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Flashcards in I_O Psychology 2 Deck (39):
1

What is adverse impact in personnel selection?

When a procedure results in a substantially different rate of selection for different groups.

2

What is the 80% rule?

Defines adverse impact as a selection rate for a protected group being less than 80% of the rate for the majority group. Aka the 4/5ths rule.

3

What is a bona fide occupational qualification?

When a selection criterion resulting in less than 80% of a protected group being hired is a necessary component of a job, e.g., a firefighter being able to carry heavy loads, an exception to the 80% rule is made.

4

What is differential validity as regards adverse impact?

When the selection criterion has different validity coefficients for different groups. Occurs rarely, and impacts minority groups about as often as majority groups.

5

What is unfairness as regards adverse impact?

When one group performs more poorly than another on a criterion measure, but both groups perform equally well on the job. (Criterion measure might have equal validity.)

6

List three types of score adjustments, as solutions to differential criterion performance.

Separate cutoffs, within group norming (e.g., standardizing scores w/in groups for comparing across groups), banding (scores within specific ranges are equivalent).

7

What does the Americans with Disabilities Act say?

Persons with disabilities who are capable of performing jobs unaffected by their disabilities cannot be discriminated against.

8

What is incremental validity?

The increase in validity granted by a procedure relative to base rates. For example, with current hiring procedures 50% of employees are good workers. With a new test, 70% are good. The new test is 20% better than the base rate; it has an incremental validity of 20%.

9

What is selection ratio for hiring purposes?

The ratio of applicants to positions. 100 applicants for one job is a low ratio; three applicants for one job is high.

10

What factors maximize incremental validity?

High validity coefficient (accurate predictor), moderate base rate (new predictor likely to be better), low selection ratio (lots of applicants to choose from).

11

What is utility analysis?

Methods used to determine the cost-effectiveness of a selection procedure. Typically defined as dollar gain in job performance as a result of given procedure relative to alternative.

12

Describe reasons to use multiple regression to combine performance predictors.

Compensatory technique, allowing low performance in one area to be compensated by high performance elsewhere.

13

Describe reasons to use multiple cutoffs to combine performance predictors.

A non-compensatory technique in which examinees meet or exceed cutoffs on all criteria. Useful when minimum performance is required across domains.

14

Describe reasons to use multiple hurdles to combine performance predictors.

A non-compensatory technique. Like multiple cutoffs, but criteria are presented in particular order; if examinee does not pass a given cutoff, s/he does not proceed to the next. Can save time and cost.

15

What are the most common types of training?

By rank:
- occupation-specific technical
- computer-related
- managerial-supervisor

16

What are the three steps in developing a training program?

Needs analysis, program design, program evaluation.

17

What are the four components of a needs analysis?

- organization analysis (is training needed)
- task analysis (determining what a job requires, yielding objectives)
- person analysis (who has skills deficits)
- demographic analysis (identifying approaches to different groups).

18

Program design selects from different types of training. What are four common types?

On-the-job training, vestibule training, classroom training, and programmed instruction.

19

What is on-the-job training and what are factors to include when considering it?

A trainee performs a job under the supervision of an experienced mentor. It does not require a separate facility, and so is cheap. It is often poorly planned and implemented and can slow production and increase accident rates. Workers do not always make the best trainers.

20

What is vestibule training and what are factors to include when considering it?

Simulates working conditions for training purposes. Useful when consequences of errors are high and/or when repeated practice is required.

21

What is classroom training and what are factors to include when considering it?

Separate training facility with no focus on production. Professional trainers give personalized attention and risk of errors is negligible.

22

What is programmed instruction and what are factors to include when considering it?

Trainees work at their own pace on pre-packaged material. Not effective for complex skills, but useful for rote memorization.

23

What are the three dimensions of program evaluation?

- formative evaluation (internal program variables)
- summative evaluation (program effectiveness)
- cost-effectiveness.

24

What are Kirkpatrick's four levels of program evaluation criteria?

- reaction (participants' responses)
- learning (what participants learned)
- behavior (impact on participants' performance)
- results (impact on organization goals)

25

What "fifth level" did Phillips add to Kirkpatrick's approach?

ROI for each of Kirkpatrick's levels.

26

What are the two types of aptitude test?

Special (assessing specific abilities) and multiple (batteries measuring a variety of aptitudes).

27

What are some examples of special aptitude tests?

Purdue Peg Board, O'Connor Finger Dexterity Test, Minnesota Rate of Manipulation Test.

28

What are some examples of multiple aptitude tests?

The Differential Aptitude Test measures job-related and general cognitive abilities; designed for 8-12 graders, but also used with adults. Another similar test is the General Aptitude Test Battery.

29

What is an achievement test?

Assesses mastery of a particular domain.

30

Why do some experts refer to "ability" tests rather than aptitude or achievement?

There is a confound between the latter: achievement can be indicative of aptitude. Ability ignores this, being defined as "capacity to perform a task."

31

What are the two main types of theories of career choice?

Those that emphasize personality variables (e.g., Holland's Personality and Environmental Typology) and those that emphasize stages in career development (e.g., Super's Career and Life Development Theory).

32

What are three additional types of theories of career choice?

Those based on learning, values, and constructivism.

33

What are Holland's six personality and environment types?

RIASEC: Realistic, Investigative, Artistic, Social, Enterprising, Conventional. These are arrayed on a hexagon, with similar adjacent to each other and dissimilar opposite.

34

What is the relationship between Holland's type scores and personality-environment match?

A person scoring very high in one type and low in all others has high differentiation; congruence of personality and environment is the best predictor of satisfaction when differentiation is high.

35

What assessment instruments measure Holland's types?

Vocational Preference Inventory, Self-Directed Search, Strong-Campbell Interest Inventory. Through these instruments, a guidance counselor might receive a profile of SEA (social, enterprising, artistic).

36

What are Super's five stages of career development?

- growth (to 15yo)
- exploration (15-24yo)
- establishment (25-44yo)
- maintenance (45-64yo)
- decline (after 65yo)

37

What is career maturity in Super's career development theory?

The extent to which a person has mastered current developmental tasks.

38

What are the nine major roles of Super's Life Career Rainbow?

- child
- student
- worker
- partner
- parent
- citizen
- homemaker
- leisurite
- pensioner

39

What is Super's Archway of Career Determinants?

Personal and environmental factors that combine to determine a career path.