ml/hr= 0.02ml/sec x 60 gtt = 1.2gtt/sec or 1 gtt/sec

167

Patient weighs 112# is 8% dehydrated (Do not use 80% rule), Maintenance is 50ml/kg/24 hrs, vomited 3x 2 cups. Venoset is 20gtt/ml.

51 kg x 50=2550
51 x .08 x 1000ml = 4080 ml
3(480ml x 2) = 2880ml
Total 9510ml/24 hrs, 396ml/hr =0.11 ml/sec x 20gtt/ml = 2.2gtt/sec or 2 drops/sec

168

What are examples of colloids?

1) natural blood products
2) synthetic (Tetrastach, Hetastarch, Dextron, Oxyglobin)

169

What are some errors when shaving for a catheter?

clipper burn, not shaving far enough down

170

Half and half is either maintenance or replacement and what tonicity?

maintenance, isotonic

171

LCR is either maintenance or replacement and what tonicity?

replacement, isotonic

172

Maintenance fluids have increased amounts of potassium and decreased ____ to maintain hydration

sodium

173

Normosol R is either maintenance or replacement and what tonicity?

replacement, isotonic

174

Normosol M is either maintenance or replacement and what tonicity?

maintenance, isotonic

175

Crystalloids-> ___molecules->intravascular space within ____ minutes

small, quickly 30

176

Colloids->___ molecules->stay _____->small volume

large, 24-48 hours

177

Tetrastarch can cause what?

hemolysis-ruptured RBCs

178

What fluid type is cow hemoglobin and always causes blood to be hemolyized?

oxyglobin

179

_______ are solutions that are used to maintain hydration and electrolyte levels within the body

maintenance

180

___ are compounds that are able to accept or donate hydrogen ions to prevent changes in pH, like acetate and lactate

buffers

181

Maintenance:
1) When potassium is increased, _____ decreases to maintain hydration

sodium

182

Don't use a ___ gauge needle, go big or go home and stick to 22 gauge for a small animal and 18 gauge for a large.

24

183

What is Diuresis used for?

to flush blood through kidneys to remove endotoxins (urea is a toxin that builds up in renal disease) by increasing urine production

184

The only difference between LRS and Normosol R is what?

that the buffer is acetate instead of lactate

185

What is important to remember about when giving potassium?

give it slowly and never IV (straight in vein), dilute IV bag

186

What are the different types of catheters?

1) butterfly (drugs/boluses of drugs for short period of time)
2) over-the-needle (catheters we use)
3) through-the-needle (long-term use)

187

How often do you flush a catheter? How long do you keep a regular catheter on?

every 4 hours with saline or heparin, 3 days maximum

188

Redness and inflammation of a blood vessel is called

phlebitis

189

When placing a catheter for short-term use you need the ___ catheter possible and _____ bore.

shortest, largest

190

When placing a catheter for long-term use you need the ___ catheter possible and _____ bore.

longest, biggest

191

What is Diuresis used for?

to flush blood through kidneys to remove endotoxins (urea is a toxin that builds up in renal disease) by increasing urine production

192

What are some disadvantages of Normosol R?

-Solutions containing acetate have been linked to causing hypotension when given to animals that are hypovolemic and/or hypothermic. Studies show this drop in blood pressure occurs about 30 minutes after administration, and that solutions like LRS and .9% NaCl, which do not contain acetate, do not show the same drop in blood pressure after administration. Whether or not this occurs in a clinical setting is up for debate.
-Though not designed for this use, Normosol-R is sometimes used as a maintenance solution. This can lead to mild electrolyte disturbances due to its high sodium and chloride levels and low potassium levels. Often, KCL will need to be added if Normosol-R is used as a maintenance solution.

193

Disadvantages of 2.5% Dextrose & 0.45% Saline (a.k.a. half and half)

-It contains no buffers, so it won't help to correct any pH disturbances.
-This solution contains no potassium, calcium, or magnesium. If being used as a maintenance solution, electrolyte additives would need to be considered to prevent decreased levels of these essential electrolytes.

194

Advantages of 2.5% Dextrose & 0.45% Saline (a.k.a. half and half)

-It contains 25 g/L of dextrose, which provides a small amount of glucose to help meet daily caloric needs. This amount, however, will not meet total daily caloric needs. This solution provides 85 kcal/L.
-It contains a lower amount of sodium than normal saline making it an ideal solution for those animals with sodium restrictions.

195

What is the anatomy of a tooth?

-Crown
-Enamel
-Dentin
-Cementum
-Root

196

What are the 3 skull types?

-Mesaticephalic (most common poodles, laboradors)
-Brachycephalic (boxers, pugs)
-Dolichocephalic (collie, greyhound)

197

Directional terms for the Maxilla:

Distal
Mesial (toward the midline)
Labial (the side of the tooth towards the lips)
Palatial (towards the palate)
Buccal (towards the cheek)

198

Directional terms for the Mandible:

Distal
Mesial (toward the midline)
Labial (the side of the tooth towards the lips)
Lingual (the side of the tooth towards the tongue)
Buccal (towards the cheek)

199

What is the dental formula for a dog?

2(I 3/3 C 1/1 P 4/4 M 2/3)= 42
puppy-2(i 3/3 c 1/1 p 3/3)=28

200

What is the dental formula for a cat?

