CJ3 - System Questions Flashcards
(189 cards)
0
Q
The MASTER WARNING RESET switchlights illuminate and flash when:
A
A red annunciator illuminates and when both the L and R GEN OFF annunciators illuminate.
1
Q
An annunciator panel light extinguishes:
A
When the malfunction is corrected.
2
Q
The rotary TEST switch:
A
Illuminates all LEDs on the annunciator panel in the ANNU position by cycling through each row.
3
Q
Amber annunciators illuminate:
A
Flashing, then go steady when the MASTER CAUTION RESET switch-light is pressed.
4
Q
The correct statement is:
A
1) The FUEL BOOST pump switches do not have to be on for engine start.
2) With the FUEL BOOST pump switches OFF, the respective boost pump does not operate.
3) The fuel boost pump automatically energizes anytime the FUEL BOOST switches are in NORM and the START button is depressed, FUEL TRANSFER is selected, or low fuel pressure is sensed in the engine supply line (throttle at IDLE or above).
5
Q
After engine start, the fuel boost pump is deenergized by:
A
Start circuit termination.
6
Q
If the L or R FUEL LOW LEVEL annunciator illuminates:
A
The pilot should activate the appropriate fuel boost pump.
7
Q
If the white L or R FUEL BOOST ON annunciator illuminates without any action by the crew (engine operating normally), the probable cause is:
A
The low-pressure sensing switch has energized the boost pump.
8
Q
To verify that fuel transfer is in fact occurring, it is necessary to:
A
Monitor the fuel quantity indicators for appropriate quantity changes.
9
Q
When fuel transfer is selected by positioning the FUEL TRANSFER switch to L TANK and the white FUEL TRANSFER annunciator illuminates:
A
The transfer valve is energized open.
10
Q
Operation of the primary ejector pump is directly dependent upon:
A
High-pressure fuel from the engine-driven fuel pump (motive flow).
11
Q
If the engine-driven fuel pump fails:
A
The engine flames out.
12
Q
If the R TANK or L TANK FUEL TRANSFER has been selected and normal DC electrical power is lost (BATT switch in EMER with a dual generator failure):
A
The transfer valve fails closed.
13
Q
The maximum normal asymmetric fuel differential is:
A
200 pounds.
14
Q
Anti-ice systems should be turned on in flight when operating in visible moisture with a MFD displayed RAT of:
A
+10°C (50°F) or below.
15
Q
The P/S HTR OFF annunciator:
A
Illuminates with the system selected when current fails to any main system pitot or static heating element.
16
Q
At night, ice formation can be detected by:
A
Red windshield ice detection light.
17
Q
Select the one correct statement concerning the W/S AIR O’HEAT annunciator:
A
If the annunciator illuminates when the system is operating, the solenoid valve should close, shutting off windshield air.
18
Q
Failure of the main DC electrical system results in:
A
Continuous flow of hot bleed air, with windshield temperature control possible only through regulation of the volume of bleed air permitted to the windshield.
19
Q
The W/S AIR O’HEAT annunciator illuminates:
A
If 5-psi pressure is sensed in the duct with the WINDSHIELD BLEED AIR switch OFF.
20
Q
Regarding the windshield anti-ice system:
A
An overheat light, with the system ON, indicates excessive bleed-air temperature.
21
Q
When using rain removal:
A
The augmenter doors should be opened prior to applying bleed air on the windshield.
22
Q
The windshield alcohol system:
A
Is a backup system for the windshield anti-ice system and utilizes a pump that supplies alcohol to the pilot windshield only for a maximum of 10 minutes.
23
Q
Once necessary conditions are satisfied to extinguish the ENG ANTI-ICE annunciators, a minimum power setting to sustain the operation in flight is:
A
Anti-ice idle 70% N2 rpm, landing gear up.
24
The time for the ENG ANTI-ICE annunciators to extinguish after initiating operation in flight varies with outside air temperature at cruise or climb thrust settings. Normally, no more than:
2 minutes.
25
The L or R ENG ANTI-ICE light illuminates if the engine inlet temperature of the engine drops below:
10°C (50°F).
26
In flight, cockpit indications that the engine anti-ice system is operating is:
ITT rise, N1 and N2 decrease, and the ENG ANTI-ICE switchlight(s) extinguish after a few minutes.
