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Flashcards in Quiz and Test questions for physiology Deck (241):
1


What are the 2 main functions of the cardiovascular system?

bloodflow to the tissues, pressure of the arteries

2

Which circulatory system is a high pressure system?

systemic arterial circulation

3

Increased hydrostatic pressure is required too perfuse tissues with a high resistance to blood flow. List two tissues resistance to blood flow

heart, kidneys

4

At what point inthe cardiac cycle are the atria filling and the ventricles relaxed?

diastole

 

5

T/F The vena cava carry oxygenated blood.

false

6

The maximum pressure achieved during ventricular contraction is called the

systolic blood pressure

7

The difference between the systolic and diastolic pressure is

pulse pressure

8

During systole/diastole blood in the right/left ventricle is pumped into the lungs through the semilunar valve called the aortic/pulmonic valve

systole, right, pulmonic

9

What part of the brain is responsible for concious thought and interpretation of sesnory information?

cerebrum

10

Nerve impulses are transmitted from neurons to taget tissues via

synapses

11

Which neurotransmitter is always inhibitory?

glycine

12

T/F afferent nerve fibers travel away form the CNS

false

13

Describe how a reflex arc works.

Stimulation of sensory receptor>motor neuron in the CNS (spinal cord or brainstem) sends out an impulse which ends at the target organ>response

14


Mechanical breakdown of food resulting in the increase of surface area for exposure to digestive enzymes is

mastication

15

Release of ____ from the intestine slows down gastric empyting by inhibiting gastric motility

secretion and cholecystokinin

16

The process of slowing down gastic empyting is called

enterogastic reflex

17

Transport of water, ions and nutrients form the gut lumen across the epithelium and into the blood is

absorption

18

Secretion of _____ inhibits muscle activity of the gastric fundus allowing it to relax and fill during ingestion of food

gastrin

 

19

The process of contraction and relaxation of the smooth muscle in the GI tract is known as

peristalsis

20

T/F HCl, pepsin, and gastric are all secreted into the lumen of the stomach

false

21


Durring deglutition the _____ prevents food from entering the trachea

epiglottis

22

Parietal cell is produces

HCL

23

Chief cells produce

pepsinogen

24

G cells produce

gastrin

25

Mucuous cells produce

mucus

26

T/F Motility and secretion in the GI tract are decreased by stimulation by the parasympathetic nervous system

false

27

Gastrin, acetylcholine, and histamine stimulat the secretion of hydrogen and chloride in the stomach by binding to specific receptors on gastric___

parietal cells

28

T/F postaglandins stimulate bicarbonate production and cause enhanced blood flow to the stomach for repair of damage to the gastric epithelial lining

true

29

List two species that cannot vomit. Why?

horse, rabbit because of their anatomy

30

List the parts of the ruminant stomach.

abomasum, rumen, reticulum, omasum

31


The true glandular stomach of ruminants is called

abomasum

32

______ is produced by the rumen microbes for use as energy source in ruminants

volatile fatty acids

33

T/F the rumen and reticulum are fully functional at birth

false

34

What is the common term for eructation? What purpose does it serve?

burping, release of methane gas and carbone dioxide

35

T/F carnivores have a large sacculated colon and well developed cecum.

false

36

The _____ filters material absorbed from the GI tract from the blood before they reach the systemic circulation

liver

37

The enzymes for protein digestion are produced by the

pancreas and small intestine

38

The major blood protein is ______ and it is produced by the _____

albumin, liver

39

List two general functions of the kidney.

Produce urine, maintence of homeostasis

40

Regurgitation of chewed food for rechewing and reswallowing

rumination

41


Accessory organs supply ____ to the GI tract and what are some examples.

secretions, salivary glands, liver, pancreas

42


What is secreted by gastric glands and needed for absorption of vitamin B12?

intrinsic factor

43

Contractions of smooth muscle in the walls of the GI tract that crush, mix, and propel its contents

motility

44

Delivery of enzymes, mucus and ions into the lumen of the GI tract , adn hormones into the blood

secretion

45

a mammal that digests plant-based food by initially softening it within the animal's first compartment/example

ruminant, cow

46

Nonruminant herbivores/example

hindgut, horse NOT PIG

47


What mixes intestine contents by slow movements of liquid ingesta?