2(I 3/3 C 1/1 PM 3/2 M 1/1)= 30
kitten-2(i 3/3 c1/1 m 3/2)= 26

201

The exposed or visible portion of the tooth above the gingival tissue

crown

202

Covering the crown is the ardest substance in the body, shiny outer layer of the crown, composed of hydroxyapatite crystalline components

enamel

203

Comprises the majority of the tooth consists of multiple tubules that extend from the pulp to outer surface. Tubules contain sensory fibers that register pain.

dentin

204

Calcified connective tissue (bony tissue) that covers the root surface of the tooth and acts as an attachment for the periodontal ligament

cementum

205

The unexposed or submerged portion of the tooth below the gingival tissue

root

206

What is the periodontium?

Supporting structures of the teeth

207

What is the anatomy of the periodontium?

-the gingiva (tissue surrounding the teeth )
-the cementum of the root
-the periodontal ligament (holds the tooth into the alveolar bone it is attached to cementum and alveolar socket)
-the alveolar bone or socket(surrounds and supports the root of the tooth)

208

An epithelial collar often not directly attached to the tooth also called free gingiva

Gingival margin

209

The space between the tooth and the free gingiva

Gingival sulcus

210

The border between the attached gingiva and looser mucosa

Mucogingival junction

211

Canine teeth are?

tearing and grasping teeth

212

Molars are?

grinding/shredding teeth (caudal cheek teeth)

213

Premolars are?

grinding/shredding teeth (rostral cheeck teeth)

214

Incisor teeth are?

gnawing teeth (most rostral teeth of upper and lower arcade)

215

The shepherd's hook explorer is used to check for

roughness

216

Which of the following is NOT true about hand scalers:
a. They are not to be used below the gumline
b. The have a sharp point
c. They are triangular in shape
d. They are delicate instruments

d. They are delicate instruments

217

What is a dental quadrant?

Divisions used to aid in numbering the teeth (Tridan system). It divides the mouth into 4 parts, half of each dental arch when divided at the midline.

217

How many quadrants are in the mouth?

Four

217

How many incisors are in the mandible?

Six

217

How many molars are in the maxilla of the dog? How many molars are in the maxilla of the cat? How many molars are in the mandible of the dog?

4, 2, 6

217

How many molars are in the mandible of the cat? How many three rooted teeth are in the mandible?

2, none

217

How many roots does the incisor have?

One

217

How many incisors are in the maxilla?

Six

217

How many premolars are in the maxilla of a cat?

6 Adult, 0 Kitten

217

How many premolars are in the mandible of the dog?

8

217

How many premolars are in the mandible of the cat?

4

217

How many molars are in the maxilla of the dog? How many roots does a molar have?

4, 1-3

217

How do you chart a tooth using the anatomic method?

Tooth type and number of the tooth
Ex I2 (2nd incisor lower right mandible)
2M (2nd molar upper right maxilla)

218

What is the carnassial tooth of the maxilla? What is the carnassial tooth of the mandible?

4th maxillary premolar-dog, 1st Molar- dog and cat

218

Enamel covers the dentin on the crown and cementum covers the dentin that covers the ____.

root

218

Inner most portion of the tooth, lined by odontoblasts

Pulp chamber

218

Each tooth has 4 surfaces. Name each surface and give a definition of its location.

1) Labial-direction toward the outside of the teeth usually towards the lips, maxilla; anterior teeth only
2) Buccal- direction toward the outside of the teeth, usually towards the cheeks, mandible and maxilla; only the posterior teeth
3) Palatal-direction of the inside surface of the teeth of the maxilla, facing the hard palate
4) Lingual-direction of the inside surface of the teeth of the mandible, facing the tongue
5) Distal- surface of the tooth that is away from the midline arch
6) Mesial-toward the midline of the dental arch
7) Occlusal-chewing surface of the caudal teeth
8) Incisal- Biting surface the anterior teeth

218

How many roots does the first premolar of a dog have?

1

219

T/F The canine is always either 104, 204, 304, or 404

true

220

The cusp of the tooth means the _____ of the tooth.

top

221

The main goal of dentals are to

prevent periodontal diease

222

The mandible incisors are what type of directional term?

labial

223

How do you chart a tooth using the anatomic metho?

Tooth type and number of the tooth
Ex I2 (2nd incisor lower right mandible)
2M (2nd molar upper right maxilla)

224

How do you chart a tooth using the Tridan method?

Quadrant (1, 2, 3, 4)
First number identifies the quadrant
2nd and 3rd identify the tooth

225

How do you count the quadrants?

Right-1, Left-2, Left Back-3, Right Back-4

226

What is a primary tooth?

baby teeth (deciduous)

227

What is known as a normal occlusion?

Scissor Occlusion

228

What are the 4 bones of the face that house the teeth?

incisive, maxilla, mandible, and pallatine(roof of mouth)

229

An example of a cat's maxillary with the 4 and 9 rule. Mandible?

204-206-207-208-209 (left upper q 2)
304-307-308-309 (left lower q 3)

230

T/F The front maxilla is slightly in front of the mandible incisor

true

231

What is periodontal disease caused by?

plaque

232

What is the first sign of periodontal disease?

gingivitis

233

The use of appropriate procedures and/or techniques to prevent dental and oral disease and malformation

dental prophylaxis

234

A deciduous tooth is considered persistent when it is present in the mouth together with its permanent counterpart.

Persistent primary teeth

235

When using an ultrasonic scaler to clean teeth, what is the method that the cleaning happens?

Vibration of the instrument

236

T/F You can use and record results using a periodontal probe even if there is bridging calculus on the teeth.

false

237

What is a normal probe for a dog? Cat?

1-3mm
0.5-1mm

238

How many roots does the carnasial tooth have?

3

239

What is the first sign clients notice?

bad breath (halitosis)

240

T/F It's best to use the periodontal probe first before you make any changes to the mouth with dental scaling and polishing

false

241

When the upper and lower incisor teeth meet each other edge to edge

Level bite

242

What is the 4 and 9 rule?