27
If the MASTER CAUTION RESET switchlight and the WING ANTI-ICE switchlights illuminate:
Bleed-air temperature at the wingtip is too cold.
28
When using the TAIL DEICE boots:
MANUAL MODE serves as a backup if AUTO mode fails.
29
A good battery should supply power to the hot battery bus and the emergency bus for approximately:
30 minutes.
30
The crossfeed bus serves as:
A bus tie for the hot battery bus, emergency buses and the feed buses.
31
In flight, with the generators online, the battery is isolated from any charging source when the BATT switch is in:
OFF or EMER.
32
If manual termination of a start sequence is desired, the switch to press is:
START DISG.
33
The voltage read on the voltmeter with the VOLTAGE SEL switch in BATT is sensed from the:
Hot battery bus.
34
If the generators are not operating, the voltmeter reads battery voltage when the BATT switch is in:
BATT and EMER.
35
The light in each engine start button illuminates to indicate:
Closing of the start relay.
36
The generator field relay opens when:
1) An internal feeder fault is sensed.
2) An overvoltage condition is sensed.
3) An ENG FIRE switchlight is activated.
37
If a battery start is intended, the generator switches should be placed to:
GEN.
38
With the battery as the only source of power and the BATT switch OFF, the bus(es) powered is (are):
Hot battery bus.
39
With the battery as the only source of power and the BATT switch in EMER, the following bus(es) are powered:
Emergency bus, hot battery bus.
40
With the battery as the only source of power and the BATT switch in BATT, the following condition exists:
All DC buses are powered for 10 minutes.
41
The item that receives power directly from the hot battery bus is:
Nose baggage compartment light.
42
In flight, an engine start accomplished with the start button (not a windmilling start):
Is a battery start as the generator assist is disabled in flight to protect the operating generator.
43
Regarding the engine starting sequence (battery start on the ground):
It is terminated normally by the 45% N2 speed-sensing switch on the starter-generator.
44
The correct statement(s) is:
1) The illumination of the engine START DISG button is a function of the panel lights control NIGHT-DIM switch.
2) The generator switches are placed in the OFF position for an EPU start.
3) A failed left 225 amp current limiter prevents starting of the left engine.
45
With the electrical system operating normally (both generators on the line with the BATT switch in BATT):
The generator control units (GCUs) serve to automatically regulate, parallel, and protect the generators.
46
Placing the BATT switch in EMER with the generators on the line:
Causes the emergency bus to be powered by the battery.
47
Loss of both generators:
R and L GEN OFF annunciators, MASTER CAUTION RESET and MASTER WARNING RESET switchlights illuminate.
48
During engine start, the speed sensing switch terminates the start sequence thus removing power from the:
Electric fuel boost pump, ignitors, and the starter-generator.
49
The BATT O'TEMP annunciator comes on steady and remains steady after the MASTER WARNING RESET switchlight is depressed:
Move the BATT switch to EMER and observe the volts and amps.
50
Both engines are started and the AFT J-BOX LMT annunciator is observed illuminated:
A 225 amp current limiter is blown and must be repaired before flight.
51
The battery DISCONNECT switch:
1) Is used for a stuck start relay.
2) Is used for a stuck battery relay during battery overtemperature.
3) Can only be used when the BATT switch is in BATT.
52
Cabin pressurization is normally maintained by:
Controlling the amount of air escaping the cabin.
53
Normal pressurization modes are:
1) Ground taxi.
2) Prepressurization during takeoff.
3) Flight mode.
4) Landing mode.
54
When both throttles are advanced above 85% N2 on the ground:
The prepressurization mode is initiated.
55
The outflow valves are opened to reduce cabin pressure by:
1) The digital AUTO controller that meters ejector vacuum to the primary outflow valve.
2) The CABIN DUMP switch.
3) The MANUAL switch selection and using the red knob to manually meter ambient low pressure air to the secondary valve.
56
The two outflow valves are closed to increase cabin pressure by:
1) AUTOMATIC control that meters service air pressure to close the primary valve.
2) Selecting MANUAL and using the red knob to meter cabin air pressure to the secondary valve.
57
If vacuum becomes uncontrolled in flight:
The cabin rapidly climbs, but does not exceed 14,500 ± 500 feet.
58
The normal mode for controlling cabin pressure is:
The AUTO mode.
59
The source of bleed air for cabin pressurization when the EMERG PRESS ON annunciator is illuminated in flight is:
Either or both engines.
