Function Tests/Therapeutic Drug Monitoring/Mycology/Microbiology Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in Function Tests/Therapeutic Drug Monitoring/Mycology/Microbiology Deck (242):
1

Why are organ function tests performed?

1) To ensure the organ is working correctly
2) To pinpoint a specific problem and treat the diagnosis properly
3) Incite an organ to demonstrate their ability to function
4) They help the clinician to diagnose by revealing abnormalities that are hidden or disguised in other clinical data

2

What causes icterus?

bilirubin

3

What organ is impaired when bilirubin is elevated?

liver

4

Top tube for plasma chemistrys anticoagulant. How long can you wait for it to be tested?

heparin, up to 12 hours

5

Why are enzymes low in blood?

because they are intracellular

6

What is Azotemia and what's the difference between uremia?

increase in BUN, uremia has clinical signs Azotemia does not

7

What 2 electrons are falsely elevated with hemalysis?

potassium and phosphorus

8

What enzyme hydrolysis's lipids?

lipase

9

2 enzymes associated with liver disease?

GGT, ALKP

10

Are the reference range values the same throughout the world? Why?

no, different climates and breeds throughout the world

11

the 2 parameters that determine reference ranges are ____ and ____

species and age

12

Why does ALKP appear elevated, but is not abnormal in young animals?

because it's in osteoblasts and osteoclasts

13

Why is it important to separate glucose?

it decreases 10% every hour

14

What enzyme is in striated muscle?

creatinine kinase

15

Sample for fibrinogen assay?

plasma

16

Calcium is inversely related to?

phosphorus

17

What sample uses arterial blood?

bicarbonate

18

What enzyme detects cholestasis?

ALKP

19

three categories/locations in elevated BUN.

prerenal, renal, postrenal

20

What's A:G and what does it indicate?

albumin to globulin, protein abnormality

21

If fresh feces is not used for a trypsin test what happens to the sample?

bacteria increases

22

Name 2 functions of an electrolyte.

1) acid-base regulation
2) maintenance of water balanace

23

What is glucagon responsible for and where is it produced?

elevates blood glucose, pancreas

24

Where do you find test protocols?

reference manual in the lab

25

Explain the two methods to measure Trypsin.

1) Test tube method: is performed by mixing fresh feces w/ a gelatin solution in a test tube.
The gelatin contains protein which reacts with trypsin and will catabolize the protein and the solution will stay homogenous.
If trypsin is absent, the solution becomes a gel.
2) The x-ray film test: uses the same principle but uses the gelatin coating on undeveloped x-ray film.
Fresh feces are mixed w/ bicarbonate soln to a slurry & a strip of undeveloped x-ray film is placed in the slurry. If trypsin is present in the feces, the gelatin coating will be removed from the x-ray film after rinsing w/ water. No change in the gelatin coating is an abnormal test-trypsin is NOT present in the sample.

26

For the following tests: know what organ is tested, what an abnormal result reveals or why the test is performed, any special requirements for sampling: Sulfobromophthalein (BSP) Clearance

1) Liver function test, BSP is a dye that when injected intravenously, is retrieved & conjugated by the liver, & excreted in the bile.
2) This is a sensitive hepatic function test especially useful for detecting chronic lesions in the liver & portosystemic shunts that do not cause leakage of the liver enzymes.
3) Perivascular dye injection causes major sloughing(seemingly delayed BSP clearance)
4) Also, poor hepatic perfusion (due to shock, heart failure, or dehydration), fever & ascites interferes w/ BSP clearance

27

BSP clearance time can be increased by what 2 things?

1) hypoalbuminemia
2) phenobarbital use

28

What is produced in GI tract by intestinal flora when amino acids and urea are broken down

ammonia

29

For the Ammonia Tolerance Test, what top tube us used for blood collection?

blood collected in ammonia-free heparin

30

T/F The traditional Ammonia Tolerance test is advantageous in that it does not cause or worsen neurologic signs.

true

31

For the following tests: know what organ is tested, what an abnormal result reveals or why the test is performed, any special requirements for sampling: Urine Protein/Creatinine Ratio

1) Used to determine amount & severity of protenuria, does not determine origin of proteinuria (kidney function test)
2) This ratio in healthy animals should be < 1

32

T/F Urine protein & urine creatinine in a single urine sample are quantitated & compared as an assessment of renal disease.

