Test 3: Old Tests Flashcards
1
Q
What is a property of Corynebacterium diphtheriae?
A
produces an ADP-ribosylase that targets host elongation factor 2
2
Q
What is a property of the dissaccharide-tetrapeptide component of bacterial peptidoglycan that is the tracheal cytotoxin of Bordetella pertussis?
A
it is a unique component of the Bordetella pertussis cell wall
it is shed from bacterial cells instead of being absorbed and recycled
3
Q
Which of the following is not a property of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
A
obligate intracellular pathogen
4
Q
What is the role the Helicobacter pylori VacA protein?
A
VacA protein increases urea flow into the stomach
5
Q
Which pathogenic E. coli strain does not invade intestinal epithelial cells but still causes bloody diarrhea, in part
due to production of a shiga toxin?
A
Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli
EHEC
6
Q
Which of the following is true regarding vibrio cholrae?
A
severe dehydration is associated with this disease
7
Q
What is the K antigen used for identifying strains of pathogenic enteric bacteria?
A
capsular polysaccharide
8
Q
What is true about the ADP ribosylation function of some A-B toxins?
A
ADP ribosylation inactivates a target protein of host cells
9
Q
The translocated intimin receptor (TIR) mediates attachment to host cells for which bacterium?
A
Enteropathogenic E Coli
10
Q
Which enteric bacterium is acquired as a zoonotic infection, often from undercooked chicken, and causes a mild, self-limiting gastroenteritis?
A
Camplyobacter jejune
11
Q
Which is NOT a property of the keystone pathogen for periodontitis? 1/1
A
becomes the main species present in disease sites
12
Q
Which bacterium is considered the keystone pathogen for periodontitis? 1/1
A
Porphyromonas
gingivalis
13
Q
Which disease has oral manifestations that include gummas? 1/1
A
syphilis
14
Q
Which Streptococcal virulence factor is correlated with the progression of infective endocarditis?
A
PAAP
15
Q
Which of the following is characteristic of Ludwig’s angina?
A
infection is polymicrobial (multiple species)
16
Q
How do mucins act as antibacterial agents
A
mucins aggregate and clear oral bacteria via lectin like interactions
17
Q
How does lysozyme act as an antibacterial agent?
A
lysozyme cleave the bond between NAG and NAM
18
Q
Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans is very typically associated with which oral disease?
A
aggressive periodontitis
19
Q
What is one of the types of oral bacteria strongly associated with acute necrotizing ulceratize gingivitis?
A
fusobacterium nucleatum
20
Q
What is a property characteristic of cariogenic bacteria (versus noncariogenic bacteria)?
A
presence of acid stress response protiens
21
Q
Name a bacterium that is a common late colonizer of dental plaque when oxygen is depleted, especially between teeth?
A
prevotella
22
Q
What is true of dental plaque?
A
sugar consumption causes increased levels of strep mutans in plaque
23
Q
What bacterial gene is used in current methods for classifying bacteria, including identifying new species?
A
16s RNA
24
Q
Which property of bacteria in a dental biofilm is associated with decreasing the risk of dental caries?
A
upregulation of ammonia production from arginine and urea
25
What bacterium lacks peptidoglycan and is the agent of the most sexually transmitted infections, characterized by mucopurulent discharges?
Chlamydia trachomatis
26
Which organism is an obligate intracellular pathogen?
chlamydia trachomatis
27
Bacteria of which genus are transmitted to humans by bites of infected ticks?
rickettsia
28
What is a symptom of late stage, chronic disease associate with Borrelia burgdorferi?
arthritis
29
What is uniquely associated with congenital syphilis?
mulberry molars
30
Name a bacterium that may be detectable by an acid-fast staining test of a sputum smear.
mycobacterium tuberculosis.