60
The DC powered pressure controller modes is (are):
1) The isobaric mode.
| 2) The AUTO mode.
61
If the air data computer fails in flight:
The controller amber light illuminates and SET ALT window changes to FL isobaric mode.
62
Prior to takeoff, the controller is normally set to:
Destination elevation.
63
The controller continuously generates autoschedule signals in flight, based on:
Departure field elevation, the maximum altitude reached, and pilot input of destination elevation.
64
On the ground, with either engine operating below 85% N2:
Both outflow valves are open.
65
Operating in high altitude mode of operation:
Cabin altitude climbs and remains at approximately 8,000 feet while the aircraft is above 25,000 feet.
66
The standby HSI receives its heading data from:
AHRS 2.
67
In order to fully function, the autopilot and yaw damper both require:
Two valid AHRS without attitude miscompares.
68
Your PFD shows red flags of IAS, ALT, and VS. Which reversion control should you use?
DADC REV.
69
Without normal aircraft DC power, the standby flight display battery should last:
88 minutes.
70
Normally needed FMS data entry items are indicated by:
Boxes.
71
Localizer-based approaches may be flown from the FAF to the runway using the Collins FMS as the lateral navigation source.
False.
72
If any data (other than messages) appear in yellow on any FMS CDU page:
Some parameter is in error.
73
In order for the left PFDs NAV source to autoswap from FMS to LOC:
1) A localizer-based approach must be entered into the FMS.
2) The aircraft must be within 30 nm of that airport.
3) Either APPR or B/C on the mode select panel must be pushed.
74
To enter airways into the flight plan:
1) The waypoints where you get on and off the airway must be on the FPLN page.
2) The airway designator can only be entered under the VIA column on the FPLN page, on the line immediately after the waypoint where you get on the airway.
75
GPS approaches flown to an MDA usually use which mode select buttons?
NAV and VNAV.
76
To move the controlling FGC arrow from the left side to the right side:
Press the AP XFR button on the autopilot panel and reprogram the flight director.
77
The FMS TUN page can be used to control ATC modes, TCAS test, and marker beacon sensitivity.
False.
78
For VNAV to fly a descent path, the Collins FMS must be the active NAV source and:
1) An altitude constraint at a waypoint must be entered on the LEGS page.
2) VNAV must be on.
3) The altitude preselector must be lowered below the current cruising altitude (normally to the altitude cleared to by ATC).
79
A type 6 FMS is currently authorized for use to fly to which minima?
1) LNAV (MDA).
| 2) LNAV/VNAV (DA).
80
The Collins FMS and the Garmin GPS receiver communicate with each other in all aspects.
Never.
81
The left PFD is displaying a PPOS map from FMS 1. Which statement is correct?
A PLAN map can be displayed on the MFD, but only after the left PFD is not displaying the PPOS map.
82
The IFIS panel displays charts and graphic weather on the:
MFD only.
83
Both PFDs and the MFD must be fully operational without any reversions prior to dispatch.
True.
84
The CE-525 is certified for Cat II ILS operations.
False.
85
The radar altimeter is tested:
When the rotary test knob is in the ANNU position.
86
A type 7 FMS may fly to LPV minima provided:
1) WAAS is operational.
| 2) An appropriate approach has been executed in the FMS.
87
The EMER position can be selected ON by the AIR SOURCE SELECT knob and the air source is:
Either/both engine bleed air through the windshield heat exchanger and regulated by the EMER valve.
88
The systems that use pneumatic bleed air are:
Windshield anti-ice, rudder bias, cabin heat exchanger, and emergency pressurization.
89
The left and right PRSOVs, when open, route engine bleed air to feed:
Left and right FCVs at 5ppm (total10 ppm) and cabin heat exchanger for normal heating, cooling, and pressurization.
90
Selection of the FRESH AIR position on the AIR SOURCE SELECT knob draws pylon ram inlet air to:
1) Circulate air during unpressurized ground/inflight operations.
2) Turn on a fan to the lower ducts.
91
When controlling the cabin temperature with the manual temperature toggle switch, the ram-air modulating valve is positioned from full hot to full cold in approximately:
15 seconds.
92
The AIR DUCT O'HEAT annunciator illuminates when the:
Temperature of air in the duct to the cabin is too hot.