The canine tooth always ends in a 4, and the first molar always ends in a 9. Then you can count forward or backwards in the dental arch as needed.

253

Which of the following is not given as a common mistake when polishing teeth?
a. Using too much pressure
b. Not using the correct PSI for the hand piece
c. Running the speed too high
d. Using too much polish

d. Using too much polish

254

Dolichocephalic give me one breed of cat and dog that has this skull shape

Grey hound, Siamese

255

The K-9 carnassial tooth or 4th premolar has how many roots?

3

256

The last molar has how many roots?

1

257

Which premolar has one root?

the first premolar maxilla

258

Define the cementoenamel junction.

the junction where the crown and root meet

259

The majority of the tooth (70%) is comprised of?

dentin

260

What is the pulp of the tooth?

where the blood vessels and nerves are in

261

The root is covered with _____ which anchors the tooth along with the _____ which attaches the tooth to the alveolar bone.

cementum, periodotium ligament

262

Measures the depth of the gingival pockets

probe

263

Used to remove plaque, tarter from the roots

curette

264

Used to remove plaque or tartar supragingivally

scaler

265

Used to feel for roughness areas or residual calculus on the tooth surface, resorptive areas, and open canals in broken teeth

explorer

266

Surface of tooth toward the rostral midline

mesial

267

Disease most common oral disease in pets

periodontal

268

Surface of tooth facing a tooth in opposite

occsusal

269

Root is covered by a layer of ____

cementum

270

Internal canal space surrounded and protected by the dentin

pulp cavity

271

Joint that connects the mandible to the skull

TMJ (Temporomandibular Joint)

272

Spongy bone surrounding the roots of the teeth

alveolar bone

273

Animals with two sets of teeth

dyphyodont

274

This is composed of the gingiva, cementum, the periodontal ligament, the alveolar bone or socket

periodontium

275

Surface of the tooth toward the tongue

lingual

276

Used to scoop, tear, groom, nibble

incisors

277

Stabilizes the tooth within the socket and absorbs some of the shock of the occlusal forces generated during chewing

periodontal ligament

278

Above the gum line

mucal gingivia

279

Used to scale calculus off the crown of the tooth

scaler

280

4th premolar

carnassial

281

Stage I periodontal disease most prelent symptom

gingivitis

282

Junction of the attached ginigval and mucosa

mucogingival line

283

Depth of up to about 2 to 3 mm is considered normal in dogs

socket

284

Toward the crown

coronal

285

Poodles, labradors, and shorthair cats

mesaticephalic

286

All teeth missing

anodontia

287

Cat has 26 of these

decideous

288

Teeth must be _____ to produce a smooth surface that slows accumulation of plaque

polished

289

This epithelial collar is often directly attached to the tooth itself

gingival ligament

290

Area where the enamel and the cementum meet

cementoenamel junction

291

Stabilizes the tooth within the socket and absorbs some of the shock of the occulsal forces generated during chewing

periodontal ligament

292

Extraction of teeth

exodontics

293

Enamel pitting/discoloration

hypoplasia

294

Extra tooth/teeth

supernumerary

295

Define plaque

soft mixture or bacteria and mucopolysaccharides that adheres to the tooth (biofilm)

296

Used to hold, carry and break food into small pieces

premolars

297

How soon after a dental cleaning does plaque form?

Within 20 minutes after teeth cleaning; glycoprotein layer attaches to the exposed crown
6 hrs bacterial colonization (plague forms)

298

What is the difference between gingivitis and periodontitis?

-Gingivitis is inflammatory process affecting the gingiva only, does not affect the other structures of the periodontium. Gingivitis can be present without periodontitis
-Periodontitis is inflammation involving the periodontal ligament, alveolar bone and cementum

299

What is gingival hyperplasia? What breed is commonly affected?

Abnormal proliferation of the gingiva; increase pocket depth caused by increased gingival height, untreated it may lead to accumulation of plaque; boxer is more susceptible than other breeds

300

What problems can arise from probing a tooth with gingival hyperplasia?

A pseudo pocket forms giving the perception that the animal has a deep pocket/sulcus and attachment loss when in reality it is not real due to the abnormal proliferation of the gingiva. You must take that into consideration when probing a dog with gingival hyperplasia

301

What areas are radiographs checked for evaluating periodontal disease?

-Supportive bone mesial and distal to the affected teeth
-Alveolar bone changes
-Trabecular patterns
-Interdental bone height
-Presence of lamina dura completely around the root
-Size of periodontal ligament space
-Amount of bone loss

302

What instruments should be in a teeth cleaning pack?

1) Sickle scaler
2) Curette
3) Calculus removing forcep with one eccentric longer tip and a smaller tip
4) Periodontal probe and explorer
5) Sterile container for teeth cleaning packet

303

What is doxycycline and how is it used in veterinary dentistry?

-when minimal to moderate pockets are seen (Doxirobe Gel) is applied subgingival to cleaned periodontal pockets >3mm in dogs older than 1 year.
-the doxycycline plymer hardens within the periodontal pocket and allows for sustained release of therapeutic levels of antibiotic for several weeks
-Allows for direct treatment of localized periodontal disease

304

Describe the proper way to use the periodontal probe?

-Gently insert the calibrated probe just apical to the fee gingival margin and track the gingival crevice from mesial to distal; Probe 6 sides
-With gentle pressure the probe will stop where the gingiva attaches to the tooth
-Spot probing and circumferential probing two different methods

305

Between what two points is the measurement taken of the sulcus or pocket?