true

33

A urine P/C(protein/creatinie) ratio > 1 may indicate nephrotic syndrome (a combination of conditions such as persistent proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, ascites or edema, & hypercholesterolemia that occur secondary to other diseases such as glomerulonephritis, amyloidosis) & if > 10 indicates severe _________

glomerulonephritis

34

____ is a metabolic by-product of nitrogen catabolism and is found mainly in the liver

uric acid

35

With renal disease uric acid concentrations increase/decrease when the kidney has lost more than 70% of its functional capacity

increase

36

For the following tests: know what organ is tested, what an abnormal result reveals or why the test is performed, any special requirements for sampling: Creatinine Clearance

1) Clearance: volume of plasma cleared of a marker substance per unit of blood (kidney function test)
2) May be based on plasma & urine or only plasma
3) Endogenous: Degraded muscle or dietary creatinine, Natural trace of GFR-24hr urine sample serum sample taken approximately ½ way through the urine collection, 3 ml aliquot of urine used for testing, formula
4) Exogenous: Accurate measure of GFR-Creatinine sol’n administered SQ, Stomach tube passed and water = 3% of BW, Urinary catheter inserted and left in place, Bladder carefully emptied, rinsed with saline ~ 40 min post injection, Collect urine and serum @ specific time intervals, formula

37

For the following tests: know what organ is tested, what an abnormal result reveals or why the test is performed, any special requirements for sampling: Water Deprivation Test

1) PU/PD(polyuria/polydipsia) is a clinical sign of many different diseases, patient lacks azotemia, clinical evidence of dehydration & biochemical evidence of dz (kidney function test)
2) Must differeniate between nephrogenic vs neurogenic DI
3) Continued dilute urine indicates either a lack of endogenous ADH or unresponsive nephrons
ADH administered-Still no response-nephrogenic DI
4) Positive response to the ADH by concentrating its urine despite free access to water-neurogenic DI

38

Dehydrated patients run the risk of ______, leading to shock & death!

hypovolemia

39

Water Deprivation Test:
1) Continued dilute urine indicates either a lack of endogenous ADH or unresponsive nephrons
ADH administered-Still no response-____ DI
2)) Positive response to the ADH by concentrating its urine despite free access to water-____ DI

1) nephrogenic
2) neurogenic

40

Creatinine Clearance:
3) Degraded muscle or dietary creatinine, Natural trace of GFR-24hr urine sample serum sample taken approximately ½ way through the urine collection, 3 ml aliquot of urine used for testing, formula
4) Accurate measure of GFR-Creatinine sol’n administered SQ, Stomach tube passed and water = 3% of BW, Urinary catheter inserted and left in place, Bladder carefully emptied, rinsed with saline ~ 40 min post injection, Collect urine and serum @ specific time intervals, formula

1) Endogenous
2) Exogenous

41

List 2 contraindications for the Water Deprivation test?

1) Dehydration
3) Azotemia from known renal disease
3) Severe debilitation
4) hypovolemia

42

Stimuli (stress) causes hypothalamus to release ___, causes the pituitary gland to secrete ____

CRF(Corticotropin-releasing factor), ACTH(Adrenocorticotropic hormone)

43

Tumors involving the hypothalamus, pituitary, or adrenal gland(s) = cause excessive endogenous cortisol release known as _________.

hyperadrenocorticism

44

______ is the most common cause of exogenous cortisol excess (iatrogenic hyperadrenocorticism).

Glucocorticoid therapy

45

For the following tests what does it measure, what might cause artifactual results, why is it performed, advantages and disadvantages: Glucose (Glucose Curve)

1) The glucose curve is performed to regulate an animal on insulin
2) Serial blood glucose levels are obtained (usually every 2 hrs.) & plotted in a curve as the blood sugar decreases. This may be repeated for several days in a row, or sometimes the vet will have the owners take the pet home & administer the insulin for 1-2 weeks & then return for another glucose curve (it takes time for the animal’s body to acclimate to the type & amount of insulin chosen).
3) Ultimately, what is achieved by the glucose curve is to figure out the appropriate type, amount, & time interval of insulin administration for that patient

46

For the following tests what does it measure, what might cause artifactual results, why is it performed, advantages and disadvantages: Glucose (Glycosylated Hemoglobin) how is it abbreviated?