31
Which of the following is true for Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
the bacterium exhibit a very slow growth rate (doubling 1 time a day)
32
What is a property of the bacterial agent of Legionnaires' disease?
lives within amoebas in water sources within ventilation systems
33
Name a bacterium that survives in alveolar macrophages.
mycobacterium tuberculosis
34
What type of virulence factor of Haemophilus influenzae serotype b is specifically correlated with the ability of
these bacteria to cause systemic infections?
capsule B
35
This Gram-negative coccobacillus is transmitted zoonotically via fleas and eventually infects lymph nodes,
producing characteristic swellings called “bubos.”
yersenia pestis
36
Which of the following is true about Bacillus anthracis?
produces a metallo-protease called lethal factor
37
Which Clostridium species is part of the normal human bacterial flora?
C. Difficle
38
Botulism results in
flaccid muscle paralysis due to blocking release of neuortransmitter ach
39
These gram positive rods establish themselves in the throat and kill cells by expressing a toxin that ADP- ribosylates elongation factor 2, causing inhibition of cellular translation.
corynebacterium diptheria
40
What is a property of the dissaccharide-tetrapeptide component of bacterial peptidoglycan that is the tracheal cytotoxin of Bordetella pertussis?
it is shed from bacterial cells instead of being absorbed and recycled
41
he ability of Pseudomonas aeruginosa to produce a biofilm is dependent on
alginate production
42
What pathogen resides in the stomach and induces the host to secrete urea through the mucosal epithelium?
helicobacter pylori
43
Which enteric bacterium is acquired as a zoonotic infection, often from undercooked chicken, and causes a mild self-limiting gastroenteritis
camplylobactor jejune
44
What is a property of cholera toxin and the system for spreading the genes encoding it?
the cholera toxin genes are encoded in a phage genome
45
Which of the following is true about cholera?
supportive rehydration therapy is the main method used for treatment
46
Which enteric bacterium can invade M cells in the gut, survive in macrophages, and eventually infect many different organ in the body?
salmonella enteric serovar typhi
47
Most cases of cytitis (bladder infections) are caused by which bacterial genus?
escherichia
48
What is the effect of shiga toxin on the host?
removal of a specific adenine base from 28s rRNA
49
Hemolytic uremic syndrome is a complication of infection by which organism?
Escherichia coli 0157:H7
50
Which of the following is the mostly likely characteristic of Campylobacter jejune?
acquired as a zoonotic infection, often from undercooked chicken, and causes a mild, self-limiting gastroenteritis
51
To what surface feature of enteric bacteria does the term H-antigen refer?
flagella
52
What is not a property associated with Salmonella enterica serovar typhi?
produces a cholera-like toxin
53
What are properties of salmonella enterica serovar typhi?
invades M cells
survive in macophages
replicates in multiple organs compromising their functions
causes intestinal rupture
54
Which bacterium produces the vast majority (70-90%) of urinary tract infections (bladder infections, for example)?
E. COli
55
Which of the following is not a virulence factor for Helicobacter pylori?
shiga-like toxin
56
What are virulence factors for H. Pylori?
urease
VacA protein
CagA protein
flagella
57
Hemolytic uremic syndrome is a complication of infection by which organism?
Escherichia coli O157:H7
58
Shiga toxin has what function?
removes a specific adenine base from 28S rRNA, stopping translation
59
Which of the following is not a property of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
obligate intracellular pathogen
60
What is a property of the dissaccharide-tetrapeptide component of bacterial peptidoglycan that is the tracheal cytotoxin of Bordetella pertussis?
its is shed from bacterial cells instead of being absorbed and recycled
61
These gram positive pleiomorphic rods produce a pseudomembrane in the throat that can block the airway.
corynebacterium diptheriae
62
Clostridium botulinum produces an A-B exotoxin that blocks the release of which neurotransmitter from axon
endings at neuromuscular junctions?
AcH
63
Which Clostridial species is part of the normal human bacterial flora?
clostridium difficle
64
Which organism produces alpha toxin (a lecithinase-phospholipase C) and theta toxin (a hemolytic toxin), that
partially account for the organism's tissue-destructiveness that often requires amputation to save the patient's life?
clostridium perfringens
65
Which of the following best describes tetanospasmin, a virulence factor for Clostridium tetani?
