B787-9 Flashcards
(95 cards)
0
Q
Autoland capability may only be used for operations into runways at or below_________ feet airport elevation.
A
8400
1
Q
If the glidepath angle for approach is greater than 3.77 degrees, the autopilot must be disengaged no later than ___________.
A
50 feet below DH/MDA
2
Q
Flight Controls:
Takeoff is permitted…..
A
only in the normal flight control mode.
3
Q
Do not extend flaps…….
A
above 20,000 feet.
4
Q
Do not jettison fuel at Flaps……
A
20, 25, or 30.
5
Q
The center tank may contain up to _________ of fuel with less than full main tanks provided center tank fuel weight plus actual zero fuel
weight does not exceed the maximum zero fuel weight, and center of gravity limits are observed.
A
10,000 kilograms
6
Q
Principal Dimensions;
- Wingspan
- Length
A
- Wingspan = 60.1 Meters
- Length = 62.8 Meters
7
Q
Wing tip radius
A
43.9 Meters
8
Q
Minimum pavement width for 180° turns
A
47.0 Meters
9
Q
Do not attempt to make a turn away from an obstacle _____________
A
within 15 feet (4.6 m) of the wing tip, or within 55 feet (16.8 m) of the nose.
10
Q
The fasten seat belt signs automatically illuminate when the SEAT BELT SIGNS switch is in the AUTO position and:
A
- landing gear not up and locked, or
- flap lever at 5 or greater, or
- airplane altitude below an airline defined altitude, or
- cabin altitude above 10,000 feet, or
- passenger oxygen on
11
Q
The emergency lighting system is powered by remote batteries. Battery charge is maintained by the airplane electrical system. A fully charged battery provides at least _________ of operation.
A
10 minutes
12
Q
Passenger Cabin Oxygen is available for approximately _______
A
60 minutes.
13
Q
The masks automatically drop from the PSUs prior to the cabin altitude reaching the greater of:
A
- 15,000 feet, or
- origin airfield altitude +2000 feet, or
- destination airfield altitude +2000 feet
14
Q
CAUTION: Do not operate the entry and cargo doors with winds at the
door of more than _____.
Do not keep the door open when
wind gusts are more than ______.
A
40 knots
65 knots
15
Q
Flight Lock;
Each door handle is automatically locked when groundspeed is greater than ______. The locked door handle has sufficient rotation to partially open the _______, but prevents complete door opening. Flight locks are unlocked when groundspeed is less than _____, or if electrical power is removed or failed.
A
80 knots
door vent
70 knots
16
Q
Flight Deck Temperature (FLT DECK TEMP) Control
• turning the control toward C or W sets the desired temperature between __________.
Mid position (12 o’clock) sets approximately ______
A
18° C and 29° C
24° C
17
Q
Forward Cargo Air Conditioning (FWD CARGO A/C) Control Provides automatic temperature control for the forward cargo compartment Turning the control toward C or W sets the desired target temperature between \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. Mid position (12 o'clock) sets approximately \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
A
4° C and 27° C
16° C
18
Q
BULK CARGO TEMP Switch
AUTO - bulk cargo heat system targeting ______.
A
21° C
19
Q
Air Conditioning Packs;
Outside air is supplied to four electric cabin air compressors (CAC) through two dedicated inlets located in the wing to body fairings. During normal ground operations and landing phases of flight, deflector doors deploy in front of the CAC inlets to prevent debris from entering the CACs. These deflector doors may retract on the ground when ambient air temperature is ______________.
A
below 2°C or above 35°C
20
Q
CAUTION: Recirculation fans must……………………
A
remain ON during hot weather operations unless a non-normal checklist directs to select them off.
21
Q
Power Electronics Cooling System (PECS);
PECS controls the liquid coolant supply temperature of each loop to ______ during normal operation.
A
27º C
22
Q
Pressurization System Automatic Operation;
In the cruise mode, maximum cabin altitude is no more than _______. During some degraded operations the cabin may climb to _______.
A
6,000 feet
8,000 feet
23
Q
If landing altitude is unavailable from the FMC, and not set in MAN, the EICAS advisory message LANDING ALTITUDE is displayed and the cabin altitude controller assumes a landing altitude of ________.
A
2,000 feet
24
Operation With Loss of Cabin Pressurization
If a depressurization event occurs, the outflow valves close to preserve cabin pressure. While the airplane is descending and cabin altitude is increasing, the outflow valves remain closed until the airplane ____________________.