1) Ghgb
2) Binds to rbc’s, Life span 2-3 months
3) Particularly useful for diabetic Fe stressed by hospitalization & venipunctures
4) Values indicative of control
WNL= good control
Slightly increased = fair to good control
Very high levels = poor glycemic control

47

1) Result from irreversible nonenzymatic insulin-independent binding of glucose to serum proteins.
2) Marker of mean glucose concentration of life span of protein which may vary from 1-3 weeks.
3) Directly related to amount of glucose, not affected by acute increases in BG (blood glucose)

Glucose (Fructosamine)

48

Ultimately, what is achieved by the glucose curve?

to figure out the appropriate type, amount, & time interval of insulin administration for that patient

49

For the following tests what does it measure, what might cause artifactual results, why is it performed, advantages and disadvantages: Adrenocorticol function (ACTH stimulation)

1) ACTH response test is a screening test to determine the condition of the adrenal gland.
2) Resting or baseline samples are collected & either ACTH gel or Cortrosyn is administered IM
Another sample is obtained after time (according to which drug is used & submitted for cortisol levels)

50

Adrenocorticol function (ACTH stimulation):
1) _____ adrenal glands will have exaggerated responses
2) ____ adrenal glands will have diminished responses
3) ____ gland can be Primary tumor or a tumor of the pituitary

1) Hyperplastic
2) Hypoplastic
3) Hyperplastic

51

For the following tests what does it measure, what might cause artifactual results, why is it performed, advantages and disadvantages: Adrenocorticol function (Low dose Dexamethasone suppression)

1) The dex suppression tests evaluate the adrenal glands using the adrenal feedback loop.
2) The low-dose test confirms or replaces the ACTH stimulation for Cushing’s disease (hyperadrenocorticism)

52

For the following tests what does it measure, what might cause artifactual results, why is it performed, advantages and disadvantages: Adrenocorticol function (High dose Dexamethasone suppression)

1) The dex suppression tests evaluate the adrenal glands using the adrenal feedback loop.
2) The high-dose test goes another step to differentiate (w/ 73% accuracy) pituitary from adrenal causes of Cushing’s.

53

Adrenocorticol function (Dexamethasone suppression):
1) The _____-dose test confirms or replaces the ACTH stimulation for Cushing’s disease (hyperadrenocorticism)
2) The ______-dose test goes another step to differentiate (w/ 73% accuracy) pituitary from adrenal causes of Cushing’s.

1) low
2) high

54

Combined High-Dose Dex Suppression and ACTH Stimulation:
-The combined high-dose dex/ACTH stim test simply saves a step but there is more room for error, so ____ is extremely crucial for accurate/interpretable results

timing

55

For the following tests what does it measure, what might cause artifactual results, why is it performed, advantages and disadvantages: Thyroid function (T3 and Free T4)

1) Serum T3/T4 Concentrations
2) Negative feedback inhibition regulates both TSH & TRH
3) T4 is converted to the more active T3 in tissues after being bound to protein
4) Free T4 (FT4) levels are less influenced by nonthyroidal diseases or drugs than total T4 concentrations

56

Hyperthyroidism occurs in ____ while hypothyroidism occurs in horses, cattle, swine, & ____.

older cats, middle aged dogs

57

Free T4 levels are less influenced by ____ diseases or drugs than total T4 concentrations.

nonthyroidal

58

T/F Many practitioners just assay T3/T4 or FT4 alone but normal values vary dramatically, so not as accurate as TRH & TSH tests

true

59

Small intestinal diease:
1) Protein-losing enteropathy (PLE)-
2) Non-protein losing-

1) maldigestion
2) malabsorptive syndrome

60

Malassimilation can be classified as _____ or ______

maldigestion or malabsoprtion

61

Maldigestion results from:
1) altered ____ secretion
2) decreased, or lack of, digestive _____ secreted by the pancreas &/or intestinal mucosa= ___

gastric, enzymes, EPI

62

The most common cause in dogs for maldigestion is?

EPI (exocrine pancreatic insufficiency)

63

Excess fat in stool is known as?

Steatorrhea

64

For a Steatorrhea Sudan III or IV is used for?

Pancreatic lipase deficiency

65

For a Steatorrhea Lugol's iodine 2% is used for?

Pancreatic amylase deficiency

66

Fecal Protease Test:
1) ALWAYS use ______ samples, and ____ if analysis is not immediate
2) Positive-
3) Negative-

1) fresh, freeze
2) Trypsin present
3) True pancreatic deficiency

67

Effective for evaluation of pancreatic exocrine insufficiency for cats & others

Fecal Proteolytic Activity

68

Gross Fecal Examination:

1) Steatorrhea
2) Melena or Hematochezia
3) Odor
4) Consistency

69

What tests are used to differentiate malabsorption from maldigestion, what kind of test is it?

