BB Ch 36- Facilities Flashcards Preview

ACLAM study sets > BB Ch 36- Facilities > Flashcards

Flashcards in BB Ch 36- Facilities Deck (100)
Loading flashcards...

What does the acronym ASHRAE stand for?

American Society for Heating, Refrigeration, and Air Conditioning Engineers


Define biosecurity

All measures taken to detect, prevent, contain, and eradicate adventitious infections


What type of facility is operationally the most efficient

single story centralized facilities with direct access to ground level transportation


What is programming

The decision making phase that defines the scope of the building project. It is often the most challenging and most important part of the facility development process


What is the final product in the programming phase

a program document describing in detail what research will be housed in the facility and its support requirements


Approximately how much space should be set aside for animal facility space when designing a new building with biomedical laboratory space

Approximately 15% of total assignable square footage


Animal housing can be divided programmatically into what four catagories

conventional housing, quarantine, biocontainment, barrier


What is a barrier

A barrier, both physical and operational, is established around the animals to prevent introduction of unwanted adventitious agents that may adversely affect research, or alternatively, may be used to ensure containment when using hazardous agents. Can be established at cage, room, suite, or facility level.


The two commonly room configurations for rack installation is the library configuration and the corridor configuration. Compare and contrast.

Library- more efficient with respect to cage capacity. less productive for servicing since racks must be moved to access.
Corridor- Less efficient with capacity but easier to service since cages can be accessed without moving racks.


What is the most common cubicle size

4 feet deep by 6 feet wide


Describe the configuration of a room floor to the drain in a large animal room

The room floor should be sloped 3/16 inch per foot from a crown in the center of the floor to the floor trough on each side of the room. The bottom of the trough should slope a minimum of 1/4 inch to the foot toward a 6 inch diameter drain with a trap flush.


Describe the ratio of support space to animal housing space

Typically ranges between 30:70 and 70:30. The smaller the facility, the higher the percentage of space devoted to support.


Which two types of containment (hoods) are used for containment of volatile hazardous chemicals or select radioisotopes.

Chemical hoods (personnel protection only) or
Class II Type B2 (100% exhaust BSC) (personnel and product protection)


Disposable cages made of what plastic are useful for highly hazardous chemicals that cannot be easily deactivated?

disposable polystyrene or polyethelene cages


Carcasses with radionuclide have to wait how long before disposal?

Carcasses and waste has to decay for 10 half-lives before disposal into nonradioactive waste streams. Carcasses are held frozen, and caging and bedding are stored until they can be safely processed.


What imaging modality uses radio labeled isotopes?

Positron emission tomography (PET). Positron-emiting radioisotopes such as F18 (T 1/2= 110 min) may require immediate access to cyclotron after administration


What special requirements are needed for MR scanners and why?

Scanner very heavy so require floor with high floor load. Room must be well ventilated to prevent potential for asphyxiation of animals and personnel associated with cryogen boil-off. Require O2 sensor in room.
Require shielding for magnet.


What imaging modalities do not have special requirements/considerations?

CT, SPECT, ultrasound, optical


Outlets in aquatic facilities require what special component?

Should be Ground Fault Interrupted (GFI) or connected to GFI circuit.


Define cleaning

Removal of organic and nonorganic debris adhering to surfaces


Define disinfection

Could be heat or chemical. Reduces but may not eliminate microorganisms for surfaces


Define sanitation

a combination of cleaning and disinfection


Define Sterilization

Eliminates all life forms. Used to indicate a high level of disinfection. Process should be validated on a regular basis.


What temperature is sanitation achieved? Who determined the standard?

National Sanitation Foundation (NSF). Sanitation is achieved at 82.2 C (180F).
Can be achieved at 82.2 C (180F) for 1 sec or
at 71.6 C (161F) for 15 sec or 61.7 C (143F) for 30 min.


What are the two basic types of washers

Cage/rack washer and tunnel washer


What is the temperature range of the autoclave

121-132 C (250-270 F)


What is the single most expensive component of a modern vivarium?

