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year 1/2 > Elimination & Detox 2: Group Presentation Qs > Flashcards

Elimination & Detox 2: Group Presentation Qs Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following correctly matches the plant & its toxin (plant - toxin) that corresponds to enzootic hematuria in cattle?
* Tiger lily - cardiac glycoside
* Tiger lily - ptaquiloside (pta)
* Bracken fern - ptaquiloside (pta)
* Bracken fern - tartaric acid

A

BRACKEN FERN - PTAQUILOSIDE (pta)

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2
Q

What gross lesions are associated with enzootic hematuria in cattle?
* Neoplasms of the urinary bladder
* Atrophy of the bladder wall
* Extramural neoplasms compressing the urethra
* Ureteral stricture from chronic inflammation

A

NEOPLASMS OF THE URINARY BLADDER

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3
Q

In which part of the kidney does melamine toxicity affect?
A) Glomerulus
B) Interstitium
C) Tubules
D) Arterioles

A

C = TUBULES

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4
Q

What is the primary physiological cause of melamine nephrotoxicity?
A) Stones caused by melamine concentration
B) Acute tubulitis
C) Melamine and cyanuric acid crystals
D) Glomerular necrosis

A

C = MELAMINE & CYANURIC ACID CRYSTALS

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5
Q

A 4 year old MC Cairn terrier comes into your clinic with a 2 week history of vomiting and diarrhea and some other non-specific signs. Based on your exam, the history, and some initial diagnostics, you are worried about a liver problem. What is the BEST way to differentiate between microvascular dysplasia and portosystemic shunts?
● CBC/Chem
● Urinalysis
● Protein C analysis
● Abdominal radiograph

A

PROTEIN C ANALYSIS

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6
Q

What comorbidity is commonly seen alongside microvascular dysplasia?
● Portosystemic shunt
● Chronic kidney disease
● Pancreatitis
● Congestive heart failure

A

PORTOSYSTEMIC SHUNT

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7
Q

Which of the following is the preferred diagnostic tool for portal vein thrombosis (PVT)?
A. PT/PTT
B. Abdominal Radiographs
C. CTangiography
D. Doppler Ultrasound

A

C = CT ANGIOGRAPHY

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8
Q

Which of the following clinical findings most commonly support the diagnosis of an acute PVT (vs chronic)?
A. Signs of hypovolemic shock
B. Inappetance
C. Ascites
D. Elevated hepatic leakage enzymes

A

A = SIGNS OF HYPOVOLEMIC SHOCK

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9
Q

What is the mechanism of toxicity of Phenobarbital?
A) Reduced prostaglandin synthesis leading to reduced renal blood flow and tubular
necrosis in the kidneys

B) Induction of cytochrome P450 mediated oxidation in the liver when glucuronidation
and sulfation pathways are saturated, leading to the production of N-acetyl-p-
benzoquinone imine (a toxic metabolite)

C) Induces Cytochrome P450 enzymes causing accelerated metabolism of other
drugs, dietary components, or environmental toxins leading to secondary
hepatotoxicity

D) Increases renal calcium and phosphorus reabsorption in distal tubule, leading to
hypercalcemia and hyperphosphatemia, therefore increasing risk for soft tissue
mineralization

A

C = INDUCES CYTOCHROME P450

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10
Q

Is Phenobarbital toxicity idiosyncratic or dose-dependent?
A) Idiosyncratic
B) Dose-dependent
C) It has qualities of both idiosyncratic and dose-dependent toxicity
D) Neither idiosyncratic nor dose-dependent

A

C = IT HAS QUALITIES OF BOTH IDIOSYNCRATIC & DOSE-DEPENDENT

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11
Q

What is the main mechanism of action for aminoglycoside nephrotoxicity?
i. Crystal Formation in the collecting tubules.
ii. Renal tubule toxicity.
iii. Decrease in GFR
iv. Decrease in renal blood flow leading to ischemia

A

II = RENAL TUBULE TOXICITY

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12
Q

Which of the following would you not give to a dog who is prescribed Amphotericin B to decrease the risk for AKI?
i. Prophylaxis IV fluids
ii. Lipid preparation of Amphotericin B
iii. Combination therapy
iv. Supplemental amino acids

A

IV = SUPPLEMENTAL AMINO ACIDS

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13
Q

Which region of the hepatic lobule is first affected by chronic passive congestion (nutmeg liver)?
a) Periportal
b) Midzonal
c) Centrilobular
d) Entire hepatic lobule

A

C = CENTRILOBULAR

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14
Q

Which of the following is NOT a part of the pathologic changes seen in nutmeg liver?
a) Hepatocellular death
b) Blood pooling in sinusoids
c) Fibrosis
d) Microhepatica

A

D = MICROHEPATICA

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15
Q

Which of the following trace minerals prevent dietary copper absorption in sheep and by what mechanism?

