FIA - IFR & Navigation Flashcards

This flashcard deck was created using Flashcardlet's card creator (88 cards)

0
Q

When converting from true heading to true course, a pilot should

A

Subtract right wing correction angle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

When converting from magnetic course to true course a pilot should

A

Add easterly variation regardless of heading.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When diverting to alternate airport because of an emergency, pilots should

A

Apply rule of thumb computations, estimates, and other appropriate shortcuts to divert to the new course as soon as possible.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

If a magnetic heading a 50° is maintained and you are receiving 80th indication five what will be the relative bearing to the station when you intercept the 180° magnetic bearing to the station?

A

130°

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

If on a magnetic heading of 270° and receiving PDF indication to to what heading should the aircraft be turned to intercept the 350 bearing from the station at 20° angle?

A

330°

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

If on a magnetic heading of 240° and receiving 80th indication to what would be the magnetic bearing to the station?

A

240°

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

If I’m not dedicated U310 and receiving 80th indication three what would be the magnetic bearing to the station

A

085°.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

If on a magnetic heading of 045° which ADF indicator would show a magnetic bearing to the station of 090°?

A

5.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

If on a magnetic heading of 120° which ADF indicator would show a magnetic bearing to the station of 210°?

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

As a certified flight instructor you know that the four fundamentals of flight that flight maneuvers are based on are

A

Straight-and-level, turns, climb, and decent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

If a magnetic heading of 170° is maintained and you are receiving EDF indicator one will be the relative there into the station when you intercept 090° magnetic bearing to the station?

A

280°

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

If on a magnetic heading of 090° which ADF indicator would show a magnetic bearing to the station of 180°

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which are HMI indicator shows your position to be northwest of the station?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

If you are 30 miles from the NDB transmitter and the ADF indicates 3° off course how many miles off course are you?

A

1.5.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In the northern hemisphere which would be correct about starting the rollout from a turn using a magnetic compass? Start the rollout

A

After the compass indication passes south by a number of degrees approximately equal to the latitude minus the normal rollout lead.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere?

A

The compass will indicate a turn to the right but at a faster rate then is actually occurring.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which statement is true about magnetic deviation of a compass?

A

Deviation varies for different headings of the same aircraft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
Given
True course 258°
Variation 10° E
Indicated airspeed 142 kts
Ambient temperature +05°C
Pressure altitude 6500 feet
Forecast wind 350° at 30 kts
Under these conditions the magnetic heading in groundspeed would be approximately
A

260° in 155 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When converting from true course to magnetic heading,a pilot should

A

Add westerly variation and subtract left-wind correction angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which instrument provides the most pertinent information (primary) for pitch control in straight and level flight?

A

Altimeter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What instrument(s) is (are) supporting bank instrument(s) when entering a constant speed climb from straight and level flight?

A

Attitude indicator and turn Coordinator.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which instruments are considered primary and supporting for bank, respectively, when establishing a level standard rate turn?

A

Attitude indicator and turn Coordinator.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When an airplane is in an unusual flight attitude and the attitude indicator has exceeded its limits which instruments should be relied upon to determine pitch attitude before recovery?

A

Airspeed indicator and altimeter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which is the correct sequence for recovering Fromm spiral, nose low, increasing airspeed, unusual flight attitude?

