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Flashcards in Test 3 Missed Qs Deck (51):
0

Bronfenbrenner's model refers to the temporal dimension, or the role of the passage of time, as the __________.

Developmental #1

chronosystem

This model looks at systems from the microsystem (individual->immediate environment, e.g., other individuals), mesosystem (microsystem->immediate setting, e.g., school, home), and exosystem (social settings affecting individual but which do not include her/him, e.g., laws, religious values, economy). The chronosystem is the dynamism between these across time (e.g., birth of siblings, moving geographically, changing economy).

1

An individual characterized by a history of marital problems, substance abuse, delinquency or exhibiting acting out behaviors is most likely to score highest on which MMPI-2 clinical scales?

School/Intelligence #5

4 and 9

Scale 4 is Psychopathic Deviate; scale 9 is Hypomania. This code (4-9/9-4) is characteristic of persons with the above constellation of Sx.

2

The realization that gender is unaffected by superficial changes in appearance or activity is referred to as __________.

Developmental #6

gender constancy

Stages of gender concept development: g. identity, 9mos-3ys (ability to ID self and others as male or female); g. stability, by 4ys (g. does not change over time); g. constancy, by 5ys-6ys (g. does not change even if appearance does).

3

Prenatal alcohol exposure is most likely to adversely affect the fetus during the __________ trimester.

Developmental #7

first trimester

First trimester presents greatest chance of the structural and anatomical defects that are characteristic of Fetal Alcohol Syndrome. Second and third semester alcohol consumption is more likely to result in growth restriction and functional impairment.

5

Which of the following is least likely to cause secondary impotence?

medication, alcohol, diabetes mellitus, old age

Diagnosis and Psychopathology #8

old age

Erectile reflex is usually unimpaired in older men. Other choices are common causes of secondary impotence.

6

If a speaker with moderate to low credibility presents a well-stated argument in favor of a particular position, s/he can expect the greatest attitude change ________.

Social #9

as time passes.

Effectiveness of well-presented communication from low credibility sources tends to increase over time. People remember the message, but forget the source ("sleeper effect").

7

Is there a difference in the likelihood that prepubertal children versus adolescents will comply with a treatment regimen and, if so, what is it?

Developmental #11

Prepubertal children are more likely than adolescents to comply with a treatment regimen.

Adolescence is associated with a desire for independence and to fit in with peers, which can interfere with treatment compliance for chronic disease, e.g., diabetes.

8

An 11-month old is presented with a new toy and hesitates to approach it, but starts to play with it after seeing his mother smile and hearing her verbally encourage him/her. This is an example of ________.

Developmental #13

Social referencing.

This is an example of infants' use of emotional responses of others to determine how to respond to novel situations. The influence of the mere presence of mother begins at about 6 months; by 10 months, infants rely on mothers' faces. Cross-reference: Visual cliff experiments.

9

The director at the training agency where you supervise has promised two new interns that they will have plenty of testing experience as part of their training. In order to meet quota, you are under pressure to bill many hours. One intern has a great deal of previous testing experience and the other intern has very little. The majority of the testing cases are given to the more experienced intern and, as a result, this intern is given the majority of your time and attention. Is this situation ethical or unethical and why?

Ethics and Professional Practice #15

Ethical

The intern with less testing experience is receiving cases and training, just not the "majority." ("Plenty" is undefined.) It would be unethical to give the intern with little experience more testing than her/his competency would support (Standard 2.02(2): Delegation of Work to Others).

10

What are the typical age of onset and course of Sleep Terror Disorder?

Diagnosis and Psychopathology #17

Onset 4 to 12 years old, spontaneous remission during adolescence; episode frequency can vary over time. Among children it is somewhat more common in males than females.

11

In industrial settings, administration of a trainability test would be done for the purposes of determining whether the examinee _______.

I/O #18

is likely to do well on a job sample.

Trainability tests determine the suitability of employees for training, not jobs themselves. Job samples are likely to be part of a training session.

12

Confidence intervals calculate/estimate ________.

Research Design and Statistics #21

estimate true scores from obtained scores.