segmental contractions

48


Release of CCK ______ intestinal motility and _____ gastric motlity

stimulates, decreases

49


Carbohydrates, proteins, and fats must be chemically broken down to be absorbed via

enzymes

50


The stomach breaks into gobules into droplets via agitation of antrum

emulsification

51


_____ break down proteins into amino acids and dipeptides by _____ digestion

proteases, protein

52


_____ are bile acids secreted into the duodenum via ____ bile duts

micelle, liver

53


the largest organ in the body

the liver

54


The smallest compartment of the ruminant stomach

reticulum

55


Part of the ruminant stoamch which fermentative digestion is anaerobic

rumen

56


Most of the water in the body is contrained within the ___ compartment

intracellular

57

What structure regulates the flow of fluid and molecules into and out of cells?

plasma membrane

58


The factors that detemine whether a molcule passes in a cell are

size, lipid solubility, ionic charge

 

59


The force equaling the difference between the osmotic pressure of blood and that of intersitial fluid/lymph that keep fluid in blood vessels are

oncotic pressure

60


Which stage of mitosis is considered the metabolic phase when the cell is growing and maturing?

interphase

61

When normal cells stop diving when they come in contact with each other is called

contact inhibiting

62

The initial process by which simple sugars are assembled into polysaccharide chains, glycerol and fat are connected to form fat molecules and chains of amino acids are assembled to form proteins called

dehydration synthesis

63


The majority of the ATP is produced by

electron transport chain

64

T/F glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell and pyruvate is the product formed

true

65

Cofactors assist enzymes in catalyzing reactions by

compeleting the shape of the enzyme's binding site

66

What is not a structural protein?

enzymes

67

Protein catabolism occurs in the ____ and requires _____

mitochondria, pyridoxine

68

T/F the liver is responsible for controlling lipid metabolism

true

69

What disease can occer in cats fed diets deficient in taurine?

cardiomyopathy, retinal degeneration

70


What type of epithelium is present in mesothelium?

simple squamous

71

Which epithelium usually has 2 layers and lines large excretory ducts?

stratified cuboidal

72

Where is transitional epithelial found?

urinary bladder and ureters

73

T/F most exocrine glands are unicellular glands

false

74

What are the epithelial surface specializations?

cilia, microvili, keratin

75

The basement membrane functions to

connect epithelial cells to the underlying tissue and allow diffusion of nutrients from waste to vessels in underlying tissue

76

Glands with cells that accumulate secretory products in their cytoplasm and then die and disintegrate are known as

holocrine glands

77


What is an example of connective tissue proper?

adipose

78


What are the specialized connective tissues?

blood, bone, cartilage

79


Which type of cartilage is found in the epiglottis and pinnae?

elastic

80


What characteristic of dense regular fibrous connective tissue is not one

tensile strength in many directions

81

Pus is made up of ____ which function to ____

neutrophils and macrophages, aid in the removal of bacteria and cellular debris

82


The scab is formed by _____ and will fall off allowing wound repair to continue via ___

fibrin, regeneration

83


The breakdown of nutrients with ___ of energy is ____

production, catabolic metabolism

84

The building of molecules _____ of stored energy for

______

the use, anabolic metabolism

85


The function of cilia and where it's found.

sweep away debris, nasal cavity

86

Three components that make up connective tissue are

cells, fibers, ground substances

87


A different solution is placed on either side of a selectively permeable membrane. Water moves from side A to side B. Which side has the greater effective somotic pressure for this to occur?

side b

88


The process which water moves from one side of the membrane to the other is called

osmosis

89

What ion is relatively higher conentration in the intracellular fluid than in the extracellular fluid?

potassium

90

What happens to red blood cells that are placed into a hypertonic solution?

they decrease in volume

91

T/F most of the water in the body is extracellular

false

92


Filtration is a passive membrane process that functions based on a pressure gradient. The force pushing a liquid from one side of a membrane to another is

hydrostatic pressure

93


In what organ system is filtration best illustrated in?

kidney, urinary

94


All cells participate in the active transport of what electrolytes?

