Lab Practical 2 Flashcards
1
Q
The _____ is a series of highly branched passage ways that conduct air to the structures for gas exchange.
A
Respiratory tract
2
Q
The _____ respiratory tract goes from the nose to the pharynx.
A
upper
3
Q
The ____ respiratory tract runs from the larynx to the alveoli.
A
lower
4
Q
The _____ of the lungs rest on the diaphragm.
A
base
5
Q
The ____ of the lungs is sightly superior and posterior to the clavicles.
A
apex
6
Q
The ____ of the lungs is on the mediastinal surface where bronchi, pulmonary vessels, and nerves enter.
A
hilum
7
Q
The ____ are organs composed of tiny air sacs (alveoli) where gas exchange occurs.
A
lungs
8
Q
Which lung is larger?
A
the right lung
9
Q
_____ pleura is the outer layer of the pleural membrane and lines the interior of the thoracic cavity and superior surface of the diaphragm.
A
Parietal
10
Q
____ pleura is the inner layer of pleural membrane that adheres to the lungs.
A
visceral
11
Q
_____ is the space between parietal and visceral membranes and is filled with serous fluid.
A
pleural cavity
12
Q
_____ is the air filled space within the skull that filters, warms, and moistens inhaled air.
A
nasal cavity
13
Q
______ is the bony processes that curl into the nasal cavity from the lateral walls creating passage ways _____ through the nasal cavity.
A
Nasal conchae
meatuses
14
Q
______ membrane line most of the respiratory tract.
A
mucous
15
Q
The mucous membrane is composed of what 5 things.
A
mucous epithelium basement membrane goblet cells lamina propria
16
Q
Lamina propria is composed of _____ connective tissue.
A
areolar CT
17
Q
Goblet cells secrete ______.
A
mucous
18
Q
_________ are air filled cavities within the skull bones surrounding the nasal cavity
A
paranasal sinueses
19
Q
______ is the passageway between the nasal cavity and larynx.
A
pharynx
20
Q
The three parts of the pharynx.
A
nasopharynx
oropharynx
laryngopharynx
21
Q
Oropharynx and laryngopharynx are lined with ______.
A
stratified squamous
22
Q
_____ is the cartilage framed enlargement at the top of the trachea which houses the vocal cords.
A
larynx
23
Q
The _____ is a flap like structure that closes when swallowing.
A
epiglottis
24
Q
The _____ within the larynx supports the vocal chords.
A
arytenoid cartilage
25
All larynx cartilages are ______ except the epiglottis which is made of ______ cartilage.
hyaline
| elastic
26
False vocal cords (________) are the upper folds that do not produce sound.
vestibular folds
27
True vocal cords (_______) are the lower folds that produce sound.
vocal folds
28
The ______ is the opening between the vocal folds.
rima glottidis
29
The _____ extends from the larynx downward, anterior to the esophagus, into the thoracic cavity.
trachea
30
The trachea branches into the _____.
right and left main bronchi
31
The trachea contains approximately 20 C shaped rings of _____.
hyaline cartilage
32
_____ contains pseudostratified columnar epithelium
mucosa
33
The _____ contains areolar tissue, blood vessels, nerve endings, serous and mucous glands, lymphatic tissue and cartilage.
submucosa
34
Adventitia is composed of _____.
elastic connective tissue
35
The ____ bronchioles are the smallest of air conducting tubes.
terminal
36
The ____ bronchioles are small branches off of terminal bronchioles that have alveoli in their walls.
respiratory
37
_____ are part of the respiratory bronchioles made only of alveoli.
alveoloar ducts
38
The _____ are teh terminal structures of respiratory tract where gases are exchanged with blood.
alveoli
39
Alveoli consist of _____ epithelium.
simple squamous
40
The epithelium gets progressively ____ moving from nose to alveoli.
thinner
41
Nasal cavity, sinuses, nasopharynx, inferior portion of larynx, main bronchi and lobar bronchi are lined with ______.
pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
42
Segmental bronchi, smaller bronchi, and large bronchioles
| are lined with ______.
