SKM Path Quiz 4- part 1 Flashcards

(41 cards)

1
Q

idiopathic avascular osteonecrosis of the epiphysis of the femoral head leading to an interruption of the blood supply of the head of the femur

A

Legg–Calvé–Perthes syndrome

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2
Q

The predominant cause of rickets is?

A

Vitamin D deficiency

causes softening of the bones

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3
Q

what is rickets called that’s seen in adults?

A

Osteomalacia

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4
Q

what’s responsible for the osteoclast activity seen in osteoporosis?

A

cytokines

IL-1, IL-6, TNF alpha

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5
Q

primary osteoporosis caused by

A

aging

menopause

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6
Q

secondary osteoporosis caused by

A

malabsorption
medical conditions (RA, endocrine disorders)
medications (steroids, chemotherapy, anticoagulants)
eating disorders
immobilization
vitamin deficiency (Vit D, C, K)

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7
Q

exaggerated curvature of the spine that results in a rounded or hunched back

A

kyphosis

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8
Q

a disease characterized by high bone turnover with accelerated osteoclast and osteoblast activity

A

Paget’s disease

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9
Q

end result of Paget’s disease is

A

increased calcification

imaging shows whiter areas of bone

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10
Q

Labs for Paget’s show elevated

A

alkaline phosphate

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11
Q

histological hallmark for Paget’s is

A

mosaic pattern of lamellar bone

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12
Q

Paget’s disease reveals what when seen via x-ray?

A

sclerotic bone
areas of lucency
(cotton ball appearance)

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13
Q

osteopetrosis characterized by

A

bones harden and become more dense

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14
Q

gas formation in tissue is seen on x-ray for which condition?

A

osteomyelitis

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15
Q

Diagnosis of osteomyelitis is often based on radiologic results showing

A

a lytic center with a ring of sclerosis.

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16
Q

renal osteodystrophy is used to describe

A

all of the skeletal changes of chronic renal disease

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17
Q

Fractures are classified as simple (closed) when

A

the overlying tissue is intact

18
Q

Fractures are classified as compound (open) when

A

the fracture site communicates with the skin surface

19
Q

A fracture is displaced when

A

the ends of the bone at the fracture site are not aligned

20
Q

A fracture is called comminuted when the bone is

A

splintered or crushed

21
Q

a pathologic fracture is

A

when the break occurs in bone already altered by a disease process

22
Q

A stress fracture is

A

a slowly developing fracture that follows a period of increased physical activity in which the bone is subjected to repetitive loads

23
Q

An abnormal bone scan will appear as

A

increased uptake of the tracer where bone formation is occurring faster than the surrounding bone

24
Q

on x-ray aneurysmal cyst reveals

A

honey-combed appearance

less symmetry to shape of cyst

25
which type of benign bone neoplasm is often solitary, but when paired with Gardner syndrome multiple lesions are seen?
osteoid osteoma
26
Gross examination of an osteoid osteoma is characterized by
an area of gritty, cherry red tissue, surrounded by dense sclerotic bone
27
the primary malignant tumor of bone is
osteosarcoma
28
third most common malignancy is adolescence?
osteosarcoma
29
osteosarcoma, while ordinarily seen in young adults, is seen more commonly in adults that have which other condition?
Paget's
30
osteosarcoma feels
hard fixed non-tender
31
_________ is a chemosensitive tumor specially to high-dose methotrexate
osteosarcoma
32
X-ray findings for osteosarcoma are variable
combination of bone destruction and bone formation radio lucency and radio opacity spicules of calcium in soft tissue
33
METS of osteosarcoma is common and characteristic appearance is
skip lesions
34
Early pulmonary metastasis is common with
osteosarcoma
35
microscopically fibrosarcoma appears as
sheets of spindle shaped cells
36
Giant cell tumor (GCT) appears as what on x-ray
non-sclerotic border
37
a bone tumor mostly of adults?
giant cell tumor
38
a bone tumor mostly of children?
ewing sarcoma
39
X-ray of Ewing sarcoma usually shows
a mottled "moth-eaten" destructive lesion
40
malignant disease of plasma cells in bone marrow
multiple myeloma
41
METs bone cancer or Paget's shows what on x-ray?
ivory vertebrae sign