CIs determine the range within which an examinee's true score on a test is likely to fall, given his/her obtained score. Standard error of measurement is used to construct CIs.

13

In the multi-trait/multi-method matrix, a large heterotrait-monomethod coefficient would indicate ________.

Test Construction #23

low divergent validity.

MTMMMs assess a test's construct validity, correlating tests measuring the same and different traits using similar and different methods. A heterotrait-monomethod correlation reflects the relationship between similar tests measuring different traits, e.g., two self-report tests, one measuring anxiety and the other measuring depression. Divergent validity is the degree to which tests with similar methodology are uncorrelated across constructs, e.g., if the anxiety and depression self-report tests had a high correlation coefficient, they would have a low divergent validity.

14

If you find that your job selection measure yields too many false positives, _____ (raising/lowering) the predictor cutoff score and/or ______(raising/lowering) the criterion cutoff score would correct the problem.

Test Construction #25

raising the predictor and/or lowering the criterion

A false positive here is someone identified by the test as likely to be successful (predictor) but who turns out not to be (criterion). Raising the predictor cutoff helps ensure those who pass are qualified. Lowering the criterion score makes it easier to be judged as successful.

15

Who first used meta-analysis and coined the term?

Clinical #29

Gene Glass coined the term in 1976 and Smith & Glass (1977) first used the technique in psychotherapy outcome studies. Karl Pearson had developed a version in 1904, but Smith & Glass modified and popularized it.

16

Which theorist focused most strongly on experiential aspects of learning?

Developmental #33

Dewey's constructivist theory states that learning is the result of experiences and trying to make sense of them, with each learner individually and socially constructing meaning/knowledge for her/himself. Focus is on the learner; no knowledge is independent of meaning constructed/attributed by the learner.

17

You have been court-ordered to evaluate a prisoner who is being tried for murder. You explain to the prisoner the purpose of the evaluation and complete it. As you are packing up your testing materials, the prisoner smirks and says, "I agreed to this, but I didn't sign anything. You are out of luck, doctor." What is the appropriate response?

Ethics & Professional Practice #39

Complete the report and leave out the prisoner's comments.

The report was court ordered, so you were not required to obtain informed consent. The prisoner's comments are not included in the report because they are not relevant: even though you are not required to obtain informed consent, you still must act to guard confidentiality as much as possible.

18

A set of past graduate students are divided into two groups: those who completed their doctorates in 5 years or less and those who took longer. What statistical test would be appropriate to predict group membership based on undergraduate GPA and GRE scores?

Research Design & Statistics #42

Discriminant function analysis (DA) is used to determine which continuous variables discriminate between two or more naturally occurring groups. In this case, the IVs are the undergraduate GPAs and GRE scores, with group membership (=5yr completion) as the DV.

19

Describe the use of MANOVA.

Research Design & Statistics #42

Multivariate ANalysis Of VAriance is used to analyze the effects of one or more independent variables on two or more interval- or ratio-scale-measured dependent variables.

20

Describe the use of structural equation modeling.

Research Design & Statistics #42

SEM is used to evaluate or confirm cause-and-effect relationships between measured and latent variables.

21

Describe the use of cluster analysis.

Research Design & Statistics #42

A method for grouping objects of similar kind into respective categories; can discover structures in data, but does not provide explanation/interpretation.

22

List the achievements of Piaget's concrete operational stage.

Developmental #51

- reversibility
- decentration
- transitivity (ability to sort objects mentally)
- hierarchical classification

23

List the achievements of Piaget's sensorimotor stage.

Developmental #51

- deferred imitation
- object permanence

24

What is propositional thought and during which of Piaget's developmental stages does it arise?

Developmental #51

It is the ability to evaluate the logical validity of verbal assertions without having to use real-world examples; it develops during the formal operational stage.

25

Who's work identified the shift in perspective from "time from birth" to "time to death"?

Developmental #52

Neugarten (1968) studied adults ages 40-70 and found midlife is characterized by this shift. This followed the Kansas City Study that found people age ~50 experience a transition from active to passive mastery and from outer to inner world orientation.

26

In the multi-trait/multi-method matrix, a small heterotrait-heteromethod coefficient would indicate ________.