simple ciliated columnar
43
Terminal and respiratory bronchioles are lined with ______.
simple ciliated cuboidal epithelium
44
Alveolar ducts and alveoli are made of _____.
simple squamous epithelium
45
______ are lined with simple cuboidal epithelium and contain smooth muscle.
bronchioles
46
_____ is the movement of air into the lungs.
inspiration
47
_____ and diaphragm muscles contract causing the expansion of the lungs. Air is pulled into the lungs
external intercostals
48
____ inspiration requires five musches.
forced
| i.e. pectoralis minor
49
____ is movement of air out of the lungs.
expiration
50
_____ and diaphragm relax allowing the lungs to recoil due to elastic fibers. Air is forced out of the lungs.
external intercostals
51
____ expiration requires five other muscles, which includes: internal intercostals, external obliques.
forced
52
_____ volumes measure volume of air exchanged with each inhalation and expiration
Respiratory volumes
53
_____ is a normal inhalation or exhalation. Normal for men and women?
Tidal volume
Male = 500 ml
Female 500 ml
54
______ is the amount of air forcibly inhaled after a normal tidal inhalation. Normal for men and women?
Inspiratory Reserve Volume
Male = 3000 ml
Female = 1900 ml
55
_____ is the amount of air forcibly exhaled after a normal tidal exhalation. Normal for men and women?
Expiratory Reserve Volume
Male = 1200 ml
Female 700 ml
56
____ is the amount of air still left in the lungs after the expiratory reserve volume is forced out. Normal for men and womens?
Residual Volume
Male = 1200 ml
Female = 1100 ml
57
_____ is the sum of two or more respiratory volumes.
respiratory capacties
58
Tidal Volume + Inspiratory Reserve Volume =
Inspiratory Capacity
Male = 3600 ml
Female 2400 ml
59
_____ is the max amount of air inhaled after a tidal exhalation.
inspiratory capacity
60
Expiratory Reserve Volume + Residual Volume =
Functional residual volume
Male = 2400 ml
Female = 1800 ml
61
______ is the volume of air remaining in lungs after a tidal exhalation.
Functional Residual Capacity
62
Inspiratory Reserve Volume + Expiratory Reserve Volume + Tidal Volume =
Vital Capacity
Male 4800 ml
Female 3100 ml
63
_____ is the total amount of exchangeable air with pulmonary ventilation.
vital capacity
64
Inspiratory Reserve Volume + Expiratory Reserve Volume + Tidal Volume + Residual Volume =
Total lung capacity
Male = 6000 ml
Female = 4200 ml
65
____ is the total amount of exchangeable air with pulmonary ventilation plus the air still remaining in the lungs after maximum exhalation.
total lung capacity
66
_____ filter blood of waste.
kidneys
67
____ transports liquid waste from kidneys to bladder (10 inches long)
ureters
68
____ is the muscular sac that stores up to 1 liter of urine.
urinary bladder
69
____ is how urine leaves the bladder and body.
urethra
70
____ are two symmetrical, bean shaped, reddish-brown organs
kidneys
71
The right kidney is about ___ lower than the left due to the liver.
2 cm
72
The kidney has a _____ made of dense irregular connective tissue.
fibrous capsule
73
In the kidney, the ___ is the concave medial border, where the renal aretery and vein, nerves and ureters connect to kidney.
hilum
74
The superior ends of the ureters expand to form a funnel shaped sac within the hilum called the ____.
renal pelvis
75
The renal pelvis branches into a few larger tubes called ____.
major calyces
| singular calyx
76
The major calyces branch into the smaller tubes called ____.
minor calyces
77
The two regions of the kidney.
renal medulla
| renal cortex
78
The nephrons are found in the ____.
renal cortex
79
The functional filtration units of the kidneys are called ____.
nephrons
80
Nephrons contain renal corpuscle and ___.
renal tubule
81
Urine formation starts in the ____.
glomerulus (renal corpuscle)
82
Blood enter the glomerulus through the _____ arteriole and exits through the ____ arteriole.
afferent arteriole
| efferent arteriole
83
Water and certain substances are filtered out of the glomerulus and into the ______.
