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Flashcards in final tests Deck (285):
1

Histology

Study of tissues

2

Avascular

Without blood flow

3

Anatomy

Study of structure

4

Physiology

Study of function

5

Homeostasis

Maintaining a constant state
within physiological limits

6

Effector

Responds to control center
stimulus

7

Receptor

Sensitive to particular environmental
change

8

Negative Feedback System

Effector response decreases
stimulus

9

When a person is standing, facing forward, with their arms at their sides, palms turned forward, and feet together; this position is termed what?
a. Prone position
b. Cephalic position
c. Anatomical position
d. Caudal position
e. Under arrest

Anatomical position

10

Supine means?
a. Face down
b. Face up
c. Face side
d. Face back
e. None of the above

Face up

11

Which quadrant will you most likely find the appendix?
a. Left upper
b. Right upper
c. Left lower
d. Right lower
e. Left lumbar region

Right lower

12

The ankle is said to be in what relationship to the hip?
a. Distal
b. Proximal
c. Cephalic
d. Dorsal
e. Thoracic

Distal

13

The heart is found in which cavity?
a. Dorsal
b. Ventral
c. Thoracic
d. Abdominopelvic
e. Two of the above

Two of the above

14

Which plane separates the anterior and posterior parts of the body?
a. Sagital
b. Midsagital
c. Transverse
d. Coronal
e. Oblique

Coronal

15

What is the superior border of the abdominopelvic cavity?
a. Pelvic floor
b. Clavicle
c. Diaphragm
d. Rectus abdominis muscle
e. Crainium

Diaphragm

16

Which is not one of the four types of tissues?
a. Striated
b. Connective
c. Muscular
d. Neural
e. Epithelial

a.Striated

17

Which is not a function of epithelial tissue?
a. Control permeability
b. Physical protection
c. Sensation
d. Strength
e. Secretions

d.Strength

18

What type of junction holds cells together but allows for communication between cells?
a. Tight junctions
b. Gap junctions
c. Button desmosomes
d. CAM’s
e. Vesicles

b.Gap junctions

19

Which of the following is incorrect about the naming of epithelial tissues?
a. Cell shape
b. Layers
c. Attachment to the basal lamina
d. Amount of nuclei

d.Amount of nuclei

20

What is the difference between simple glands and compound glands?
a. Type of secretion
b. Shape or glandular tissue
c. Number of ducts
d. None of the above
e. All of the above are correct

c.Number of ducts

21

Which method of secretion requires the tissue to constantly be replaced?
a. Merocrine
b. Apocrine
c. Neurocrine
d. Holocrine
e. Burstocrine

d.Holocrine

22

Which of the following is a supportive connective tissue?
a. Adipose
b. Bone
c. Loose connective
d. Cartilage
e. Two of the above

e.Two of the above

23

Which of the following type of junction ties the epithelial tissue to the basement membrane?
a. Tight junctions
b. Gap junctions
c. Hemidesmosomes
d. CAMs
e. Vesicles

c.Hemidesmosomes

24

Fibroblasts have what function in connective tissue?
a. Produce matrix
b. Absorb matrix
c. Destroy bacteria
d. Store energy
e. None of the above

a.Produce matrix

25

Which of the following is an irregular tissue found in organs?
a. Tendon
b. Areolar
c. Reticular
d. Adipose
e. Squamous

c.Reticular

26

Which is not a dense regular tissue?
a. Capsule
b. Tendon
c. Ligament
d. Aponeurosis

a.Capsule

27

What are the types of Cartilage?
a. Fibrocartilage
b. Elastic cartilage
c. Osseous cartilage
d. Hyaline cartilage
e. A,B, and C
ab. A,B,D

ab.A,B,D

28

Articular cartilage found on the end of bones is composed of what type?
a. Elastic
b. Hyaline
c. Fibro
d. Osseous
e. None of the above

b.Hyaline

29

What are the types of muscle tissue?
A. Cardiac B. Rough C. Smooth D. Fascial E. Skeletal
a. A,B,C
b. B,C,D
c. C,D,E
d. A,C,D
e. A,C,E

e. A,C,E

30

Which muscle type is voluntary?
a. Cardiac
b. Smooth
c. Skeletal
d. Rough
e. Fascial

c.Skeletal

31

Which muscle type is non-striated?
a. Rough
b. Smooth
c. Cardiac
d. Skeletal
e. fascial

Smooth

32

Neural tissue is composed of what two types of cells?
a. Neurons and Neuroglia
b. Neurons and Dendrites
c. Neuroglia and Axons
d. Neuroglia and Dendrites
e. Neurons and Axons

Neurons and Neuroglia

33

The other term for bone is what?
a. Chondro
b. Osseous
c. Myo
d. Neural
e. Serous

Osseous

34

A mature bone cell is called what?
a. Osteoblast
b. Osteocyte
c. Chondrocyte
d. Chondroclast
e. Chondroblasts

Osteocyte

35

Why does cartilage heal slowly?
a. It is Avascular
b. It is all matrix without cells when mature
c. It doesn’t heal slowly
d. None of the above
e. All of the above

It is Avascular

36

The integumentary system in composed of what parts?
a. Epidermis
b. Dermis
c. Subcutaneous
d. Accessory structures
e. All but C

All but C

37

What are the functions of the Integumentary System?
a. Protection
b. Excretion
c. Insulation of Heat
d. Storage of energy
e. All of the above

All of the above

38

What layer of skin is the difference in thick and thin skin?
a. Stratum Germinativum
b. Stratum Spinosum
c. Stratum Lucidum
d. Stratum Granulosum
e. Stratum Corneum

Stratum Lucidum

39

The outermost layer of skin cells have undergone keratinization and are dead.
a. True
b. False

True

40

Melanocytes are the cells that produce the brown to black skin coloration. The color of skin depends on the amount of Melanin not the number of cytes produced.
a. True
b. False

True

41

One layer in the dermis is called the papillary layer, what is the other?
a. Calcitiol
b. Reticular
c. Carotene
d. Cyanosis
e. None of the above

Reticular

42

Which layer of the skin is not vascularized?
a. Dermis
b. Papillary
c. Epidermis
d. Reticular
e. Carotene

Epidermis

43

Hair has two types, name the two (color in the two correct ovals).
a. Vellus
b. Sebaceous
c. Sudoriferous
d. Terminal
e. Apocrine