-Distance from free gingival margin to the most apical point that a probe reaches when gently inserted into the pocket; probe stops where the gingival attaches to the tooth or at the apex of the alveolus if attachment is lost
(Distance from the free gingival margin edge to the base of a pocket)

306

What is the significance of probing depths and attachment loss?

-Probing depth is the distance between the base of the pocket and the gingival margin; probe is inserted in line with the vertical axis of the tooth and walked to record at least 4 measurement per tooth
-Attachment loss measure the distance form the CMJ to the pocket base

307

What is the therapy commonly used to treat gingivitis?

Supra and subgingival cleaning and polishing followed by daily brushing

308

What is meant by the terms “prophy” and “prophylaxis”? What three dental procedures would be more accurate?

Prophy-abbreviation of prophylaxis which is defined as the removal of plaque, calculus and stains from the exposed and unexposed surfaces of teeth; used in human dentistry to define a preventive treatment
In veterinary dentistry a more appropriate term would describe a treatment of a condition that usually exists already, more appropriate terms-dental cleaning- gingivitis or periodontitis

309

What radiographic signs would warrant a good, guarded, or poor prognosis on a tooth with periodontal disease?

Good- if clinically and radiographically >50% of the bone and tooth support remains
Guarded 50-75% bone loss exists
>75% poor prognosis

310

Describe the four stages of periodontal disease?

-Stage 1: gingival inflammation at the free gingival margin, Reversible with proper therapy and aftercare at home
-Stage 2 (early periodontitis): Gingival recession with increase in sulcus , Up to 25% attachment loss
-Stage 3 (established periodontitis): 25-50% loss exists around root, Sl mobility, Early furcation exposure and/or gingival recession
-Stage 4: Advanced periodontitis, >50% attachment loss occurs, Furcation exposure, abscess formation, tooth mobility, deep pockets and gingival recession

311

List out the 12 steps of the oral hygiene visit and what is involved with each step and it’s importance

1) oral examination
2) radiographs
3) chlorhexadine rinse 0.12%
4) probe or scaler or explorer or tartar crackers
5) rinse mouth
6) fluoride then wipe it
7) home care

312

What are signs of periodontal disease?

1) Loss of gingiva
2) Mobility of teeth
3) Bone reabsorbtion

313

Describe the four stages of periodontal disease?

-Stage 1: gingival inflammation at the free gingival margin, Reversible with proper therapy and aftercare at home
-Stage 2 (early periodontitis): Gingival recession with increase in sulcus , Up to 25% attachment loss
-Stage 3 (established periodontitis): 25-50% loss exists around root, Sl mobility, Early furcation exposure and/or gingival recession
-Stage 4: Advanced periodontitis, >50% attachment loss occurs, Furcation exposure, abscess formation, tooth mobility, deep pockets and gingival recession

314

What is the best home care?

what the owner will do

315

If a tooth is pink what does that mean? Black?

pink-recent damage
black-dead

316

What are the 4 structures that hold a tooth in place?

periodontal ligament, alveolar bone, cementum, gingiva (knife like)

317

T/F Brushing teeth removes plaque and calculus

false-does not remove calculus

318

What is FORL?

Feline Odontoclastic Reabsorption Lesion, "hole in the tooth" or resorption of the tooth

319

What's the difference between brachygynthaism and prognathism?

brachy-short
pro-long

320

What is wry mouth?

not lined up, the incisors are off

321

What is the gold standard (mechanical)

brush the teeth

322

What is the order of the best homecare?

1) brushing teeth (gauze/toothbrush)
2) rinse with chlorhexadine or zinc or doxycyline (chemical)
3) food treats (1 chemical-enzyme 1 mechanical-chewing action)
4) toys (dental bones)

323

According to the Dove video, why is calculus build up more likely on the 4th molars?

because the zygomatic salivary gland is right by there

324

What is the furcation of a tooth?

where the roots meet

328

What causes periodontal disease?

plaque and calculus

329

Nutrients that play an important role throughout the body system and are often called the “gatekeepers of metabolism.”

non-energy producing nutrients

330

Nutrients that have a hydrocarbon structure that produces energy through digestion, metabolism, or transformation

energy producing nutrients

331

What are nutrients?

Energy and metabolic substrate classified as essential or nonessential

332

What are ingredients?

the raw materials used in food compounding/an element added to the diet not necessarily a nutrient

333

Essential amino acids vs nonessential

essential cannot be synthesized in the body and must be supplied by the diet, nonessential are synthesized by the body

334

What is the nutrient profile?

describes the resulting quantitative distribution of the individual nutrients within the finished formula/the quantitative amount of nutrients found in the diet

335

What is the formula?

Ingredient portions for a particular diet type

336

The amount of heat (energy) needed to raise the temperature of 1 g of water

calorie

337

The amount of heat (energy) needed to raise the temperature of 1 kg of water

kilocalorie

338

What are nutraceuitcals?

Endogenous substances that may provide medical or health benefits that contain Omega-3 fatty acids

339

A group of minerals called "trace elements" which are required in smaller amounts

microminerals

340

Minerals that are required in larger quantities than other minerals

macrominerals

341

What are the 6 basic nutrients and which produce energy and which do not?

1) proteins-energy
2) fats-energy
3) carbohydrates-energy
4) water-non
5) vitamins-non
6) minerals -non

342

T/F Nutritive value cannot be identified solely on an ingredient statement.

true

343

What amino acid is essential only in cats?

taurine

344

Digestibility of a food is an indicator of what?

bioavailibity of substance/absorptive quality

345

Give 2 examples of a food additive mentioned in our discussion.

1) preservatives
2) flavors

346

Fat soluble vitamins are?

