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Flashcards in ATE2638 Deck (590):
1

Species of the cat hookworm

Ancylostoma tubaeformae

2

This condition of the serum occurs with an increase in fat

lipemia

3

How many mls are needed to harvest 1 ml of serum in a normal patient

3 mls

4

The sample size needed that determines the _____ size.

syringe

5

What chemistry test results are affected by failure to remove the RBCs from the serum or plasma

glucose

6

Measures the protein concentration of plasma or serum for specific gravity

refractometer

7

Optimally blood samples need to be pulled after the patient has had a 12 hr ____

fast

8

Anticogulant used if the Dr wants a CBC

EDTA

9

Genus of the northern hookworm

uncinaria stenocephalia

10

If a lab result comes out abnormal what do you do next?

double check results

11

This instrument is used to separate substances of different densities in a solution

centrifuge

12

Term used to describe how closely the results agree with the true quantitative value

accuracy

13

Plasma that is red tinged is caused by ____

hemalysis

14

Sodium citrate is what color top tube?

blue

15

Uses an electrical current to differentiate cell types

impedance

16

Term used to describe after eating

post prandial

17

This cell counter determines cells by the refraction of a laser due to the presence or absence of granules and nucleus

laser

18

Where does the adult whipworm reside?

the cecum

19

Phylum of roundworms

nematode

20

The size of the animal determines the size of the ____

needle

21

Hookworms have this unique method of transmission

penetration: ingestion, skin, transmammary

22

Ability to reproduce measurements with repeated testing of the same sample

precision

23

Before any lab test is performed the sample must be well ___

mixed

24

Genus of the dog and cat hookworm

Ancylostoma brazileus

25

The genus of the canine and feline roundworm

Toxascaris leonina

26

This phylum are flatworms with unsegmented leaf shape bodies

trematode

27

Time between intial infection with a parasite until the infection can be detected

pre-patent period

28

Serum or plasma that is yellow is called

icturic

29

Liquid portion of the blood

plasma

30

Canine whipworm

Trichuris vulpis

31

What is missing from this CBC, RBC, WBC, PCV, TP, HGB, indices

differential

32

Ability of a method to be accurate

reliability

33

Portio of the spun pcv tube that has WBC and platelets

buffy coat

34

Phylum of tapeworms

cestodes

35

This host harbors the adult mature sexual stage of a parasite

definitive host

36

PCV findings always need to be recorded with this increment

percentage

37

I want a plasma sample to run serum chemistries in house what anticoagulant do i want

heparin

38

The most common error in the veterinary lab

clerical

39

Two lens systems in a compound microscope?

objective and ocular lenses

40

High dry objective

40x

41

Low power objective

10x

42

What liquid is used to calibrate the refractometer?

distilled water at 60-100 degrees F

43

Lactophenol cotton blue stain is used to identify

fungal organisms

44

If a blood sample is drawn in placed in a RTT, allowed to clot, spun in a centrifuge, what will be harvested?

serum

45

What stain is used to identify fat? the color of it?

Sudan III and orange

46

What 2 settings of a centrifuge are important?

the time and how fast its spun

47

How are hookworms transmitted?

ingestion, skin penetration, transmammary

48

What zoonotic implication is there with hookworm infestation?

cutaneous larva migrains

49

Where does the adult hookworm/roundworm reside?

small intestines

50

What stain is used to identify heinz bodies, reticulocytes, and morphology?

new methylene blue

51

What are the reference ranges of PCV for cat and dog?

dog: 37-55% cat: 30-45%

52

Pre-patent period for hookworm and roundworm?

14-21 days

53

The ______ host is required for the parasite to go through

intermediate

54

The ___ host just carries larva and is not required

parantinic

55

Another name for roundworm

ascard

56

Name the 4 phylums.

protoza, trematode, cestode, nematode

57

Genus name for canine hookworm

Ancylstoma caninum

58

Hookworm can cause ___ this disease

anemia

59

The reference range for total protein of dog and cat

dog: 5.4-7.5 cat: 5.7-7.6 g/dl

60

The reference ranges for RBC dog and cat

dog: 5.0-8.5 cat: 5.0-10.0 microliters x10^6

61

The reference ranges for WBC dog and cat

dog: 6.0-15.0 cat:5.5-19.5 microliters x 10^3

62

The reference ranges for HGB for dog and cat

dog: 12-18 cat:8-15 g/dl

63

Genus name of roundworm for dogs/prepatent period/what it looks like

Toxocara canis/45 days looks like spaghetti

64

How is roundworm transmitted?

ingestion, transmammary, and transplacenta

65

The genus of roundworm for cats

Toxcara catia

66

Dry chemistry system that rely on color change reaction for 30 seconds

glucometer

67

What is the gram stain and its use?

positive-purple and negative-red it's used for bacteria

68

What is the KOH stain and its use?

potassium hydroxide stain and its used if postive and negative grams are found on the same slide

69

What is the most common Romanasky stain and why?

diff quick because of the way it stains the cytoplasm

70

What are the three components of a the Diff Quick solution?

the fixative, solution 1 (red eosin), solution 2 (fuchosin)

71

EDTA tube color, purpose, if anti/cog

purple tube, anticoagulant, used for blood smears, CBC, and morphology, platelet count

72

All blood smears should be made within ___

an hour

73

Heparin tube color, purpose, if anti/cog

green, used for chemistrys, is an anticoagulant

74

Red top tube vs Tiger top tube

tiger top tube has a silicone separator and is for the idex machine, red top tube is for serum

75

Sodium citrate tube color, purpose, if anti/cog

blue, for platelet clotting and coagulation tests

76

Whole blood is composed of

RBC, WBC, platelets, and plasma

77

What is PCV?

the % of RBCs in whole blood

78

The microhermatacrit tube should be filled how much?

3/4 full

79

Which is more accurate the centrifuge or PCV machine?

PCV machine

80

What can you determine with the buffy coat?

WBC and platelets

81

What are azostix?

small tubes used for animal's kidney functions

82

If plasma is hemoconcetrated what does that mean/if plasma is orange/if plasma is pale

dehydration, bilirubin, normal

83

What makes a good smear?

2/3 of the slife, has smooth even appearance free of ridges, waves, lines, and holes, has a thick area, monolayer(counting), and thin feathered edge that is 1-2cm long

84

Where do you like to find WBC/roulex? platelet clumps?

in the monolayer, the feathered edge

85

The two names for whipworm of a cat

Trichuris campanula and Trichuris serrate

86

The pre-patent period of whipworm

70-90 days

87

The adult whipworm resides where?

in the cecum

88

Whipworm eggs look like what?

football shaped with bi-polar plugs on the ends

89

How do you get whipworm?

ingestion

90

After you run the control and graphed the results what is your next step?

analyze data

91

In regard to reagents, what quality control issue was discussed?

expiration date, where it's stored

92

What zoonotic implication is there for roundworms?

visceral larva migrain

93

Regarding quality control what are 2 things as a vet tech you would oversee in your lab?

make sure each vet tech is spinning blood at the correct same time, making sure samples are mixed properly not shaken

94

Name 4 things you observe on a spun PCV?

estimated percentage of rbc in whole blood, the total protein, the plasma color, and the estimated WBC from the buffy coat

95

List 2 causes of hemalysis

not spun long enough or in an incorrect way, blood left out too long

96

List 3 steps for quality control.

evaluate equipment, tech analytic skills, and recognize variations of results

97

List 3 factors for outcomes of quality control:

accuracy, precision, and reliability

98

What are the three common errors?

clerical, random, systemic

99

What are the three granulocytes of WBC?

basophil, eosinophil, neutrophil

100

Developmental stages of granulocytes:

1) myelobast 2) proganulocyte 3) myelocyte 4) metamyelocyte 5) band cell 6) segmented cell

101

Criteria to asses the cell.