Vellus
Terminal

44

Where is a nail formed?
a. Hyponychium
b. Lunula
c. Nail root
d. Eponychium
e. Free edge

Nail root

45

The hairs and nails are formed in the dermis of the skin layers and pierce thru the epidermis layers.
a. True
b. False

True

46

What is the name of the muscle associated with the hair follicle?
a. Semishaftoseous
b. Root erector
c. Cuticletitis
d. Arrector pili
e. Follicle pili

Arrector pili

47

Hair is not found on which type of skin?
a. Thin
b. Thick
c. Human
d. None of the above
e. All of the above

Thick

48

Another term for bone is which of the following?
a. Chondral
b. Osseous
c. Myo
d. Neural
e. None of the above

Osseous

49

Which is not a function of bone?
a. Support
b. Storage of minerals
c. Protection
d. Blood cell production
e. All of the above are functions

All of the above are functions

50

Which type of bone is described by the following? Thin, roughly parallel surfaces and contain red blood cells.
a. Flat
b. Short
c. Irregular
d. Long
e. Sesamoid

Flat

51

A metacarpal is what type of bone?
a. Flat
b. Short
c. Irregular
d. Long
e. Sesamoid

Long

52

Which bone is a sesamoid bone?
a. Femur
b. Hyoid
c. Patella
d. Calcaneous
e. Ethmoid

Patella

53

Osteoclast

ad.Bone cell that breaksdown bone

54

Trochanter

A large rough projection

55

Head

expanded articular end of an epiphysis

56

Osteoblast

b. bone forming cell

57

Foramen

rounded passageway for blood vessel

58

Tubercle

a small, rounded projection

59

Spine

a pointed process

60

Osteocyte

Mature bone cell

61

What type of bone reduces the weight of the skeleton and makes it easier for muscles to move the bones?
a. Short
b. Irregular
c. Spongy
d. Seasamoid
e. Compact

Spongy

62

Calcification is the deposition of calcium salts, and occurs during the process of ossification.
a. True
b. False

True

63

In which step of endochondral ossification does remodeling of the bone occur primarily?
a. Step 1, cartilage enlargement
b. Step 2, blood vessel formation around edges
c. Step 3, blood vessels penetrate the cartilage and central region
d. Step 4, growth and marrow cavity creation
e. All of the above

Step 4, growth and marrow cavity creation

64

What is the name of the cartilage on the ends of bones in the joints?
a. Epiphyseal
b. Articular
c. Fibrous
d. Symphysis
e. Costal

Articular

65

Which cartilage allows the bone to grow in length (interstitial)?
a. Epiphyseal
b. Articular
c. Fibrous
d. Symphysis
e. Costal

Epiphyseal

66

While on a school skiing trip, Jessica falls and breaks her femur. What would you expect to find as part of her nursing assessment several hours after the fall?
a. Hypertension
b. Tachycardia
c. Erythema
d. Hemotoma
e. Cyanosis

Hemotoma

67

Which is not part of the axial division of the skeleton?
a. Skull
b. Auditory ossicles
c. Pectoral girdle
d. Hyoid bone
e. Vertebral column

Pectoral girdle

68

Which of the following is a function of the axial skeleton?
a. Provides an attachment for muscles that move in appendicular skeleton
b. Provides an attachment for muscles that move the head, and neck
c. Provides an attachment for muscles involved in respiration
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

All of the above

69

The foramen magnum would be found in which bone?
a. Frontal
b. Sphenoid
c. Parietal
d. Temporal
e. Occipital

Occipital

70

The suture that forms the articulation between the two parietal bones is called?
a. Lambdoidal
b. Sagital
c. Coronal
d. Squamos
e. None of the above

Sagital

71

Which of the following is not part of the eye orbit?
a. Lacrimal
b. Sphenoid
c. Nasal
d. Ethmoid
e. Maxilla

Nasal

72

What is the name of the bone that has no articulations with other bones?
a. Hyoid
b. Inferior nasal concha
c. Scapula
d. Patella
e. None of the above

Hyoid

73

Which bone holds the Cribiform plate for the Olfactory Nerve?
a. Temporal
b. Frontal
c. Ethmoid
d. Sphenoid
e. None of the Above

Ethmoid

74

Damage to the Temporal bone would most likely affect which sense?
a. Sight
b. Taste
c. Smell
d. Hearing
e. Touch

Hearing

75

Which is not a component of the appendicular skeleton?
a. Scapula
b. Sacrum
c. Femur
d. Humerus
e. Pelvis

Sacrum

76

The pectoral girdle contains what bones?( answer all that apply)
a. Clavicle
b. Humerus
c. Sternum
d. Scapula
e. Ulna

Clavicle
Scapula

77

What is the only boney connection for the upper extremity to the axial skeleton?
a. Sternoclavicular joint
b. Costoclavicular joint
c. Scapuloverebral joint
d. Scapulohumeral joint
e. Acromioclavicular joint

Sternoclavicular joint

78

What is the name of the short bone of the wrist that most commonly fractures?
a. Pisiform
b. Lunate
c. Cuneiform
d. Scaphoid
e. Hamate

Scaphoid

79

When you put your elbows on the table, what bone are you resting on?
a. Humerus
b. Ulna
c. Scapula
d. Metacarpal
e. None of the above

Ulna

80

What is the largest and strongest bone of the human body?
a. Humerus
b. Nasal
c. Femur
d. Patella
e. Pelvis

Femur

81

An immovable joint is called?
a. Synarthrosis
b. Diarthrosis
c. Amphiarthrosis
d. Syndesmosis
e. Symphysis

Synarthrosis

82

Dense connective tissue is to a suture as a periodontal ligament is to an
a. Amphiarthrosis
b. Syndesmosis
c. Synostosis
d. Synchondrosis
e. Gomphosis

Gomphosis

83

A synovial joint is an example of an
a. Synarthrosis
b. Amphiarthrosis
c. Diarthrosis
d. Freely moveable joint
e. Two of the above

Two of the above

84

Which of the following is not a function of synovial fluid?
a. Shock absorption
b. Increases osmotic pressure within joint
c. Lubrication
d. Provides nutrients
e. Protects articular cartilages

Increases osmotic pressure within joint

85

In a monoaxial articulation
a. Movement can occur in all three axes
b. Movement can occur in only two axes
c. Movement can occur in only one axis
d. Only circumduction is possible
e. No movement is possible