A, D, E, K

347

What nutrient is considered the building block for animal and plant protein?

amino acids

348

T/F All proteins are of equal biological value.

false

349

Figure out daily energy requirement:
DER factor is 2.0
41lbs

DER= RER x DER
629 x 2.0= 1285 kcals/day
DER=1285/363=3.5cups

350

Give 2 examples of when a diet that has high biologically available protein is required to meet the nutritional demands of the animal.

1) growing animals
2) increased exercise demands

351

What is considered the most important nutrient?

water

352

T/F Nutraceuticals are essential in every diet.

false

353

Which organization regulates food production?

AAFCO-Association of American Feed
Control Officials

354

What is the #1 breed of dogs that obesity is common in?

begals

355

T/F A food label is a legal document.

True

356

What does AFCO control?

1) what's on a pet food label (set standards)
2) defines ingredients and terms
3) feeding trials (minimums and maximums based on research council 25 yrs old)

357

What are some things that effect palatibility?

taste, smell, odor, moisture, temperature, texture

358

A _____ is a nonenergy, nonnutrient substance added to food to enhance color, flavor, texture, stability.

additive

359

Nutritional value is based on the _____ capability of a nutrient.

absorptive

360

A _____ diet supplies all key nutrients, supplies energy needed to meet daily requirements of the animal at its particular stage of life.

balanced

361

Protect fatty acids and fat-soluble vitamins from becoming rancid by inhibiting oxidation

antioxidants (vitamins C and E)

362

Water soluble vitamins are?

B-complex and C

363

What are examples of microminerals?

copper, iron, boron, molybdenum, and cobalt

364

What are examples of macrominerals?

calcium, phosphorus, magnesium, sodium, potassium, chlorine, and sulfur

365

Energy producing nutrients:
1) Carbohydrates-Broken down into
2) Fats-Broken down into
3) Proteins-Broken down into

1) simple sugars
2) triglycerides
3) amino acids

366

Which nutrient is a major energy source for grazing animals

fiber

367

Excess carbs are stored as ____ or converted to fat. What three things do they include?

1) glycogen
2) Sugars, Starches, Fibers

368

Which nutrient is this: Serve as primary sources of energy, Supply essential fatty acids, Facilitate digestion, Provide palatability and texture to food

fats

369

Which nutrient is this: Principal structural component of all body organs and tissues. Serve as enzymes, hormones, and antibodies. Regulation of metabolism, Construction of cell membranes, Formation of muscle fiber, Growth and repair of tissue

protein

370

T/F The nutrient, water, provides little amount of energy

false-none

371

What mineral deficiency results in nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism?

calcium (macromineral)

372

Vitamins are classified into what two categories?

1) Fat-soluble: A, D, E, K
2) Water-soluble: B-complex and C

373

What is the difference between a balanced diet and a complete diet?

1) Complete diet contains nutrients with appropriate bioavailability. (all nutrients)
2) Balanced diet provides proper amount and nutrient ratio needed for a 24-hour period. (has quantity)

374

Combines two or more food sources to improve outcome

complementary diet

375

Marketed under premise that one particular diet type meets nutritional demands at every life stage

All-purpose diet

376

What are the 3 basic forms of commercial pet foods?

dry (3-11% water), semi moist (25-35% water), and moist (70-83%) water

377

What is required on a pet food label?

1) Net weight
2) Product designator (e.g., cat food)
3) Name and address of manufacturer or distributor
4) Guaranteed analysis in percentages (For crude protein, fat, fiber, and moisture)
5) List of ingredients in descending order of predominance by weight
6) Nutritional adequacy statement (AFCO)
7) Feeding guidelines

378

T/F Caloric content is optional on a pet food label.

true

379

T/F Percentages listed in guaranteed analyses state only maximal and minimal levels; don’t reflect exact amounts of each nutrient.

true

380

The term flavor must be detected only by the ____

animal

381

Number of calories needed to maintain an animal’s weight

daily energy requirements

382

Key nutritional factor immediately after birth that provides fluid for vital postpartum circulatory expansion and carries protective maternal antibodies

colostrum

383

Milk is a complete food source for neonates that contains water, protein fat, vitamins, and _____

minerals

384

If there is concern about poor milk production or poor consumption of milk with neonates what can the owners do?

weigh them

385

The normal growth rate of puppies is___grams/day/kg of anticipated adult weight.

2-4

386

The ____ is primarily responsible for product claims.

FDA

387

The ____ is responsible for ingredient regulation.

USDA

388

Ingredient percentages:
1) dinner, platter, entree, recipe
2) "with"
3) flavor

1) 25-94% is the ingredient
2) 3-24%
3) < or equal to 3%

389

Figure out dry matter by comparing the water content:
Moisture-78%

100-78=22% dry matter

390

Figure out resting energy requirement:
41lbs

RER=30 x BWkg + 70
30 X (41/2.2) +70
=629

391

Find % of dry matter basis:
crude protein is 30%
moisture is 8.0%

% "as fed/crude"/ % dry matter x 100
100-8.0=92% dry matter
30% (on label) / 92%= 0.326 x 100
=32.6%

392

T/F AAFCO only defines organic and natural. Holistic and human grade are not defined, but can be on labels.

true

393

Which vitamin is not considered natural?

vitamin E

394

What are the 4 parts of a guaranteed analysis?

crude protein, crude fat, crude fiber, moisture

395

T/F Feeding all lifestage food is appropriate for geriatric animals

false-not

396

Neonates gag reflex is not present for ___ days

10

397

Weaning puppies:
1) 3 weeks of age
2) 4 weeks of age
3) 5 weeks of age
4) 6-8 weeks of age

1) Puppies introduced to semisolid gruel
2) Peak lactation occurs
3) Intake of mother’s milk reduced, Larger amounts of semisolid to solid food eaten
4) Weaning concludes

398

Whelping expect food intake to rise rapidly by 50% the first week, and by ____ by fourth week of lactation

200%-400%

399

Obesity is body weight _____ greater than optimal.