At this point the outflow valves drive full open for the remainder of the flight.
It is important that the flight crew..............................
reaches 15,000 feet or descendsbelow the cabin altitude
not attempt to manually close the outflow valves during the descent.
25
Pressurization System Manual Operation;
Outflow valve position is displayed on the EICAS display. If the outflow valve position is not available on EICAS, holding the respective OUTFLOW VALVE MANUAL switch in the desired position for ________ moves the valve from full
open or closed to the selected position.
30 seconds
26
The engine anti-ice valves close automatically:
* during start
* for bleed air over temperature
* for bleed air overpressure
* when an engine fire switch is pulled
* when a bleed air leak is detected
27
Automatic ice detection is inhibited on the ground below _______.
75 knots
28
Automatic wing anti-ice operation is available in flight and on the ground above ____________.
75 knots airspeed
29
With the Flight Director (F/D) Switches selected Off, the flight director steering indications do not display, unless.......
a TO/GA switch is pushed when airspeed is greater than 80 knots and flaps are out of up
30
During climb, the airspeed window automatically changes from IAS to MACH at.....
.840 Mach.
31
During descent, the airspeed window automatically changes from MACH to IAS at.........
310 KIAS.
32
LNAV maintains current heading when:
* passing the last active route waypoint
* passing the last waypoint prior to a route discontinuity
* passing the last route offset waypoint
* activating the inactive route or activating an airway intercept and not within LNAV engagement criteria
33
On go-around when valid missed approach path exists, LNAV activates automatically at _____ radio altitude with flight director only or ______ radio altitude with the autopilot engaged.
50 feet
200 feet
34
When the Flight Level Change (FLCH) Switch is pushed, the A/T advances or retards thrust levers to provide _______ vertical speed for each _______ altitude change.
500 FPM / 1000 feet
35
The approach mode deselects:
* by pushing APP when above 1,500 feet radio altitude
* with localizer captured and glideslope armed, by selecting heading select (HDG/TRK SEL) or heading hold (HDG/TRK HOLD)
* after localizer and glideslope are captured, by selecting TO/GA mode
36
Electrical;
Pushing the towing battery TEST switch illuminates one of the following battery state of charge indicators:
• HIGH - a minimum of ______ remains before battery charge is
depleted
• MEDIUM - a minimum of ______ remains before battery charge is
depleted
• LOW - a minimum of _______ remains before battery charge is
depleted.
* HIGH - 60 minutes
* MEDIUM - 30 minutes
* LOW - 15 minutes
Note: Minimum times assume steady state towing (no braking) before batteries are depleted. If heavy braking occurs, actual time remaining may fall below the minimum times listed.
37
The electrical power sources are:
* four variable frequency engine starter/generators
* two variable frequency APU starter/generators
* three external AC power receptacles
* one Ram Air Turbine (RAT)
* one main battery
* one APU battery
* three flight control Permanent Magnet Generators
* two EEC Permanent Magnet Alternators
38
If the APU is not available, engine start may be accomplished using external power. Connecting the two forward and one aft receptacles results in optimal start performance. At a minimum, ________ rated forward external power sources
are required.
two 90 kVA (rated forward external power sources are required.)
39
Engines;
| EGT indications are inhibited from changing to amber...........
during takeoff or go-around for five minutes.
| The inhibit is extended to ten minutes for single-engine operation.
40
Engines;
| Due to thrust ramping, maximum takeoff thrust may not be available until reaching.........
65 KIAS
41
Approach idle is selected in flight when:
* the flaps are commanded to 25 or greater, or
| * the landing gear is selected DOWN
42
Simultaneous engine start is only allowed when........
the APU is running and both APU starter generators are operational.
43
AUTOSTART;
There is a limit of ___ start attempts per start sequence while on the ground. In the air, the EEC does not limit the start attempts.
3
44
Each engine has a __________ actuated fan air thrust reverser.
hydraulically
45
A red ENG FAIL is displayed on both PFDs, and ENG FAIL is displayed on both HUDs if actual thrust is less than commanded thrust during takeoff with airspeed
between.........
65 knots and 6 knots prior to V1.
46
The EICAS caution message ENG THRUST (L or R) is displayed if:
* the engine is producing less than commanded thrust, and actual thrust is not satisfactorily increasing towards the commanded thrust, or
* the engine is producing more than commanded thrust, and actual thrust is not satisfactorily decreasing towards the commanded thrust
* and, the current airspeed is greater than 6 knots prior to V1
47
The APU is designed to be started with no pumps operating when on the ground or in-flight up to _______
14,000 feet.