Movement can occur in only one axis

86

Triaxial joints are known as ____________ joints.
a. Saddle
b. Hinge
c. Ellipsoidal
d. Ball and socket
e. Gliding

Ball and socket

87

The radiocarpal joint is an ________________ joint
a. Ball and socket
b. Hinge
c. Gliding
d. Saddle
e. Ellipsoidal

Ellipsoidal

88

In regards to joint stability what is the correct relationship?
a. Weaker joint, less movement
b. Stronger joint, less movement
c. Weaker joint, more movement
d. Stronger joint, more movement
e. Two of the above

Two of the above

89

Due to the inflexibility of our skeleton, motion can only occur where?
a. Synarthroses
b. Joints
c. Amphiarthroses
d. Articulations
e. Both b and d

Both b and d

90

The joints that are subject to the greatest forces would be found in the
a. Legs
b. Arms
c. Hands
d. Spine
e. Skull

Legs

91

Which is not a function of skeletal muscle?
a. Produce movement
b. Maintain posture
c. Maintain body temperature
d. support soft tissues
e. all the above are correct

all the above are correct

92

Which of the following statements is incorrect?
a The contractions of skeletal muscles pull on tendons and move bones.
b. Skeletal muscles are responsible for controlling the openings of the digestive and urinary tracts.
c. Skeletal muscles are responsible moving urine throgh the urinary system
d. Skeletal muscles support the weight of some internal organs.
e. Skeletal muscle contractions help maintain body temperature

Skeletal muscles are responsible moving urine throgh the urinary system

93

The dense layer of collagen fibers that surround an entire skeletal muscles is the
a. Tendon
b. Epimysium
c. Endomysium
d. Perimysium
e. Fascicle

Epimysium

94

Nerves and blood vessels that service the muscle fibers are located in the connective tissues of the layer that surrounds the fasciles. What is that layer called?
a. Endomysium
b. Perimysium
c. Sarcolemma
d. Sarcomere
e. Myofibril

Perimysium

95

The continuation of the three layers of collagen fibers that separate the muscle layers and attaches to bones is called what?
a. Tendon
b. Fascicle
c. Ligament
d. Epimysium
e. Myofibril

Tendon

96

The cell membrane of a skeletal muscle is called the
a. Sarcomere
b. Sarcosome
c. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
d. Sarcoplasm
e. Sarcolemma

Sarcolemma

97

The functional unit of a skeletal muscle is the
a. Sarcolemma
b. Sarcomere
c. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
d. Myofibril
e. Myofilament

Sarcomere

98

A series of tubules that are invaginations of the muscle cell membrane and transport the action potential is called what?
a. Sarcolemma
b. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
c. Myolemma
d. Transverse tubule
e. Sarcoplasm

Transverse tubule

99

Interactions between actin and myosin filaments of the sarcomere are responsible for
a. Muscle fatigue
b. Conduction of neural stimulation to the muscle fiber
c. Muscle contraction
d. Muscle relaxation
e. C and D

C and D

100

The thin filaments are attached at end of the sarcomere to which of the following?
a. Z line
b. M line
c. Zone of overlap
d. H band
e. I band

Z line

101

The thick filament contains all of the following components except?
a. Actin
b. Troponin
c. Myosin
d. Tropomyosin
e. G- actin

Myosin

102

The action of a muscle contraction occurs in the sarcomere at which location?
a. Zone of overlap
b. M line
c. Z line
d. Titin
e. None of the above

Zone of overlap

103

The sarcoplasmic reticulum stores what?
a. Oxygen
b. Glycogen
c. ATP
d. Calcium
e. Sodium

Calcium

104

What is the name of the theory that explains muscle contractions
a. Gliding Filament
b. Ratcheting filament
c. Rotating filament
d. Spinning filament
e. Sliding filament

Sliding filament

105

Each skeletal muscle fiber is controlled by a neuron at a single junction, the space in that junction is called what?
a. Synaptic knob
b. Neuromuscular junction
c. Synaptic cleft
d. Sarcomere
e. Transverse tubule

Synaptic cleft

106

Binding sites on the actin become available when
a. Actin binds to troponin
b. Troponin binds to tropomyosin
c. tropomyosin changes positions
d. Myosin binds to troponin
e. None of the above

tropomyosin changes positions

107

In response to action potentials arriving from the transverse tubules, sarcoplasmic reticulum releases what?
a. Acetylcholine
b. Sodium ions
c. Hydrogen ions
d. ATP
e. Calcium ions

Calcium ions

108

When calcium ions binds to troponin,
a. Tropomyosin rotates out of the way
b. Active sites on the myosin are exposed
c. Actin heads will bind to myosin
d. Muscle relaxation occurs
e. Muosin shortens

Tropomyosin rotates out of the way

109

Which ion is outside the muscle cell that starts the action potential down the T tubules.
a. Calcium
b. Sodium
c. Hydrogen
d. Carbon dioxide
e. ATP

Sodium

110

Stimulation Sequence
A stimulus is started by the _______ cell The neurotransmitter _____________ is released
The neurotransmitter binds to the _______ ________ enters the cell and travels down the T-Tubule.
a. acetylcholine
b. motor end plate
c. sodium
d. nerve

nerve
ACh
motor end plate
sodium

111

Contraction Sequence

Sodium travels down the ___________. Terminal Cisternae release ________ into the muscle cell.
Ca+ binds to ____________. ____________ gets rotated to uncover the binding sites on actin.
Actin then can bind with ___________. _______ breaks the cross bridge a. troponin
b. myosin
c. T- tubule
d. ATP
e. Calcium
ab. Tropomyosin

T- tubule
Calcium
troponin
Tropomyosin
myosin
ATP

112

A type of contraction represented by a single stimulus/contraction/relaxation sequence is termed?
a. Twitch
b. Incomplete tetanus
c. Complete tetanus
d. Summation
e. Incomplete summation

Twitch

113

If a second stimulus arrives before the relaxation phase has ended, a second, more powerful contraction can occur. This is called
a. Incomplete tetanus
b. Complete tetanus
c. Treppe
d. Wave summation
e. Recruitment

Wave summation

114

The type of muscle contraction in which the muscle fibers produce increased tension and shortens is called.
a. Tetany
b. Treppe
c. Concentric
d. Isotonic
e. Isometric

