Unit 13 Chapter 43, 45, 46 Flashcards

(257 cards)

1
Q

spermatogenesis

A

Generation of spermatozoa or sperm

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2
Q

when does spermatogenesis begin

A

13

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3
Q

sperm is formed in

A

seminiferous tubules

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4
Q

sperm travels through ________ __________ to epididymis

A

efferent ductules

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5
Q

where is the final site of sperm maturation

A

epididymis

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6
Q

the migration through _____ _________

A

vas deferens

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7
Q

what is the storage reservoir for sperm

A

ampulla

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8
Q

how long does fertility continues after vasectomy

A

4-5 weeks

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9
Q

vasectomy babies, how did this happen?

A

sperm was living in the ampulla for 4-5 weeks and did not use proper protection

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10
Q

how long should you continue to use protection after a vasectomy

A

4-5 weeks

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11
Q

what creates fluid for semen

A

seminal vesicles

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12
Q

_________ provide energy for sperm motility

A

fructose

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13
Q

______________ assist in fertilization by making cervical mucus more receptive

A

prostaglandin

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14
Q

testosterone produced by cells in _____

A

testes

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15
Q

where is testosterone is metabolized in _______

A

liver

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16
Q

where is testosterone secreted by

A

kidneys

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17
Q

testosterone functions as anabolic agents in male and females to promote _____________ and ______________ _______

A

metabolism, musculoskeletal growth

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18
Q

erection is under control of parasympathetic or sympathetic

A

parasympathetic

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19
Q

what must be intact and available to get an erection (2 things)