Trypsin-Like Immunoreactivity (TLI), Folate and Cobalamine, serum

70

___ is the most accurate serum test for pancreatic digestive function & is a sensitive and specific test for exocrine pancreatic insufficiency (EPI) in dogs (not well developed for cats).

TLI

71

Serum Folate:
1) Folate is normally absorbed in the ____ small intestine
2) increased/decreased-Dz in proximal S, Certain drugs
3) Increased/decreased-Bacterial overgrowth
EPI with overgrowth of coexisting bacteria

1) proximal
2) decreased
3) increased

72

Folate is _____ and cobalamin _____ in both EPI and bacterial overgrowth

increased, decreased

73

Folate and cobalamine are increased/decreased in severe, diffuse SI dz and sometimes EPI.

decreased

74

What is Vitamin B12 called?

Cobalamine

75

Prothrombin Time (PT):1)
1) Prothrombin is a coagulation protein made by the liver in the presence of ____ (liver function test)
2) Only extensive ___ lesions are detected because the liver has a large reserve capacity for prothrombin synthesis.

1) vitamin K1
2) liver

76

A _______, which is the time from activation to clot formation, indicates coagulation factor insufficiency & possibly acute liver disease, liver necrosis, cirrhosis, or poor bile secretion (bile is needed for vitamin K absorption).

prolonged PT

77

PT is often used as a ____ test?

pre-biopsy screening test

78

________ most common preparations in VM

animal sources

79

What insulin is most similar to cat insulin? Dog?

Beef insulin, pork

80

List 2 instructions for owners with a diabetic pet on administering Insulin:

1) feed pet 30 mins prior to insulin
2) Gently roll bottle between the palms, do not shake
3) rotation of injection sites
4) only use insulin syringes once

81

Home Monitoring for Insulin:
1) what changes do you look for?
2) how often do you monitor?

1) Changes in appetite, attitude, body condition, PD/PU, urine glucose and ketones
2) Initially monitor daily (morning)

82

What are signs that an animal is going into hypoglycemic shock (insulin)? What should you do at home?

1) Nervousness, anxiety, vocalization, muscle tremors, ataxia, pupillary dilation
2) Apply Karo syrup, pancake syrup, 50% dextrose and transport immediately to clinic

83

Why is diet therapy important in feline diabetes management?

Diet change must accompany drugs because they are obligate carnivores

84

What is the single most important aspect of treating cat with Diabetes?

diet

85

The dose must be tailored to fit the _______ or physical state of the animal.

metabolism

86

Drugs metabolize at different rates. What effects the rate at which this happens?

Depends on the:
1) Properties of the drug
2) Route of administration
3) Physical & metabolic functions

87

_______ is the length of time from administration to when half of the drug is eliminated from the body.

half-life

88

What are the two methods for allergy testing?

1) Intradermal skin testing
2) Blood testing

89

What allergy test takes into account the allergy associated immunoglobulins (IgG & systemic & localized IgE)

skin (intradermal) testing

90

Which allergy tests measure only serum IgE?

blood tests

91

T/F Blood tests are not 100% accurate.

true

92

Food allergies can be tested using an ______ for over a 12 week period.

elimination diet

93

___ is caused by a lower than normal production of the hormone cortisol, by the adrenal glands.

Addison’s disease (hypoadrenocorticism)

94

____ is an overproduction of cortisol

Cushing's disease

95

This is a sensitive hepatic function test especially useful for detecting chronic lesions in the liver & portosystemic shunts that do not cause leakage of the liver enzymes.

BSP

96

The _____ is performed to regulate an animal on insulin.

glucose curve

97

Result from irreversible nonenzymatic insulin-independent binding of glucose to serum proteins.

Fructosamine

98

Directly related to amount of glucose, not affected by acute increases in BG (blood glucose)

Fructosamine

99

Particularly useful for diabetic Feline's stressed by hospitalization and venipunctures.

Ghgb

100

___ is a dye that when injected intravenously, is retrieved & conjugated by the liver, & excreted in the bile.

BSP Clearance (liver function test)

101

Volume of plasma cleared of a marker substance per unit of blood

Creatinine Clearance (kidney function test)

102

Agar is a chemical derived from _____ that solidifies into a jelly-like semisolid.

seaweed

103

Malissimulation results from?

maldigestion and malabsoprtion

104

T/F Feces is 3-4x lighter if an animal has malabsorption.

false-heavier

105

Two reasons why therapeutic drug monitoring drug assays are performed?