A

Reduce power, correct bank attitude, and raise knows to a level attitude.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Which statement is true regarding tracking a desired bearing when using ADF during crosswind conditions?
When on the desired track outbound with proper drift correction established the ADF pointer will be deflected to the Windward side of the tail position.
25
While maintaining a magnetic heading of 060° and a true airspeed of 130 kn the 150° radial of the VOR is crossed at 11:37 and the 140° radial at 11:45 the approximate time and distance to the station would be?
48 minutes 104 NM
26
While maintaining a magnetic heading of 180° and a true airspeed of 130 kn the 270 radial of the VOR is crossed at 10:37 and the 260° radial at 10:42. The approximate time and distance to the station would be
30 minutes 65 nautical miles
27
An aircraft is flying at a constant power setting and constant indicated altitude. If the outside air temperature (OAT) increases,
The true airspeed will increase and the true altitude will increase.
28
As density altitude increases, which will occur if a constant indicated airspeed is maintained in a no-wind condition?
True airspeed increases; groundspeed increase
29
Density altitude may be determined by correcting
Pressure altitude for nonstandard temperature.
30
What are the standard temperature and pressure values for mean sea level?
59°F and 1013.2 mb.
31
A particular VORTAC station is undergoing routine maintenance. This is evident by
removal of the identification feature.
32
The three individual navigation services provided by a VORTAC facility are
VHF VOR azimuth, UHF TACAN azimuth, and UHF TACAN distance information.
33
Where does the floor of controlled airspace began over Saginaw airport (area 1)
Surface
34
Which what altitude would be selected to avoid operating in class B airspace on a flight from Northwest airport (area 2) to McKinney airport (area 5)?
2,500 feet MSL
35
When, if ever, are two way radio communications required while in route from Lancaster airport (area 3) directly to McKinney airport (area 5) at 2,700 feet MSL.
Before entering the class B airspace.
36
Where does the floor of controlled airspace begin over McCampbell airport (area 1)
1,217 feet MSL.
37
the controlled airspace located at the Corpus Christi VORTAC (area 5) begins at
700 feet AGL.
38
Assuming owner permission what minimum avionics equipment is required for operation into Cuddihy airport. (area 8)?
Two-way radio communications equipment and transponder with encoding altimeter.
39
Where does the floor of controlled airspace begin over half Moon Bay airport (area 1)?
700 feet AGL.
40
When are two-way radio communications required on a Gnoss Airport (area 4) to Livermore airport (area 5) at an altitude of 3500 feet AGL ? when in entering
The Livermore airport class D airspace.
41
What is the height of class D airspace over Livermore airport (area 5)?
2,900 feet MSL.
42
At what altitude does the class B airspace begin over Hayward airport (area 3)?
3,000 feet MSL.
43
Within the contiguous United States the floor of class A airspace is
18,000 feet MSL.
44
With certain exceptions class E airspace extends upward from either 700 feet or 1200 feet AGL to, but not does not include,
18,000 feet MSL.
45
When a control tower located on an airport within class D airspace, ceases operation for the day what happens to the airspace designation?
The airspace reverts to class E or a combination of class E and G airspace during the hours that tower is not in Operation.
46
The vertical limit of class D airspace will normally be designated at
Up to, and including, 2,500 feet AGL.
47
Class E airspace within the contiguous United States extends upward from either 700 feet or 1200 feet AGL to, but not including
The base of the overlying controlled airspace
48
What is the normal radius of the outer area (class C airspace)
20 NM
49
What is the radius of the surface area (class C airspace)
5 miles.
50
What is the radius of the shelf area (outer ring of class C airspace)
10 miles.
51
Which altitude (box 2) is applicable to the base of the shelf area (of class C airspace outer ring)
1,200 feet AGL.
52
Which altitude (box 1) is applicable to the vertical extent of the surface and shelf areas? (the ceiling of class C airspace)
4,000 feet above airport
53
What minimum avionics equipment is required for operation within class C airspace?
Two way communications and transponder with automatic altitude recording capability.
54
To operate an aircraft within classier space from a satellite airport without an operating control tower, a pilot must
Contact ATC as soon as practicable after take off.
55
All operations within class C airspace
Must be in communication with the responsible ATC agency.
56
The airspace beginning at the surface overlying NAS Kingsville (area 2) is
Class D airspace
57
Flight through a restricted area should not be accomplished unless the pilot has
Received prior authorization from the controlling agency.
58
A warning area is aerospace of defined dimensions established
From three nautical miles outward from the coast of US
59
A military operations area and (MOA) is airspace of defined vertical and lateral limits established for the purpose of
Separating certain military training activities from IFR traffic.
60
When operating VFR in a military operations area (MOA ), a pilot
Should exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted.
61
Local airport advisory service is usually available at all airports
Where a flight service station is located on the airport
62
If a military training route has flights operating at or below 1,500 feet AGL, it will be designated by
IR or VR and a four digit number.
63
While on a flight from Alice airport (area 7) to McCampbell airport (area 1) at 5500 feet MSL when, if ever, is a transponder required?
Required when over flying the Corpus Christi class C airspace.
64
The minimum avionics equipment necessary to operate in the airspace above 8000 feet MSL over San Francisco international Airport is
Transponder and encoding altimeter
65
When landing at an airport that does not have a tower, FSS, or UNICOM, you should broadcast your intentions on
122.9 MHz.
66
Select the correct statement concerning special VFR operations at Addison Airport?
These operations are permitted at all times.
67
If an aircraft has a transponder, encoding altimeter, and DME, the proper equipment suffix to be entered on a flight plan is
A.
68
A rapid acceleration can create the illusion of being in a
Noseup attitude.
69
Which procedure is recommended to prevent or overcome spiral disorientation?
Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments.
70
What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight?
All traffic or terrain features appear to be farther away than their actual distance.
71
Which technique should a student be taught to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight and level flight?
Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals
72
Dark adaptation is impaired by exposure to
Cabin pressure altitudes above 5,000 feet.
73
What is the elevation of the DFW VORTAC?
560 feet MSL.
74
Select the correct statement concerning the Maverick VOR (area 6)
Hazardous in-flight weather advisory service HIWAS is not available over the VOR.
75
What does the figure 24 (area 6) indicate?
Maximum elevation figure for that quadrangle
76
What are the four fundamental risk elements in the aeronautical decision-making (ADM) process that comprise any given aviation situation?
Pilot, aircraft, environment, and mission.
77
When should a flight instructor begin teaching aeronautical decision-making A(DM) to a student?
As soon as the student is able to control the aircraft during basic maneuvers.
78
Risk management as part of the aeronautical decision-making (ADM) process, relies on which feature to reduce the risks associated with each flight?
Situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgment.
79
The aeronautical decision-making (ADM) process identifies several steps involved in good decision-making. One of the steps is
Identifying personal attitudes hazardous to safe flight.
80
Examples of classic behavioral traps that experienced pilots may fall into are to
Complete a flight as planned, please passengers, meet schedules, and 'get the job done.'
81
Many experienced pilots have fallen prey to dangerous tendencies or behavioral problems at sometime. Some of these dangerous tendencies or behavior patterns which must be identified and eliminated include
Peer pressure, skud running, loss of situational awareness, and operating with inadequate fuel reserves.
82
Name some hazardous attitudes that can affect your judgment during the aeronautical decision-making (ADM) process.
Antiauthority, impulsivity, and resignation.
83
During training flights an instructor should interject realistic distractions to determine if a student can
Maintain aircraft control while his/her attention is diverted.
84
Which stall must be performed during a flight instructor - airplane practical test?
Power on or power off.
85
The symbol just south of the Rio Vista airport (area 7) indicates a
Closed airport
86
In the integrated or composite method of flight instruction
The airplanes attitude is established and maintained by reference to the natural horizon and confirmed by instrument references.
87
Where does the floor of controlled airspace begin over Airpark Dallas airport (F69) (area 4)?
Surface.