Test Construction #53

high divergent validity.

MTMMMs assess a test's construct validity, correlating tests measuring the same and different traits using similar and different methods. A heterotrait-heteromethod correlation reflects the relationship between dissimilar tests measuring different traits, e.g., WAIS-IV vocabulary subtests and the BDI. Since these are different tests measuring different constructs, the correlation between scores would be expected to be different.

27

Self-conscious emotions like pride, shame, or embarrassment begin to be seen in children between the ages of ________.

Developmental #55

18-24 months

It is this age when a child's sense of self arises, allowing self-conscious emotions to emerge.

28

Presbyopia, a common result of normal aging, is most likely to increase the near point from four inches at age 20 to _____ at age 60.

Neuropsychology #58

48 inches

29

What medication could be useful for reducing neuropathic pain?

Neuropsychology #61

Analgesics are the first-line treatments for neuropathic pain. However, tricyclics, such as amitriptaline (Elavil) have been found to be most effective in some cases of neuropathy and headache syndromes. SSRIs like fluoxetine (Prozac) have been effective for preventing headaches and migraines, but are less effective, as they lack analgesic properties. SNRIs, like atomoxetine, and neuroleptics, like olanzapine, are not effective with neuropathic pain.

30

If you want to test whether a weight training program resulted in significant changes in body weight and strength for a sample of body builders, what would be the best test to use?

Research Design & Statistics #62

MANOVA

Multivariate ANalysis Of VAriance is used to analyze the effects of one or more independent variables on two or more interval- or ratio-scale-measured dependent variables.

31

HIPAA applies to ________.

Ethics & Professional Practice #63

only those health care practitioners who transmit patient health information electronically

Heath Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 addresses only health plans, health care clearinghouses, providers, etc., or their employees who receive or transmit patient personal health information (PHI) electronically, e.g., via the Internet. Those who transmit PHI via mail, phone, or fax are not covered by HIPAA.

32

What part of the 2002 Ethical Principles of Psychologists and Code of Conduct "discusses the intent, organization, procedural considerations, and scope of the application of the Ethics Code"?

Ethics & Professional Practice #64

Introduction (only)

33

Low LPC leaders would be likely to say ________.

I/O #68

"The first one to hand in this budget report wins the office lottery pool."

Fiedler's 1971 contingency theory says a leader's effectiveness is determined by a combination of her/his style and the characteristics of the situation. Low LPC leaders are task and achievement oriented, thus the statement above. High LPC leaders are relationship oriented, and so might say "More beautiful paint colors in this office would make us all feel better" or "Flextime was a brilliant invention."

34

A major threat to the internal validity of a time-series quasi-experiment would be ________.

Research Design & Statistics #70

The co-occurrence with your experiment of a major historical event. Such an event could confound the measures of your across-time manipulation.

35

The APA's position on notification of partners of clients/patients with HIV/AIDS is consistent with its emphasis on ________.

Ethics & Professional Practice #76

confidentiality

Specifically, the APA recommends "a legal duty to protect third parties from HIV infection should not be imposed." Further, it recommends disclosure should be permitted only when 1) there is a known identifiable party at significant risk for infection, 2) the third party is unaware of the risk, 3) the client has been urged to tell the partner and has refused to do so, and 4) the psychologist is protected legally from civil or criminal liability for disclosing.

36

Disinhibition, indifference, and jocularity are associated with damage to the _____ frontal lobe.

Neuropsychology #77

right

Speech issues, depression, and apathy are associated with damage to the left frontal lobe.

37

Learning disabilities are defined by discrepancies between _____ and _____.

Diagnosis & Psychopathology #80

achievement and aptitude

Paraphrasing the DSM-IV, when achievement on standardized tests of reading, mathematics, or written expression is substantially below what is expected for age, schooling, and level of intelligence, an LD may be diagnosed.

38

An advantage of standard scores over percentile ranks is that standard scores ________.

Research Design & Statistics #81

provide more meaningful information about differences between examinees' test scores

The distance between two percentile ranks does not necessarily reflect the same distance between examinees' raw scores, tending to overestimate differences in the middle of the distribution and underestimate differences at the ends.