A

parasympathetic innervation must be intact
nitric oxide synthesis must be active

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20
Q

drugs treat erectile dysfunction at the __________ level

A

mediator

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21
Q

ejaculation is under what nervous system

A

sympathetic

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22
Q

detumescence is under what nervous system

A

sympathetic

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23
Q

what is detumescence

A

going soft, losing the erection

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24
Q

erectile dysfunction is caused by

A

psychogenic, organic, or mixed

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25
erectile dysfunction neurogenic causes
parkinsons disease, stroke, cerebral trauma; spinal cord depends on level, location and extent lesion
26
erectile dysfunction arterial insufficiency causes
hypertension, hyperlipidemia, cigarette smoking, DM, pelvic irradiation
27
drugs that can cause erectile dysfunction
antidepressant, antipsychotic, antihypertensive
28
erectile dysfunction causes excessive ___________ and ________
alcohol, aging
29
treatment for erectile dysfunction
selective inhibitor of phosphodiesterase type 5
30
what does the treatment for erectile dysfunction target
nitric oxide
31
phosphodiesterase type 5 is an enzyme that inactivates _______, ______ ___________ _________ _________, and _______________ ___________
cGMP, alpha adrenergic receptor antagonist, prostaglandin analog
32
priapism
involuntary, prolonged, abnormal, painful erection
33
priapism is most common with males suffering from what disease
sickle cell disease
34
during priapism with patients with sickle cell _______________ and states of ___________ blood during reception is thought to increase sickling
deoxygenation, cavernosal
35
testes develop from ____________ _______
embryonic kidneys
36
testes embryologically develop in abdomen and descend through ___________ _____ in 7-9th month
inguinal canal
37
testes descend into scrotum through
inguinal canal
38
in the testes failure to close canal leads to __________ _______
inguinal hernia
39
inguinal hernia
protrusion of parietal peritoneum and intestine through and abnormal opening from the abdomen
40
testicular torsion
twisting of spermatic cord that suspends the testies
41
testicular torsion with present with
pain radiation to inguinal area, nausea and vomiting, affected testes are large and tender
42
epididymitis
sexual and non sexual transmission of bacterial pathogens
43
orchitis can be precipitated by primary
UTI
44
orchitis can be caused by what other disease
mumps
45
what percent of boys that had mumps will develop orchitis
20-25%
46
________________ irreversibly impaired in 30% of testes damaged by mumps orchitis
spermatogenesis
47
with orchitis is this reversible or irreversible impaired
irreversibly
48
what is detumescence
going soft, losing the erection
49
what might cause someone to get scrotal cancer
chimney sweeps, poor hygiene, external causes
50
testicular cancer most common age group is
15-35 age group
51
how would you be able to notice testicular cancer
self examination at least once a month
52
tesitular cancer is associated with
cryptorchidism
53
what is cryptoorchidism
undescended testes
54
the higher the cryptorchidism the ___________ the risk
greater
55
prostatitis
inflammation of prostate
56
is benign prostatic hyperplasia cancer
no it is benign
57
benign prostatic hyperplasia occurs in 50% of men older than
60
58
benign prostatic hyperplasia risk factor? what specific race
African american
59
benign prostatic hyperplasia: discovery that DHT is the active factor in BPH is the rationale for use of
5 alpha reductase inhibitors (alpha reductase inhibitor)
60
benign prostatic hyperplasia: location contributes to ___________ and ____________
pathophysiology and symptomatology
61
benign prostatic hyperplasia: increase in prostatic size
weak stream, frequency
62
BPH symptom index 7 questions
incomplete emptying frequency intermittency urgency weak stream straining nocturia
63
what is the most severe BPH number
7
64
a patient comes in for BPH and a scale of 3, you know that this patient is suffering from
mild conditions
65
a patient comes in for BPH and a scale of 7, you know that this patient is suffering from
severe conditions
66
in BPH what drives treatment
symptoms
67
in BPH is there a drug that treats all symptoms
no
68
_____________ in bladder readily infected due to incomplete emptying
diverticula
69
diverticula in bladder
little pockets that could become infected due to incomplete empyting
70
what is the most common male cancer
cancer of the prostate
71
what is the major race that is affected by cancer of the prostate
AFRICAN AMERICAN MEN
72
cancer of the prostate is the __________ leading cause of death
second
73
what are some risk factors for cancer of the prostate
age (85% >65), African American race, environment, high fat diet
74
PSA stands for
prostate surface antigen
75
PSA is what type
glycoprotein
76
PSA is secreted into the cytoplasm of __________ and _________ prostatic cells
benign, malignant
77
is PSA specific to cancer
no
78
what will also cause PSA to be released/increased
infection and inflammation
79
cancer of the prostate annual screening and digital exam over
40-50
80