93
How can the windshield anti-ice shutoff valve be opened?
1) Lost DC power.
2) Select windshield anti-ice to HI or LOW.
3) Select EMER pressure mode.
94
Hot engine bleed air through the pre-cooler is further cooled by:
Pylon ram scoop air.
95
The cabin heat exchanger ram-air modulating valve is opened for cooler cabin air or closed for warmer cabin source air by:
1) Automatic temperature control.
| 2) Manually toggling the 15-second motorized valve .
96
The source of bleed air when the EMER PRESS ON annunciator is illuminated in flight is:
Either the left, right, or both engines.
97
The vapor-cycle compressor may be on (green light—on) when:
1) Air conditioner in AUTO on a hot day with the ram-air modulating valve full open.
2) Any altitude in AUTO.
3) On the ground without ram air, the ram valve will motorize FULL OPEN any time cabin temperature is above the cabin temperature control set point engaging the compressor.
98
The vapor-cycle compressor is off (green light—out) when:
1) AIR COND circuit breaker is popped.
2) Ram-air modulating valve more than 50% closed in AUTO.
3) Automatic load-shedding circuit during engine or generator failure.
99
What closes the L and/or R PRSOVs:
1) Selecting L or R.
2) Selecting FRESH AIR, EMER, or OFF
3) In AUTO, during cabin taxi temperatures over 18°C (65°F), temperature sensor closes the PRSOVs.
100
The pilot and copilot footwarmer outlets are located:
Under the pilot and copilot rudder pedals.
101
In the AUTO position, the forward fan is OFF except:
When the compressor is on, then operating at low speed.
102
The AFT fan switch has:
LOW, HI, and FLOOD positions.
103
The FWD fan switch has:
LOW, AUTO, or HI positions.
104
During climb and cruise, the COCKPIT AIR DIST knob is selected to:
NORM, 50% air to crew.
105
Cabin air is circulated through two evaporators; one is in the forward left cabin just ahead of the main cabin entry door, and one is on the aft pressure bulkhead. The aft evaporator provides conditioned air to the:
Overhead WEMACs.
106
The cabin air temperature in the AUTO mode keeps the cabin temperature in a selectable range of:
65° to 85°F.
107
The ram-air modulating valve controls:
The amount of cooling ram inlet air that passes through the main cabin heat exchanger.
108
Selecting the FRESH AIR position:
Depressurizes the cabin in flight.
109
The GPU is powering the compressor and both evaporators in AUTO on a hot day before engine start. The pilot is concerned that no cool air is venting the cabin overhead WEMACs when the AFT FLOOD fan switch is in HI or LOW.
1) This is normal.
2) The flood-cooling door spring loads to the flood cool (open) position without 23 psi service air.
3) With either engine running, 23 psi service air closes the flood-cooling doors, thus sending all aft evaporator cooling air to the overhead WEMACs.
110
The ailerons are operated by:
Mechanical inputs from the control wheels.
111
The aileron trim tab is operated by:
A mechanical trim knob on the rear pedestal.
112
Regarding the rudder:
1) The pilot and copilot pedals are interconnected.
113
The elevator:
Runaway trim condition can be alleviated by depressing the AP/TRIM DISC switch and pulling the PITCH TRIM circuit breaker.
114
If hydraulic power is lost:
The flaps are inoperative.
115
The wing flaps:
Can be selected to GROUND FLAP position on the ground or in flight; the ground flap selection is prohibited in flight.
116
Regarding the gust lock:
The airplane should not be towed with it engaged.
117
Moving the flap selector lever to any position:
1) Energizes the hydraulic system loading valve closed.
| 2) Energizes the flap control valve to the selected position.
118
If hydraulic failure occurs with the flaps extended and the FLAPS handle is moved, the flaps:
May move upward depending on air load.
119
Extended speedbrakes are maintained in that position by:
Trapped fluid in the lines from the control and safety valves.
120
The white HYD PRESS ON annunciator on the annunciator panel illuminates during speedbrake operation:
While the speedbrakes are extending and retracting.
121
A true statement concerning the speed- brakes is:
The white SPD BRK EXTEND annunciator illuminates when both sets of speedbrakes are fully extended.
122
Speedbrakes must not be extended within:
50 feet prior to landing.
123
The speedbrakes fully retract if:
Either throttle is advanced above 85% N2 position with the electrical and hydraulic systems operating normally.