glomerular capsule
84
The ____ is the visceral layer of the glomerular capsule is composed of ______ (octopus like cell that wraps around the glomerular capillaries)
glomerulus
| podocytes
85
Thin _____ allow filtrate leaving the capillary through the _____ into the capsular space.
filtration slits
| fenestrations
86
The juxtaglomerular apparatus is important to _____ regulation and filtrate formation.
blood pressure
87
The juxtaglomerular apparatus contains ____ cells and macula densa.
granular cell
88
____ cells are modified smooth muscle cells of the afferent arteriole.
granular cells
89
____ is modified epithelial cells in the DCT where it contacts the granular cells.
Macula densa
90
Filtrate travels through the _____ and into the nephron loop
proximal convoluted tubule
91
The ____ contains a descending and ascending limb
nephron loop
92
The nephron loop flows into the ______, which carries the urine to the collecting duct.
distal convoluted tubule
93
____ nephrons are renal corpuscles near the peripheral edge with a short nephron loop barely enters medulla.
cortical
94
____ nephrons are renal corpuscles near medullary border of cortex with a long nephron loop extending deep into the medulla.
juxtamedullary
95
The ureters have three tunics
mucosa
muscularis
adventitia
96
Muscularis is made of ___.
smooth muscle
97
The _____ of the ureter is formed by transitional epithelium and lamina propria.
mucosa
98
The four tunics of the urinary bladder.
mucosa
submucosa
muscularis
adventitia
99
In the urinary bladder the mucosa is made of ____.
transitional tissue
100
The submucosa of the urinary bladder is made of _____.
dense irregular CT
101
The muscularis of the urinary bladder is the ____ muscle.
detrusor
102
The urinary bladder contains a triangular area called the ____.
trigone
103
In the urinary bladder each corner of the trigone has openings; two where the ____ enter the bladder and one that extends down into the ___.
ureters
| urethra
104
The internal urethral sphincter is ____, smooth muscle.
involuntary
105
The external urethral sphincter is ____, skeletal muscle.
voluntary
106
The female urethra is ___ cm long and the male urethra is 19 cm long.
4cm
107
Urine is composed of ___% water and 5% solutes.
95%
108
The average daily volume of urine is ____ L, minimum of 0.5 L.
1-2 L
109
The pH of urine ranges from _____ and the average is a pH of 6.0
4.5 - 8.0
110
Normal specific gravity (density) of urine is ______.
1.003-1.035
111
A specific gravity below 1.010 indicates ____.
hydrated
112
A specific gravity above 1.020 indicates _____.
dehydrated
113
The color of urine can range from clear to dark yellow, dependent upon concentration of _____.
urobilin
114
____ of urine is due to bacteria, cellular material and proteins, crystalizations of salts, and vaginal secretions.
turbidity
115
Urinoid is the ___ of urine, ammonia smell if bacteria present, fruity if ketones from fatty acid metabolism present.
normal smell
116
A ____ is a rapid and simple assay that can reveal significant physiological problems.
urinalysis
117
A high pH could result in a person who has been vomiting excessively, a person with a urinary tract infection, or _____.
kidney failure
118
A low pH could result from diarrhea, ketoacidosis or ___.
starvation.
119
____ in the urine is not a normal occurrence and could indicate an infection, renal trauma, cancer, kidney stones, or be the result of several other causes.
blood
120
______ are not normally found in urine, and are generally associated with UTI
leukocytes
121
____ in urine is a good indicator that the patient has a UTI.
nitrates
122
____ is normally found in urine in low concentrations. Persistent higher concentrations of protein in urine can indicate kidney failure or other serious disease, but can also be caused by menstruation and vigorous exerices.
protein
123
____ is not a normal constituent of urine, as it is normally metabolized by the liver. Therefore the appearance in the urine can be an indicator of liver disease or bile duct obstruction.
billirubin
124
_____ are not normal constituents of urine, but can occur in patients who have experienced frequent vomiting, diarrhea, pregnancy, or have digestive distrubances. High levels are a good indicator of diabetic ketoacidosis.