cancer of the prostate diagnosis- transrectal ultrasound; ___________ grading system
Gleason
81
Gleason grading scale 1
well differentiated
82
Gleason grading scale 5
poorly differentiated
83
do Gleason grade 1 and 5 have the same treatments
no, different treatments
84
Gleason grading system is associated with what cancer
prostate
85
seven questions is associated with what disease
benign prostatic hyperplasia
86
prostate tumor grading system
T1-T4
87
prostate tumor T1
primary stage tumors are asymptomatic and discovered on histological examination or prostatic tissue specimens
88
prostate tumor T2
tumors are palpable on digital examination but are confined to the prostate gland
89
prostate tumor T3
tumors have extended beyond the prostate
90
prostate tumor T4
tumors have pushed beyond the prostate to involve adjacent structures
91
for Gleason, BPH grading, and Prostate tumor grading, as the numbers go up
more worse the condition is
92
if someone has a palpable prostate tumor but is confined to the prostate gland what level is this
T2
93
if someone has a prostate tumor but they are asymptomatic this is what level
T1
94
hypospadias
urethra ends below penis
95
epispadias
urethra ending above penis
96
phimosis
tightening of the foreskin
97
paraphimosis
fighting of the foreskin so tight it cannot cover glans
98
cryptorchidism
undescended testes
99
cryptorchidism is related to
birth weight and gestational age
100
spontaneous descent of testes often occurs during
3-6 months
101
consequences of cryptorchidism/undescended testes
infertility, malignancy and psychological effects
102
two infant boys had undescended testes in 2 different locations, the first boys were located 3 inches below the bellybutton and the second boys we located on the inner thigh right next to the testes, who has the greater chance of testicular cancer
first boy
103
testosterone maybe used in older men with low androgen levels to improve
muscle strength and vigor
104
is normal vaginal bacterial flora harmful or protective
protective
105
doderlein bacilli metabolize glycogen and in the process produce
lactic acid
106
normal vaginal pH is
3.8-4.5
107
is vaginal pH acidic or basic
acidic
108
normal bacterial flora protect against
infections
109
normal vaginal bacterial flora can be disrupted by
- abnormal estrogen levels - increased glycogen availability - antibiotics
110
why would normal glycogen availability cause normal flora to be disrupted
sugar is source of energy and if there is an increase in fuel then the bacteria will overgrow
111
individuals with what conditions might have disrupted vaginal bacterial floras
diabetic and immunocompromised
112
vaginal cancer will present with
abnormal bleeding, abnormal vaginal discharge, palpable mass, pain during intercourse
113
vaginal cancer discharge
abnormal vaginal discharge
114
vaginal cancer may be cause by the spread of what other cancer
cervical cancer
115
what STD would cause vaginal cancer
HPV
116
what type of irritation might cause vaginal cancer
chronic local irritation
117
cervical cancer is related to what infection
HPV
118
diagnosis of cervical cancer
Pap smear
119
evidence suggests a casual link between HPV infection and __________ cancer
cervical
120
what might cause someone to develop a HPV infection
early age at first intercourse, multiple sexual partners, a promiscuous male partner, smoking, history of STDS
121
Gardasil
prevent infection with the HPV subtypes 16, 18, 6, and 11
122
cervical cancer is present with HPV types
16, 18, 31, 33, 45
123
PID
pelvic inflammatory disease
124
in PID the infection ascends through uterus to what 2 organs
Fallopian tubes, ovary
125
PID disrupts what tissue
endothelial tissue
126
PID inflammation causes pain in lower abdomen and
cervix
127
what type of discharge is present with PID
purulent discharge
128
PID will have 2 increased counts of what
WBC C- reactive protein
129
since people with PID have increase C-reactive protein will the inflammation only be in the uterus or be all over
not specific to the uterus, inflammation all over
130
PID may result in what if long lasting
infertility, etopic preganancies
131
a patient comes in with pain in lower abdomen and a purulent discharge and is also showing increase WBC count? what might she have
PID
132
endometriosis affects what precent of pre menopausal women
10-15%
133
endometriosis is functional endometrial tissue found in
ectopic sites outside the uterus
134
how did the tissue get there in endometriosis
up through the Fallopian tubes (retrograde menstruation)
135
what is retrograde menstration
menstruate backwards
136
tissue of endometriosis are found in ________ sites
ectopic
137
since the tissue of endometriosis is still functional the tissue will or will not go through mental cycle
it will go through a mental cycle, the tissue dies and bleeds and pain and adhesions result
138
endometriosis is the result of what type of mentration
RETROGRADE
139
with endometriosis where are some spots that functional endometrial tissue can be found
bladder, colon, ovary, small bowel, Fallopian tube, umbilicus
140
what is the most frequent invasive cancer of female reproductive track in the US
endometrial cancer
141
15-25% of POSTmenopasual women with bleeding have
endometrial cancer
142
can endometrial cancer occur in postemopausal women
yes
143
endometrial cancer risk factor is prolonged stimulated exposure to what hormone