124
If the RUDDER BIAS annunciator illuminates:
Rudder BIAS (bleed air) is not available from either engine to the actuator.
125
On the ground, the LDG GEAR handle is prevented from movement to the UP position by:
A spring-loaded locking solenoid.
126
The landing gear uplocks are:
1) Mechanically held engaged by spring-loaded hooks.
| 2) Hydraulically disengaged.
127
Landing gear downlocks are disengaged:
When hydraulic pressure is applied to the retract side of the gear actuators.
128
Each main gear wheel incorporates a fusible plug that:
Melts, deflating the tire if an over-heated brake temperature occurs.
129
At retraction, if the nose gear does not lock in the up position, the gear panel light indication will be:
Red light illuminated, all three green lights extinguished.
130
The gear warning horn cannot be silenced when one or more landing gears are not down and locked and:
Flaps are extended beyond the 15° position.
131
When the LDG GEAR handle is positioned either UP or DOWN:
The hydraulic loading valve is energized closed.
132
Emergency extension of the landing gear is accomplished by actuation of:
Two manual controls—One to mechanically release the uplocks and another to apply air pressure for gear extension and downlocking.
133
Nosewheel steering is operative:
Only on the ground.
134
The power brake metering valve is actuated:
Mechanically by depressing the toe pedals.
135
Do not actuate the brake pedals while applying brakes with the emergency brake system because:
It may rupture the brake hydraulic reservoir.
136
The DC motor-driven hydraulic pump in the brake system operates:
As needed with the LDG GEAR handle DOWN in order to maintain system pressure.
137
When using the emergency brake:
Differential braking is not available.
138
Concerning the landing gear, the correct statement is:
The landing gear is secured in the extended position by hydraulically actuated mechanical locks.
139
Concerning landing gear auxiliary extension, the correct statement is:
The optimum airspeed for this procedure is 150 KIAS.
140
The wheel brakes:
Are totally independent of the open center airplane hydraulic system.
141
The parking brake:
Must be off to ensure proper operation of the antiskid system.
142
The HYD PRESS ON light remains illuminated after the landing gear is up and locked. The corrective action is to:
Pull the GEAR CONTROL circuit breaker to allow the system bypass valve to open.
143
The hydraulic loading valve is:
1) Spring-loaded open.
| 2) Energized closed.
144
Depressing an ENG FIRE switchlight:
1) Shuts off hydraulic fluid to the pump.
2) Trips the generator field relay.
3) Arms the fire-extinguishing system.
145
Closing of a hydraulic shutoff valve is indicated by:
Illumination of the applicable F/W SHUTOFF annunciator if the fuel fire- wall shutoff valve also closes.
146
If DC power is lost, the hydraulic loading valve:
Spring-loads to the open position.
147
The main hydraulic system provides pressure to operate the:
Landing gear, speedbrakes, and flaps.
148
Access to the hydraulic reservoir sight glass is:
Behind a door aft of the right flap under the right engine.
149
The hydraulic system:
1) Uses only red MIL-H-83282 fluid.
| 2) Is limited to 1,500 psi when loaded.
150
Hydraulic system operation is indicated by illumination of the:
HYD PRESS ON annunciator.
151
A hydraulic leak may be detected by:
1) Visible hydraulic fluid observed during pre or post-flight walkaround.
2) May be a possibility if both HYD FLOW LOW annunciators illuminate.
3) Below ADD on the sight gauge.
152
The MASTER CAUTION RESET switchlights illuminate:
If an amber HYD FLOW LOW L-R annunciator illuminates.
153
The primary thrust indicator for the Williams International FJ44-3A is:
N1.
154
If one igniter should fail during engine start:
The engine starts normally if FADEC used the good igniter.
155
Ignition during normal engine start is activated by:
Moving the throttle to IDLE at 8% N2 and N1 rotation.
156
Ignition and boost pump operation during engine start are normally terminated by:
The speed-sensing switch on the starter-generator at approximately 45% N2.
157
Power is automatically applied to the igniters when the IGNITION switch is in NORM anytime:
The start button is depressed and the throttle is idle or above.
158
Select the correct statement concerning the FJ44-3A engine:
Fuel from the engine fuel system is used to cool the engine oil through a fuel-oil heat exchanger.
159
The L or R OIL PRESS WARN annunciator on the annunciator panel illuminates whenever:
Oil pressure is less than 25 psi.