Concentric

115

When flexing the bicep muscle, while the muscle is legthening, this type of contraction is termed what?
a. Concentric
b. Isometric
c. Eccentric
d. Wave summation
e. Treppe

Eccentric

116

At maximum exersion, the muscle generates most of its ATP by which process?
a. Anaerobic respiration
b. Glycogenolysis
c. Aerobic respiration
d. Conversion of creatine phosphate
e. The tricarboxylic acid cycle

Anaerobic respiration

117

Creatine phosphate
a. Is produced by process of anaerobic respiration
b. Can replace ATP in binding to myosin molecules during contraction
c. Acts as an energy reserve in muscle tissue
d. Is only formed during strenuous exercise
e. Can not transfer its phosphate group to ATP

Acts as an energy reserve in muscle tissue

118

During activities requiring aerobic endurance
a. Oxygen debts are common
b. Most of the muscle’s energy is produced in the mitochondria
c. Fatigue occurs in a few minutes
d. Oxygen is not required
e. Glycogen and glycolysis are the primary sources of energy

Most of the muscle’s energy is produced in the mitochondria

119

Which of the following is not a cause of muscle fatigue?
a. Depletion of metabolic reserves
b. Damage to the sarcolemma
c. Decline in pH within the muscle fibers
d. increased lactic acid titer
e. all of the above are causes

all of the above are causes

120

Which is true about a slow fiber?
a. Red- contains myoglobin
b. Anaerobic
c. Fatigue Slow
d. Small diameter
e. None of the above

Anaerobic

121

Which is true about fast fibers?
a. White – do not contain myoglobin
b. Aerobic
c. Small diameter
d. Slow fatique
e. None of the above

White – do not contain myoglobin

122

Which of the following is false
a. Cardiac muscle contractions cannot be summated
b. Skeletal muscle contractions may be summated
c. Skeletal muscle control is neural
d. Cardiac muscle control is neural
e. Cardiocytes are interconnected through intercalated discs

Cardiac muscle control is neural

123

Which of the following is not a characteristic of smooth muscle?
a. Smooth muscle connective tissue forms tendons.
b. Neurons that innervate smooth muscles are under involuntary control.
c. Smooth muscles are uninucleated.
d. Smooth muscles don not contain sarcomeres.
e. The thin filaments of smooth muscle fivers are attached to dense bodies.

Smooth muscle connective tissue forms tendons.

124

Which is not a characteristic of cardiac muscle?
a. Automaticity- pacemaker
b. Responds to nervous system to quicken pace or slow
c. Contractions last longer than skeletal
d. No wave summation
e. all of the following are true

all of the following are true

125

Which of the following muscles is a good example of a bipennate muscle?
a. Sartorius
b. Gracillis
c. Rectus Femoris
d. Pectoralis Major
e. Deltoid

Rectus Femoris

126

Which is an example of a second class lever?
a. Raising up on your toes
b. Flexing your elbow
c. Extending your elbow
d. Nodding your head
e. None of the above

Raising up on your toes

127

A first class lever is organized how?
a. Resistance, fulcrum, force
b. Fulcrum, resistance, force
c. Force, resistance, fulcrum
d. Resistance, force, fulcrum
e. None of the above

Resistance, fulcrum, force

128

An example of a third class lever is what?
a. Nodding your head
b. Raising up on your toes
c. Flexing your elbow
d. Blinking
e. None of the above

Flexing your elbow

129

A muscle with the name Brachii would have an attachment site in which area

upper arm

130

a muscle w the name cervicis would have an attachment site in wh area

cervical spine

131

when putting on lipstick, what muscle would be good to contract

obicularis oris

132

muscles whose fibers run parallel to the sagital plane of the body are termed

rectus

133

wh of the following terms would not be a muscle naming for size

all are size names

134

a muscle that stabilazes the wrist during forearm flexion would be demonstrating the role of wh term

fixator

135

wh of the following muscles compresses the abdominal cavity?
a. rectus abdominus
b. transverse abdominus
c. diaphragm
d. external oblique
e. all but C

all but C

136

the invagination of the sarcolemma through the muscle fiber is called what?

transverse tubule

137

if you were hit in the rectus abdominus muscle, what would your body position change to?

doubling over in flexion

138

which of the following muscles is not self antagonistic?
a. pectoralis major
b. trapezius
c. deltoid
d. flexor digitorum superficialis

flexor digitorum superficialis

139

what would be the result of a drug that blocks the ACh receptors?

muscle contraction would not occur

140

in the sarcomere, what fibers make up the H-zone?

thick filaments

141

in the sarcomere, what fibers make up the zone of overlap

both thick and thin

142

which of the following is not one of the forms of fascicle organization?

divergent

143

which of the following is true regarding the muscles of the head and neck functions?
a. nonverbal communication
b. controlling the eyes
c. controlling the mouth
d. all the above
e. A and C only

all the above

144

synaptic vesicles in the motor neuron containing neurotransmitters are released by this method when the action potential arrives?

exocytosis

145

wh of the following situations would result in increased oxygen utilization by the muscle?
a. increased heat production
b. increased conversion of pyruvic acid to ATP
c. increased muscle contraction
d. increased aerobic respiration
e. all the above

all the above

146

wh of the following motor units would produce the greatest tension?

motor unit of the chest

147

the ability of a smooth muscle cell to function over a wide range of lengths producing the same tension is termed what?

plasticity

148

wh of the following is not correct regarding cardiac muscle?
a. it cannot wave summate
b. it has triads
c. it has an extended contraction time
d. it has automaticity
it has wide T tubles

it has triads

149

during the Cori cycle, the liver converts lactic acid to pyruvic acid and then into glucose under anaerobic metabolism.
T of F

false

150

The basic functional unit of the nervous system is which of the following?
a. Neuroglia
b. Receptor
c. Neurotransmitter
d. Neuron
e. Neuralgia

Neuron

151

What is the name of the supporting cells that separate and protect the nervous system cells?
a. Neuroglia
b. Receptor
c. Neurotransmitter
d. Neuron
e. Neuralgia

Neuroglia

152

This area of the nervous system contains the Brain and Spinal cord?
a. Peripheral
b. Efferent
c. Central
d. Afferent
e. Motor

Central

153

The Peripheral Nervous system contains what?
a. Brain and spinal cord
b. Cranial and Spinal nerves
c. Afferent only
d. Efferent only
e. Autonomic only