15%-20%

400

What are some health risks of obesity?

1) Coronary heart disease
2) Type 2 diabetes and insulin resistance
3) Hypertension
4) Pulmonary disorders
5) Liver, kidney, and gall bladder disease

401

How many times a day are kittens fed compared to puppies?

kittens 4x a day and puppies 3x

402

Diastolic pressures <__mmHg need to be corrected

60

403

When are kittens weaned? Puppies?

kittens: 7-9 weeks
puppies: 6-8 weeks

404

What is the word for hairball?

tripobazteur

405

Why do you not fast obese cats?

Associated with accumulation of lipids in liver, mimics idiopathic feline hepatic lipidosis

406

______ support often becomes the MOST essential element in the outcome of critical illness

Nutritional

407

Clinical signs of poor nutrition.

1) Unexplained weakness
2) Dull mentation
3) Malnutrition
4) Deterioration of respiratory function
5) Recumbent patient
6) Decreased kidney function
7) Decreased muscle function
8) Weakened cardiac muscle

408

T/F Adequate pressure is required for blood flow but the presence of normal arterial blood pressure does not guarantee that adequate flow is occurring.

true

409

Define blood pressure.

as the pressure exerted by the blood on the arterial wall of the blood vessel

410

_____ and _______ create arterial blood pressure.

Cardiac output and systemic vascular resistance

411

As blood is ejected into the aorta and the arterial tree it creates a _____

pressure

412

Cardiac output, systemic vascular resistance and _____ interact in complex ways to affect the systolic blood pressure

blood viscosity

413

What arteries are used in animals to measure blood pressure?

dorsal pedal and ventral (humans-brachial)

414

Normal systolic values for dog and cat.

-110-190mmHg in dogs
-120-170mmHg in cats

415

Normal diastolic values for dog and cat.

-55-110 mmHg in dogs
-70-120 cats

416

Systolic pressures <__mmHg needs to be corrected

90

417

T/F Pulse pressures cannot be reliably estimated by digital palpation, so palpation of pulses is not a substitute for measuring blood pressure.

true

418

What are some diseases that cause hypertension(rarely a primary disease)?

-hyperthyroid
-cushings
-any condition that increases cardiac output

419

The highest peak, or the maximum force caused by contraction of the left ventricle of the heart

systolic blood pressure

420

The minimum force during the relaxation phase, or when the aortic and pulmonic valves are closed. The pressure of blood in the artery when the heart releases between beats.

diastolic blood pressure

421

If an animal is hypotensive under anesthesia you increase ____

fluids

422

2 main orgrans affected by low bp are?

brain and kidney

423

Blood pressure can be an indicator of

anesthetic depth, perfusion, cardiac output (function)

424

1) Hypertension->blood vessels are _____
2) Hypotension-> blood vessels are _____

1) constricted
2) dilated

425

What is the most accurate and the golden standard to monitor blood pressure?

direct arterial pressure monitoring

426

What is needed for direct arterial pressure monitoring?

Arterial Catheter and a transducer

427

_____ is connected to a monitor that gives readout of systolic, diastolic and mean arterial pressure. Provide a wave form analysis.

transducer (direct arterial pressure monitoring)

428

What are the 2 indirect arterial monitoring methods?

-oscillometric device
-doppler ultrasound flow

429

The average arterial pressure during a single cardiac cycle and considered to be the perfusion pressure seen by organs in the body

mean arterial pressure (MAP)

430

MAP should be above 60mmhg or around 90mmhg, if it is below ____ than no pulse can be felt.

60mmhg

431

T/F Animals with rapidly developing increases will show clinical signs at values slightly higher than normal range, while animals with chronic high pressures may show no outward symptoms

true

432

Cerebral circulation is compromised when the systolic pressure falls below ___mm Hg

50

433

The cover should cover ____ of the width of the animal's limb.

30-40%

434

If a patient presents with any of the following a blood pressure should be checked:

1) Acute blindness due to retinal detachment
2) Epistaxis
3) Intraocular bleeding
4) Neurological signs

435

If a cuff is too small the reading with be falsely ___, if the cuff is too big, the reading with be falsely ___.

high, low

436

If the cuff is placed too low the readings will be falsely ____, if placed too high, the readings with be falsely ____.

elevated, low

437

Using the doppler ultrasonic flow, this only measured ____ value. You have to take 3 readings since it does not measure MAP.

systolic

438

_____ can effect the pressure in the arteries.

protein

439

T/F Hypertension is usually a primary disease.

false-secondary

440

Why do we use blood pressure monitoring?

1) shock
2) hemorrhage
3) CPR
4) anesthesia

441

What drug gives an animal temporarily hypertension?