48
The APU battery is designed to support ___________________. If the APU fails to start after the second attempt, a _______ cooling period must be observed before a third attempt is made.
two consecutive start attempts
5 minute
49
In flight, if ____ or more engine generators go offline, the APU automatically starts, regardless of APU selector position.
When the automatic start condition is no longer valid, the APU can be shut down by _______________. When the automatic start condition is valid, the APU can only be shut down by _______________.
three
positioning the selector to ON, then OFF
pulling the APU fire switch
50
When the APU selector is rotated to OFF, the APUC initiates a normal shutdown sequence. The APU continues running in a __________ cooldown cycle.
two minute
51
At any time during the cooldown period, the APU may be returned to its running condition by........
placing the APU selector back to ON
52
There is _____ cooldown period when the APU is manually shut down after the APU LIMIT message is displayed.
no (cooldown period)
53
An APU fire signal causes the APU to shutdown immediately. The APU
extinguisher bottle is automatically discharged after a ________ delay to allow time for the fuel valve to close.
15 second
54
During takeoff, the rudder becomes
| aerodynamically effective at approximately _______ groundspeed.
60 knots
55
The flight control surfaces automatically unlock when groundspeed exceeds......
40 knots
56
After landing with flaps and speed brakes retracted and groundspeed less than ______, a series of flight control self-tests are run. The first series of tests require hydraulic power to be on, and take approximately _________ to complete. These tests start when _______________ and also require that __________________ or _________________to avoid interrupting these tests.
- 30 knots
- 90 seconds
- the flaps are retracted
- hydraulic power not be interrupted
- flight controls moved
57
After the first series of tests are complete, and all hydraulic systems are depressurized, an additional series of flight control self-tests are run. These tests take approximately _________ and require that hydraulics remain unpowered and
the flaps or speedbrakes not be moved during the tests.
70 seconds
58
On the ground above ______ groundspeed, the flight control system attempts to maintain a yaw rate near zero by commanding rudder to counter the majority of the yawing moment due to an engine failure.
60 knots
59
Cruise flaps are only available in the normal mode, above _________, between......
25,000 feet
| 0.54 and 0.87 Mach
60
At least ____ kilograms of fuel remains in each main tank after jettison is complete.
3900
61
On the ground with both engines shut down, any radio that transmits for more than ___ seconds is automatically disabled and ________ appears in the TCP frequency line for that radio. That radio is enabled when the microphone switch for that radio is released.
35
dashes (-------)
62
The engines are rated at _____ pounds of takeoff thrust each.
74,100
63
The fasten seat belt signs automatically illuminate when the SEAT BELT SIGNS switch is in the AUTO position and:
* landing gear not up and locked, or
* flap lever at 5 or greater, or
* airplane altitude below an airline defined altitude, or
* cabin altitude above 10,000 feet, or
* passenger oxygen on
64
Weight Limitations
Maximum Takeoff Weight
Maximum Landing Weight
Takeoff: 252,650 Kilograms
Landing: 192,776 Kilograms
65
Required pax oxygen pressure
No limitations
66
Required oxygen pressure for dispatch
1000 psi.
NOTE: The provided minimum pressure is based on a bottle temperature of 21°C.
Before comparing the actual cylinder pressure with the minimum required
pressure, adjust the minimum required pressure and correct for each 5°C ABOVE/
BELOW 21°C using the Temperature Corrections table. (L.10.8)
67
Autoland capability may be used with flaps ___________ with both engines
operative or with one engine inoperative.
20, 25, or 30,
68
Demonstrated RNP Capability Versus Mode of Flight (FMC GPS Operational)
LNAV with Autopilot Engaged 0.10 NM
LNAV with Flight Director 0.14 NM
Manual Flight with the MAP on the ND .80 NM
69
Fuel Loading
Main tanks must be scheduled to be full if center tank fuel is loaded.
Note: The center tank may contain up to ______ kilograms of fuel with less than
full main tanks provided center tank fuel weight plus actual zero fuel weight does not exceed the maximum zero fuel weight, and center of gravity limits are observed.