1) Initiation of drug therapy
2) If drug seems ineffective
3) If patient appears toxic
4) Routine annual or biannual assay

106

What organ dysfunction does the low dose suppression test test for?

adrenal gland

107

Why do you not continue the fat or lipid absorption test is the sample comes out turbid?

because its full of lipids already

108

Why do you not fast insulinoma patients?

because they may have hypoglycemia, can cause them to go into hypoglycemic shock

109

What stain is orange/red color and what's it used for? What color stains lipid and is why enzyme is lacking?

Sudan III or IV, steatorrhea, lipase

110

Why can a drug appear ineffective?

animal has built a tolerance to it

111

Why is it important to the patient to perform organ functioning tests?

to verify the organ is truly a dysfunction and not an artifact

112

Define melena.

black stool from an upper GI bleeding

113

Define hematochezia.

fresh blood in stool

114

What does not cause occult blood?

heartworm

115

What does TLI stand for?

Trypsin-Like Immunoreactivity

116

Why is the TLI test used for what organ is evaluated, what sample is used?

serum, pancreas

117

What metabolite of cholesterol is for liver function?

bile acids

118

What are 2 blood glucose tests that monitor glucose over a period of time?

Fructosamine, globulin

119

T/F ACTH is more accurate in cats than dogs.

false

120

Why do we use the glucose curve?

The glucose curve is performed to regulate an animal on insulin. Ultimately, what is achieved by the glucose curve is to figure out the appropriate type, amount, & time interval of insulin administration for that patient

121

_____ storage form
_____ nonprotein bound form
_____ active form

T4, Free T4, T3

122

What test is affected by cats who are stressed?

glucose

123

Most common cause of cushing's disease is?

iatrogenic corticoid steroid administration

124

What affects how a drug is absorbed?

Properties of the drug
Route of administration
Physical & metabolic functions

125

Why is it important to have a thorough history of a patient with altered thyroid values?

because drugs can cause it

126

Which accurate creatinine is most accurate?

Exogenous (known amount)

127

What are signs of hyopglycemia?

ataxia, weakness

128

What is short-bowel syndrome?

where the intestines have a reduced absorption rate

129

What two things are maldigestion caused by/

1) altered gastric secretion &
2) decreased, or lack of, digestive enzymes

130

Waste product breakdown of protein ____ can cause head pressing

ammonia

131

The glucose curve is performed to _____ an animal on insulin.

regulate

132

What two samples are needed for a creatinine clearance test?

serum, urine

133

Why would a doctor order a fecal occult test?

anemia without cause

134

What are the three allergies?

1) Atopy=inhalant/environmental
2) Flea Allergic Dermatitis-Reaction to the flea saliva
3) Food Allergy

135

Define peak and trough.

peak-drug levels peak in the blood post administration
trough-drug at its lowest level in the blood

136

The ratio of what two electrolytes are abnormal with Addison's?

potassium and sodium

137

How is diet changed in a diabetic cat? More proteins reason why?

Diet change must accompany drugs, Must change to high protein, low carbohydrate food if using oral agents- catkins diet

138

4 clinical signs of hyperthyroidism.

1) weight loss
2) increased appetite
3) restlessness
4) vomiting

139

What are some major organs effected by hyperthyroid other than the thyroid?

kidneys, heart

140

What determines the dosage interval?

half-life

141

Name a breed of dog that gets hypothryoid?

golden retreiver

142

Severe hyperglycemia is known as what kind of shock?

insulin shock

143

What hormone is responsible for concentrating urine?

ADH

144

The water deprivation test tests what organ?

kidneys

145

Three types of drugs that are monitoring therapeutically?

1) Anticonvulsants (Phenobarbital, Primidone, Potassium Bromide)
2) Hyper- and Hypothyroid Therapeutics (Thyroxine, Tapazole)
3) Cardiac Therapeutics (Digoxin)

146

What metabolite is elevated with elevated thyroid function?

cholestrol

147

What immunoglobins are tested for each allergy test?

Skin (intraderma) test-IgG & systemic & localized IgE
Blood test-serum IgE

148

If clients feed homecook diets what is the one important fact to explain?

supplementation

149

If a patient appears toxic from a proper dose of administration this can be due to?

liver failure

150

Describe how to do a gram stain.