Dexdormitor (alpha-2 agonist)

442

What pre-anesthetic drug can cause hypotension?

acepromazine (phenothiazine)

443

Rapidity with which a patient’s blood pressure _____ is more important than the absolute value

increases

444

Treatment for hypertension:

-Volume restoration (hypotension)
-Treatment of oxygenation and ventilation problems
-Pain control
-Control of bleeding and restoration of adequate Hb
-Cardiac support if needed
-Vasopressor therapy
Treat underlying disease

445

Treatment for hypotension:

-Addressing hemorrhage
-Volume expansion
-Drugs

446

Hyperthermia is common in a patient with?

sepsis

447

Heart murmurs are cause by ____ valves

leaky

448

What is not apart of general care of an animal?

coming in contact with other animals

449

Temperature can indicate _____ status

metabolic

450

A major concern of recumbent patients is

decubital ulcers

451

If an animal is declining in consciousness this can be from ___ damage

brain

452

If a patient is semiconscious they should be able to

respond to stimulus

453

Percussion is commonly used for examining the?

abdomen

454

___ effects functions of various body systems

vitals

455

If the heart is not pumping due to an arrhythmia this causes a decrease in?

cardiac output

456

If a patient has a bounding pulse what might be causing this?

fever

457

What heart problem is considered normal in dogs?

sinus arrhythmia

458

T/F Monitoring a trend is more important than a single finding

true

459

What 3 tests can you use to monitor dehyration

TP, PCV, SG

460

If a patient is experiencing hypothermia what is happening to their respiration rate?

increase in rr

461

Pale mm can be from?

dehydration, shock

462

If a patient has a cardiac disease what do you monitor?

fluid rate

463

T/F Vasodilation causes pale mm

false

464

What temperature do you stop cooling a patient at?

102.5-103

465

T/F Vasoconstriction lengthens CRT

true

466

If a patient is appearing lethargic what test would you run?

blood glucose test

467

What tests would you use to monitor kidney function?

BUN, creatinine, SG, protein dipstick active, urine output

468

T/F Significant hypothermia will cause an increase in absorption time due to vasodilation

false

469

What size gauge and length would be used for rapid administration of fluids?

large gauge, short length

470

When is SQ fluids contraindicated?

for 5% Dextrose

471

What is a serious complication of an indwelling catheter?

septicemia

472

Why can artificial colliods be harmful?

increase in bleeding

473

If a patient is over hydrated what can you hear in the lungs

crackling/wheezing

474

What is an example of a hypotonic fluid?

Dextrose and water

475

What temperature would have a decrease in cardiac output and hypotension

96 degrees

476

What type of catheter would be best for short term therapy?

butterfly catheter

477

T/F A patient can have normal intravascular volume an be dehydrated or can be hypovolemic

true

478

When choosing the appropriate IV catheter what statement is not true?

for fluid therapy during anesthesia choose the smallest bore catheter

479

What is not true regarding K+ abnormal serum?

K+ concentrations occur infrequently with patients with fluid disturbances

480

Hypertonic saline is used when?

rapid expansion is needed

481

What is not true about Betadine Povide?

residual effect

482

What is not a sign of hyperkalemia?

increase RR

483

What fluid would you not use to treat shock?

0.45% saline and 2.5% Dextrose (maintenance fluid)

484

What is a disadvantage of LRS and Normosol R?

it requires a large continuous volume

485

Hyperkalemia can cause damage to:

the heart

486

A fluid that has a high molecular weight and does not pass across capillary membrane easily

Dextran

487

Replacement fluids have ____ potassium and ___ sodium

low, high

488

What are lab tests that monitor fluid therapy?

PCV, TP. chemistry (iof), electrolytes

489

Why is SQ fluids minimally successful in severely hydrated patients?

poor tissue perfusion

490

What is the minimum fluid that can be administered per site for SQ, what influences the amount?

50-150ml, elasticity of the skin

491

What are some questions to ask a client whose animal is having unexplained bleeding?

-history of tick exposure (tick-borne disease)
-one site or multifocal,
-environment history
-breed (von willebrhans)
-vaccine history (delayed vaccine reaction is thrombocytopenia)

492

What are some clinical signs of bleeding?

1) epistaxis
2) bruising
3) petechiation
4) ecchymoses
5) hematuria
6) mm color
7) CRT (>2)
8) pulse rate (tachycardia), pulse quality (weak)
9) respiration (increased)

493

What are some lab tests that can determine bleeding?

1) Platelet count
2) Bleeding time
3) Buccal bleeding time
4) Cuticle bleeding time
5) Activated Clotting time

494

How many platelets are there in order to actively bleed?

<50,000 and under 100,000 is low platelets

495

What are some clinical indications for a blood transfusion?

1) Severe blood loss
2) Acute hemorrhage
3) Chronic anemia (don't give blood anemia is always a secondary problem, renal disease form no erthyropoeiten)
4) Bleeding disorders
5) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia (hold off on blood transfusion as long as possible since already destroying RBCs might destroy blood)

496

It takes ____ days for clinical signs to show up because it takes that long for the bone marrow to make RBCs.

3-5days

497

T/F Only give one component for a blood transfusion of what that animal needs, no extra.

true

498

Indication: acute active hemorrhage, hypovolemic shock, thrombocytopenia or thrombopathia with active bleeding

Fresh whole blood (FWB)

499

Indication: anemia with hypoproteinemia, hypovolemic shock

Stored whole blood (SWB)

500

Indication: increase red cell mass in symptomatic ANEMIA, same oxygen-carrying capacity as whole blood but less volume

Packed red blood cells (pRBC)

501

Indication: increase red cell mass in symptomatic anemia, additive solution extends shelf life of PRBC by improving storage environment, reduces viscosity for infusion

Packed red blood cells, adenine-saline added

502

Indication: life-threatening bleeding due to thrombocytopenia or thrombopathia

Platelet-rich plasma/platelet concentrate (PRP/PC)

503

Indication: treatment of coagulation disorders/factor deficiencies; liver disease, DIC; anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity

Fresh frozen plasma (FFP)

504

Indication: treatment of stable coagulation factor deficiencies

Frozen plasma (FP)

505

Indication: hemophilia A, Von Willebrand disease, hypofibinogenemia

Cryoprecipitate (CRYO)

506

Whole Blood: can be stored and separated into?