10,000
70
Maximum Operating Altitude and Maximum Takeoff and Landing Altitude
43,100 ft pressure altitude
| 14,000 ft pressure altitude
71
Wingspan, Fuselage Length
60. 1 m
| 62. 0 m
72
Evacuation procedures
All doors:
EMERGENCY - OPEN SEAT BELT - (PUT ON LIFE VEST) - EVACUATE
Terrain: JUMP AND SLIDE
Water: INFLATE LIFE VEST -- GET INTO RAFT
73
Number of ReqCC
7
| Seating priority of ReqCC: Doors 11, 12 and 22 (all aft facing), 13 and 23
74
What is the minimum pavement with for a 180 degree turn for the 787?
47.0 m
75
When engine anti-ice is required and the OAT is 3°C or below, the takeoff must be preceded by a static engine run-up.
Use the following procedure:
Within 5 minutes of or in conjunction with the takeoff:
Increase thrust to a minimum of 40% N1 up to 55% N1 maximum.
Maintain that thrust level for 5 seconds minimum.
If high fan vibrations persist, increase thrust to a minimum of 50% N1 up to 55% N1 maximum and maintain that thrust until
vibration decreases to below 4 units before proceeding with the takeoff.
Confirm stable engine operation prior to final advance to takeoff thrust.
Note: Engine vibration may indicate maximum display value prior to shedding ice; however, this will have no adverse effect on the engine.
After the run-up, there is no need to reduce thrust before brake release for takeoff, at any gross weight or center of gravity.
76
When both of the following exist, do an engine run-up to minimize ice build-up:
• OAT is 3°C or below
• visible moisture (clouds, fog with visibility of one statute mile [1600 m] or less, rain, snow, sleet, ice crystals, and so on)
What is the procedure?
Check that the area behind the airplane is clear.
Run-up to a minimum of 40% N1 for at least 5 seconds duration at intervals no greater than 60 minutes. If high engine vibration indications occur, a run-up to 50% N1 may be done.
77
Engine anti-ice must be AUTO or ON during all flight operations when icing conditions exist or are anticipated, except when the temperature is below______.
-40°C SAT
78
Landing flaps
Normal: Flaps 25 or 30
N-1: Flaps 20 or 30
Autoland: Flaps 20, 25 or 30
Overweight: Flaps 20
FUEL QTY LOW: (any MAIN Tank 1724 kg or below): Flaps 20
79
Rescue and firefighting requirements
Destination: 8
Dest. alt, T/O alt Fuel En-route alt: 7
ETOPS ERA: 4 (30 minutes notice is acceptable)fire
USA: Destination: and Alternate:
80
What is the full tank capacity (kg)
Main 16,776 kg
Center 67,899 kg
Total 101,451 kg
81
Fuel scavenge starts when
either main tank quantity is less than approximately 16,000 kilograms (depending on fuel density) and the center tank pumps are off.
82
Maximum Rate Climb
VREF 30 + 140 knots until intercepting 0.82M
83
Max Dry Ice
In all compartments/ total maximum 1,500 kg
84
What to do when doing the Flight Control Check?
During a flight control check the rudder pedal steering disconnect switch must be pressed to prevent nose gear movement.
85
When will the Airport moving map be displayed?
Shows on the ND with range selections < 5nm. Before takeoff select optimal ND range for situational awareness during departure.
86
IAN approaches
IAN can be used for all instrument approaches types. IAN does NOT support automatic landings.
Be aware of the possibility of a G/S warning when on a non-precision approach using IAN.
87
Landing characteristics
B787-9 landing characteristics differ from B777 on several aspects, such as eye reference height and pitch attitude at touchdown.
88
Engine-out Taxi-in
APU should be running. After Engine shutdown expect EICAS caution HYD PRESS SYS L/R. The NNC should not be performed. Refer to SP.7.
89
Secure procedure
Select the Lower Recirculation Fan OFF. Leave the Upper Recirculation Fan ON.
90
TCAS (HUD)
During a preventive advisory the FPV has to be placed outside the pitch command area. For a corrective advisory alert the FPV has to be placed inside the double-lined box.
91
Vertical Speed Indication (HUD)
HUD VS indication is numeric only, reducing the awareness of vertical speed trends
92
HUD declutter
When using the declutter button on the control wheel, do not to mistake it for the A/P disconnect button
Declutter before landing (1000' call)
93
Approximate final reserve fuel quantity minimum arrival fuel quantity:
(hold fuel at 1,500 feet std ISA and planned ZFW) 30 min. -->destination or alternate (legal requirement)
± 2,100 kg
94
Taxi fuel usage
32 kg/min
| ± 1920kg/h