-Cobalt, forms thiomolybdate complexes that bind to copper and prevents absorption

-Manganese, binds copper directly and prevents absorption

-Molybdenum, forms thiomolybdate complexes that bind to copper and prevents absorption

-Iodine, binds copper directly and prevents absorption

A

MOLYBDENUM that forms THIOMBOLYBDATE COMPLEXES

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16
Q

Which of the following is NOT a viable treatment option for copper toxicity in sheep?

  • Ammonium tetrathiomolybdate to reduce copper absorption
  • Zinc acetate to reduce copper absorption
  • Penicillamine to increase copper excretion
  • Vitamin C to increase copper excretion
A

VITAMIN C TO INCREASE COPPER EXCRETION

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17
Q

Which area of the renal system is primarily affected by familial fanconi syndrome?
a. Glomerulus
b. Proximal renal tubules
c. Distal renal tubules
d. Renal interstitium

A

B = PROXIMAL RENAL TUBULES

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18
Q

Concerned about IRH, which of the following tests would definitively diagnose Greta?

A) X-ray
B) CT
C) Ultrasound
D) Cystoscopy

A

D = CYSTOSCOPY

19
Q

Cystoscopy revealed two blood tinged urine jets at the Ureterovesical Junction confirming IRH. Based on the overall disease course which of the following is TRUE concerning Greta’s treatment plan?

a. The condition typically resolves spontaneously without intervention.

b. Conservative management with antibiotics is the most effective treatment.

c. Surgical intervention may be necessary in severe or refractory cases.

d. Idiopathic Renal Hematuria is always fatal in dogs.

A

C = SURGICAL INTERVENTION MAY BE NECESSARY

20
Q

what are the TOXIC COMPOUNDS in RED MAPLE LEAVES?

A) gallic acid & pyrogallol
B) tartaric acid
C) oxalic acid
D) alflatoxin B1

A

A) GALLIC ACID & PYROGALLOL

21
Q

which of the following is NOT a result of INGESTING TOXIC MAPLE LEAVES?

A) laminitis
B) AKI
C) hepatic insufficiency
D) methemoglobinemia

A

C) HEPATIC INSUFFICIENCY

22
Q

What is the underlying agent of Sterile Hemorrhagic Cystitis, and what is its toxic metabolite?

A. Hydroxylating agents (such as Flavin); Butryate

B. Alkylating agents (such as cyclophosphamide); Acrolein

C. Acetylating agents (such as Salicylic Acid); Acetic Acid

D. Chlorinating agents (such as Benzene); Chlorobenzene

A

B = ALKYLATING AGENTS; ACROLEIN

23
Q

What drug can be given prophylactically to mitigate the adverse effects of the causative agent of Sterile Hemorrhagic Cystitis?

A. Macrolide Antibiotic (Erythromycin)
B. ACE-inhibitor (Enalapril)
C. 𝛼2 Agonist (Phenylephrine)
D. Loop Diuretic (Furosemide)

A

D = LOOP DIURETIC (FUROSEMIDE)

24
Q

What domestic species is the most common definitive host for Dioctophyma renale?
○ Horses
○ Cats
○ Swine
○ Dogs

A

DOGS

25
Q

Dioctophyma renale is transmitted to the definitive host via which of the following pathways?
○ Ingestion of snails, a paratenic host
○ The bite of a mosquito, an intermediate host
○ Ingestion of fish and amphibians, paratenic hosts
○ Ingestion of annelids, an incidental host

A

INGESTION OF FISH & AMPHIBIANS, PARATENIC HOSTS

26
Q

What would be expected for the color of urine after being spun down in a horse with myoglobinuric nephrosis? What about CK values?
a. Urine will be red after being spun down, low CK
b. Urine will be clear after being spun down, elevated CK
c. Urine will be red after being spun down, normal CK
d. Urine will be red after being spun down, elevated CK

A

D = urine is RED after being spun down, ELEVATED CK

27
Q

Which of the following is a common cause of myoglobinuric nephrosis in horses?
a. Ureteral damage
b. Exertional rhabdomyolysis
c. Elevated renal blood flow
d. Monensin toxicity

A

B = EXERTIONAL RHABDOMYOLYSIS

28
Q

You have a 6 month old male castrated mixed breed dog with urinary signs, abdominal enlargement and
pain, as well as a chronic history of anorexia, weight loss, and vomiting Your top differential is nephroblastoma, which method could you use to make a definitive diagnosis?

a) Ultrasound showing mixed echogenicity and disruption of renal architecture.

b) Radiographs showing unilateral renomegaly.

c) Histopathology via ultrasound guided needle core biopsy or nephrectomy showing specific mixed cell population.

d) Urinalysis showing hematuria and proteinuria.