Na+, K+, Ca2+

95

The process by which somatic cells divide and produce 2 indentical daughter cells is

mitosis

96


The process by which cells form organs and tissues with diverse shapes and functions is controlled by multiple genes and involves temporary or permanent inhibition of genes active in other cells is called

cell differentiation

97

Once inside cells via _______ glucose is broken down during a process called ____

active transport, glycolysis

98


What is the function of the rough endoplasmic reticulum in the mammalian cell?

synthesis and transport of proteins

99


T/F carbohydrate metabolism via glycolysis produces pyruvate and requires ATP

true

100


Which cells are most sensitive to fluctuations in CHO levels they cannot get energy from other sources?

neurons and erythrocytes

101


Protein synthesis begins in the ____ and uses RNA polymerase to transfer instructions in the DNA to mRNA in a process called ___

nucleus, transcription

102


Amino acids are assembled into proteins using transfer RNA(tRNA) in a process called

translation

103

The 4 primary types of tissues are

epithelial, muscle, connective, and nervous

104


The lateral surfaces of epithelial cells are connected to each other by

junctional complexes

105


Which epithelial tissue allows filtration and diffusion?

simple squamous

106


T/F transitional epithelium is stratified epithelium with a cuboidal or squamous layer depending on the degree of organ distension

true

107


How is the negative charge in a cell maintained?

K+ diffuses out of cells more easily than Na+ goes back into cells via simple diffusion.
Sodium-potassium pump only retrieves 2 K+ for every 3 Na+ pumped out per ATP molecule used. Cytosolic proteins have slight negative charge.

108


Which epithelium is ciliated?

pseudostratified

109

T/F all epithelial tissues are avascular.

true

110


The method of grandular secretion storage and relase in which the apical portion of the cell's cytoplasm is pinched off and lost while releasing the secretory product is called

apocrine

111


Examples of exocrine glands.

pancreas, mammary gland, salivary gland

112


Connective tissues are composed of ground substance, fixed and transient cells and ___

fibers

113


Connective tissue cells that are "fixed" are

adipocytes and reticular cells

114


Membranes are thin, protective layers that line body cavities, separate organs and cover surfaces. The type of membrane that does NOT have an epithelial layer overlying a layer of connective tissue proper is

synovial

115


What fluid is formed between the parietal and visceral layesr of serous membranes?

transudate

116


The most common/rigid type of cartilage in the body?

hyaline cartilage

117


During the process of inflammation, what causes the clinical signs of heat and redness?

increased blood flow due to vasodilation

118

What causes pain?

swelling presses nerve endings

119


A wound that is allowed to heal by organization and regeneration healing is by

second intention

120

What is formed during organization?

granulation tissue

121

 

What indicates the type of muscle or group of muscles that produces the desired muscle action?

prime mover

122

T/F skeletal muscle cells are very long, have only one nucleus and appear striated

false

123


Smooth muscle cells have ____ attached to the contractile filaments at both ends of the cell.

dense bodies

124


Which is true about visceral smooth muscle: found in the walls of internal organs, contracts without external stimulation, reacts to stretching by contracting

all of th above

125


List two areas inthe body where visceral smooth muscle is found.

stomach, intestines

126


What is not true about multi-unit smooth muscle?

it's used for large movements

127

What describes one nerve fiber and all the muscle fibers it innervates

motor unit

128


During muscle contraction, when the need for oxygen exceeds the supply, muscle fibers shift to anaerobic metabolism to produce energy and ____ is produced as a byproduct of incomplete glucose breakdown.

lactic acid

129

T/F energy is required for both muscle contraction and relaxation

true

130

T/F all three types of muscle have contractile units called sarcomeres

false

131

What type of muscle has intercalated disks?

cardiac

132


Transverse tubules are invaginations of the sarcolemma that function to:

bring the impulse into the interior of the cell

133


In dogs, 5 epidermal layers are only present in areas with very thick skin including

foot pads

134


What is true about langerhan's cells?

originate in the bone marrow and function to stimulate other cells of the immune system, are specialized epidermal macrophages 

135


Functions of the hypodermis:

thermo-insulation and shock absorption, inabling the skin to move smoothly over the underlying musculature

136

What is another name for hypodermis?

subcutaneous layer

137

What is not true about horns and antlers?

antlers generally are found on both male and females

138

_____ are shed and grown annually

antlers

139

 

  1. Stratum basel
  2. Stratum spinosum
  3. Stratum granulosum
  4. Stratum lucidum
  5. Stratum corneum
  • A. Keratinization occurs here
  • B. langerhan's cells located here
  • C. new cells are produced here and move up
  • D. outermost layer
  • E. keratinized clear cells

1: C

2: B

3: A

4: E

5: D

140

 

  1. Pruritis
  2. Alopecia
  3. Pyoderma
  4. Mange
  5. Dermatitis
  • A. inflammation of the skin
  • B. bacterial skin infection
  • C. itichiness of the sin
  • D. hair loss
  • E. term for infection with cutaneous mties

1: C

2: D

3: B

4: E

5: A

141


Describe how a muscle contracts.