1) size of the cell 2) nucleus size and shape 3) cytoplasm color and amount 4) chromatin pattern 5) presence of granules color and shape

102

The more immature the _____ the cell

larger

103

The nucleus starts out ____ and as it matures it becomes _____

round, segmented

104

More _____ and less ____ in the immature cell and as it matures ____ increases

nucleus, cytoplasm, cytoplasm

105

The color of the cytoplasm in the immature is ____ as it matures it becomes _____

dark blue, lighter

106

In the mature neutrophil the cytoplasm is what color?

colorless

107

The amount of cytoplasm to the size of the nucleus is

cytoplasmic ratio

108

Chromatin patterns in immature forms the chromatin is ____, ______, and as the cell matures it becomes more _____

fine, reticulated, clumped

109

When are granulocytes identifiable?

not until the myelocyte stage

110

What's the most common tapeworm found in dogs and cats and where is the adult worm found?

dipylidium caninum, small intestines

111

What's the intermediate host for tapeworm?

flea

112

Breaks off from adult parasite that carries tapeworm eggs which looks like grains of rice

motile proglottids

113

The prepatent period for tapeworm?

14-21 days

114

Where can proglottids be found?

feces, hair coat, or bedding

115

What is the difference in the proglottids in the Taenia species?

it's more square with striations

116

What phylum is tapeworm?

cestode

117

The potential human pathogen for tapeworm

echinococcus granulosus/multiocularis

118

The zipper tapeworm

spirometra mansonoides

119

Where is the zipper tapeworm found?

in the jejunum (small intestines) and produces operculated (cap) eggs

120

What are the broad fish tapeworm that resemble fluke eggs?

diphyllobothrium latum

121

T/F eggs are not distinguishable from the Taenia species

true

122

T/F proglottids cannot go undetected because they are so big, and to diagnosis the parasite you do not need to identify the adult worm.

false

123

What do you evaluate on a blood smear for RBCs?

size of the cell, color of cytoplasm, shape of RBC, and distribution

124

What is leukopoisesis and where does it begin?

beginning the formation of WBC and in red bone marrow

125

As a cell matures its segments increase and the chromatin pattern disappears becoming ____

pyknotic

126

What are the agranulocytes?

lymphocytes and monocytes

127

To determine the stage a RBC is in you

cytoplasm (color), the nucleus (presence, size, or absence), chromatin pattern (diffuse to pyknotic to disappearing), size of cell (large to small)

128

The RBCs stages are

1) rubriblast 2) prorubicyte 3) rubricyte 4) metarubricyte 5) polychromatophil 6) erthrocyte

129

Neutrophil values for dog and cat

dog: 3.0-11.3 cat: 2.5-12.5 x 10^3/microliters

130

When recording your differential findings the end results are recorded in what form?

absolute value not percentages

131

Term used to describe dense condensed chromatin pattern is?

pyknosis or pyknotic

132

How do you describe a cell nucleus that is pleomorphic?

nonsegmented, varying shape

133

This WBC stays in the blood stream for months to a year

lymphocyte

134

The chromatin of this cell is clumped into large, deeply stained masses separated by lighter staining ground substances

neutrophil

135

This cell in a cat has rod shaped numerous granules

eosinophil

136

This cell stays in the blood for about 10 hours and then goes to the tissues

neutrophil

137

This cell has a nucleus that is curved having a smooth nuclear membrane and parallel sides

band

138

What is the term used to describe a cell that has a round nucleus?

mononuclear

139

This cell tends to coil with a limited tendency toward lobe formation (2-3) lobes and its granules can be sparse or even absent

basophil

140

An increase in this cell type is commonly seen with patients with bacterial infections

band neutrophil

141

Chromatin appendage seen the nucleus of the neutrophil of females is called?

barr body

142

The nucleus of this cell may be segmented or poorly lobed and partially obscured by granules

eosinophil

143

The chromatin in the cells stains deeply purple and is very condensed often eccentric

lymphocyte

144

What is the term used to describe a nucleus that is multilobed or segmented

polymorphonuclear

145

This cells granules contain histamine initiates inflammation and allergic reactions

basophil

146

This type of lymphocyte produces antibodies

B lymphocyte

147

The primary function of this cell is phagocytosis

neutrophil

148

This cell is released into the blood as immature cells and are transported to the tissues where they can differentiate into macrophages

monocyte

149

The cytoplasm of this cell has a ground glass appearance, vacuoles, and is gray to blue gray in color

monocyte

150

This cell has granules that are rod shaped, vary from small to large, within the same cell, stain lightly pink-red and sometimes may have vacuoles

eosinophil

151

What is the scientific name for giardia?

giardia lamblia

152

What are the two diagnostic forms of giardia?

motile-trophozoite and cyst

153

What's the difference between trimonic and giardia?

giardia moves in place and trimonis trucks or moves across the screen

154

What's the prepatent period for giardia?

5-7 days

155

What pyhlum is giardia in?

protozoa

156

How can an animal get giardia?

ingesting stool, water, or food containing the cysts

157

Where do giardia attach to in an animal?

intestinal wall

158

How can you diagnose giardia?

zinc sulfate fecal flotation, direct smear with lugols iodine stain, or fecal centrifugation, snap giardia test

159

Foreign invaders are also known as ____

antigens

160

What does the immune system do?

protects the animal from anything that can cause disease or damage, it recognizes and differentiates between self and foreign invaders. employs mechanisms to destroy invaders

161

What is a immune-mediated disease? What's an example?

When the immune response to antigens goes beyond just protection and result in massive tissue damage, anaphylaxis

162

What is Autoimmune Disease? An example?

The immune system malfunctions and sees self as not self, autoimmune hemolytic anemia

163

What does nonspecific immunity do?

protects an animal against anything it recognizes as foreign, response is immediate it is generalized, it does not initiate a specific type of response against a specific antigen

164

What is specific immunity?

Involves unique reactions aimed at destroying specific antigens, The response to a specific antigen is initiated as a reaction to proteins on the invading cell’s wall that are the antigenic structures

165

There are three properties of a specific immune response, which are constant regardless of which type of specific immune response is activated:

1)Response will be initiated only after the antigen enters the body
2)Response will be aimed specifically against the antigen present
3)If the antigen enters the body a second time, a memory of the antigen causes the immune response to occur more quickly

166

What two types of specific immunity are there?

cell-mediated immunity, humoral immunity

167

What is cell-mediated immunity?

function of the t-lymphocytes

168

What are the 3 distinct populations of the T-lymphocytes?