160
The maximum allowable operating oil consumption for the FJ44-3A engine is:
0.023 U.S. gallon per hour, or approximately 0.1 quart per hour.
161
If the N1 fan shaft shifts aft:
The engine automatically shuts down.
162
The following engine instruments are available in the event of a loss of normal DC electrical power:
N1 rpm (standby LCD digital display).
163
The ENGINE SYNC switch:
Can be placed in ON after takeoff and may be left there for the remainder of the flight.
164
Select the true statement concerning the FJ44-3A engine:
1) Start nozzle fuel flow is 10 pph constant.
2) Green ignition light confirms one or both exciters is (are) powered.
3) Mobil Jet II and Mobil 254 are approved.
165
Left fuel filter is bypassed:
Contaminated fuel may be blocking the left engine fuel filter. The L FUEL FILTER BYPASS annunciator illuminates. Flame out is possible.
166
During in-flight windmilling, the engine vents oil overboard. Typical consumption is approximately:
0.20 gallon per hour, or approximately 0.8 quart per hour.
167
An ENG FIRE switchlight illuminates when:
A pressure switch trips due to thermally induced inert gas expansion in a stainless tube.
168
In order to fire the explosive cartridges on the fire-extinguisher bottles:
Normal system DC power is required.
169
Regarding the engine fire detection test, by placing the rotary TEST switch to FIRE WARN:
Both ENG FIRE switchlights illuminate steady.
170
When the fire extinguishing system is armed (both white bottle armed switchlights ON) the additional illuminated annunciators are:
1) The FUEL LOW PRESS and FUEL BOOST ON annunciator.
2) The HYD FLOW LOW annunciator.
3) The GEN OFF annunciator illuminates.
171
If the contents of a bottle have been discharged into a nacelle and the ENG FIRE switchlight remains on for 30 seconds:
Push the other BOTTLE ARMED switchlight and land as soon as possible.
172
Depressing the ENG FIRE switchlight a second time:
Opens the fuel firewall shutoff valve.
173
An engine fire or overheat is indicated by:
Illumination of the respective red ENGINE FIRE switchlight.
174
If a fire occurs in the forward baggage compartment:
The red BAGGAGE SMOKE warning annunciator illuminates flashing and the MASTER WARNING RESET switchlights illuminate.
175
The baggage smoke detection is tested:
1) Using the rotary TEST switch.
| 2) Simultaneously during the engine fire detection system test.
176
Select the correct answer regarding the baggage smoke detection system:
The red BAGGAGE SMOKE annunciator flashes if smoke is sensed in either baggage compartment.
177
The lighting rheostat labeled INSTR controls:
1) Pilot instrument panel lights.
2) Center instrument panel lights.
3) Copilot instrument panel lights.
178
The lighting rheostat that controls the LED lighting is the:
LED.
179
Turning the PANEL LIGHT CONTROL NIGHT DIM ON-OFF switch to ON:
1) Powers the red windshield ice detection lights.
2) Dims the annunciator panel lights.
3) Illuminates the STARTER DISENGAGE button.
180
The map lights are controlled with rheostats on the:
Forward side of the left and right side consoles (arm rests).
181
When the CABIN LIGHT switch is pressed the first time, the LED lights:
Illuminate full bright.
182
The landing lights:
Change to a lower illumination when RECOG/TAXI is selected.
183
The cockpit oxygen pressure gauge reads:
Bottle pressure.
184
Passenger masks are dropped when:
1) The OXYGEN CONTROL VALVE knob is in the NORMAL position and cabin altitude exceeds 14,500 feet.
2) The OXYGEN CONTROL VALVE knob is in the MANUAL DROP position, regardless of altitude.
185
If DC power fails, placing the OXYGEN CONTROL VALVE knob in:
MANUAL DROP deploys the passenger masks, regardless of cabin altitude.
186
The purpose of the altitude pressure switch is to:
Open a solenoid at 14,500 feet cabin altitude, allowing oxygen flow to the passenger oxygen distribution system.
187
If the OXYGEN CONTROL VALVE knob is in the CREW ONLY position:
The passenger masks cannot be dropped automatically.
188
If normal DC power is lost with the OXYGEN CONTROL VALVE knob in the NORMAL position:
Automatic dropping of the passenger masks does not occur.