1) heat fix slide
2) place slide on staining rack over sink
3) crystal violet solution poured (wait 30 seconds)
4) rinse off gently with water
5) pour the iodine stain on the smear (wait 30 seconds)
6) rinse gently with water
7) apply decolorizer until the purple is gone
8) rinse gently with water
9) basic fuschin or saffranin is poured on slide (wait 30 seconds)
10) rinse with water than let air dry (when dry use oil)

151

Where are agar's stored at after they are done being incubated?

the refrigerator at 5 degrees to 10 degrees away from the internal walls

152

Which agar plate can have hemolysis?

blood agar

153

For routine cultures, plates should be incubated for ______, with plates examined after _____.

48 hours, 18-24hours

154

What is a resistant organism? Susceptible?

not likely to respond to therapy with the drug, susceptible to ordinary doses of the antimicrobial

155

What is a Wood's lamp?

an ultraviolet light source that may be used to screen suspected lesions for dermatophytes

156

What growth phase of dermatophyte testing for wood's lamp does it become fluoresce?

early growing stage

157

Measuring the ________ around each of these disks will aid in choosing an appropriate concentration of medication to be given to the patient.

zones of inhibition

158

Multicellular fungi(mold) that form tubular filaments

=hyphae

159

Tangled mass of hyphae=

mycelium

160

T/F Molds are strictly anerobic.

false-aerobic

161

All molds are gram _____, and you use ______ stain to identify them.

positive, LCB (lactophenol cotton blue)

162

_____ are formed at the free end of the hyphae and arise in the form of long chains

Conidiospores

163

Conidiospores:
1) ______: Various shapes, Arise directly from hyphae
2) _____: Large, multicompartmented cells of various shapes, Orginate from conidiospores as singles, pairs or clusters

1) Microconidia
2) Macroconidia

164

Does yeast have hyphae? Chlorophyll?

no, no

165

Multicellular fungi(mold) that form tubular filaments

=hyphae

166

Tangled mass of hyphae=

mycelium

167

T/F Molds are strictly anerobic.

false-aerobic

168

All molds are gram _____, and you use ______ stain to identify them.

positive, LCB (lactophenol cotton blue)

169

_____ are formed at the free end of the hyphae and arise in the form of long chains

Conidiospores

170

Conidiospores:
1) ______: Various shapes, Arise directly from hyphae
2) _____: Large, multicompartmented cells of various shapes, Orginate from conidiospores as singles, pairs or clusters

1) Microconidia
2) Macroconidia

171

Does yeast have hyphae? Chlorophyll?

no, no

172

_____ requires Vit B to initiate growth.

yeast

173

T/F All yeast are gram positive?

true

174

T/F Saprophytes live on dead organic material and their Pathogenicity is accidental.

true

175

What are the four important Opportunistic Filamentous Fungi?

Mucor, Rhizopus, Absidia (Lesions granulomatous and ulcerative) and Aspergillus (One of most common infective agents Usually upper respiratory disease)

176

Involve species of fungi that are commensals in the animal’s body

Endogenous Infections

177

Directly or indirectly by contact with infected animals, fomites or lesions

Exogenous Infections

178

How can an animal get an exogenous infection?

1) Deposition of spores or infective material directly or indirectly onto the host
2) Inhalation of fungal spores
3) Ingestion of fungal spores

179

Do you clean the area with alcohol in order to obtain Dermatophytes? Why/why not? Iodine?

Lightly wiping area with alcohol may reduce bacterial and saprophytic fungal contamination, Iodine is not used as it may completely destroy dermatophytes

180

______ agar is most commonly used for dermatophytes and other types of fungi.

Sabouraud’s agar

181

What can cause false positives for wood's lamp?

False positive may be caused by Pseudomonas sp, scales, lint, sebum, dandruff, crusts and topical medications

182

Normally found on mucous membranes, and causes Zoonosis by inhalation which auses respiratory and CNS signs.

Candida albicans

183

Intoxication caused by ingestion of food contaminated

Mycotoxicoses

184

What are examples of Mycotoxicoses?

Aspergillus, Penicillium(species of Aspergillus)

185

Where is mycotoxicoses mainly found? What can cause this?

Main source= stored grains, influenced by high humidity, high ambient temperatures, contamination, damaged grains

186

Common inhabitant of rose thorns, Chronic infection characterized by SQ nodules involving the lymphatics.

Sporothrix schenckii (deep mycoses with potential zoonosis)

187

Dermatophytes are classified by habitat:
1) Anthropophilic-
2) Zoophilic-
3) Geophilic-

1) humans
2) animals
3) soil

188

With Cryptococcus neoformans, you use a stain capsule with ________

India Ink(zoonotic)

189

How does the culture agar used for dermatophytes work?