A

C = HISTOPATHOLOGY VIA US NEEDLE CORE BIOPSY & NEPHRECTOMY

29
Q

You want to check a dog with nephroblastoma for metastasis, which are the common sites you would like to check?
a) Liver and lungs
b) Spleen and bone
c) Skin and lymph nodes
d) Bladder and peritoneum

A

A = LIVER & LUNGS

30
Q

Which of the following is a common clinical sign of patent urachus in a ffected animals?

a) Sudden onset of fever
b) Intermittent vomiting
c) Continuous urinary incontinence/dribbling of urine
d) Decreased appetite

A

C = CONTINUOUS URINARY INCONTINENCE/DRIBBLING URINE

31
Q

Which of the following is NOT a potential complication of a patent urachus?
a) Pneumonia
b) Septicemia
c) Abscess formation
d) Bladder stones

A

D = BLADDER STONES

32
Q

Which of the following indicate hallmark clinical signs of Shar-Pei fever?

a) Recurrent seizures, ataxia, swollen joints

b) Recurrent fever episodes, swollen hocks and muzzle

c) Fever, coughing, green purulent discharge from eyes and nose

d) Incessant pruritus, red discoloration of fur around paws

A

B = RECURRENT FEVER EPISODES, SWOLLEN HOCKS & MUZZLE

33
Q

What is the cause of PLN in dogs with Shar-Pei Fever?

a) Glomerulosclerosis

b) Glomerulonephritis~ associated with infection

c) Amyloidosis

d) Neoplasia

A

C = AMYLOIDOSIS

34
Q

What is the ETIOLOGIC AGENT that causes SLEEPY FOAL DISEASE?

a. Equine Herpesvirus-1 (EHV-1)
b. Actinobacillus equuli subsp. Equuli
c. Strongyloides westeri
d. Equine Arteritis Virus (EAV)

A

B = ACTINOBACILLUS EQUULI

35
Q

What are the typical GROSS FINDINGS of the KIDNEY in SLEEPY FOAL DISEASE?

a. Large multifocal pyogranulomatous nodules

b. Small, fibrotic kidneys

c. Enlarged kidneys with visible renal calyces

d. Multifocal cortical microabscesses

A

D = MULTIFOCAL CORTICAL MICROABSCESSES

36
Q

What presentation is most likely to be associated with reflex dyssynergia?

A) A newborn male foal with a distended abdomen

B) A large breed male dog whose urine stream begins normal but then begins to dribble

C) A small breed female dog less than 1 year of age with recurrent urinary tract infections

D) A male cat who has been unsuccessful in producing urine for >12 hours and yowls while in the litter box

A

B = A large breed male dog whose urine stream begins normal but then begins to dribble

37
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosing reflex dyssynergia?

A) CBC/Chem/UA

B) Radiographs

C) Cystoscopy

D) None of the above→ diagnosis of exclusion

A

D = none of the above –> DIAGNOSIS OF EXCLUSION

38
Q

Which is the most common cause of encrusting cystitis?

A) E. coli

B) Salmonella

C) Candida albicans

D) Cornyebacterium

A

D = CORNYEBACTERIUM

39
Q

Which diagnostic exam can confirm encrusting cystitis?

A) CBC

B) Chem

C) Urinalysis

D) Urine Culture

A

D = URINE CULTURE

40
Q

Which of the following is NOT a clinical sign associated with polypoid cystitis?

A. Hematuria

B. Urinarytractinfection

C. Polyuria

D. Urethralobstruction

A

C = POLYURIA

41
Q

What part of the bladder affected by polypoid cystitis can NOT be resected with surgical treatment?

A. Apex

B. Body

C. Trigone

D. Detrusormuscle

A

C = TRIGONE

42
Q

What ultrasound finding would NOT lead to your diagnosis of pseudomembranous cystitis?

A. Intraluminal hypoechoic septa

B. Bladder thickening

C. Echogenic Sediment

D. Hyperechoic pericystic fat

A

A) = INTRALUMINAL HYPOECHOIC SEPTA

43
Q

Which of the following is a possible sequela AND predisposing factor of pseudomembranous cystitis?

A. Kidney disease

B. Ectopic ureter

C. UTI

D. Bladder obstruction

A

D) = BLADDER OBSTRUCTION

year 1/2 (139 decks)

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