Cytotoxic T cells(attach to the antigenic cells and destroys them), Helper T cells(most numerous; secrete substance called lymphokines), Suppressor T cells(inhibit the function of the helper T cell and cytotoxic cell by negative feedback)

169

____ leave the lymph tissue and circulate through the blood and lymph

t-lymphocytes

170

_____ stay in the lymphoid tissue and sends out antibodies that are found in blood and lymph

b-lymphocytes

171

Most lymphocytes seen in the blood are?

t-lymphocytes

172

What is humoral immunity?

function of the b-lymphocytes-transform plasma cells, antigen attaches to antibody to clone b-lymphocytes and destroy it

173

What is active immunity?

an animal exposed to an antigen for the first time generally shows some sign of the illness before the immune system begins its response, next time response will be quicker

174

What is passive immunity?

administering antibodies that were not produced by the animal’s own immune system

175

Plasma used for in house chemistrys

heparin

176

Lithium heparin preserves this chemistry value better making it more accurate

glucose

177

To obtain this sample you have to let the blood clot

serum

178

Chemistries can be performed on the serum harvested from this tube

red top tube

179

Chromatin pattern of an immature cell

light

180

Lymph node that is palpable behind the stifle

popliteal

181

Cell type that is counted when counting the WBC on a smear but not part of the 100

nRBC

182

Lymph tissue that houses lymphocytes

lymph nodes

183

Cytoplasm color of an immature WBC

blue

184

Immature WBC that has nucleoli

myeloblast

185

Neutrophil with more than four lobes of the nucleus

hypersegmented

186

Myelocyte's nucleus shape is different than the progranulocyte how

indented

187

WBC that has very dark staining granules and is rarely seen in canines

basophil

188

Increase number of WBC

leukocytosis

189

Calculation of absolute cell numbers based on percentage of type multiplied by the total cell count

absolute

190

Term used to describe segmented nucleus

polymorphonuclear

191

Mean WBC of this species is 11,500, mean 12.5

dog, cat

192

This immature WBC can be seen in low numbers

band

193

The number of segments of the nucleus ____ as the cell matures

increases

194

Color of the cytoplasm of an immature WBC

blue

195

WBC containing granules

granulocyte

196

eosinophil of this species has rod shaped granules

cat

197

Generally speaking as a WBC matures the chromatin pattern becomes ___

clumped

198

Varying shape nonsegmented nucleus

pleomorphic

199

Increase number of absolute monocytes

monocytosis

200

Test in which you count 100 WBC

differential

201

WBC with no phagocytic function

lymphocyte

202

Most common cell seen in the peripheral blood abbrevation

neu

203

Very dense chromatin

pyknotic

204

Agranulocyte that has a pleomorphic nucleus

monocyte

205

Lens used to perform a differential

oil

206

Most of the WBCs only stay in the peripheral blood for a short time where do they go

tissues

207

This is the mom cell to all cells

cyte

208

The cytoplasm is less basophilic than the myeloblast and contains darkly stained non-specific granules called "primary or azurophilic granules

progranulocyte

209

Where are the lymph nodes located?

Popliteal, submandibular, axillary, and linguinal

210

In order for coagulation to occur with platelets what do you need?

adequate numbers, platelet ability to function, life span and destruction

211

When collecting a sample for platelets what should you do and use?

do a clean venipuncture, use EDTA(morphology, est number, electronic count) or sodium citrate(function, coagulation test)

212

What do you look for on a blood smear assessment of platelets?

10x (platelet clumps in feathered edge), smear(counting area for assessment), indicate adequacy of platelets(8-10/OIF average number x 15,000), indicate morphology(large, small, abnormal)

213

What is the function of the mature RBC?

carry oxygen and CO2 to all the tissues of the body

214

Protein that carries oxygen is?

hemoglobin

215

Mature RBC is a sac of hemoglobin, water and structural components that help maintain its_____

biconcave shape

216

RBC energy is derived from the metabolism of?

glucose

217

Where do RBC originate?

bone marrow (pluripotent stem cell)

218

The main organ involved in the storage of blood is the ____

spleen

219

T/F Immature RBCs can carry oxygen

false

220

Which RBC is most often seen in a differential?

metarubricyte

221

What stain is used for reticulocytes? Polychromataphil?

new methylene blue, romansky stain

222

The mature RBC looks like:

no nucleus, round biconcave disc, 6-7 microns

223

T/F Reticulocytes can be seen in diff quick stain.

false

224

Large cell, dark blue cytoplasm, large nucleus, chromatin delicate, light blue nucleoli

rubriblast

225

no nuceloli, chromatin more clumped, cytoplasm dark blue

prorubricyte

226

chromatin streak pattern, nucleus round and purple, cytoplasm blue

rubricyte

227

Chromatin pyknotic, cytoplasm blue, most common

metarubricyte

228

larger than the mature RBC and when stained with NMB contain RNA fibers that look like precipitate

polychromataphil/basophilic

229

RBC size:

must write how much seen-anisocytosis(variation in size), normocytic, macrocytic, microcytic

230

What objective is used for an RBC differential?

oil

231

RBC shape:

what kind of abnormality seen-poikilocytosis(variation in shape)

232

RBC distribution:

single, rouleaux, agglutination

233

RBC color:

normochromic, hypochromic, polychromasia

234

_____ are helpful tools used in classifying anemia

indices

235

What are the three indices?

MCV, MCH, MCHV

236

What is MCV? Normal range?

(mean corpuscular volume) mean volume for a group of erythrocytes, normal range is 60-77 fl

237

What is MCH? Normal range?

(mean corpuscular hemoglobin) mean weight of hemoglobin contained the average RBC, 19.5-24.5 pg

238

What is MCHV? Normal range?

(mean corpuscular hemoglobin value) concentration of hemoglobin in the average erythrocyte, 32-36 g/dl

239

Which indices is the most accurate and why?

MCHV most accurate of indices because it does not depend on RBC count

240

What are the different poikilocytosis?

leptocytes(target cells), spiculated(schistocytes, acanthocytes, echinocytes, keratocytes), spherocytes(only record in dogs)

241

What are the abnormal structres/inclusions?

howell-jolly bodies, heinz bodies, basophilic stippling, nucleated RBCs

242

Platelets are essential for which type of hemostasis?

vascular hemostasis, bodily processes

243

What is another name for platelets?

thrombocytes

244

They are not complete cells but are pieces of cytoplasm that have been isolated and released from the ________

megakaryocyte

245

What are the stages of a thrombocyte?

megakaryoblast, promegakaryocyte, megakaryocyte, thrombocyte (platelet)

246

What are some mature platelet characteristics?

discoid shape, small purple granules (clotting factors and calcium), varies in size (2-4 micrometers)

247

What are the four functions of platelets?

maintenance of vascular integrity, prevention of hemorrhage (primary hemostasis) by forming platelet plugs, facilitation of secondary hemostasis (coagulation), promotion (clot retraction)

248

What is the lifespan of a platelet?