SAB agar + phenol red (indicator dye), + changes pH to alkaline (yellow to red)

190

Affects dog lungs, forms granulomatous lesions, leads to weight loss, ocular and nasal discharge, and is transmitted through inhalation of spores

Blastomyces(deep mycoses with potential zoonosis)

191

T/F Dermatophyte is a superficial mycoses.

true

192

What are the 3 host defenses of bacteria?

1) Physical: skin, mm
2) Chemical: acid pH, fatty acid secretions, lysosomes, complement, interferon
3) Biologic: attachment sites, normal flora, phagocytosis, inflammatory response

193

What species and genus of Dermatophyte is the most common cause of lesions?

Microsporum canis

194

Dermatophytes are classified by habitat:
1) Anthropophilic-
2) Zoophilic-
3) Geophilic-

1) humans
2) animals
3) soil

195

What is the name of the culture agar used for dermatophytes? (no initials)

SAB (Sabouraud) dextrose

196

How does the culture agar used for dermatophytes work?

SAB agar + phenol red (indicator dye), + changes pH to alkaline (yellow to red)

197

What scientist was the first to stain bacteria by adding certain dyes? What did he discover?

Robert Koch, Discovered M. tuberculosis & isolated Bacillus anthracis

198

What factors influence infection?


1) Tissue affinity
2) Portal of entry
3) Infective dose (# of organisms required to cause disease)

199

What are the 3 host defenses of bacteria?

1) Physical: skin, mm
2) Chemical: acid pH, fatty acid secretions, lysosomes, complement, interferon
3) Biologic: attachment sites, normal flora, phagocytosis, inflammatory response

200

What method is used to streak agars? Which letter is the isolated colony?

quadrant method, D

201

Why are the agars inoculated upside down?

Invert plates to ensure no moisture contamination

202

Gases:
1) _____ : grow in the absence or presence of free oxygen but must obtains oxygen from oxygen-containing compounds such as inorganic sulfates
2) _____: grow best at levels of oxygen less than that in air
3) _____: require 3-10% CO2

1) Facultative anerobes
2) Microaerophilic
3) Capnophilic

203

Aneorobes Survive exposure to air less than ___ minutes.

20

204

What are examples of bacteria that are anaerobes?

Fusobacterium
Clostridium

205

_____ from the bacteria, if present, cause hemolysis & will show signs of this on ____ agar.

Exotoxins, blood

206

What's the difference between alpha and beta hemolysis?

-alpha-is when there is partial destruction of RBC’s & hemoglobin & produces a greenish discoloration around the colonies on a blood agar plate.
-beta-is when there is complete destruction resulting in a clearing around the growth on a blood agar plate.

207

Increased carbohydrates and peptone, Slight inhibition of Salmonella and Shigella are for what agar?

Hektoen Enteric Agar

208

Why are negative(Eosin, Nigrosin) stains used?

Negative stains are applied to bacterial smears that are too delicate to withstand heat-fixing.

209

What does it mean for a bacteria to be invasive vs noninasive?

Invasive: invades tissues and produces toxins
Noninvasive: does not invade tissues but does produce potent toxins (tetanus, botulinum)

210

What stain is used to detect cells capable of producing an extracellular capsule, which can increase virulence in some microbes (such as the one causing anthrax & Strep pneumonia).

Capsule stain

211

Smallest free living cells between viruses and bacteria that grow on synthetic media because they are cell wall-free bacteria

Mycoplasma sp

212

Why was The Acid-fast stain invented?

used to detect cells capable of retaining a primary stain when treated w/ an acid alcohol.

213

What are some Acid-fast stain bacteria?

Primarily used to detect organisms from the genus Mycobacterium & Nocardia.

214

Testing for presence of enzyme to convert peroxide into oxygen and water, performed on all gm + bacteria

Catalse test

215

Blood agar supports growth of ____
MacConkey agar supports growth of ____

g+ & g-, g-

216

Antimicrobial susceptibility testing is done by what method? What agar is used?

Kirby-Bauer method, Mueller-Hinton agar

217

Where are eye swabs obtained?

conjunctival sac

218

Smallest free living cells between viruses and bacteria that grow on synthetic media because they are cell wall-free bacteria

Mycoplasma sp

219

Organism secreted in milk and feces of cattle-human disease outbreaks traced to contaminated milk, spiral shaped

Campylobacter (Vibrio)

220

When a mastitis test is done what do you screen for?

somatic cells

221

Most common mastitis test is?