1) packed red blood cells (fresh and stored)
2) fresh plasma
3) stored plasma
4) cryoprecipitate platelet-rich plasma

507

Fresh whole blood: how long does it stay fresh, what does it contain, used for?

- < 8 hours then it becomes stored
-RBCs, WBCs (do not give blood to give WBC), Platelets, Plasma, Coagulation factors
-Thrombocytopenia, DIC, Massive hemorrhage

508

Stored whole blood: how long until it is stored blood, what does it provide, what does it restore?

-greater than 8 hours refrigerated (dependent on anticoagulant used)
-RBCs and plasma proteins
-blood volume and oxygen carrying capacity
(no longer considered a treatment of choice)

509

Packed RBCs: what is extracted, how long can you store it, how can you take care of it after it is harvested, treatment for?

1) Plasma
2) Storage up to 37 days, refrigerated(Storage depends on anticoagulant used)
3)the packed RBCs should be reconstituted in a nutrient rich solution to maintain cells in a healthier environment
4) Anemia

510

Stored Plasma: harvested from, provides what, how long can it be stored, treatment for?

1) By product of harvesting packed RBCs from stored whole blood
2) provides only plasma proteins
3) Can be stored up to 21 days under refrigeration at 1- 6 C depending on the anticoagulant used or 5 years at –20 C
4) animals with hypoproteinemia

511

Cryoprecipitate: harvested from, what is extracted, used to treat?

1)Harvested from fresh frozen plasma that has been thawed a 1-6 C until it is slushy consistency
2) The slurry plasma is then centrifuged at 5000 G at 4 C for 7 minutes. The plasma is extracted leaving behind in the bag a white, foamy precipitate (50-100ml). Can be frozen at –20 for up to a year from the date of collection
3) VWD, hemophilia A and hypo- fibrinogenemia

512

Platelet Rich Plasma: harvested from, stored for how long, treatment of?

1) Harvested by centrifuging fresh whole blood at 1200 G at 22 C for 2 minutes
2) Then it is allowed to sit undisturbed for 30 minutes, then the platelet rich plasma is removed. Stored at room temperature for up to 5 days
3) low platelet numbers, platelet dysfunction

513

Dogs typed _____ are considered universal donors

negative for DEA 1.1 (doesn't have antigen)

514

____ synthetic bovine hemoglobin, for anemia, only 1 time use but can cause icterus and discolored urine

oxyglobin

515

T/F Transfusions should gradually warm; allowed to sit at room temperature for 30 minutes. Frozen product should be warmed in a 37 C water bath

true

516

T/F There are thirteen (19 in new publications) canine blood groups. DEA 1.1, DEA 2, DEA 3, etc

true

517

_____ is the most powerful stimulus for a reaction
_____ and ___ are less pronounced but can cause problems.

DEA 1.1, DEA 1.2 and 7

518

T/F Clinically significant reactions do not occur on initial transfusions.

true

519

DEA ___, ___, and ____ antigens can develop transfusion reactions from mismatched blood 4-14 days post transfusion

-DEA 1.1, DEA 1.2 and DEA 7

520

What does DEA stand for?

Dog Erythrocyte Antigen

521

T/F If multiple transfusions are needed the blood needs to be crossed matched to detect donor (recipient incompatibility)

true

522

What are the 3 feline blood groups? Which is the most common and most rare and purebred?

A (most common in USA), B (purebred), AB (rare)

523

T/F Cats have a universal donor.

false

524

What drug stimulates bone marrow?

epigen

525

Cats are prone to transfusion reactions, so what should you do before administering a transfusion?

All cats should be type prior to receiving a transfusion

526

T/F AB type cats can be transfused with A type blood generally without any significant problems.

true

527

Also known as hemolytic icterus, is a disease found in kittens and foals. It occurs when the mother has antibodies against the blood type of the newborn. In cats, the antibodies are already present in the queen's blood before parturition. The blood group antigens are similar in structure to the antigen of a common bacteria in the gut of cats leading to antibody formation.

neonatal isoerythrolysis

528

Most cats need to be ____ in order to donate blood.

sedated (only indoor cats used)

529

Canine donors donate ___ml/kg every 3 weeks, feline donors donate ___ml/kg every 3 weeks

10-20, 40

530

T/FOnce a blood container has been entered the product should be used within 24 hours.

true (whole blood should be mixed periodically)

531

Solutions that maintain blood cell viability during storage (anticoagulants)

-*Citrate-phosphate-dextrose-adenine (CPDA-1)
-Citrate-phosphate-dextrose
-Acid-citrate-dextrose (ACD)
-Sodium Citrate 3.8%

532

Temperature cannot vary more than 2 C and the blood cannot be left un-refrigerated for more than ___ minutes

30

533

Transfusion administration:
1) Rates should not exceed ___ml/kg/hr
2) Cardiovascular compromise cannot tolerate infusion rates above __ml/kg/hr
3) Initial infusion should always be administered slowly for the first ____minutes while monitoring signs for acute reaction
4) Administering one unit of blood should not take longer than __ hours
5) Some Doctors will give a injection of Benadryl before the transfusion, why?

1) 22ml/kg/hr
2) 4ml/kg/hr
3) 15 –20 mins
4) 4 hours
5) in case of a reaction

534

What is the first sign of a transfusion reaction? Other signs?

-*rise in temperature (parameters should be checked every 30 mins)
-Weakness
-Hypotension
-Vomiting
-Salivation
-Muscle tremors

535

What are the base line values that must be checked prior to transfusion?

attitude, temperature, pulse (rate and quality), CRT, parameters, TP, hematocrit, plasma and urine color.