Acetylcholine binds to receptors on sarcolemmal surface->impusle travels through transverse tubules to interior of cell->to sarcoplasmic reticulum->release of stored calcium ions into sarcoplasm->diffuses into myofilaments>shorten(contraction)

142


Functions of renal waste:

filteration of blood, reabsorption, secretion

143


What the urinary system is composed of:

kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder, urethra

144

Renal medulla:

epinephrine and norepinephrine hormones, targets whole body, part of flight or fight

145

Pancreas:

insulin and glucagon, all body cells, movement of glucose into cells and its used for energy

146


For any substance to be absorbed it must..

pass out of the tubular lumen go through/betweem the tubular epithelial cells into the intersitial fluid, pass through the endothelium into peritubular capillaries

147


Testes:

androgens, whole body, anabolic effect and development of male sex characteristics

148

Ovary:

estrogens and progestins, whole body, preparation for breeding and pregnancy

149


Where is blood filtered?

in the renal corpuscle

150


Fluid that was filtered out of the glomerular capillaires

glomerular filtrate

151

Small openings that allow certain molecules to leave that are too big in capillary endothelium that aid the filtration of blood

fenestrations

152


Reabsorption of potassium:

in PCT, loop of henle, DCT via simple diffusion

153


Reabsorption of calcium:

in PCT, loope of hele, DCT via vitamin d, parathyriod, calcitonin

154

Reabsorption of magnesium:

from PCT, loop of henle, by the collecting ducts is increased by parathyroid

155


___, ____, ____ are eliminated by secretion

hydrogen, potassium, ammonia

156

Secretion mostly takes place in the ____

distal convoulted tubule

157

To get rid of substances the kidney must do what? This is called ____

transfer them from the peritubular capillaries>into the intestinal fluid>into the tubular epithelial cells>into the tubular filtrate out in urine, secretion

158


Reproductive process starts with this

fertilization

159

Spernatizan penetrates ___

ovum

160


Reproductive cells are produced by a process of cell division called

meiosis

161


Androgens are ____

male sex hormones

162

Androgens are produced in the _____ by interstial cells

testes

163


Androgens primarily produce ____

testosterone

164


Period of time from fertilization through parturition

gestation

165

What are the three trimesters of gestation?

1. period of the embryo

2. fetal development/differentiation

3. fetal growth

166


sites spread diffusely over surface of placenta and endometrium

diffuse

167

Numerous small, separate sites

cotyledonary, placentomes

168

Single disk-shaped area of attachment

discoid

169

thyriod:

thyriod and calcitonin hormone, targets cell body cells, grwoth and metabolic regulation

170


Parathyroid:

parathyroid, targets-kidneys, intestines, bones, prevents hypoglycemia

171

Adrenal cortex:

glucocortoid, mineralocotocid, and sex hormones, targets whole body, increased blood glucose and blood pressure

172


Anteriod pituitary:

growth, prolactin, thyroid, adrenocortictoropic, follicle, luternizing, melanocyte, targets all body, for metabolic regulation

173


Posterior pituitary:

antidiurectic and oxytocin hormone, targets kidney, action is water conservation

174


How fast blood plasma is filterd as it passes through the glomerulus

GFR=glomerular filtration rate

175


Abnormal amounts of protein in the urine is used as an indicator of _____ damage

glomerular

176


Reabsorption occurs from the ____ of the nephron into the _____ capillaries

tubules, peritubular

177


Reabsorption of sodium requires both _____ and ____ membrane processes

active and passive

178


When glucose and amino acids "hitch a ride" on the same carrier protein and are passively transported into PCT epithelial cells this is called

sodium cotransport

179


Passive diffusion of concentrates into peritubular capillaries is

BUN=blood urea nitrogen

180


_____ is determined by the amount of water in the tubular filtrate when it reaches the renal pelvis

urine volume

181

Two hormones responsible for the majority of urine volume regulation are

ADH and aldosterone

182


Without this hormone water cannot be reabsorbed and will increase urine volume (polyuria)