estrogen
144
a person who is 50 pounds overweight will have what precent increase to getting endometrial cancer
10%
145
what are some other risk factors with endometrical cancer
diabetes, nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause
146
type 1 risk is prolonged ___________ stimulation
estrogenic
147
nulliparity
no children
148
menarche
first period
149
if there is a early menarche and late menopause we are widening the window for
estrogen stimulation
150
endometrial cancer will present with
abnormal. painless bleeding
151
a patient comes in a states how she is has just went through menopause at the age of 70 and she started her period at the age of 9. She is experiencing abnormal painless bleeding? what could she have
endometrial cancer
152
the good thing about endometrial cancer is the survival rate, what is the percent
80-85%
153
leiomyomas are
fibroids
154
leiomyomas/fibroids are benign or malignant
benign
155
where are leiomyomas/fibroids origin
smooth muscle
156
leiomyomas/fibroids are in 1/4 women over the age of
35
157
leiomyomas/fibroids growth rate and size greater in what race
African american
158
are leiomyomas/fibroids asymptomatic and symptomatic
asymptomatic
159
leiomyomas/fibroids may cause
menorrhagia
160
menorrhagia
excess menstral flow
161
do leiomyomas/fibroids have a defined border or no clear borders
borders are clearly defined
162
a patient comes in for an anaul exam and the physician notices a nodule in the patients vagina area but the patient claims she had no symptoms. what disease is this
leiomyomas/fibroids
163
a patient was just diagnosed with fibroids and she presents concern that the tumors could be cancerous, what would you tell her?
all leiomyomas/fibroids are benign
164
cystocele
bladder prolapse into vagina
165
rectocele
anus prolapse into vagina
166
uterine prolapse
uterus into vagina
167
PCOS
polycystic ovary syndrome
168
PCOS is known as the
silent thief of fertility
169
PCOS can cause
infertility
170
a patient was just diagnosed with fibroids and she presents concern that the tumors could be cancerous, what would you tell her?
all leiomyomas/fibroids are benign
171
PCOS causes hyper___________
androgenism
172
PCOS is a common source of
chronic anovulation
173
PCOS could present with
central irregularity, metabolic dysfunction including dislipidemia, insulin resistance, and obesity
174
PCOS is in what percent of the population
5-15%
175
Ovarian cancer may present with
asymptomatic or vague
176
ovarian cancer is related to
nulliparity
177
are there any good screens for ovarian cancer
no
178
what is CA 125 (cell surface antigen) used for
monitoring therapy and recurrences with ovarian cancer
179
mastitis
post partum, tumors, tramsa, skin infections, or hormonal fluctuations
180
fibrocystic changes
lumpy breasts with non discrete nodules
181
breast cancer is what percent hereditary
10%
182
risk factors for breast cancer
age, history, promotion of breast maturation, 1st child >30, not term pregnancies
183
detection of breast cancer
mammography, MRI, biopsy
184
positive breast cancer may result in a lumpectomy or a mastectomy, whats the difference
lumpectomy= take out just tumor mastectomy= take out whole brest
185
with breast cancer it is important to inject blue dye in the tumor before removing the tumor, why?
to test the lymph node that the cancer drained to
186
what is genetic testing for breast cancer
BRAC1 and BRAC2
187
what are some notable common risk factor that is encouraged to do to prevent hyperlipidemia
alcohol. too much can increase chances of breast cancer
188
what do BRAC1 and BRAC2 do
they are genes that code for proteins that help repair DNA after it has mutated
189
a mutation of BRAC1 and BRAC2 would cause the gene to not code for protein that would repair DNA after it was mutated which would result in
increase in cancer chances
190
what hormones make breast cells divide
estrogen and growth factor
191
breast cells with too much _________ or __________ ______ receptors are more likely to become cancerous
estrogen, growth factor
192
why does breast cancer that result from estrogen/growth factor come from receptors and not the actual amount of hormone
more receptors cause more hormone to be taken in by the cell, it doesn't matter the amount of hormone unless there is enough receptors to bind to the hormones
193
Condylomata
genital warts
194
genital warts are caused by
HPV
195
genital warts may be transient or
persistent
196
genital warts can they be asymptomatic
yes
197
genital warts are associated with
genital cancers
198
Herpes simplex virus 2 is related to
chickenpox and cold sores
199
genital herpes causes genital
ulcers
200
genital herpes grows in
neurons
201
genital herpes can remain dormant in ___________ for years
neurons
202
do genital herpes go away
no
203
vaginal infetions
candidiasis trichomoniasis bacterial vaginitis
204
candidiasis
yeast infection/thrush
205
candidiasis is present in what precent of healthy women without causing symptoms
20%-50%
206
candidiasis results in
inflammation thick odorless discharge
207
a patient comes in with inflammation around her vagina but no other symptoms but has a thick odorless discharge what is the disease
candidiasis
208
discharge of candidiasis
thick odorless
209
what is causes of candidiasis
antibiotic therapy high hormone levels owing to pregnancy the use of oral contraceptives Diabetes mellitus HIV infection
