Problem Pharm Flashcards

1
Q

MOA of Typical antipsychotics

A

Block D2 receptors to increase cAMP

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2
Q

Trifluoperazine

A

high potency typical antipsychotic

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3
Q

Chlorpromazine

A

low potency typical antipsychotic

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4
Q

Fluoxetine

A

SSRI

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5
Q

Clozapine

A

atypical antipsychotic

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6
Q

Paroxetine

A

SSRI

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7
Q

Haloperidol

A

high potency typical antipsychotic

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8
Q

Olanzapine

A

atypical antipsychotic

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9
Q

Fluphenazine

A

high potency typical antipsychotic

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10
Q

Risperidone

A

atypical antipsychotic

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11
Q

Thioridazole

A

low potency typical antipsychotic

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12
Q

Sertraline

A

SSRI

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13
Q

Quetiapine

A

atypical antipsychotic

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14
Q

Citalopram

A

SSRI

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15
Q

Ariprprazole

A

atypical antipsychotic

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16
Q

Doxepin

A

TCA

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17
Q

Ziprasidone

A

atypical antipsychotic

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18
Q

Duloxetine

A

SNRI

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19
Q

Amoxapine

A

TCA

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20
Q

Venlafaxine

A

SNRI

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21
Q

“iptyline” or “ipramine”

A

TCA

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22
Q

Tx for serotonin syndrome

A

cyproheptadine (5-HT2 antagonist)

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23
Q

TCA that causes seizures

A

Desipramine

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24
Q

TCA for elderly

A

Nortriptyline

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25
TCA that causes antropine-like effects
Amitryptiline
26
Atypical antidepressant with seizures
Clozapine (also causes agranulocytosis)
27
Typical antidepressant with corneal deposits
chlorpromazine
28
Typical antidepressant with retinal deposits
thioridazole
29
MAOIs
Tranylcypromine Phenelzine Isocarboxazid Selegiline (all weird looking words)
30
Seizures in bulemic patinets
bupropion
31
Atypical antidepessant mnemonic
I DONE PINEing about how atypical I am, so i RIP IP up
32
Typical antidepressant mnemonic
Typically, good girls with DAZOLing HALOs stay in at night reading magAZINEs
33
SSRI mnemonic
"FLashbacks PARalize SEnior CITAzins"
34
MOA: alpha2, 5HT2 and 5HT3 blocker
Mirtazapine (good atypical antidepressant for elderly because causes weight gain)
35
MOA: alpha1 and 5HT2 blocker
Trazadone (used for insomnia)
36
Tramadol
``` mu agonist (weak) SNRI ```
37
Gabapentin
Ca channel blocker
38
Levetriacetam
unknown (may alter GABA/glutamine release)
39
Tiagabine
inhibit GABA reuptake
40
VIgabatrin
irreversibly inhibit GABA transaminase
41
Midazolam
benzo IV anesthetic
42
Tolcapone
COMT inhibitor (used in PD)
43
Memantine
NMDA antagonist (for alzheimer's)
44
Haloperidol
DA antagonist (for HD)
45
Tetrabenazine and Reserpine
VMAT blocker (for HD)
46
Sulfonylureas (name them)
1st gen: tolbutamide, chlorpropamide | 2nd gen: glyburide, glimepiride, glipizide
47
Pramlintide
- Decrease gastric emptying | - Decrease glucagon
48
GLP-1 analogs
Exenatide and Liraglutide (increase insulin and decrease glucagon release)
49
Toxicity of GLP-1 analog
can cause pancreatitis
50
DPP4 inhibitors
"gliptins" (increase insulin and decrease glucagon release)
51
Demeclocycline MOA
ADH blocker
52
Direct thrombin inhibitors
Argatroban | Bivalirudin
53
ADP receptor blockers
Clopidogrel, Ticlopine, Prasugrel | Ticagrecor (only reversible one)
54
Cilustazol and dipyridamole MOA
- Phosphodiesterase III inhibitor - Increase cAMP in platelets (inhibit aggregation) - Vasodilate
55
Danazol
partial agonist at androgen receptors to treat endometriosis and hereditary angioedema
56
Flutamide
nonsteroidal competitive inhibitor of androgens at the testosterone receptor
57
G2 cell cycle specific cancer drug
bleomycin
58
Tx for 5-FU overdose
uridine
59
Cytarabine MOA
Pyrimidine analog
60
Azathioprine and 6-MP MOA
Purine (thiol) analog
61
Dactinomycin MOA and use
anti-tumor antibiotic (intercalator) used in childhood tumors (Wilms, Ewing, Rhabdomyosarcoma)
62
Cyclophosphamide MOA
Covalently X-link interstrand DNA at guanine N-7 (after bioactivation in liver)
63
Nitrosoureas MOA and use
cross link DNA after bioactivation (can cross BBB for brain tumors)
64
Bulsufan MOA and use
cross-links DNA (used in CML and ablation of bone marrow)
65
Cisplatin MOA
cross-links DNA
66
Hydroxyurea MOA
inhibits ribonucleotide reductase to decrease DNA synthesis (S-phase specific)
67
Vemurafenib MOA
small molecule inhibitor of forms of B-Raf with V600E mutation (metastatic melanoma)
68
MOA of Triamterene and Amiloride
K+ sparing diuretics (work to block Na+ channels in CCT)
69
MOA of spironolactone and eplerenone
Aldo receptor antagonists
70
Diuretics with hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis
Loops and Thiazides (K loss leads to activation of H/K exchanger--K enters from tubule as H exits AND volume contraction due to increase HCO3- reabsorption from Na/H exchange in PT)
71
Dihydropyridine CCB
Amlodipine Nimodipine Nifedipine
72
Non-dihydropyridine CCB
Verapamil | DIltiazem
73
Pregnancy HTN
Methyldopa | Hydralazine
74
Drugs for HTN emergency
- Nitroprusside (art=ven vasodilator) - Labetalol (beta and alpha blocker) - Fenoldopam (D1 agonist to decrease BP and increase naturesis) - Nicardipine - Clevidipine
75
Effect of nitrates on HR
increased (reflex--may want to give beta blocker with it)
76
Niacin MOA
inhibits lipolysis in adipose tissue and reduces hepatic VLDL synthesis
77
Fibrate MOA
Upregulate LPL to increase TG clearance (activates PPAR-alpha to induce HDL synthesis)
78
Antiarrhythmic with use dependence
Class Ic (flecanide, propafenone) means that QRS prolongation increases as HR increases
79
Antiarrhythmic with reverse use dependence
Class III (amiodarone, ibutilide, dofetilide, sotalol) means that the slower the HR the longer the QT prolongation
80
Antiarrhythmics that cause torsades
Ia and III
81
Amiodarone tests
PFTs (pulmonary fibrosis), TFTs (thyroid toxicity), LFTs (hepatic toxicity)
82
Adenosine MOA
increase K+ out of cells to hyperpolarize and decrease calcium (used to treat and diagnose SV tach because T1/2 is only 15 seconds)