HVAC system


Intake air is filtered with what level of efficiency by the vivarium air handler filters?

85-95% dust spot efficiency


Define HEPA and what is their filtering capability

High Efficiency Particulate Air
99.97% efficient filtering 0.3 um diameter particles
They are more effective capturing particles smaller and larger than 0.3 um.


HEPA filter rely on what 3 mechanisms to achieve their stated efficiency?

interception, impaction, diffusion


What is a venturi valve and what does it do?

Also known as a Phoenix valve. Mechanical air valve.
Set to consistently supply or exhaust a preset airflow rate to create a differential pressure


What is the static pressure differential

maintained at between 0.02 inches and 0.08 inches of water column (WC) **MEMORIZE**
If excessive (>.25 inches WC), may be hard to open/close doors


In holding rooms with high density rodent housing, what is the most significant source of heat?

the animals


What are the air velocity rates in an animal room?

Air velocities should not exceed 0.25 m/s at an elevation of 1.8 M, especially when not using filter tops.


What are air velocities at the animal level in a IVC?

0.05 m/s is fairly standard at animal level


What is the single most important environmental parameter to be controlled?



What is the typical temperature set point of an animal holding room?

72-74 F. For nude/hairless, it should be 78-82 F.
Rabbits should have temp of 66-68 F.


Differences in phototoxic retinopathy among animals in the same room have been attributed to what?

rack position


What effect does continuous lighting have on rodents?

Continuous lighting has an overstimulating effect on reproduction, leading to cessation of cycling, permanent vaginal cornification, and development of excess ovarian follicles.


What has been used in lieu of red lights, what is the light spectra, and what is the benefit?

Sodium lamps emit light at 589 and 589.6 nm which is not detectable to mice but provide excellent visual acuity for humans.


Where on the light spectra is red light

650 nm. Mice and rats cannot see light from this end of the spectrum.


What the the audible range for rodents?

> 20kHz (ultrasound). They are incapable of hearing low frequency sounds (<0.2KHz - rat) and (<1 kHz- mouse)


Which mice are prone to audiogenic seizures

AKR, BALB/c, CBA, C57, and DBA/2
FVB can develop lethal epileptic syndrome induced by noise


What is the recommended noise level in an animal facility? Who determined the level?

Recommended noise level should not exceed 85 dB, a level equivalent to current 8-hr time weighted average established for human occupational health exposure.
NIH recommends designing and operating rodent holding rooms at or below (NC)-40 and not exceed NC-45.


How much can relative humidity differ between the macroenvironment and microenvironment, especially in static MI cages

Up to 38% greater in microenvironment


What component in the microenvironment is primarily affected by the relative humidity

Ammonia (NH3) concentration. The higher the humidity, the quicker the ammonia levels rise in the cage.


How is NH3 formed? When is it not a problem?

Formed by urease-producing bacteria or bedding containing urease-activating enzymes which convert urea into NH3.
NH3 is not a concern for axenic or gnotobiotic animals with flora devoid of urease-producing bacteria on autoclaved bedding.


What is the human exposure limit for NH3?

25 ppm 8-h TWA. Established by the American Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienists


Which bedding appears to be better for NH3 accumulation?

Corn cob bedding requires RH of 70% for NH3 accumulation while pine shavings requires RH of 50% before NH3 begins to accumulate.


What entity stated "inspired air should contain no more than 25 ppm of NH3"

Institute of Laboratory Animal Resources (ILAR)


What is the exposure limit for CO2?

5000 ppm as an 8h TWA (established by American Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienists)


What is the most common metal used for racks?

Stainless steel.


What type of plastic is typically used to produce disposible caging

Polyethylene terephthalate (PET) plastic


Dogs and cats cannot be housed on wire less than or equal to what size?

1/8 inch unless it is plastic or fiberglass coated


How large are the slat floor openings recommended to be for hoofed species?

1/2 inch


What should the intracage air speed be?