ketones
125
_____ is not a normal constituent of urine and high levels indicate diabetes.
glucose
126
____ is normal up to 1 mg/dl, but elevated levers of urobilin can indicate liver disease or bile duct obstruction, but can be associated with UTIs.
urobilinogen
127
The ____ canal is a muscular tube about 30 feet in length that digests and absorbs food.
alimentary canal
128
_____ organs aid in the digestive functions.
accessory organs
129
GI tract wall is composed of 4 layers.
mucosa
submucosa
muscularis
serosa
130
The GI tract wall muscularis is composed of two layers of ___.
smooth muscle
131
The submuscosa of the GI tract wall is composed of areolar and ____.
dense irregular ct
132
The serosa is composed of ____.
areolar ct
133
The ____ initiates chemical and mechanical digestion.
oral cavity
134
The ____ is the area between the teeth/gums and lips
vestibule
135
The ___ is the roof of the mouth.
palate
136
The ___ is made of enamel and projects beyond the gums.
crown
137
The gums are called the ____.
gingiva
138
the ___ anchors the tooth to the jaw.
root
139
The tooth is held to jaw bones by ______.
periodontal ligaments
140
___ forms mass of tooth, similar to bone
dentin
141
____ is the connective tissue in the center of tooth.
pulp
142
The ___ gland is anterior/inferior to each ear and secretes amylase.
parotid
143
The ____ gland is on the floor of the mouth, inferior to tongue and secretes mucus.
sublingual
144
The parotid gland is made of ____ cells.
serous
145
The sublingual gland is made of ____ cells.
mucous
146
The _____ gland is on the floor of the mouth, inside the surface of lower jaw.
submandibular
147
The submandibular gland secretes ______ and is made of both serous and mucous cells.
salivary amylase
| mucous
148
The ______ is a ring of smooth muscle between pharynx and esophagus.
superior esophageal sphincter
149
_____ is a ring of smooth muscle between esophagus and stomach.
inferior esophageal sphincter
150
The mucosa of the esophageal walls is made of _____.
stratified squamous
151
The order of the small intestines in order from stomach to large intestines.
duodenum
jejunum
ileum
152
Largest part of small intestines
ileum
153
Smallest part of small intestines
duodenum
154
The ____ is the fan shaped folds of perioteneum that suspends jejunum and ileum from posterior abdominal wall.
messentery proper
155
_____ is a layer of fat that covers most of the abdominal organs.
Greater omentum
156
____ produces bile to emulsify fats.
liver
157
____ stores bile.
gallbladder
158
The _____ extends horizontally across the posterior abdominal wall (behind the stomach).
pancreas
159
The ____ secretes pancreatic juices for digestion and hormones to aide in endocrine function.
pancreas
160
The ____ lies next to sacrum and follows its curvature past the coccyx.
rectum
161
The ____ forms the last 2.5 - 4 cm of large intestines.
anal canal
162
The ____ is the opening of the anal canal , contains the internal (________) and external (_______) sphincters.
anus
involuntary
voluntary
163
The somatic cells contain ___ of chromosomes.
23 pairs = 46 chromosomes
164
There are __ pairs of autosomes.
22
165
____ contain genes that code for cellular functions as well as human characteristics (eye color, hair color, height).
autosomes
166
Chromosomes that contain the same genes are _____.
homologous
167
1 pair of _____ chromosomes. Girls are XX and boys are ____.
sex
| XY
168
Within each pair of chromosomes their is one chromosome from the ____ and 1 chromosome from the _____.
mother and father
169
Somatic cells replicate and divide through _____.