A-B exotoxin that blocks the release of the neurotransmitter glycine
66
This Gram-negative coccobacillus is transmitted zoonotically mainly from contact with wild animals such as
birds, rabbits, or tick bites. The bacteria are able to grow in macrophages, resulting in systemic spread that can lead to ulceroglandular, oculoglandular, and pulmonary infections. A vaccine is available for high-risk individuals.
Francisella tularensis
STUDY this one... IDK it very well.
67
What virulence property does Haemophilus influenzae capsule b confer on these bacteria?
it allows the bacteria to cause systemic infections
68
What bacterium lives inside amoeba in the environment and is typically transmitted by an aerosol route to humans through ventilation systems in buildings?
legionella pneumophila
69
What bacterium grows at tempertures from 1oC to 45oC, is resistant to salt and acid conditions, and is a food-
borne pathogen that causes systemic disease in immune-compromised individuals?
listeria monocytogenes
70
This Gram-negative coccobacillus is transmitted zoonotically via fleas and eventually infects lymph nodes, where
it can cause a purulent infection. In some individuals the bacteria can subsequently spread to the lungs and be transmitted by aerosol from human to human.
yersinia pestis
71
Which of the following is true for Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
the bacterium exhibits a very slow growth rate (doubling time of 1 day)
72
A positive result with an acid-fast staining test on a sputum smear is indicative of which type of bacteria?
m. tuberculosis
73
Which of the following is true for cord factor of Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
is a glycolipid that adheres to cell surface mycolic acids
74
Which of the following is true for leprosy?
individuals normally clear the bacterial agent via cell-mediated immunity
75
Bacteria of which genus are Gram positive filamentous rods that are opportunistic pathogens, causing
bronchopulmonary infections and brain abscesses?
nocardia
76
A zoonotic disease is associated with which of the following bacteria?
borrelia burgdoferi
77
Which form of Chlamydia replicates within a host cell?
reticulate body
78
What is true about Mycoplasma pneumoniae?
immune protection fades after recovery from infection
79
Bacteria of which genus cause Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?
rickettsia
80
Which of the following is best associated with the viridans Streptococci?
dental caries
81
What symptoms are uniquely associated with tertiary syphilis?
gummas
82
Which organism is a gram-positive, spore-forming, strictly anaerobic rod?
clostridium perfringens
83
Is part of the normal human intestinal bacterial flora
clostridium difficle
84
Blockage of acetylcholine release from host cells is caused by a virulence factor of which bacterium?
Clostridium Botulinum
85
Which of the following is not true about Bacillus anthracis?
only Bacillus species that do not form spores
86
Which of the following is true concerning Baccilus anthracic?
produces an adenylate cyclase called edema factor
produces a metalloprotease called lethal factor
bacteria are Gram positive rods
historically, bacteria transmitted from animal sources
87
What type of virulence factor of Haemophilus influenzae serotype b is specifically correlated with the ability of
these bacteria to cause systemic infections?
capsule B
88
This Gram-negative coccobacillus is transmitted zoonotically via fleas and eventually infects lymph nodes, where it can cause a purulent infection. In some individuals the bacteria can subsequently spread to the lungs and be transmitted by aerosol from human to human.
yersinia pestis
89
What property is associated with listeria monocytogenes?
is transmitted to human in contaminated porcessed meat and dairy products
90
What is a property of the bacterial agent of legionnaires disease?
epithelial cells in the lung are this bacterium's main target for invasion
91
Which of the following is true for cord factor of m. tuberculosis?
contains mycolic acid
92
Which of the following is true for tuberculosis?
most individuals exposed to the bacterial agent do not develop disease.
93
Which of the following is not a property of nocardia?
is a zoonotic agent (sheep and goats)
94
A pregnant 22-year-old woman was seen at an urgent care clinic and presented with fever, malaise, headache and a macular rash (flat, red) over much of her body. Upon questioning, she reported that about 1 year earlier she had a painless ulcer on her vagina that healed spontaneously after a few weeks. A diagnostic test revealed the pathogen and the likely connection between her previous and current symptoms. What is the most likely diagnosis made following her urgent care visit?
secondary syphillis
95
What is the treatment for a child born with congential syphillis?
penicillin
96
What is a symptom of late stage chronic disease associate with borrelia burgdoferi?