3-7 days

249

T/F Platelets remain in the peripheral blood their entire lifespan.

true

250

Normal platelets for dog and cat

dog: 160,000-625,000 cat: 160,000-700,000

251

What can increase platelet numbers? Decrease?

excitement, splenectomy

252

Do cats or dogs often have platelets clumps?

cat

253

If the animal has coagulation issues what vein do you use?

saphaneous

254

If platelets are spider-like in a dog what does that mean? Microplatelets?

activated platelets, early immune mediated thromboctopenia

255

If platelets have large granules what is that a sign of?

analplasma playts

256

T/F Functional disorders can be suspected when there is an increase tendency to bleed or there is prolonged bleeding time in the presence of normal or increased platelet count

true

257

What are some acquired platelet disorders?

Rickettsial organism (Anaplasma platys), Chronic renal disease, Liver disease, Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), Myeloproliferative Disease, Quantitative Disorders, Thrombocytosis, Thrombocytopenia

258

T/F Impedance cell counter determine cell types by size alone, if platelet clumps are present, the platelets are either counted as RBCs or white blood cells WBCs

true

259

T/F Laser Cell counters will count platelet clumps because they have a different light pattern

false

260

What dog breeds have idiosyncrasies?

caviler king charles spaniel, greyhound

261

All these are clinical signs of what? Petechiae, Ecchymosis, Purpura, Epistaxis

thrombocytopenia

262

What are causes of thrombocytopenia?

Abnormal platelet production, Accelerated platelet removal, Abnormal distribution of platelets

263

Canine heart worm genus species?

Diroflaria immitis

264

What's the prepatent period for heartworm?

7-9 months

265

Describe the L stages of heartworm.

L1-microflaria, L2-inside mosquito, L3-saliva goes into blood of animal, L4-develops to the heart

266

Where do microflaria like to be in the heart?

pulmonary arteries, right ventricle

267

What are some tests you can do to detect microflaria in the blood?

a filter test, modified knotts test

268

What's the difference between A. reconditum and D. immunitis?

A. reconditum is non pathological and has a blunt head with a curved body, D. immunitis is pathological has a tapered head and straight body

269

What hormone stimulates the production of RBC and what organ is involved with the production of that hormone?

erythropoietin, kidney

270

What is the name of the RBC abnormality that has basophilic nuclear remnants seen in young RBC during response to anemia and commonly seen in cats?

howell-jolly bodies

271

Term for fragmented RBC usually formed as a result of shearing of the RBC from intravascular trauma

schistocyte

272

Abnormal RBC seen in canines in hemolytic anemias and is microcytic with dark staining

spherocyte

273

Platelets are essential for which type of hemostasis?

vascular hemostasis, bodily processes

274

What is another name for platelets?

thrombocytes

275

They are not complete cells but are pieces of cytoplasm that have been isolated and released from the ________

megakaryocyte

276

What are the stages of a thrombocyte?

megakaryoblast, promegakaryocyte, megakaryocyte, thrombocyte (platelet)

277

What are some mature platelet characteristics?

discoid shape, small purple granules (clotting factors and calcium), varies in size (2-4 micrometers)

278

What are the four functions of platelets?

maintenance of vascular integrity, prevention of hemorrhage (primary hemostasis) by forming platelet plugs, facilitation of secondary hemostasis (coagulation), promotion (clot retraction)

279

What is the lifespan of a platelet?

3-7 days

280

T/F Platelets remain in the peripheral blood their entire lifespan and are removed by tissue macrophages because of old age or damaged tissue

true

281

Normal platelets for dog and cat

dog: 160,000-625,000 cat: 160,000-700,000

282

What can increase platelet numbers? Decrease?

excitement, splenectomy

283

Do cats or dogs often have platelets clumps?

cat

284

T/F Use the jugular vein if the animal has coagulation issues.

false

285

If platelets are spider-like in a dog what does that mean? Microplatelets?

activated platelets, early immune mediated thromboctopenia

286

If platelets have large granules what is that a sign of?

analplasma playts

287

T/F Functional disorders can be suspected when there is an increase tendency to bleed or there is prolonged bleeding time in the presence of normal or increased platelet count

true

288

What are some acquired platelet disorders?

Rickettsial organism (Anaplasma platys), Chronic renal disease, Liver disease, Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), Myeloproliferative Disease, Quantitative Disorders, Thrombocytosis, Thrombocytopenia

289

T/F Impedance cell counter determine cell types by size alone, if platelet clumps are present, the platelets are either counted as RBCs or white blood cells WBCs

true

290

T/F Laser Cell counters will count platelet clumps because they have a different light pattern

false

291

What dog breeds have idiosyncrasies?

caviler king charles spaniel, greyhound

292

All these are clinical signs of what? Petechiae, Ecchymosis, Purpura, Epistaxis

thrombocytopenia

293

What are causes of thrombocytopenia?

Abnormal platelet production, Accelerated platelet removal, Abnormal distribution of platelets

294

Canine heart worm genus species?

Diroflaria immunitis

295

What's the prepatent period for heartworm?

6-9 months

296

Describe the L stages of heartworm.

L1-microflaria, L2-inside mosquito, L3-saliva goes into blood of animal, L4-develops to the heart

297

Where do microflaria like to be in the heart?

pulmonary arteries, right ventricle

298

What are some tests you can do to detect microflaria in the blood?

a filter test, modified knotts test

299

What's the difference between A. reconditum and D. immunitis?

A. reconditum is non pathological and has a blunt head with a curved body, D. immunitis is pathological has a tapered head and straight body

300

What hormone stimulates the production of RBC and what organ is involved with the production of that hormone?

erythropoietin, kidney

301

What is the name of the RBC abnormality that has basophilic nuclear remnants seen in young RBC during response to anemia and commonly seen in cats?

howell-jolly bodies

302

Term for fragmented RBC

schistocyte

303

Abnormal RBC seen in canines in hemolytic anemias and is microcytic with dark staining

spherocyte

304

What is epistaxis?

nose bleed

305

Ability of the body’s systems to maintain the integrity of the blood and blood vessels

hemostasis

306

What is coagulopathy?

disease of clotting

307

What is petechia?

hemorrhages on mucous membrane

308

What is ecchymoses?

bruise

309

What happens during the first phase (vascular)

vasoconstriction of the vessel wall, endothelial adherence, pressure of escaped blood to the surrounding tissues

310

What happens during the second phase where platelets accumulate immediately at the site of blood vessel injury?

platelets adhere to the exposed basement membrane, hemostatic plug formation is a mass of platelets sealing the blood vessel with a loose plug to stop the bleeding

311

What is hemostasis mechanism?

it is a complex mechanism composed of a progression of physical and biochemical changes initiated by injury to the tissues and blood vessels resulting in fluid blood becoming a solid clot that seals the vascular endothelium

312

What are the two phases of hemostasis mechanism?

chemical and mechanical

313

What does the mechanical phase do?