< 50 linear feet per minute (lfpm)
this rate would be considered to be still air in human environments and unlikely to cause appreciable physiological effects in most species


Air at 20C moving at 60lfpm has a cooling effect of how many degrees



How can ventilation rates be adjusted in most IVC's

adjusting exhaust and/or supply fan speeds or dampers


Mass air displacement (MAD) units for animal research are typically the Class 100 type. Describe.

Class 100 air is defined in the Federal Standard No. 209E as filtered air that contains no more than (100) 0.5-um particles or larger per cubic foot of air.
Negative flow units provide containment as they draw large quantities of air over animals, HEPA-filtering the exhaust effluent before its release into the environment.


Describe a Class I BSC

Provide personnel protection only. Their use in an animal facility is limited to bedding dump stations


Describe Class II BSC

Provide both product and personnel protection. Used for animal and material handling when BSL-2 and BSL=3 agents are used.
Two types- A and B.
Type A-Air is recirculated and may be released into macroenvironment or connected to exhaust through a thimble connection.
Type B- have a 100-lfpm face velocity and negative pressure plenums, hard ducted to building exhaust.
Type B2 is 100% exhausted so preferred with volatile chemicals


When used for containment of hazardous agents, what standard must BSCs meet?

must be certified to meet National Sanitation Foundation (NSF) International standard 49 upon installation, when they are moved, and at least annually


When are Class III cabinets used?

Highest level of containment. Suitable for BSL-3 and BSL-4 organisms.


Define open formula diet

Concentrations of all ingredients are publicly available.
Ex- NIH31 pelleted diet or NIH-07.
Know what you are getting with each batch


Define closed formula diet

Ingredients are listed but quantitative amounts for each is not publicly available. This allows ingredients to change with commodity prices. Proprietary formulations. Hard to track so hard to replicate.


Define purified diet

Formulated from refined ingredients.
Example is AIN-76.


Define chemically defined diet

Formulated with chemically pure compounds and are utilized when altering a specific nutritional dietary component


Define certified diet

Meet the requirements of the FDA GLP standards, requiring periodic feed analysis for environmental contaminants. Feed samples are analyzed and certified to contain not more than the established maximum level of environmental contaminants


Define fixed formula diet

the quantitative ingredient formulation does not change. May be open formula or closed formula. If open formula, when the formulation is changed to maintain nutrient composition, the change is disclosed.


What temperature and humidity should natural ingredient diets be stored at?

70F and relative humidity of less than 50%. Shelf life is limited to 180 days post milling. Special diets may have shorter shelf life (diets with Vitamin C that is not stabilized is only good for 3 months)


What is the benefit of irradiated diets? How are diets irradiated?

Not sterile but have much reduced bacterial and fungal loads and not subjected to the effects of heat and temperature from autoclaving.
Feed is irradiated by exposing it to a cobalt source and irradiating between 10 and 40Kgrey (1-4Mrad)
Irradiation ineffective against some viruses (ie-MPV)


What is the most commonly used contact bedding for mice?

Processed wood
Soft woods like pine and cedar are avoided due to volatile aromatic amines that alter hepatic microsomal enzyme concentrations.


What enrichment should be avoided in nude and hairless strains and why

cotton nesting material. Because those strains lack eyelashes, the fibers have been found in the conjunctival sac and induces conjunctivitis


Municipal water authorities routinely analyze water quality in compliance with what?

Safe Drinking Water Act, overseen by the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)


UV energy can be used to disinfect water and reduce total organic carbon. What is the spectrum needed for disinfection

UV-C is the disinfection spectrum is 100-280. Bactericidal rays at 254nm will provide disinfection.