Cranial and Spinal nerves

154

Which division of the nervous system is directly tied to motor information? Choose the best answer.
a. Efferent
b. Sensory
c. Visceral
d. Afferent
e. None of the above

Efferent

155

If you want to move your muscles which division has the most control over muscle stimulation?
a. Efferent, visceral
b. Afferent, visceral
c. Efferent, autonomic
d. Afferent, motor
e. Efferent, somatic

Efferent, somatic

156

In the autonomic nervous system, which of the following is more concerned with saving energy?
a. Parasympathetic
b. Sympathetic
c. Efferent
d. Motor
e. None of the above

Parasympathetic

157

Which nerve type is mostly sensory in the Peripheral nervous system?
a. Anaxonic
b. Bipolar
c. Unipolar
d. Multipolar
e. None of the above

Unipolar

158

Which type of sensory fibers monitors temperature or pressure in organs?
a. Proprioceptors
b. Interoceptors
c. Exteroceptors
d. Motor efferent
e. None of the above

Interoceptors

159

Which of the following neuroglia are responsible for the blood-brain barrier?
a. Oligodendrocytes
b. Astrocytes
c. Microglia
d. Schwann’s cells
e. Satellite cells

Astrocytes

160

Which of the following neuroglia are responsible for the Myelin sheath for the PNS?
a. Astrocytes
b. Schwann’s cells
c. Satellite cells
d. Oligodendrocytes
e. Microglia

Schwann’s cells

161

Which of the following neuroglia are responsible for the Myelin sheath for the CNS?
a. Schwann’s cells
b. Oligodendrocytes
c. Satellite Cells
d. Microglia
e. Ependymal cells

Oligodendrocytes

162

In the nervous tissue, an electrical stimulation can be surmised by the following statement in relation to the what is happening in the nerve cell to depolarize and repolarize?
a. Sodium out/ potassium in
b. Sodium in/ potassium out
c. Sodium in/ Chloride in
d. Potassium and sodium in
e. None of the above

Sodium in/ potassium out

163

What is the resting potential charge of a nerve cell?
a. -90
b. -55
c. -70
d. +30
e. 0

-70

164

In the all or nothing principle which of the following charges would result in an action potential?
a. -65
b. -70
c. -90
d. -50
e. -120

-50

165

With regard to action potential propagation, which of the following statements is true?
a. Action potentials begin by sodium gates closing and potassium gates opening
b. Acton potentials travel down the nerve cells by depolarization of the membrane to below -55 mV.
c. Action potentials begin at the dendrites of the cell body and travel down to the next cell
d. Action potentials are possible when a nerve is at -90mV
e. None of the above is true.

Acton potentials travel down the nerve cells by depolarization of the membrane to below -55 mV.

166

An action potential moving down from node to node in skipping fashion is termed what?
a. Saltatory
b. Station to station
c. Continuous
d. Localized
e. None of the above

Saltatory

167

Which of the following propagation methods is the slowest?
a. Saltatory
b. Station to Station
c. Continuous
d. None of the above

Continuous

168

Which of the following fiber types is the fastest at transmitting action potentials?
a. Type C
b. Type A
c. Type B
d. Type D
e. Type F

Type A

169

Which of the following transmits slow pain and has the smallest diameter?
a. Type C
b. Type A
c. Type B
d. Type D
e. Type F

Type C

170

What is the most common neurotransmitter in the human body?
a. Epinepherine
b. Dopamine
c. Acytelcholine
d. Seratonin
e. L-transferase

Acytelcholine

171

Which type of synapse passes its action potential by direct contact?
a. Chemical synapse
b. Acytelcholine synapse
c. Dopamine synapse
d. Electrical synapse
e. All of the above

Electrical synapse

172

What is the order of the cranial meninges from external to internal?
a. Dura, pia, arachnoid
b. Pia, dura arachnoid
c. Dura, arachnoid, pia
d. Arachnoid, dura, pia
e. Pia, arachnoid, dura

Dura, arachnoid, pia

173

Which is not a function of the cerebrospinal fluid?
a. Cushioning delicate structures
b. Supporting the brain
c. Transporting nutrients
d. Transporting waste products
e. All of the above are functions

All of the above are functions

174

The cerebrospinal fluid is made which structures?
a. Choroid Plexus
b. Fourth and fifth ventricles
c. Fourth and Central canal
d. Subarachnoid spaces
e. None of the above

Choroid Plexus

175

Which of the following is the connection point for the brain and the spinal cord?
a. Pons
b. Cerebellum
c. Cerebrum
d. Limbic
e. Medulla Oblongata

Medulla Oblongata

176

The pons holds sites for which of the following?
a. Cranial nerves V,VI,VII,VIII
b. Adjustments to the respiratory centers of the Medulla
c. Relay centers for the cerebellum
d. None of the above
e. All of the above

All of the above

177

The medulla oblongata controls which of the following?
a. Cardiac and respiratory
b. Cardiac and urinary
c. Respiratory and urinary
d. Hunger
e. Emotional distress

Cardiac and respiratory

178

Which of the following is the most important part of the brain for coordination of body movements?
a. Cerebrum
b. Pons
c. Medulla
d. Cerebellum
e. Hypothalamus

Cerebellum

179

What section of the brain produces the chemical that helps to regulate day and night cycles and reproductive functions?
a. Cerebrum
b. Cerebellum
c. Pons
d. Medulla
e. Pineal Gland

Pineal Gland

180

Which of the following areas is the primary relay station for sensory information to the basal nuclei and cerebral cortex?
a. Hypothalamus
b. Pons
c. Thalamus
d. Medulla
e. Cerebrum

Thalamus

181

The hypothalamus does not control which of the following?
a. Feeding reflexes
b. Controls the pituitary gland
c. Secretes AntiDiuretic Hormone
d. Secretes Oxcytocin
e. Formation of voluntary somatic movement

Formation of voluntary somatic movement

182

Which of the following does the Limbic system not control?
a. Emotional states
b. Memory storage and retrieval
c. Linking conscious movements to unconscious autonomic functions
d. All are functions of the Limbic System

All are functions of the Limbic System

183

The cerebrum is broken up into how many named lobes?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5

4

184

If a person has a cerebral stroke on the left side, which muscular side of the face will be affected?
a. Right side
b. Contralateral side
c. Left side
d. Dorsal side
e. None of the above would be affected

