EXAM #2: REVIEW Flashcards Preview

Hematology and Oncology > EXAM #2: REVIEW > Flashcards

Flashcards in EXAM #2: REVIEW Deck (35):
1

Describe the plasmodium lifecycle.

1) Sporozites infect the blood and travel to the liver
2) Sporozites transform into Merozites in the liver
3) Merozites can become:
- Trophozites that
- Schiznots that
4) Gametocytes are ingested by subsequent mosquitoes to continue the lifecycle

2

What cytokines produced by the immune response to Malaria infection can cause a reduction in erythropoieses?

TNF-alpha
IL-1

3

What species of Babesia are rodents the reservoir for?

B. merzoti

4

What species of Babesia are cattle the reservoir for?

B. divergens

5

Describe the Direct Coombs Test.

- Blood sample is taken from patient with hemolytic anemia
- Autoantibodies are bound to the RBCs
- RBCs are washed and presented with anti-human antibodies

*Positive test results in agglutination*

6

Describe the Indirect Coombs Test.

- Patient serum is obtained with autoantibodies
- Donor blood is added to serum and autoantibodies bind
- Anti-human antibodies are added and cause RBC agglutination

7

List the five indications for IVIG.

1) Primary humoral immunodeficieicny
2) Immune thrombocytopenia
3) Chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy
4) Hypogammaglobulinemia
5) Post-exposure prophylaxis

8

What are the indications for FFP?

1) Decreased coagulation factors in massive transfusion
2) Hemophilia

9

What two antigens are primarily responsible for alloimmunization?

- HLA
- HPA

10

What are the three indications for plasma?

1) Coagulation factor deficit
2) Massive transfusion
3) ADAMSTS13

11

List the contents of cryoprecipitate.

- Fibrinogen
- vFW
- VIII
- XIII

12

What are the indications for cyroprecipitate?

Bleeding-->fibrinogen
Von Willebrand's Disease--> vFW
Factor VIII--> Hemophilia A

13

What are the diagnostic criteria for TRALI?

1) No pre-exisiting lung injury or disease
2) Onset within 6 hours of infusion
3) Hypoxemia with SaO2 less than 90% on room air
4) Bilateral infiltrates on CXR
5) No circulatory overload

14

What four transfusion reactions initially present with fever?

- TRALI
- TABI
- TA-GHD
- Acute hemolysis

15

What antigen is primarily responsible for delayed hemolysis?

Kidd (anti-kidd antibody)

16

What is the normal lymphocyte percentage in a neonate?

30%

17

What are the signs/ symptoms of polycythemia?

- Poor feeding
- Ruddy complexion
- Irritability
- Tremors
- Lethargy
- Respiratory depression

18

List the causes of polycythemia.

- INcreased EPO ?
- Smoking
- Alcohol
- Maternal DM
- Trisomy
- Erythrocyte transfusion

19

What is the basis for the WHO categorization of AML?

- Pathology
- Cytogenetics
- Molecular characteristics

20

What are the markers for Reed-Sternberg cells?

CD15
CD30

21

What lab features are characteristics of Multiple Myeloma?

Increased IgG or IgA in serum or urine

22

What is the general unifying feature of all AMLs?

Undifferentiated myeloblast accumulation in the bone marrow

23

List the three major myeloproliferative neoplasms.

1) Polycythemia vera
2) Essential Thrombocythemia
3) Primary Myelofibrosis

24

What lab value is associated with Solitary Plasmacytoma?

No or low immunoglobulin

25

Generally, what is myelodysplastic syndrome?

Stem cell disorder that results in ineffective hematopoiesis

26

Generally, what is Multiple Myeloma?

Mature B-cell cancer

27

What are the PBS hallmarks of CLL?

1) Increased small round lymphocytes
2) Smudge cells

28

List the major plasma cell disorders.

1) Multiple myeloma
2) Plasmacytoma
3) Primary Amyloidosis
4) MGUS
5) POEMS Syndrome
6) Waldenstrom Macrolobinemia

29

What are the three major causes of microcytic/ hypochromic anemia in children?

1) Iron deficiency
2) Pb toxicity
3) Thalassemia

30

If you see a normocytic anemia and decreased RC count, what three things should your differential include?

1) DBA
2) TEC
3) Parvovirus B19

31

List the three encapsulated bacteria that children with Sickle Cell Disease (that are functionally asplenic) are at risk of.

S. pneumonia
H. influenza
N. meningitidis

32

When in surgical oncology is surgery used as a secondary treatment?

Advanced stage of the following:
- Esophageal
- Rectal
- Lung
- Breast

BUT not stage 4 cancer.

33

List the indications for radioembolization or Y90 therapy.

1) Unresectable liver tumors
2) Metastatic colon cancer
3) Neuroendocrine tumors

34

List the five advantages of cryoablation.

1) Outpatient
2) No general anesthesia
3) Nephron sparing
4) Few complications
5) Can be repeated for residual tumor

35

What are the risk factors for HCC?

1) Hepatitis B or C
2) Alcoholic cirrhosis
3) Metabolic Syndrome
4) Aflatoxin Exposure