California masititis test

222

______ spherical cells that are the causative agent of mastitis in animals.

Staphylococcus aureus

223

Antimicrobial susceptibility testing is done by what method? What agar is used?

Kirby-Bauer method, Mueller-Hinton agar

224

Where are eye swabs obtained?

conjunctival sac

225

California Mastitis test is a qualitative screening test that be used as a "cowside" test that is based on _____ formation when the test reagent reacts with ____ in the somatic cells.

gel, DNA

226

Organism secreted in milk and feces of cattle-human disease outbreaks traced to contaminated milk

Campylobacter (Vibrio)

227

Swab teats with 70% ethyl alcohol and sample two ____ then ____

near, far

228

Enzymes:
1) Coagulase-
2) Collagenase-
3) Hyaluronidase-
4) Lecithinase-

1) Causes coagulation of fibrinogen to fibrin
Fibrin coats the bacterial cell wall to escape phagocytosis
2) Breaks down muscle fibers
3) Breaks down HA in connective tissue, called the spreading factor
4) Lyses rbc’s

229

______ spherical cells that are the causative agent of mastitis in animals.

Staphylococcus aureus

230

List and describe the bacterial growth curve.

1) Lag: Time after inoculation where bacteria adjust to media & temperature, Period before constant growth rate occurs, Allows levels of enzymes &/or metabolic intermediates to reach concentrations for optimal growth
2) Logarithmic: Bacterial population is doubling at regular intervals, Constant rate of multiplication, Division >>>>> death, Biochemical & physiological characteristics most typical during this phase
3) Stationary: Due to exhaustion of nutrients &/or accumulation of toxic metabolites, growth rate levels off, Bacterial cells most resistant at this time
4) Death or decline: Number of cells dying>>>>>new cells produced, Conditions influencing are-Toxic metabolites and Depletion of nutrients
5) Dormant: Depends on type of bacteria, May perform one or more of following-Adapt to lower metabolic states, Form spores, Go to dormant phase, Usually few cells remain viable & will grow if placed into new media

231

Why is Mueller-Hinton agar used for antibiotic testing?

the chemical composition of the media does not interfere with the diffusion of the antimicrobials through the agar.

232

Basic nutrient media with extra nutrients added, such as blood, serum, or egg

Enriched media

233

Liquid media that favors the growth of a particular group of organisms

Enrichment media

234

Which enzyme lyses rbc’s?

Lecithinase

235

Enzymes:
1) Coagulase-
2) Collagenase-
3) Hyaluronidase-
4) Lecithinase-

1) Causes coagulation of fibrinogen to fibrin
Fibrin coats the bacterial cell wall to escape phagocytosis
2) Breaks down muscle fibers
3) Breaks down HA in connective tissue, called the spreading factor
4) Lyses rbc’s

236

What are the three main divisions of microbiology?

1) Bacteriology: study of bacteria
2) Virology: study of non-cellular organism’s
3) Mycology: study of fungi and molds

237

List and describe the bacterial growth curve.

1) Lag: Time after inoculation where bacteria adjust to media & temperature, Period before constant growth rate occurs, Allows levels of enzymes &/or metabolic intermediates to reach concentrations for optimal growth
2) Logarithmic: Bacterial population is doubling at regular intervals, Constant rate of multiplication, Division >>>>> death, Biochemical & physiological characteristics most typical during this phase
3) Stationary: Due to exhaustion of nutrients &/or accumulation of toxic metabolites, growth rate levels off, Bacterial cells most resistant at this time
4) Death or decline: Number of cells dying>>>>>new cells produced, Conditions influencing are-Toxic metabolites and Depletion of nutrients
5) Dormant: Depends on type of bacteria, May perform one or more of following-Adapt to lower metabolic states, Form spores, Go to dormant phase, Usually few cells remain viable & will grow if placed into new media

238

Coagulase causes coagulation of _____ to ____. Fibrin coats the bacterial cell wall to escape _____.

fibrinogen, fibrin, phagocytosis

239

Which enzyme breaks down muscle fibers?

Collagenase

240

Hyaluronidase breaks down HA in _____ tissue, called the ________.

connective, spreading factor

241

Which enzyme lyses rbc’s?

Lecithinase

242

What are the parts of the Bacterial growth curve?

1) Lag
2) Logarithmic
3) Stationary
4) Death or decline
5) Dormant