Left side

185

Which lobe of the cerebrum holds the pre-motor cortex for formation of muscular movements?
a. Parietal lobe
b. Frontal lobe
c. Occipital lobe
d. Temporal lobe
e. Ethmoidal lobe

Frontal lobe

186

Most afferent information from the thalamus gets distributed to which of the following areas?
a. Precentral gyrus
b. Postcentral gyrus
c. Occipital
d. Temporal
e. All of the above

Postcentral gyrus

187

Which wave pattern occurs in normal, healthy, awake adults?
a. Beta waves
b. Theta waves
c. Delta waves
d. Alpha waves
e. Gamma waves

Alpha waves

188

Which cranial nerve is primarily a sensory only nerve?
a. VII
b. XII
c. II
d. X
e. III

II

189

What is the name of the cranial nerve that controls tongue wrestling?
a. Optic
b. Vagus
c. Facial
d. Trigeminal
e. Hypoglossal

Hypoglossal

190

Which cranial nerve is the largest and controls the muscles of mastication?
a. Optic
b. Vagus
c. Facial
d. Trigeminal
e. Hypoglossal

Trigeminal

191

The dorsal root ganglion is made up of what structures?
a. Cell bodies
b. Axons
c. Dendrites
d. Synaptic clefts
e. None of the above

Cell bodies

192

The end of the spinal cord is called what? Means horse’s tail
a. Filum Terminalle
b. Spinothalamic Tract
c. Pia Matter
d. Conus Medularis
e. None of the above

None of the above

193

What are the two enlargements in the spinal cord?
a. Thoracic and Cervical
b. Cervical and Lumbar
c. Thoracic and Lumbar
d. Sacral and Lumbar
e. None of the above

Cervical and Lumbar

194

The dorsal roots carry what type of information?
a. Motor
b. Efferent
c. Sensory
d. Transudent
e. None of the above

Sensory

195

What is the order of the spinal meningies?
a. Pia, Dura, Arachnoid
b. Arachnoid, Pia, Dura
c. Dura, Pia, Arachnoid
d. Dura, Arachnoid, Pia
e. Pia, Matter, Arachnoid

Dura, Arachnoid, Pia

196

Which space is filled with cerebrospinal fluid?
a. Subarachnoid space
b. Subpia space
c. Subdural space
d. Epidural space
e. None of the above

Subarachnoid space

197

The spinal meningies and the cranial meningies are the same?
a. True
b. False

True

198

In the gray matter, what is the area that carries somatic and visceral sensory information?
a. Anterior horn
b. Lateral horn
c. Posterior horn
d. Anterolateral column
e. None of the above

Posterior horn

199

The gray commisure has what function?
a. Crossover spot for information
b. Projects information up the spinal cord
c. Sends information out the spinal cord
d. Has no function
e. Is located in the brain

Crossover spot for information

200

The white matter is made up of ascending and descending tracts.
a. True
b. False

True

201

Which of the following is part of the organization of the white matter in the spinal cord?
a. Anterior Column
b. Posterior Column
c. Lateral Column
d. Anterior white commisure
e. All of the above

All of the above

202

What is the part of the nerve covering that separates the bundles of nerve fibers?
a. Perineurium
b. Epineurium
c. Endoneurium
d. Myoneurium
e. None of the above

Perineurium

203

Which level is not penetrated by blood vessels?
a. Epineurium
b. Endoneurium
c. Perineurium
d. Myoneurium
e. None of the above

Endoneurium

204

Dorsal rami innervate which parts of the body?
a. Posterior wall
b. limbs
c. organs
d. Anterior wall
e. None of the above

Posterior wall

205

What does the union of the ventral and dorsal roots form?
a. Cranial nerves
b. Sympathetic nerves
c. Parasympathetic nerves
d. Spinal nerves
e. None of the above

Spinal nerves

206

What nerve supplies the diaphragm?
a. Sciatic
b. Brachial
c. Phrenic
d. Ulnar
e. None of the above

Phrenic

207

The brachial plexus is made up of what spinal levels?
a. C1-C5
b. C5-T1
c. T2-T6
d. L1-L5
e. L5-S2

C5-T1

208

What is the largest nerve in the body?
a. Musculocutaneous
b. Axial
c. Obturator
d. Sciatic
e. None of the above

Sciatic

209

How many trunks are located in the Brachial Plexus?
a. 5
b. 2
c. 1
d. 6
e. 3

3

210

Which plexus supplies the arms?
a. Cervical
b. Brachial
c. Lumbar
d. Sacral
e. None of the above

Brachial

211

In a reverberation neuronal pool, what is the importance?
a. Negative feedback system
b. Straight line information
c. Weakening of the stimulation
d. Positive feedback system
e. All of the above

Positive feedback system

212

Which statement is not part of a reflex arc?
a. Arrival of stimulus
b. Activation of a Sensory neuron
c. Information processing
d. Activation of a Motor neuron
e. Effector response of a peripheral sensor

Effector response of a peripheral sensor

213

Which type of reflex arc are you born with?
a. Acquired
b. Innate
c. Skill
d. Repetitive
e. None of the above

Innate

214

What type of reflex requires an interneuron?
a. Monosynaptic
b. Visceral
c. Acquired
d. Polysynaptic
e. None of the above

Polysynaptic

215

What is an example of a monosynaptic reflex?
a. Stretch
b. Withdrawal
c. Tendon
d. Flexor
e. None of the above

Stretch

216

Which is not an example of a general characteristic of polysynaptic reflexes?
a. Involves pools of interneurons
b. They involve reciprocal inhibition
c. They have reverberating circuits
d. Several reflexes may cooperate to produce a coordinated response
e. All of the above are correct

All of the above are correct

217

The conscious awareness of a sensation is called what?
a. Sensationalism
b. Equilibrium
c. Olfaction
d. Perception
e. Interception

Perception

218

Which is not a mechanoreceptor?
a. Nocioceptor
b. Tactile
c. Baroreceptor
d. Proprioceptor
e. Lamellated corpuscle

Nocioceptor

219

Muscular pain is considered a slow achy burning pain. Which type of pain fiber will carry this information to the CNS?
a. Type A
b. Type B
c. Type C
d. Type D
e. None of the above

Type C

220

Thermoreceptors carry what type of information?
a. Light touch
b. Pressure
c. Muscle length
d. Temperature
e. None of the above

Temperature

221

Which neuron will take the information up the spinal cord if the tract crosses at the Spinal level?
a. First order
b. Second order
c. Third order
d. Fourth order
e. None of the above