Both methods allow one to determine relative standing of examinees taking the same test and to set cutoff scores above which a given percentage of examinees will score. Neither method decreases cultural bias of tests.

39

In what part of the brain was neurogenesis not found?

Neuropsychology #83

the striate cortex

Gould & Gross (1999) found neurogenesis occurring in the olfactory system, hippocampus, and prefrontal regions of the brain.

40

Name some techniques used in the first step (of three) in structural family therapy.

Clinical #86

tracking and mimesis

Structural family therapy entails three overlapping steps: 1) joining, 2) evaluating/diagnosing, 3) restructuring. Tracking (identifying and using the family's values, life themes, etc.) and mimesis (adopting the family's behavioral and affective style) are used in joining the family system. Constructing a family map and enactment are used in evaluating/diagnosing the family system. Enactment, relabeling, and reframing are used in restructuring the family system. (Note enactment is used in both the second and third steps.)

41

Treatment is considered to be effective in a ________ experiment design if a behavior reaches the criterion level for each phase.

Research Design & Statistics #90

changing criterion

A changing criterion design is a single case design consisting of a series of phases in which a different behavioral criterion is set for each phase.

42

A ________ experiment design sequentially applies a treatment across subjects, settings, or behaviors in a single case design.

Research Design & Statistics #90

multiple baseline

43

A ________ experiment design assesses the pretesting effects on the internal and external validity of a study.

Research Design & Statistics #90

Solomon four-group

Partial counterbalancing is used when the number of participants does not permit a completely counterbalanced design.

44

A ________ experimental design administers all levels of an independent variable to all subjects, but varies the order of its administration between subjects or subgroups of subjects.

Research Design & Statistics #90

Latin square

This is a type of partial counterbalancing.

45

Once a behavior has been established through operant conditioning, the behavior would most likely ________ immediately following the removal of the reinforcer.

Learning & Behavior #92

increase

Removal of a reinforcer does not immediately result in decrease of behavior, but in an initial, temporary, increase, known as a "response burst." (Think repeatedly pressing the button on a soda machine when it does not dispense the soda.)

46

Adolescents who successfully resolve Erikson's identity vs. identity confusion psychosocial conflict will exhibit ________.

Developmental #102

fidelity

This is fidelity, albeit not blind fidelity, to social standards. Failure to resolve this conflict can result in "fanaticism," an overzealous and intolerant identification with a particular role, or "repudiation," a fusing with a group that eagerly provides its members with details of an identity, e.g., religious cults, military organizations, hate groups.

47

Risk of Schizophrenia is how many times greater for monozygotic twins than dizygotic twins?

Diagnosis & Psychopathology #104

2 1/2

If one twin is diagnosed with Schizophrenia, in dizygotic twins the other is 17% likely to be diagnosed; in monozygotic twins it is 46% likely, ~2.5 times greater chance.

48

What are the differences between Type I and Type II Schizophrenia?

Diagnosis & Psychopathology #106

Type I entails positive symptoms (hallucinations, delusions) and over-responsiveness/distractibility. It responds well to traditional neuroleptics and has a good chance of partial or complete recovery.

Type II comprises negative symptoms (flat affect, anhedonia) and under-/slow-responsiveness. It responds poorly to traditional neuroleptics and has a poor prognosis.

Based on Crow (1980).

49

List four characteristics of BII Specific Phobia.

Diagnosis & Psychopathology #109

Blood-Injection-Injury type of Specific Phobia is characterized by:
- strong vasovagal response (75%)
- strong familial patterns
- greater incidence among women than men
- early childhood age of onset

50

The item difficulty index ("p") yields information about the difficulty of test items in terms of a(n) _____ scale of measurement.

Test Construction #112

ordinal

"p" indicates the percentage of individual who answer an item correctly. Although it may appear to be a ratio scale (e.g., p = .8 means 80% of examinees responded correctly), it is an ordinal scale, because it does not necessarily indicate equivalent differences in difficulty.

51

Perry & Busey (1984) emphasize the role of ________ among family factors that contribute to aggression in children.

Developmental #113

parental rejection and use of power-assertive discipline