arthritis
97
Which bacteria are not transmitted to humans by bites of infected ticks?
yersinia pestis
98
trachoma
is a form of blindness
99
What is a property of chlamydia trachomatis?
some serotypes cause a gonorrheal-like disease
100
What is true about mycoplasma pneumoniae?
cells pass through filter that traps most other bacteria
101
What is a property characteristic of cariogenic bacteria (versus noncariogenic bacteria)?
acid stress response protiens
102
What role does ammonia production from arginine and urea play for oral bacteria?
creation of a more basic local environment
103
What is true of dental plaque?
sugar consumption causes an increased levels of strp mutans in plaque
104
Which bacteria are common late colonizers of dental plaque when oxygen is depleted, especially between teeth?
prevotella melaninogenicus
105
Which bacterium is strongly associated with acute necrotizing ulceratize gingivitis?
fusobacterium nucleatum
106
dental caries correlates with what?
high levels of strep mutans
107
Which bacterial genus is especially associated with aggressive periodontitis?
aggregatibacter
108
how does lysozyme acts as an antibacterial agent?
cleaves the bond between NAM and NAg
109
What is an example of a role of a toll-like recpetor in oral defense?
bind to LPS and signal bacterial presence
110
Which of the following is characteristic of salivary gland infections?
dehydration increases the risk of infection
111
Which disease has oral manifestations that include ulcers on the palate?
tuberculosis
112
Give an example where post-exposure vaccination is recommended?
after being bitten by an animal suspected to be infected with the rabies virus
113
Which vaccine protects solely or principally by induction of serum antibodies? 0/1
hepatitis A vaccine
114
Passive immunization is used for all of the following except 1/1
to elicit the production of secretory antibodies
115
What drug inhibits the function of influenza A virus M2 protein? 1/1
rimantidine
116
Which class of anti-HIV drug is also effective against hepatitis B virus?
anti-reverse transcriptase
117
Which drug blocks release of influenza A virus from an infected cell?
tamiflu
118
Which virus genome is directly translated into proteins upon entry into a cell?
coronavirus
119
What paramyxovirus is limited to replication in the region of initial contact and does not demonstrate significant spread to other sites by viremia?
Respiratory syncytial virus
120
What is true about measles virus?
infections by the measles virus are limited in the United States because of widespread vaccination
`
121
How do pigs play a role in major periodic changes in influenza viruses?
segments of genomes from influenza viruses that infect pigs can "randomly reassort" with those that infect humans, leading to antigenic shift
122
Antigenic shifts in influenza viruses are caused by
random packaging or single stranded RNA genome segments during a coinfection with two types of influenza viruses
123
Which influenza virus protein mediates adsorption of the virus onto a host epithelial cell surface?
hemagluttinen
124
What naked capsid viruses can cause an aseptic meningitis OR vesicles/ulcers on the tonsils and palate OR
pleurodynia, depending on the subtype?
coxsackie virus
125
What flavivirus is transmitted by mosquitos from person-to-person and from monkeys-to-humans and causes jaundice in severe cases
yellow fever virus
126
Which virus can cause worse disease symptoms when a person has partial immunity from a prior exposure to the virus
dengue virus
127
Which of the following choices is true?
togaviruses have an envelope
128
What virus is responsible for about 30% of cases of the “common cold” but also has variants that cause the life-threatening illness called severe acute respiratory syndrome?
coronavirus
129
Which virus is not spread mainly by respiratory transmission?
coxsackievirus
130
What does the term lysogeny mean?
the integration of the bacteriophage genome into the bacterial genome
131
What is true about rhinoviruses?
can directly translate viral RNA upon entry into a new host cell
132
What is an enveloped virus composed of?
nucleoplamsid plus membrane plus glycoproteins
133
What is true about influenza viruses?
require a viral RNA polymerase to be packaged inot viral particles
134
When performing controlled viral infections in tissue culture (with a defined number of viral particles (virions)),
what is the first phase of the infection process called?
adsorption
135
What is an example of a cellular function supplied by a viral genome integrated into the human cell genome?
syncytin-1 for placental fusion