Initiated when a blood vessels is ruptured or torn, Platelets congregate at the site undergoing morphological and physiological changes that cause the platelets to adhere to each other and the blood vessel

314

What does the chemical phase do?

It begins when the platelets release the initiating coagulation factors, Involving several coagulation factors, example is Clotting Cascade

315

T/F Each factor participates in a chemical reaction that serves to initiate the next reaction in the pathway. Resulting in the formation of a mesh of fibrin strands that forms a clot.

true

316

T/F Final phase is the degradation of the fibrin clot.

true

317

What is primary hemostasis?

designed to maintain blood within the confines of the blood vessels

318

What are the four functional components of hemostasis that act together to arrest bleeding?

blood vessels, platelets, coagulation proteins or factors, fibrinolytic system

319

What is Extrinsic system? Active system?

tissue or extravascular, helps to promote the speed of the reaction

320

What are the extrinsic factors?

I, II, III(found in the tissues), IV(only nonprotein factor), V, VII

321

What are the intrinsic(intravascular) factors?

VIII, IX, X, XI, XII

322

Coagulation Cascade sequential activation of the clotting factors:

intrinsic, extrinsic, common pathways

323

Normal coagulation requires vitamin K, which serves as a cofactor for coagulation ___, ____, ____, and ___

II, VII, IX, X

324

_____ is necessary to stimulate anticoagulant methods of the blood and also to activate the fibrinolytic mechanism which will ultimately dissolve the clot

fibrinolysis

325

Test intrinsic clotting mechanism (all except VII), Considered the best screening test that can be done in house

ACT

326

Used in animals that are suspected to have inadequate platelets (quantitative or qualitative)

BMBT

327

This test is done if the ACT test is abnormal, Test intrinsic clotting mechanism

APTT, activated partial thromboplastin time

328

Test the extrinsic clotting mechanism

OSPT one stage prothrombin time

329

What are some coagulation factor disorders?

DIC, liver disease, vitamin K deficiency

330

What are some inherited defects?

factor VII deficiency, factor VIII hemophillia, Von Williebrand's disease, thrombocytopathy(platelet disfunction)

331

How can a coagulation disorder become inherited or acquired?

history, age, environment, breed, drugs, chemical exposure, vaccine history

332

What are the order of events on how hemostasis works?

rupture-> platelet plug-> fibrin mesh-> clot solidified-> repair

333

What is the genus for canine coccidia?

Isospora canis/isosphora ohioensis

334

Where is the coccidia in the animal?

small intestines

335

What phylum is coccidia?

protoza

336

What is the commonly diagnosed protozoan of puppies and kittens?

coccidia

337

Coccidia have _______ that contain sporozoites that attach to the lining of the intestines.

oocyst

338

T/F oocyst can not be seen on flotations or directs

false

339

What is the genus for feline coccidia?

isospora felis/isosphora rivolta

340

What's the difference in size of coccidia canine and feline?

isospora ohioenis is smaller than canis, rivolta is smaller than felis

341

Prepatent period for coccidia? Zoonosis?

7-10 days, not zoonotic

342

What's the infective stage of heartworm?

L3

343

How do you ensure freshness with a fecal sample?

examine within an hour, refrigerate, and fix with 10% formalin

344

Why do we concentrate?

large amounts of feces (relative to the microscopic view) and low parasite burdens

345

What are three floatation solutions?

zinc sulfate, sugar solution, sodium nitrate

346

Flotation methods are chosen based on what?

specific gravity of parasitic material and the debris

347

Refers to the weight of an object compared with the weight of an equal volume of distilled water

specific gravity

348

Specific gravity of most parasite eggs is?

1.100 & 1.200

349

T/F For flotation to occur of the parasite the flotation solution must have a lower specific gravity than that of the parasites you are trying to visualize

false

350

Specific gravity of most solutions is?

1.200-1.250

351

What allows the fecal debris to sink to the bottom and the parasites to rise to the top?

specific gravity being higher than the parasite egg

352

How do we concentrate?

flotation, standard, centrifugal, sedimentation

353

What is sedimentation used for? An example of a parasite?

heavy eggs, trematodes

354

Principles involved in fecal examinations:

gross and microscopic examination

355

Characteristics of feces that should be reported and recorded with a gross examination

consistency, color, blood, mucus, parasites

356

Characteristics of feces that should be reported and recorded in a microscope exam?

4x, 10x, & 40X objective lenses, use a systematic pattern, continual focusing

357

Which solution floats giardia cysts?

zinc sulfate

358

Help in diagnosing pinworms in equine, rodents, rabbits

cellophane tape technique

359

Recover nematode larvae from feces

baermann technique

360

Trematodes are

flukes, flatworms with operculated eggs

361

Trematode life cycle usually involves an ______ host followed by ______ in the tissues

intermediate, encystment

362

Knowledge of the source of infection contributes to the diagnosis but also the ______

management of the case

363

To diagnosis trematodes what fecals do you do?

direct smear or flotation

364

What is the most common trematode?

Alaria canis

365

What life cycle involves snail which releases an infective stage that penetrates the skin of a tadpole which can then eaten by a frog, snake or mouse

Alaria canis

366

What is the paratenic host of Alaria canis?

cat and dog

367

Which trematode has the common name of intestinal fluke?

Alaria canis

368

How can you get Alaria canis?

acquired by eating amphibian or mammalian host

369

Diagnosis for Alaria canis:

eggs in sugar flotation

370

Treatment of Alaria canis?

parasites are of minor significance unless large numbers are present

371

Paragonimus kellicotti where are the adults found?

adults are usually found in pairs, in pulmonary cysts

372

How can you get Paragonimus kellicotti

infestation occurs by eating crayfish(intermediate host) or by eating an infected animal

373

What trematode is host to the rickettsial agent, Neorickettsia helminthoeca(bacteria)?

Nanophyetus salmincola

374

Salmon poisoning is characterized by what?

hemorrhagic enteritis and lymph node enlargement

375

Which trematode is generally seen in the Pacific Northwest?

Nanophyetus salmincola

376

Which nematode causes gastric mucosal erosion and gastritis; adults attach with mouth parts?

Physaloptera rara

377

T/F The diagnosis of Physaloptrea rara is larvated eggs in feces and fecal flotation or worms in vomitus

true

378

What nematode may predispose to malignant tumors and dystrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy?

Spirocera lupi

379

How do you diagnose Spirocera lupi?

eggs in feces in patient infections

380

How do you diagnose Toxoplasma gondii?

fecal flotation, serology titers

381

Is Toxoplasma gondii zoonotic?

yes, to pregnant women

382

What's the prepatent period for Toxoplasma gondii?

1-5 days

383

What's the intermediate host for Toxoplasma gondii?

mammals, birds, people

384

Which nematode is free living and has no males?

Strongyloides stercoralis

385

Where do Strongyloides stercoralis reside?

small intestines

386

How can you get Strongyloides stercoralis? Is it zoonotic?

penetration, transmammary infection YES!

