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Flashcards in Problem Pharm Deck (82):
1

MOA of Typical antipsychotics

Block D2 receptors to increase cAMP

2

Trifluoperazine

high potency typical antipsychotic

3

Chlorpromazine

low potency typical antipsychotic

4

Fluoxetine

SSRI

5

Clozapine

atypical antipsychotic

6

Paroxetine

SSRI

7

Haloperidol

high potency typical antipsychotic

8

Olanzapine

atypical antipsychotic

9

Fluphenazine

high potency typical antipsychotic

10

Risperidone

atypical antipsychotic

11

Thioridazole

low potency typical antipsychotic

12

Sertraline

SSRI

13

Quetiapine

atypical antipsychotic

14

Citalopram

SSRI

15

Ariprprazole

atypical antipsychotic

16

Doxepin

TCA

17

Ziprasidone

atypical antipsychotic

18

Duloxetine

SNRI

19

Amoxapine

TCA

20

Venlafaxine

SNRI

21

"iptyline" or "ipramine"

TCA

22

Tx for serotonin syndrome

cyproheptadine (5-HT2 antagonist)

23

TCA that causes seizures

Desipramine

24

TCA for elderly

Nortriptyline

25

TCA that causes antropine-like effects

Amitryptiline

26

Atypical antidepressant with seizures

Clozapine (also causes agranulocytosis)

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Typical antidepressant with corneal deposits

chlorpromazine

28

Typical antidepressant with retinal deposits

thioridazole

29

MAOIs

Tranylcypromine
Phenelzine
Isocarboxazid
Selegiline

(all weird looking words)

30

Seizures in bulemic patinets

bupropion

31

Atypical antidepessant mnemonic

I DONE PINEing about how atypical I am, so i RIP IP up

32

Typical antidepressant mnemonic

Typically, good girls with DAZOLing HALOs stay in at night reading magAZINEs

33

SSRI mnemonic

"FLashbacks PARalize SEnior CITAzins"

34

MOA: alpha2, 5HT2 and 5HT3 blocker

Mirtazapine (good atypical antidepressant for elderly because causes weight gain)

35

MOA: alpha1 and 5HT2 blocker

Trazadone (used for insomnia)

36

Tramadol

mu agonist (weak)
SNRI

37

Gabapentin

Ca channel blocker

38

Levetriacetam

unknown (may alter GABA/glutamine release)

39

Tiagabine

inhibit GABA reuptake

40

VIgabatrin

irreversibly inhibit GABA transaminase

41

Midazolam

benzo IV anesthetic

42

Tolcapone

COMT inhibitor (used in PD)

43

Memantine

NMDA antagonist (for alzheimer's)

44

Haloperidol

DA antagonist (for HD)

45

Tetrabenazine and Reserpine

VMAT blocker (for HD)

46

Sulfonylureas (name them)

1st gen: tolbutamide, chlorpropamide
2nd gen: glyburide, glimepiride, glipizide

47

Pramlintide

-Decrease gastric emptying
-Decrease glucagon

48

GLP-1 analogs

Exenatide and Liraglutide (increase insulin and decrease glucagon release)

49

Toxicity of GLP-1 analog

can cause pancreatitis

50

DPP4 inhibitors

"gliptins" (increase insulin and decrease glucagon release)

51

Demeclocycline MOA

ADH blocker

52

Direct thrombin inhibitors

Argatroban
Bivalirudin

53

ADP receptor blockers

Clopidogrel, Ticlopine, Prasugrel
Ticagrecor (only reversible one)

54

Cilustazol and dipyridamole MOA

-Phosphodiesterase III inhibitor
-Increase cAMP in platelets (inhibit aggregation)
-Vasodilate

55

Danazol

partial agonist at androgen receptors to treat endometriosis and hereditary angioedema

56

Flutamide

nonsteroidal competitive inhibitor of androgens at the testosterone receptor

57

G2 cell cycle specific cancer drug

bleomycin

58

Tx for 5-FU overdose

uridine

59

Cytarabine MOA

Pyrimidine analog

60

Azathioprine and 6-MP MOA

Purine (thiol) analog

61

Dactinomycin MOA and use

anti-tumor antibiotic (intercalator) used in childhood tumors (Wilms, Ewing, Rhabdomyosarcoma)

62

Cyclophosphamide MOA

Covalently X-link interstrand DNA at guanine N-7 (after bioactivation in liver)

63

Nitrosoureas MOA and use

cross link DNA after bioactivation (can cross BBB for brain tumors)

64

Bulsufan MOA and use

cross-links DNA (used in CML and ablation of bone marrow)

65

Cisplatin MOA

cross-links DNA

66

Hydroxyurea MOA

inhibits ribonucleotide reductase to decrease DNA synthesis (S-phase specific)

67

Vemurafenib MOA

small molecule inhibitor of forms of B-Raf with V600E mutation (metastatic melanoma)

68

MOA of Triamterene and Amiloride

K+ sparing diuretics (work to block Na+ channels in CCT)

69

MOA of spironolactone and eplerenone

Aldo receptor antagonists

70

Diuretics with hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis

Loops and Thiazides (K loss leads to activation of H/K exchanger--K enters from tubule as H exits AND volume contraction due to increase HCO3- reabsorption from Na/H exchange in PT)

71

Dihydropyridine CCB

Amlodipine
Nimodipine
Nifedipine

72

Non-dihydropyridine CCB

Verapamil
DIltiazem

73

Pregnancy HTN

Methyldopa
Hydralazine

74

Drugs for HTN emergency

-Nitroprusside (art=ven vasodilator)
-Labetalol (beta and alpha blocker)
-Fenoldopam (D1 agonist to decrease BP and increase naturesis)
-Nicardipine
-Clevidipine

75

Effect of nitrates on HR

increased (reflex--may want to give beta blocker with it)

76

Niacin MOA

inhibits lipolysis in adipose tissue and reduces hepatic VLDL synthesis

77

Fibrate MOA

Upregulate LPL to increase TG clearance (activates PPAR-alpha to induce HDL synthesis)

78

Antiarrhythmic with use dependence

Class Ic (flecanide, propafenone) means that QRS prolongation increases as HR increases

79

Antiarrhythmic with reverse use dependence

Class III (amiodarone, ibutilide, dofetilide, sotalol) means that the slower the HR the longer the QT prolongation

80

Antiarrhythmics that cause torsades

Ia and III

81

Amiodarone tests

PFTs (pulmonary fibrosis), TFTs (thyroid toxicity), LFTs (hepatic toxicity)

82

Adenosine MOA

increase K+ out of cells to hyperpolarize and decrease calcium (used to treat and diagnose SV tach because T1/2 is only 15 seconds)