210
how does antibiotic therapy cause candidiasis
suppress the normal protective bacterial flora
211
how does the use of oral contraceptives cause candidiasis
cause an increase in vaginal glycogen stores
212
how does DM or HIV cause candidiasis
compromise the immune system
213
trichomoniasis is what type of protozoan
anaerobic protozoan
214
trichomoniasis feeds on the
vaginal mucosa and ingest bacteria and leukocytes
215
discharge of trichomoniasis
copious, frothy, malodorous, green or yellow discharge
216
trichomoniasis presents with occasional
itching and irritation
217
with trichomoniasis sometimes ______________ spots will appear on the cervix
strawberry spots
218
one difference between trichomoniasis and candidiasis is that trichomoniasis is associated with
tubular infertility or PIVD
219
bacteria vaginosis may present with what type of discharge
homogenous (frothy, grayish, yellowish white)
220
bacteria vaginosis may produce a fishy amine odor when 10% ____________ _____________ solution is dropped onto the secretions
potassium hydroxide
221
bacteria vaginosis may present with pH above ____
4.5
222
bacteria vaginosis is usually treated only if ____________ or associated with other risk conditions
symptomatic
223
bacteria vaginosis is nonspecific meaning
it may be caused by many different bacteria
224
bacteria vaginosis also may present with thin discharge with
fishy ordor
225
chlamydia may have signs at site of infection like
hypertrophy and drainage
226
chlamydia may have signs of UTI like
urinary frequency, dysuria, discharge postcoital bleeding
227
chlamydia may have signs of upper genital tract infection like
irregular uterine bleeding, abdominal/pelvic discomfort
228
chlamydia complications include
infertility and ectopic pregnancy
229
chlamydia may cause __________ in infant
conjunctivitis
230
gonorrhea may be cause
conjunctivitis
231
gonorrhea in women will have what kind of discharge
thick yellow or gray vaginal discharge
232
gonorrhea symptoms women
burning/pain with urination or bowel movement abnormal periods abdominal pain or cramps
233
gonorrhea discharge men
thick yellow/greenish drip from penis
234
gonorrhea symptoms men
burning pain with urination or bowel movement need to urinate more often tender or swollen testicles
235
in females gonorrhea may lead to ________ which ultimately could lead to infertility
PID
236
syphilis is cause by what kind of bacteria
spirochete, treponema pallidum
237
primary syphilis
chancer at site of exposure
238
secondary syphilis
lasts from 1 week to 6 months disseminates to other organs
239
secondary syphilis symptoms
skin rash, fever, sore throat, stomatitis, nausea, loss of appetite and inflamed eyes
240
tertiary syphilis
Gumma lesions develop in organs CNS and heart often affected
241
what is the only STD that causes systemic issues
syphilis
242
gonorrhea and chlamydia both cause what in neonates
ocular disease and blindness
243
gonorrhea and chlamydia both cause what in neonates
ocular disease and blindness
244
is syphilis transferred to the fetus from the mother through the placenta
yes
245
when syphilis progresses to the tertiary stage it takes one of three forms
development of localized destructive granuloma like lesions called gummas development of cardiovascular lesions development of central nervou system lesions
246
name of lesions in tertiary syphilis when they are developed on localized destructive granuloma
gummas
247
women with abnormal vaginal discharge
vaginal cancer
248
purulent discharge
PID
249
thick odorless discharge
candidiasis
250
copious, frothy, malorodorous, green or yellow discharge
trichomoniasis
251
homogenous discharge (frothy grayish, yellowish white) or thin discharge with fishy odor
Bacterial vaginosis
252
women: thick yellow or gray vaginal discharge
gonorrhea
253
men: thick yellow greenish drip from penis
gonorrhea
254
do all people with gonorrhea have symptoms
no some people do not have symptoms
255
a 60 year old man comes to the clinic and has been found to have a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and cardiovascular disease. the manifestations of these diseases will warrant the nurse to assess the patient for which of the following problems -undescended testicles - prostate cancer - erectile dysfunction - increased sperm production
erectile dysfunction
256
an elderly male patient is complaining of dribbling after he urinates and feeling like he never empties his bladder. The nurse suspects the patients may have a problem with - kidney stones - an enlarged prostate gland - blood clots clogging the urethra - calcium sediment in the bladder
an enlarged prostate gland (benign prostatic hyperplasia)
257
after an office visit with her primary health provider, a female patient with an elevated CA-125 test results asks the nurse if that means she has ovarian cancer. Which of the following is the nurses best response - "the test is not specific for ovarian cancer but suggests further evaluation to find the cause of the elevation" - "the test is an accurate screening tool for early detection of ovarian cancer" - "you will need to ask your doctor to explain the test to you" -"don't worry about it. The test is too general to cause you to be alarmed."
"the test is not specific for ovarian cancer but suggests further evaluation to find the cause of the elevation"