387

How do you diagonse Strongyloides stercoralis?

direct smear, has straight tail, must have fresh sample, zoonotic

388

What is the nematode of the respiratory tract which is the lung parasite of cats?

Aelurostrongylus abstrusus

389

What is epistaxis?

nose bleed

390

Ability of the body’s systems to maintain the integrity of the blood and blood vessels

hemostasis

391

What is coagulopathy?

disease of clotting

392

What is petechia?

hemorrhages on mucous membrane

393

What is ecchymoses?

bruise

394

What happens during the first phase (vascular)

vasoconstriction of the vessel wall, endothelial adherence, pressure of escaped blood to the surrounding tissues

395

What happens during the second phase where platelets accumulate immediately at the site of blood vessel injury?

platelets adhere to the exposed basement membrane, hemostatic plug formation is a mass of platelets sealing the blood vessel with a loose plug to stop the bleeding

396

What is hemostasis mechanism?

it is a complex mechanism composed of a progression of physical and biochemical changes initiated by injury to the tissues and blood vessels resulting in fluid blood becoming a solid clot that seals the vascular endothelium

397

What are the two phases of hemostasis mechanism?

chemical and mechanical

398

What does the mechanical phase do?

Initiated when a blood vessels is ruptured or torn, Platelets congregate at the site undergoing morphological and physiological changes that cause the platelets to adhere to each other and the blood vessel

399

What does the chemical phase do?

It begins when the platelets release the initiating coagulation factors, Involving several coagulation factors, example is Clotting Cascade

400

T/F Each factor participates in a chemical reaction that serves to initiate the next reaction in the pathway. Resulting in the formation of a mesh of fibrin strands that forms a clot.

true

401

T/F Final phase is the degradation of the fibrin clot.

true

402

What is primary hemostasis?

designed to maintain blood within the confines of the blood vessels

403

What are the four functional components of hemostasis that act together to arrest bleeding?

blood vessels, platelets, coagulation proteins or factors, fibrinolytic system

404

What is Extrinsic system? Active system?

tissue or extravascular, helps to promote the speed of the reaction

405

What are the extrinsic factors?

I, II, III(found in the tissues), IV(only nonprotein factor), V, VII

406

What are the intrinsic(intravascular) factors?

VIII, IX, X, XI, XII

407

Coagulation Cascade sequential activation of the clotting factors:

intrinsic, extrinsic, common pathways

408

Normal coagulation requires vitamin K, which serves as a cofactor for coagulation ___, ____, ____, and ___

II, VII, IX, X

409

_____ is necessary to stimulate anticoagulant methods of the blood and also to activate the fibrinolytic mechanism which will ultimately dissolve the clot

fibrinolysis

410

What does the Activated Clotting Time (ACT) test for?

Test intrinsic clotting mechanism (all except VII), Considered the best screening test that can be done in house

411

Bleeding Time (BMBT) tests for?

Used in animals that are suspected to have inadequate platelets (quantitative or qualitative)

412

Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (APTT) tests for?

This test is done if the ACT test is abnormal, Test intrinsic clotting mechanism

413

One stage Prothrombin Time (OSPT) tests for?

Test the extrinsic clotting mechanism

414

What are some coagulation factor disorders?

DIC, liver disease, vitamin K deficiency

415

What are some inherited defects?

factor VII deficiency, factor VIII hemophillia, Von Williebrand's disease, thrombocytopathy(platelet disfunction)

416

How can a coagulation disorder become inherited or acquired?

history, age, environment, breed, drugs, chemical exposure, vaccine history

417

What are the order of events on how hemostasis works?

rupture-> platelet plug-> fibrin mesh-> clot solidified-> repair

418

What is the genus for canine coccidia?

Isospora canis/isosphora ohioensis

419

Where is the coccidia in the animal?

small intestines

420

What phylum is coccidia?

protoza

421

What is the commonly diagnosed protozoan of puppies and kittens?

coccidia

422

Coccidia have _______ that contain sporozoites that attach to the lining of the intestines.

oocyst

423

T/F oocyst can not be seen on flotations or directs

false

424

What is the genus for feline coccidia?

isospora felis/isosphora rivolta

425

What's the difference in size of coccidia canine and feline?

isospora ohioenis is smaller than canis, rivolta is smaller than felis

426

Prepatent period for coccidia? Zoonosis?

7-10 days, not zoonotic

427

What's the infective stage of heartworm?

L3

428

How do you ensure freshness with a fecal sample?

examine within an hour, refrigerate, and fix with 10% formalin

429

Why do we concentrate?

large amounts of feces (relative to the microscopic view) and low parasite burdens

430

What are three floatation solutions?

zinc sulfate, sugar solution, sodium nitrate

431

Flotation methods are chosen based on what?

specific gravity of parasitic material and the debris

432

Refers to the weight of an object compared with the weight of an equal volume of distilled water

specific gravity

433

Specific gravity of most parasite eggs is?

1.100 & 1.200

434

T/F For flotation to occur of the parasite the flotation solution must have a lower specific gravity than that of the parasites you are trying to visualize

false

435

Specific gravity of most solutions is?

1.200-1.250

436

What allows the fecal debris to sink to the bottom and the parasites to rise to the top?

specific gravity being higher than the parasite egg

437

How do we concentrate?

flotation, standard, centrifugal, sedimentation

438

What is sedimentation used for? An example of a parasite?

heavy eggs, trematodes

439

Principles involved in fecal examinations:

gross and microscopic examination

440

Characteristics of feces that should be reported and recorded with a gross examination

consistency, color, blood, mucus, parasites

441

Characteristics of feces that should be reported and recorded in a microscope exam?

4x, 10x, & 40X objective lenses, use a systematic pattern, continual focusing

442

Which solution floats giardia cysts?

zinc sulfate

443

Trematodes are

flukes, flatworms with operculated eggs

444

Trematode life cycle usually involves an ______ host followed by ______ in the tissues

intermediate, encystment

445

Knowledge of the source of infection contributes to the diagnosis but also the ______

management of the case

446

To diagnosis trematodes what fecals do you do?

direct smear or flotation

447

What is the most common trematode?

Alaria canis

448

Alaria canis phylum, paratenic host, transmission, life cycle involves, common name?

1) trematode
2) cat and dog
3) acquired by eating amphibians or mammals infected, snail which releases an infective stage that penetrates the skin of a tadpole which can then eaten by a frogsnake or mouse
4) intestinal fluke

449

Diagnosis for Alaria canis:

eggs in sugar flotation

450

Treatment of Alaria canis?

parasites are of minor significance unless large numbers are present

451

Paragonimus kellicotti phylum, common name, transmission, where it's located?

1) trematode
2) lung fluke
3) eating crayfish or infected animal
4) adults are usually found in pairs, in pulmonary cysts

452

Nanophyetus salmincola phylum, how do you get it, common name, where are adults, where is it commonly seen?

1) trematode
2) eating salmon
3) salmon poisoning fluke
4) small intestines
5)Pacific NW

453

What trematode is host to the rickettsial agent, Neorickettsia helminthoeca(bacteria)?