Second order

222

Which of the somatic tracts crosses at the level of the medulla oblongata?
a. Spinocellebelar column
b. Anterolateral column
c. Posterior column
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

Posterior column

223

A person having a heart attack feels pain down the left arm and shoulder. This is because which column is being affected?
a. Spinocellebelar
b. Lateral Spinothalamic
c. Posterior column
d. None of the above
e. All of the above

Lateral Spinothalamic

224

Dorsal roots of T1-L2 and S2-S4 pass through which tract?
a. Posteriorolateral
b. Spinorubrio
c. Spinothalamic
d. Anterolateral
e. All of the above

Spinothalamic

225

Lower motor neurons cell bodies are found in which part of the body?
a. Spinal cord
b. Cerebrum
c. Brain stem
d. Two of the above
e. None of the above

Two of the above

226

Which pathway is responsible for gross motor movement of the neck, trunk, and proximal limbs?
a. Lateral
b. Medial
c. Corticospinal
d. Corticocellebelar
e. None of the above

Medial

227

The sympathetic division of the ANS arises from which area?
a. Thoracolumbar
b. Cervicosacral
c. Thoracosacral
d. Cervicolumbar
e. None of the above

Thoracolumbar

228

The sympathetic division is responsible of doing what to somatic activity?
a. Lowering
b. Destroying
c. Increasing
d. Absolutely nothing
e. Maintaining current levels

Increasing

229

Nor epinephrine is used as the postganglionic neurotransmitter, what is used as the preganglionic neurotransmitter?
a. Nor epinephrine
b. Epinephrine
c. Oxytocin
d. Acetylcholine
e. Transmitophine

Acetylcholine

230

Which is not an occurrence of sympathetic activation?
a. Increased alertness
b. Feeling of energy and euphoria
c. Increased cardiovascular and breathing
d. Increased urination
e. Mobilization of energy reserves

Increased urination

231

Preganglionic fibers travel fast in the CNS. What is special about these fibers?
a. They are myelinated
b. They are unmyelinated
c. They are polysynaptic
d. There is nothing special about them

They are myelinated

232

Parasympathetic activity increasing does which of the following?
a. Conserves energy
b. Is a couch potatoe
c. Is responsible for rest and response
d. Stores energy
e. All are actions of increased stimulation

All are actions of increased stimulation

233

The parasympathetic division is also called what?
a. Craniosacral
b. Thoracolumbar
c. Hyperactive
d. ADD
e. None of the above

Craniosacral

234

Where do most of the parasympathetic nerve fibers run in?
a. Cranial nerves
b. Lumbar nerves
c. Intercostal nerves
d. None of the above

Cranial nerves

235

In regards to dual ineurvation on organs please answer which division is in charge with the following actions. A. sympathetic B. Parasympathetic

47. Decrease in blood pressure.

48. Increase in absorption of the digestive system.

49. Increased glandular secretion and ejaculation.

B
B
A

236

Which is not a functional characteristic of Higher-Order functions?

a. Not part of the programmed brain
b. Modification and adjustments may be made over time
c. Only spinal monosynaptic reflexes work.
d. The cerebral cortex is required
e. Involves both conscious and unconscious information processing

Only spinal monosynaptic reflexes work.

237

What term do we use for smell?
a. Equilibrium
b. Auditory
c. Vestibularcochlear
d. Olfaction
e. None of the above

Olfaction

238

How many olfactory organs are there?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
e. Five

Two

239

What does the olfactory epithelium contain?
a. Basal cells
b. Receptor cells
c. Olfactory glands
d. Supporting cells
e. All of the above

All of the above

240

Glands that produce thick, pigmented mucus capable of absorbing water are called?
a. Bowman’s glands
b. Stem cells
c. Supporting cells
d. Olfactory receptor cells
e. None of the above

None of the above

241

What is the functional component of the olfactory receptor cell?
a. Supporting cell
b. Mucous
c. Olfactory cilia
d. Olfactory gland

Olfactory cilia

242

We can easily detect at least 50 smells, these are called what?
a. Tertiary smells
b. Secondary smells
c. Primary smells
d. Stinky smells
e. Odor

Primary smells

243

What is the common name for gustation receptors?
a. Ears
b. Nose
c. Utricle
d. Taste
e. None of the above

Taste

244

Which is not a form of lingual papillae?
a. Filiform
b. Myleform
c. Fungiform
d. Circumvallate

Myleform

245

Humans have two other taste sensations, please identify them?( pick two)
a. Water
b. Hydrogen peroxide
c. Acid
d. Base
e. Umami

Water
Umami

246

Which is not a function of the accessory structures of the eye?
a. Opening for light
b. Production of tears
c. Secretion of tears
d. Removal material

Opening for light

247

What is the name of the mucous membrane that covers the eye?
a. Lacrimal layer
b. Conjunctiva
c. Lateral canthus
d. Pupil
e. None of the above

Conjunctiva

248

Which is not a part of the Lacrimal apparatus to keep the eye moist and clean?
a. Gland
b. Canaliculi
c. Sac
d. Nasolacrimal duct
e. All are parts of the apparatus

All are parts of the apparatus

249

Which of the following is not a function of the fibrous tunic?
a. Mechanical support
b. Attachment site for extrinsic muscles
c. Detection of light
d. Focusing process assistance
e. None of the above

Detection of light

250

Which is not a function of the vascular tunic?
a. Route for blood vessels
b. Regulating amount of light
c. Secreting vitreous humor
d. Controlling shape of lens
e. Includes the iris, ciliary body, and the choroids

Secreting vitreous humor

251

What are the names for the specialized cells called photoreceptors?
a. Rods and cones
b. Rods and staffs
c. Staffs and cones
d. Peanuts, popcorn, and cracker jacks

Rods and cones

252

Which is not a step in photoreception?
a. Opsin is activated
b. Cyclic –GMP levels decrease
c. Activation of transducin
d. Dark current is increased
e. Rate of neurotransmitter declines

Dark current is increased

253

Light rays that strike the retina of the human eye project an inverted image because the:
a. Photoreceptor cells face the posterior wall of the eye
b. Lack of photoreceptors at the blind spot distorts the image
c. Fovea centralis of the macula lutea inverts the image
d. Vitreous humor is a distorting medium
e. Light is refracted as it passes through the lens