Lamps must be replaced when emit light at
<30,000uw-s/cm2 (the minimum intesity adequate to destroy microorganisms)


Water is acidified to attain a pH between what range

2.5 and 3.0


Chlorine is added in what form and what concentration to be effective

Sodium hypochlorite
Most effective when pH is between 5 and 7
6-8 ppm is ideal concentration to eliminate P. aeruginosa and reduce the carriage of organism in infected mice


Chlorination of water containing organic matter results in the formation of what by-product



Bottle stoppers are available in a variety of materials. Name the two most common types in an animal facility

Siliconized rubber (black)
Synthetic neoprene (green). Neoprene stoppers are resistant to degradation from repetitive autoclaving


Describe the ideal disinfectant

broad spectrum; stable; not adversely affected by salts, organic material, pH, or the mineral content of the water used as a diluent; and not aromatic, corrosive, toxic, or irritating


Describe benefits and disadvantages of Quaternary Ammonium compounds

Most commonly employed broad-spectrum hard surface disinfectant
Effective against vegetative cells and have considerable detergent activity
Not compatible with soap and are inactivated by organic material


Describe the benefits and disadvantages of halogens

Widely used as disinfectants. Include chlorine, iodine, and bromine.
Chlorine is effective against all microorganisms including bacterial spores
Sodium hypochlorite (prepared from household bleach) is ideal as virucide and hard surface disinfectant
Chlorine dioxide more selective and more effective over a wider pH range and quicker acting. Chlorine dioxide remains a true gas dissolved in solution.
Microbicidal efficacy of chlorine dioxide and sodium hypochlorite decreases as temp decreases


What is the shelf life of chlorine dioxide

once prepared, limited shelf life, 2 weeks or less


How does humidity affect chlorine dioxide

it must be applied at a relative humidity greater than 60%, excessive humidity does not alter effectiveness


What are the benefits and disadvantages of alcohols

Usually prepared in 70-80% aqueous solution, limited usefulness. Slow in germicidal action. Not effective against viruses or spores.


When is Peracetic acid used?

sometimes used as a disinfectant when maintaining gnotobiotic isolators. Solution is sporicidal in the vapor phase.


What are the benefits and disadvantages of Vaporized Hydrogen Peroxide (VHP)

Low temperature sterilant
Compatible with most materials and can safely used to decontaminate electronic and electrical devices
Decomposes into water and oxygen, leaving no hazardous by-products
Effectiveness dependent on environmental moisture


What is thermal death of microorganisms

the combined effects of temperature and the length of time that the specific temperature is maintained.
Also known as the cumulative heat factor.


What is the level of exclusion

the level at which a physical/operational barrier is created between the animal and the environment.
Can be at the level of the cage, room, and/or facility


What is the most important piece of PPE employed in an animal research facility?

Gloves. Essential for protecting the wearer from various animal and environmental hazards


What are two types of hypersensitivities associated with latex allergies in humans

delayed hypersensitivity (Type IV)
and immediate hypersensitivity (Type I)
Approximately 8-12% of health care workers regularly exposed to latex are sensitized.


What is the primary aim of environmental enrichment?

To enhance animal well-being by providing animals with sensory and motor stimulation, through structures and resources that facilitate the expression of species-typical behaviors and promote psychological well-being through physical exercise, manipulative activities, and cognitive challenges according to species-specific characteristics." ILAR, 2011


What species is the provision of nesting material consistently recommended for?

Mice and rats


What is the benefit of nesting material for mice

female mice build nests for their offspring, whereas nonbreeding females and male mice build nests for temperature control, shelter from external disturbances, isolation from conspecifics, and/or excessive light intensity. Nesting material has been shown to decrease aggression in male mice and serves as compensation for social contact deprivation when housing males singly.


What entity published "Occupational Health and Safety in the Care and Use of Research Animals"

National Academy of Sciences


Who is responsible for ensuring personnel are trained?

Ultimately, the IACUC is responsible for ensuring that all personnel who support or use animals in research, teaching, or testing are adequately trained, and provides resources to aid institutions in meeting these requirements.


Who develops the disaster plan?

animal facility management, veterinary staff, institutional safety personnel, the IO, investigative staff, facilities maintenance staff with input from senior institutional leadership


What should the plan include?

identify leadership, essential personnel, procedures, communication, and strategies to be employed under conditions that disrupt routine operations


How often should the emergency plan be reviewed

reviewed and revised regularly, no less than annually


Who establishes the certification program for research technicians?

3 levels- ALAT, LAT, LATG
CMAR joint certification between AALAS and ICPM (Institute for Certified Professional Managers)