Nanophyetus salmincola

454

Salmon poisoning is characterized by what?

hemorrhagic enteritis and lymph node enlargement

455

Platynosomum fastosum phylum, where its commonly seen, where are the adults located, how do you get it, common name?

1) trematode
2) SE United States and the Caribbean
3) the bile and pancreatic ducts
4) eating lizards, toads, geckos
5) cat liver fluke

456

Physaloptera rara phylum, common name, how do you get it?

1) nematode
2) stomach worm
3) eating cockroaches

457

Which nematode causes gastric mucosal erosion and gastritis; adults attach with mouth parts?

Physaloptera rara

458

T/F The diagnosis of Physaloptrea rara is larvated eggs in feces and fecal flotation or worms in vomitus

true

459

Spirocera lupi phylum, common name, where adults are, how you get it

1) nematode
2) esophageal worm
3) esophagus and stomach
4) eating raw chicken and dung beetles

460

What nematode may predispose to malignant tumors and dystrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy?

Spirocera lupi

461

How do you diagnose Spirocera lupi?

eggs in feces in patient infections

462

Toxoplasma gondii phylum, where it's located, zoonotic, how do you get it?

1) protozoa
2) intestinal coccidian of cats
3) yes, especially pregnant women
4) ingesting feces contaminated with the cysts

463

How do you diagnose Toxoplasma gondii?

fecal flotation, serology titers

464

What's the prepatent period for Toxoplasma gondii?

1-5 days

465

What's the intermediate host for Toxoplasma gondii?

mammals, birds, people

466

Which nematode is free living and has no males?

Strongyloides stercoralis

467

Strongyloides stercoralis phylum, how do you get it, common name, where the adults live?

1) nematode
2) penetration, transmammary infection
3) GI tract
4) small intestines

468

How do you diagonse Strongyloides stercoralis?

direct smear, has straight tail, must have fresh sample, zoonotic

469

How do you diagnose Aelurostrongylus abstrusus?

direct smear, fecal flotation, Baermann technique, diagnosis is by identifying the larvae-S shaped bend and dorsal spine

470

Aelurostrongylus abstrusus phylum, how you get it, common name?

1) nematode
2) by eating snails or the parantenic host-mice, birds
3) respiratory tract of feline

471

Clinical signs of Aelurostrongylus abstrusus are?

coughing, dypsnea

472

Capillaria (Eucoleus) aerophillia phylum, common name, how you get it, where the adults are?

1) nematode
2) respiratory tract
3) ingesting earthworms
4) in the trachea and bronchi of canines and felines

473

How can you diagnose Capillaria (Eucoleus) aerophila?

eggs found in fecal flotation

474

Capillaria (Eucoleus) aerophila is often confused with whipworm what is the difference?

eggs are smaller, rounder, and lighter in color than Trichuris

475

Filaroides hirthi and osleri phylum, common name?

1) nematode
2) canine lung parasite

476

How can you detect Filaroides hirthi and osleri?

by seeing larvae in feces and saliva/vomitus

477

Filaroides osleri-has distinct ____ at the end of the tail

kink

478

Baylisascaris procyonis phylum, common name, how you get it?

1) nematode
2) raccoon roundworm
3) ingesting eggs

479

Which parasite is increasingly recognized as a cause of serious or fatal larva migrans disease in humans and animals?

Baylisascaris procyonis

480

Which nematode is known as the eyeworm?

Thelazia californiensis

481

Thelazia californiensis can cause what?

conjunctivitis, lacrimation, photophobia

482

How can you diagnose Thelazia californiensis?

eggs in lachrymal secretions and parasites can be seen in conjunctival sac

483

What is the treatment for Thelazia californiensis?

surgical removal of worms from the conjunctival sac under local anesthesia

484

Nematodes:

hookworm, round worm, whipworm, phsyoloptrea lara, spirocera lupi, stronglyoides stercoralis, aelurostrongylus abstrusus, Capillaria (Eucoleus) aerophila, Filaroides hirthi and osleri, Baylisascaris procyonis, Thelazia californiensis

485

Trematodes:

alaria canis, paragonimus kellcotti, nanopheytus salmincola, phatynosum fastosum

486

What is anemia?

decreased RBC count, hemoglobin concentration, and PCV

487

Anemia is a reduction of?

oxygen carrying capacity of the blood

488

Anemia is more commonly a result of a _____ disease process rather than a ____ disease

generalized, primary

489

T/F Once anemia has been detected, its cause should be investigated to determine the proper therapeutic management of the patient.

true

490

T/F Treatment is not to be directed at the anemia necessarily (unless it is an emergency) but the underlying cause which must be determined and corrected.

true

491

The development of clinical signs of anemia and their severity depends on what four things?

how rapid of an onset of the anemia, degree, cause, and physical activity of animal

492

T/F Relative anemia is the most common form.

false-common

493

Classification of relative and absolute aneima are based on what 3 factors?

1) erythrocyte morphology(regenerative or not) 2) indicies (MDCV/MCHC) 3) bone marrow response

494

Morphology classification is based on the erythrocyte indices ___ and ___

mcv, mchc

495

When this classification is used a normal MCV is termed ____, a normal MCHC is _____

normocytic, normochromic

496

Evidence of bone marrow response to anemia is then obtained by determining the degree of _______ in the blood

reticulocytes

497

Based on the bone marrow erythropoietic response evident in the peripheral blood, anemia is classified as ____ or ____

regenerative or nonregenerative

498

Signs of regeneration are manifested in the peripheral blood in dogs and cats in how many days?

3-5 days

499

What is regenerative anemia?

evidence of increased RBC production in the peripheral blood and bone marrow, must see an increased number of reticulocytes(polychromataphils)

500

In regenerative anemia what 5 things can you see a combination of?

1) reticulocytes 2) anisocytosis 3) polychromataphils 4) nRBCs 5) howell-jolly bodies-nuclear remanant

501

What is nonregenerative anemia?

when bone marrow is not responding, suggests that the primary cause of anemia has a pathologic or suppressant effect on the bone marrow

502

An expression of the percentage of RBCs that are reticulocytes

reticulocyte count

503

What is the best semiquantitative indicator of bone marrow response?

reticulocyte count

504

T/F Only the aggregate reticulocytes are included in count for cats

true

505

The absence of reticulocytes in an anemic patient suggests?

bone marrow failure, reduced erythropoietin production, or defective iron utilization

506

To incubate blood for a reticulocyte count of many drops of blood do you need? Stain? How long does it take?

3 drops of blood, 3 drops of stain, 10 minutes

507

T/F A corrected reticulocyte count above 1% in a dog and cat indicates an active response

true

508

Regenerative anemia can cause what diease?

renal disease

509

One third of the blood volume has been lost in a short period of time, shock occurs and death may ensue-tachycardia dyspnea

acute blood loss

510

What are the 4 signs of acute hemolytic anemia?