mitosis
170
____ cells have 23 pairs of chromosomes.
diploid cells
171
Phases of mitosis
```
interphase
prophase
metaphase
anaphase
telophase
2 identical daughter cells
```
172
Two nuclei reform poles
telophase
173
chromosomes align with their centromeres on the equator and attach to the spindle
metaphase
174
chromatids of each chromosome separate into daughter chromosomes and move to opposite poles
anaphase
175
dna replication
interphase
176
Sex cells replicate and divide through ____
meiosis
177
___ divides teh cells only once.
mitosis
178
___ divides teh cells twice.
meiosis
179
_____ produces 2 daughter cells that are genetically identical.
mitosis
180
_____ produces 4 daughter cells that are genetically different.
meiosis
181
_____ produces daughter cells that are diploid.
mitosis
182
_____ produces daughter cells that are haploid (contains 23 chromosomes)
meiosis
183
____ includes a process called crossing over where genetic material is exchanged between homologous chromosomes.
meiosis
184
In ___ the nucleus dissolves and replicated DNA condenses.
prophase
185
Chromosomes form a double line on either side of the equator instead of lining up on the equator in ____ during metaphase
meiosis
186
_____ is the random alignment of homologous chromosomes.
independent assortment
187
____ of meiosis II does not contain crossing over.
prophase
188
____ sister chromatids separated.
anaphase
189
_____ is the maturation of primary oocyte to a secondary oocyte.
oogenesis
190
Of the four daughter cells produced, only ___ fully matures.
one
191
______ production of sperm.
spermatogenesis
192
_____ is the transmission of genetic characteristics from parent to child.
heredity
193
_____ are discrete units of DNA that provide the instructions for the production of specific proteins.
genes
194
___ is the location of the gene on a strand of DNA
locus
195
____ are variants of one gene (you inherit a combination of two from your parents)
alleles
196
____ alleles are expressed while recessive alleles are masked.
dominant
197
____ alleles are only expressed if present on both homologous chromosomes.
recessive
198
If alleles are identical the individual is said to be ______.
homozygous
199
If alleles are not identical (a person contains both a dominant and a recessive allele for the same gene) the individual is said to be _____.
heterozygous
200
_____ is the box used to sort out the inheritance patterns.
punnet squares
201
If either the father of mother contains both dominant alleles there is a ____% chance the children will have brown eyes.
100%
202
______ is the genetic make up of an individual.
genotype
203
_____ is the physical expression of the genotype.
pheontype
204
______ is when the dominant allele is always expressed in the phenotype, regardless of whether the individual is homozygous or heterozygous for that trait. Not all inherited traits follow this simple pattern but instead involve the interaction of multiple genes
strict dominant recessive inheritance
205
_____ is when the phenotype of heterozygous alleles is intermediate between the homozygous dominant or recessive allele
incomplete dominance
206
_____ is when two or more alleles appear to be equally dominant.
codominant
207
______ is when a ~ phenotype of heterozygous alleles is intermediate between the homozygous dominant or recessive allele. It can have three phenotypes.
incomplete dominance
homozygous dominant
homozygous recessive
heterozygous
208
Sickle cell is an ____ dominant trait.
incomplete
209
Normal hemoglobin is represented by ____. Abnormal hemoglobin is represented by ___.
```
A
a
AA - normal erythrocytes
Aa - sickle cell carrier
aa - exhibit sickle cell anemia
```
210
____ is when two or more alleles appear to be equally dominant.
codominant
211
Blood types A and B are ____.
codominant
212
Blood type O is ____.
recessive
213
______ is when multiple genes interact to produce a phenotypic trait. Genes could be on same chromosome or on different chromosomes.
polygenic inheritance
214
_____ traits are expressed by genes on the X or Y chromosomes.
sex linked
215
X chromosomes contain ____ genes, most not involved in sex determination.
900-1400
216
Y chromosome contains ____ genes, most code for male specific development.
70-200
217
____ recessive traits always expressed in males, only expressed by females if recessive allele found on both X chromosomes. Females tend to be carriers if they have only one recessive allele.
x linked
218
sex linked trait punnet square
??
219
The environment can influence genetic traits, especially during _____ and _____ development.
embryonic and fetal
220
Radiation, drugs, virsuses or alcohol and potential cause harm to the fetus and interfere with its normal _____.
phenotypic development
221
______ is characterized by mental retardation and distinctive facial features.
fetal alcohol syndrome
222
Poor nutrition may also affect brain development and _____ after birth.
growth patterns.
