Thurs July 2 Flashcards

(73 cards)

1
Q

If someone has a rapid ventricular rate, where should the radiofrequency ablation occur?

A

at the AV node

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2
Q

where ist he AV node?

A

endocardial surface of the right atrium, near the insertion of the septal leaflet of the tricuspid valve and the orfice of the coronary sinus

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3
Q

where should radioablation occur with atrial flutter?

A

between the tricuspid valve and IVC opening

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4
Q

where should radioablation occur with an abberant current leading to afib?

A

left atrium near the pulmonary veins

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5
Q

what class of antiarythmic is amiodarine?

A

class III

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6
Q

how do class III antiarythmics work?

A

They block K channels, prolonging phase 3 (repolariztiation)

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7
Q

which antiarythmic has little risk of causing torsades de pointes?

A

amiodarone

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8
Q

which enzyme converts glucose to sorbitol?

A

aldose reductase

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9
Q

why does sorbitol formation lead to oxidative stress?

A

the conversion of glucose to sorbitol requires NADPH, depleting it -> ox stress

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10
Q

how do B2 receptors effect potassium?

A

they cause an intracellular shift of K

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11
Q

gram stain of actinomyces

A

gram + bacillia, filamentous and branching

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12
Q

actinomyces is associated with which procedures?

A

dental extraction

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13
Q

oxygen preferance of actinomyces?

A

facultative/strict anearobe

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14
Q

what might you find in an infection with actinomyces?

A

Draining sinus tracts and sulfur granules

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15
Q

would an infection with actinomyces be painful?

A

not usually

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16
Q

are varicose veins usually in the superficial or deep veins?

A

SUPERFICIAL

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17
Q

the activation of which system increases endothelin release?

A

renin angiotensin aldosterone system

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18
Q

how would lobar consolidation effect tactile fremitus and breath sounds?

A

increased tactile fremitis and intensity of breath sounds since sound travels better in fluid than air

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19
Q

what type of shock does anaphylaxis cause?

A

Distributive shock - massive peripheral vasodilation from inflammatory mediators

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20
Q

what is methylnaltrexone?

A

A peripheral u-opioid antagonist that does not cross the BBB - can treat constipation

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21
Q

does methylnaltrexone cross the BBB?

A

no

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22
Q

is methylnaltrexone the first option for opioid induced constipation?

A

NO -give laxative first. If constipation is refractory, give methylnaltrexone

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23
Q

what types of polyps in the intestine are neoplastic?

A

serrated and adenomatous

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24
Q

Are adenomatous polyps that are tubular or villous more neoplastic?

A

VILLOUS

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25
how should you pharmacologically treat a patient with low HDL?
As raising HDL is not associated with improved outcomes, you should focus on lowering LDL cholesterol - via HMG-coa reductase inhibitors
26
does niacin improve cardiovascular outcomes?
No | It does raise HDL, but raising HDL is not associated with improved outcomes
27
Sevelamer MOA
binds phosphorous in the intestine and leads to reduced absorption
28
Sevelamer USE
high phosphate caused by kidney disease that was not improved by dietary restriction
29
which liver cells are responsible for fibrosis?
Stellate cells - activated stellate cells transform to myofibroblasts which proliferate, induce chemotaxis and lay down collagen
30
which enzyme do H pylori bacteria produce?
urease - splits urea into ammonia and CO2
31
why is urease important for H pylori survival?
the production of ammonia lowers the pH and allows for survival in the stomach
32
what causes atresia of the duodenum?
failure to recanulize at 8-10 weeks gestatino
33
what causes atresia of the jejunum/ileum ?
vascular occlusion in utero
34
how will an atresia caused by vascular occlusion look on imaging?
'apple peel' sign -blind pouch followed by a spiral configuration
35
what causes hirschsprung disease?
failure of neural crest cells to migrate
36
What is hirschsprung disease associated with?
Down syndrome
37
methanol metabolites can lead to
blindness
38
Ribosomes attached to the RER usually make which types of proteins?
secreted proteins, membrane proteins, and proteins for within the lysosome, golgi, and ER
39
Free ribosomes mostly make which type of proteins?
cystolic proteins
40
symptoms of digoxin toxicity?
YELLOW TINT and other vision changes, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, fatigue, confusion, weakness
41
how is digoxin metabolized?
renally
42
where is digoxin primarily stored in the body?
the muscles
43
what is the blood supply to the lesser curvature of the stomach?
right and left gastric arteries
44
what is the blood supply to the greater curvature of the stomach?
right and left gastric epiploic
45
what does the common hepatic artery split into?
proper hepatic, and Gastroduodenal arteries
46
where does the right gastric artery come off of?
the proper hepatic
47
what is adenomyosis?
the presence of endometrial glandular tissue in the myometrium
48
how will someone with adenomyosis present?
uniformly enlarged uterus with normal tissue biopsy | -may present with heavy bleeding or abnormal bleeding
49
what is chlordiazepoxide?
a benzo
50
carbemazapine MOA
Na channel blocker
51
what family does measles belong to?
paramyxoviridea
52
what is the polarity and genetic type of measles?
- sense RNA
53
how does desmopressin help to treat von willibrand disease?
it induces the release of vWF from endothelial cells
54
vWF factor stabliziles which coag factor?
VIII - they circulate bound together
55
a small cavitary lesion in concordence with stroke symptoms is likely a ...
lacunar infart
56
where do lacunar infarcts usually effect?
small arterioles that supply deep brain structures
57
what is the function of hormone sensitive lipase?
catalyzes the mobilization of stored triglycerides into FFAs and glycerol in adipose tissue, in response to glucagon, catecholamines, ACTH
58
what do cells infected with viruses produce?
interferons alpha and beta
59
what does IFN alpha and beta bind to?
IFN I receptors on neighbouring cells and their own cels
60
what does the binding of IFN I receptor result in intracellularly?
transcription of antiviral enzymes that can halt protein synthesis such as RNase. They only become active in the presence of dsRNA (viral replication),
61
during which step of the TCA cycle is GTP synthesized?
the conversion of succinyl-coa to succinate
62
what is the only part of the respiratory tract that has stratified squamous epithelium?
The true vocal chords (these face a lot of friction and thus need squamous stratified epithelium)
63
which part of the respiratory tract may HPV infect?
the true vocal cords - stratified squamous
64
in which schizophrenic patients is the drug clozapine particularly useful?
Treatment resistant schizophrenia | Schizophrenia with suicidality
65
is clozapine a first or second generation antipsychotic?
second gen
66
Adverse effects of clozapine?
Agranulocytosis Seizures Metabolic dysfunction Myocarditis
67
Patients with congestive heart failure who are given mannitol are at risk for?
pulmonary edema
68
what percent of means would lie within one standard deviation?
68%
69
what percent of means would lie within two standard deviations?
95%
70
what percent of means would lie within three standard deviations?
99.7
71
what is the most posterior chamber of the heart?
left atrium
72
which chamber of the heart lies directly infront of the esophagus?
left atrium. Enlargment -> dysphagia
73
how far down do the lungs go?
Anteriorly: 6th rib Posteriorly: 10thrib