1)icterus/bilirubin 2)hemoglobemia 3)hemoglobiuria 4) fever

511

What is an increase in PCV greater than 70%?

polycythemia

512

What is relative polycythemia?

dehydration

513

What is primary polycythemia?

something with bone marrow

514

If there is an increase in spherocytes what does that indicate?

immune mediated anemia

515

How do sphereocytes affect MCHC value?

has no effect

516

Total magnification of object being viewed is calculated as the ___ power times ____ power

ocular, objective

517

When viewing through the compound microscope, how does eveything look?

1) object appears upside down
2) everything is reversed- right side is the left side left side is the right side
3) movement of the slide on the mechanical stage is reversed

518

Bending of light rays as they pass from one medium into another medium with a different optical density

refraction

519

As you move to a higher power objective, does the field size become larger or smaller?

smaller

520

If you are viewing cells through a 40x objective, what is the degree of magnification at which you are seeing the cells?

400

521

Used in counting bacteria colonies that are presented against a dark background.

Dark field illumination counters

522

When a stain is depleting what do you do?

1) solutions should be replenished once a month (or more often if necessary)
2) do not add new stain to old stain
3) keep lids on bottles this prevents contamination, bacteria colonization and pH changes

523

Estimate of WBC by buffy coat, what is 1.5mm?

1mm = 10,000 wbc and 2,000 WBC for every .1mm after
10,000 plus 5 x 2,000=10,000 + 10,000=20,000

524

Lead poisoning can cause?

basophllic stippling

525

What cell folds?

leptocyte

526

RBCs that have a decreased Hb concentration demonstrated by large areas of central pallor

hypochromasia

527

If there is an increase in reticulocytes what else will there be an increase of?

polychromasia and increase in the MCV

528

Lack of hemoglobin concentration

hypochromasia

529

A RBC with a round central area of Hb surrounded by a clear zone then a dense ring of central pallor

target cell

530

Pale, bluish round areas attached to the RBC membrane

heinz bodies

531

T/F The older the RBC the less Hb

false

532

Term used to describe poikliocytosis 2-10 blunt/rounded, finger-like projections

acanthocyte

533

What type of examination does not detect microfilaria?

fecals

534

Small, dark dense RBC with reduced or no central pallor and a decreased cell membrane

spherocyte

535

What test is the most accurate for heartworms?

antigen

536

Can be confused with ecchinocytes that are short evenly shaped projections caused by slow drying times

crenation

537

What is incorrect about heinz bodies?

its a blue, round structure in a romansky stain-it is in nmb

538

Are platelets increased or decreased with multiple sticks?

decreased

539

T/F Indices are calculations to determine shape.

false

540

When you have less than how many platelets is active bleeding?

<50,000

541

What is not essential for RBC formation?

platelets

542

RBCs diameter has less than normal erythrocytes and has a decreased MCV

microcytic

543

If an RBC is a normal color and has a normal MCHC what does that mean?

it's normochromic

544

Big knob on either side of scope, used first to focus a specimen, moves stage up and down

coarse focus knob

545

Glass covered area at center of stage, controls amount of light reaching specimen

condenser

546

Smaller knob located on either side of microscope, used after coarse focus knob, to get a clearer, sharper image

fine focus knob

547

Controls amount of light that enters condenser, allows user to control contrast

iris diaphragm

548

Controls light intensity

rheostat

549

If there are clots in the blood smear you made what do you do?

make a fresh sample

550

How do you write nRBCs for a 100 WBC differential?

# of nRBCs/100 WBC counted

551

What is the second most common leukocyte seen?

lymphocyte

552

If there are more than 10 nRBCs what does that do to the WBC count?

falsely elevates the WBC

553

When must the WBC count be corrected?

When there is over a 3% of nRBCs

554

Immature granulocytes have ____ cytoplasm as they mature their cytoplasm is ___

blue, colorless

555

As the cell matures the nucleus will change from ___ to ___

round, segmented

556

Chromatin pattern begins ____ and gets ___

loose, condensed

557

As the cell matures its segments increase and the chromatin pattern disappears becoming _____

pyknotic

558

What does melena suggest?

internal bleeding from the GI tract

559

What are examples of relative anemia?

(eventually goes away) i.v. fluids, pregnancy

560

What are examples of absolute anemia?

(serious loss, big decrease) hemalytic disease, hemorrhage

561

In an anemic animal what indicates increased RBC destruction or blood loss?

reticulocytosis

562

What are examples of acute and chronic?

acute: tachycardia/dypsnea
chronic: renal failure, flea anemia, blood parasites

563

How do you diagnose Aelurostrongylus abstrusus?

direct smear, fecal flotation, Baermann technique, diagnosis is by identifying the larvae-S shaped bend and dorsal spine

564

How do you get Aelurostrongylus abstrusus?

by eating snails(intermediate host) or the paratenic host-mice, birds

565

Clinical signs of Aelurostrongylus abstrusus are?

coughing, dypsnea

566

What is the nematode of the respiratory tract by ingesting earthworms?

Capillaria (Eucoleus) aerophila

567

Where is Capillaria (Eucoleus) aerophila found?

in the trachea and bronchi of canines and felines

568

How can you diagnose Capillaria (Eucoleus) aerophila?

eggs found in fecal flotation

569

Capillaria (Eucoleus) aerophila is often confused with whipworm what is the difference?

eggs are smaller, rounder, and lighter in color than Trichuris

570

How can you detect Filaroides hirthi and osleri?

by seeing larvae in feces and saliva/vomitus

571

Immature RBC that contain organelles that are lost as the cell matures, causes the cell to appear blue-grey in wright's stain. In NMB stain the organelles clump into visible granules

reticulocytes

572

Recover nematode larvae from feces

baermann technique

573

What phylum is Baylisascaris procyonis?

nematode

574

What is the raccoon roundworm?

Baylisascaris procyonis

575

How can you get Baylisascaris procyonis?

ingesting eggs

576

Which parasite is increasingly recognized as a cause of serious or fatal larva migrans disease in humans and animals?

Baylisascaris procyonis

577

Which nematode is known as the eyeworm?

Thelazia californiensis

578

General term used to describe abnormal shaped RBCs

poikliocytosis

579

Filaroides osleri-has distinct ____ at the end of the tail

kink

580

How can you diagnose Thelazia californiensis?

eggs in lachrymal secretions and parasites can be seen in conjunctival sac

581

RBC that appears to have a larger than normal diameter

macrocyte

582

Basophillic inclusions; nuclear remnants seen in the RBCs

howell-jolly bodies

583

RBC that has a smaller than normal diameter

microcytic

584

Tear drop shaped erythrocytes

dacrocytes

585

Increase number of polychromatophils

polychromasia

586

Thelazia californiensis can cause what?

conjunctivitis, lacrimation, photophobia

587

The presence in the blood of erythrocytes showing abnormal variations in size

anisocytosis

588

What is the treatment for Thelazia californiensis?

surgical removal of worms from the conjunctival sac under local anesthesia

589

Helmet cells

keratocytes

590

How do you diagnose coccidia?

stat: only eliminates some of it
cidial: completely destroys it, expensive