ADH=antidiuretic hormone

183


Aldosterone increases absorption of sodium in the ____ and _____ back into the blood

DCT, collecting ducts

184


The ureters exit kidney at ____ and eneter urinary bladder near the ___ at an oblique angle

hilus, neck

185


The ureters continuously move urine fromt he kidneys to the urinary bladder via?

peristaltic contractions of smooth muscle

186


Expulsion of urine from urinary bladder into urethra for elimination from the body

micturition

187

The fullness of urinary bladder is detected by ____ in bladder wall

stretch receptors

188


The urethra runs through the _____ to the outside of the body via _____ or _____

pelvic canal, penis, vulva (vestibule)

189


Contain genetic material for all structures and functions in the body

chromosomes

190


All the cells in the body except ___ and ___ contain identical chromosomes

eggs, sperm

191


Chromosomes that occur in pairs and the number is always even

diploid

192


One of the pairs of chromosomes that make up the diploid chromosome number contains the _____

sex chromosome

193

XX=

female

194

XY=

male

195

Haploid chromosome number is

(n, X, n, Y)

196


As a cell divides by this process the total number of chromosomes in each of the daughter cels is reduced by half of the number the parent had

meiosis

197


Spermatoza are
_____ produced by ____

male sex cells, seminiferous of testes

198

The spermatoza are stored and where they mature here

epididymus

199


Primary spermatocyte:

(2n, XY)

200


The female sex cells ____, where they are produced are ____

ova, ovaries

201

Ovaries produce two types of hormones ____ and _____

estrogen, progestins

202

The hormone produced by ovarian follices and is responsible for physical/behavioral changes

estrogen

203

The hormone produced by the corpus luteum and prepares the uterus for pregnancy

progestins

204


Production of ova involves a complex sequence of cyclial events under the influence of two hormones ___ and ___

FSH(follicle stimulating hormone), LH(luteinizing hormone)

205


Uniparous species

one offspring at a time

206

Multiparous species

give birth to litters

207


Stage for follicular development

proestrus

208


Stage for sexual receptivity and ovulation

estrus

209


The birth process

parturition

210


The three stages of labor.

1. uterine contractions: cervical dialation

2. delivery of new born: water breaks

3. delivery of the placenta: weak contractions

211


The male/female germ cells spermatoza or ova

gamete

212

Stage during which major organs are forming

embryo

213


____ carry unoxygenated waste filled blood from the fetus to the placenta

paired umbilical arteries

214

_____ carry nutrients and oxygen rich blood from the placenta to the fetus

single umbilical vein

215


Stage of formation of major internal/external structures is complete

fetus

216

The embyro of a fetus

conceptus

217

newborn animal

neonate

218


Rupture of mature follicle with release of the oocyte(called a mature ovum after release) into the uterine tube

ovulation

219


Oocyte that is surrounded by a single layer of flattened follicular cells

primary follicle

220


FSH released to stimulate primordial follicales to develop

follicular activation

221


Activated follicles that multiply

growing follicles

222


A mature follicle is also known as

vesicular ovarian follicle

223


The time from the beginning of one heat period to the beginnig of the next

estrous cycle

224


When the female is receptive to the male

estrus(heat period)

225


Act of breeding

copulation

226


Release of enyzmes that help sperm penetrate ovum

capacitation

227


occurs in oviduct, only one sperm cell can penetrate the ovum

fertilizatoin

228


A fertilized ovum, male and female pronucleus

zygote

229


Rapid division of zygote

cleavage

230

blastocyst attaches to endometrium

implantation

231


forms fluid filled sac around the fetus

amnion(amniotic sac)

232


Forms allantoic sac around the amnionic sac

allantois

233


Placenta membranes covered by the ____ which attaches tot he uterine lining and links to the fetus via the umbilical cord

chorion

234


Before milk production mammary glands produce ____

colostrum

235

Colostrum supplies nutrients and has laxative effect to clear ____ from intestinal tract

meconium

236


____ are antibodies that must be consumed within the first few hours after birth or intestine will not be able to absorb large protein molecules

passive immunity

237


Hormones involved with lactation are

prolactin, growth hormone, and adrenal cortical hormones

238


Specialized skin glands

mammary glands

239


T/F mammary glands are present in both male and females

true

240

Milk secreting units of the mammary gland=

alveoli

241

The effect of nursing or milking

milk letdown