Fovea centralis of the macula lutea inverts the image

254

Hearing is a result of vibratory sensations transmitted by which of the following parts?
a. Tympanic membrane
b. Auditory ossicles
c. Oval window
d. Cochlea
e. All are parts of the pathway

All are parts of the pathway

255

Which part of the cochlea is affected by a bass singer?
a. Initial part
b. Middle part
c. Innermost part
d. All over

All over

256

The receptors for static and dynamic equilibrium are located in the .
a. Auditory canal and tympanic membrane
b. Round and oval windows
c. Cochlea and scala media
d. Semicircular canals and vestibule
e. Middle ear ossicles

Semicircular canals and vestibule

257

Which is not a part of the equilibrium function of the ear?
a. Semicircular ducts
b. Vestibule
c. Saccule
d. Utricle
e. Endolymphatic duct

Endolymphatic duct

258

Which is not a form of intercellular communication?
a. Direct
b. Paracrine
c. Endocrine
d. Synaptic
e. All are forms of communication

All are forms of communication

259

One of the endocrine glands develops within the sympathetic nervous system during embryological development. What endocrine gland might this be.
a. Pancreas
b. Adrenal medulla
c. Anterior pituitary
d. Thymus
e. Neurohypophysis

Anterior pituitary

260

Hormones released in the neurohypophysis are produced by neurons in the:
a. Adrenal medulla
b. Spinal cord
c. Anterior pituitary
d. Red nucleus
e. Hypothalamus

Hypothalamus

261

Which of the following is not an endocrine gland?
a. Hypothalamus
b. Thymus
c. Pituitary gland
d. Heart
e. Pons

Pons

262

Hormones thyroxine and ADH are produced from precursor molecules of
a. Fats
b. Amino acids
c. Nucleic acids
d. Glycerol
e. Carbohydrates

Amino acids

263

Which of the following is a true protein?
a. FSH
b. Epinephrine
c. Thyroxine
d. Oxytocin
e. Progesterone

Oxytocin

264

The adenohypophysis hormone that directly is involved in the stress response is what?
a. FSH
b. Prolactin
c. Oxytocin
d. ACTH
e. TSH

TSH

265

What is the target tissue for prolactin?
a. Thyroid gland
b. Adrenal medulla
c. Mammary glands
d. Gonads
e. Adrenal cortex

Mammary glands

266

Hyposecretion of parathyroid hormone (PTH) can lead to which of the following?
a. More absorption of Ca++ by the small intestine
b. Increased renal reabsorption of Ca++
c. Faster bone deposition
d. Hypercalcemia
e. Stimulation of osteoclast activity

Faster bone deposition

267

Steroid hormones are made from a derived form of what molecule?
a. Cholesterol
b. Arachidonic acid
c. Amino acids
d. Tyrosine
e. None of the above

Cholesterol

268

Secretions of the adrenal medulla act to increase the effects of which system?
a. Parasympathetic innervation
b. Sympathetic stimulation
c. Vagus nerve activity
d. Reflex controls
e. Neruosecretory substances

Sympathetic stimulation

269

Which gland has the most direct control over all other endocrine glands?
a. Hypothalamus
b. Adrenal medulla
c. Anterior pituitary
d. Pancreas
e. Adipose tissue

Hypothalamus

270

Which gland secretes seven hormones that all use cAMP as the secondary messenger?
a. Hypothalamus
b. Adrenal medulla
c. Anterior pituitary
d. Pancreas
e. Adipose tissue

Anterior pituitary

271

The hypothalamus secreting TRH will result in what hormone being secreted by the anterior pituitary gland?
a. ACTH
b. FSH
c. LH
d. TSH
e. PRL

TSH

272

The parathyroid gland releases its hormone in direct response to what?
a. Low levels of Ca++ ions in blood
b. High levels of Ca++ ions in blood
c. High levels of Calcitonin
d. Elevated osteoclast activity
e. Two of the above

Low levels of Ca++ ions in blood

273

Which gland utilizes Iodine to accelerate the formation of hormones?
a. Parathyroid
b. Adrenal cortex
c. Thyroid
d. Adenohypophysis
e. Pancreas

Thyroid

274

Which zone of the adrenal gland has the effects of conserving calcium ions?
a. Medulla
b. Reticularis
c. Glomerulosa
d. Fasciculate
e. None of the above

None of the above

275

Which Zona of the adrenal gland has its effects on glucose metabolism?
a. Medulla
b. Reticularis
c. Glomerulosa
d. Fasciculate
e. None of the above

Fasciculate

276

Which of the following is not an effect of the adrenal medulla?
a. Mobilization of glycogen in muscle
b. Break down of stored fats
c. Glycogen break down in the liver
d. Increase rate and force of cardiac muscle contraction
e. All are effects of epinephrine and norepinephrine

All are effects of epinephrine and norepinephrine

277

The islets of Langerhans are found in which gland
a. Adipose tissue
b. Heart
c. Adrenal
d. Pancreas
e. Pineal

Pancreas

278

Which cell produces the hormone insulin?
a. Alpha cells
b. Beta cells
c. Delta cells
d. F cells
e. None of the above

Beta cells

279

What is the name of the hormone most responsible for increasing glucose levels?
a. Insulin
b. Growth hormone
c. Glucagon
d. Melatonin
e. ACTH

Glucagon

280

What hormonal gland controls the increase of digestive enzymes through production of secretin?
a. Gonads
b. Intestines
c. Heart
d. Thymus
e. Adipose tissue

Intestines

281

What body tissue suppresses appetite by affecting the hypothalamus?
a. Adipose tissue
b. Thymus
c. Heart
d. Gonads
e. Pancreas

Adipose tissue

282

EPO erythropoietin increases production of red blood cells in response to low levels of oxygen in which gland?
a. Lung
b. Liver
c. Kidney
d. Intestines
e. Heart

Kidney

283

Which gland decreases in size as we age?
a. Kidney
b. Intestine
c. Heart
d. Thymus
e. No gland decreases in size

Thymus

284

Which hormone is most responsible for secondary male sex characteristics?
a. Estrogens
b. Progestins
c. Androgens
d. FSH
e. None of the above

Androgens

285

An excessive breakdown of tissue proteins and lipid reserves is a principle sign of overproduction of what hormone group?
a. Parathyroid
b. Thyroxine
c. Estrogens
d. Glucocorticoids
e. Mineralocorticoids

Glucocorticoids