Assessment Exam Flashcards
Interoceptive conditioning is one of the components of the cognitive-behavioral treatment of Panic Disorder and may include which of the following strategies?
Select one:
A.
yelling stop whenever an undesirable thought occurs
B.
maintaining a panic diary
C.
focusing on a pleasant experience or fantasy
D.
breathing through a thin straw
Answer D is correct: Interoceptive conditioning has been identified as an effective component of cognitive-behavioral therapy for Panic Disorder and involves having the individual engage in activities that produce physical sensations associated with a panic attack such as breathing through a thin straw, spinning in a swivel chair, and running in place.
Answers A, B, and C: See explanation for answer D.
The correct answer is: breathing through a thin straw
A better prognosis for Schizophrenia is associated with all of the following except:
Select one:
a.
Female gender
b.
An early onset of symptoms
c.
A family history of a mood disorder
d.
The presence of a precipitating event
Answer B is correct: A late (not early) onset of symptoms is associated with a better prognosis.
Answers A, C, and D are incorrect: Female gender, a family history of a mood disorder, and the presence of a precipitating event have been linked to a better prognosis.
The correct answer is: An early onset of symptoms
The assumption underlying dialectical behavior therapy (Linehan, 1993) as a treatment for Borderline Personality Disorder is that this disorder is caused by:
Select one:
A.
pervasive emotion dysregulation.
B.
dysfunctional object relations.
C.
coercive family interactions.
D.
a lack of response-contingent reinforcement.
Answer A is correct: Dialectical behavior therapy (DBT) was originally developed by Linehan (1993) as a treatment for Borderline Personality Disorder but has since been applied to several other disorders including eating disorders, ADHD in adults, and depression in older adults. According to Linehan, Borderline Personality Disorder is the result of a combination of emotion dysregulation, emotional vulnerability, and an invalidating environment.
Answer B: DBT relies primarily on cognitive-behavioral principles and does not consider Borderline Personality Disorder to be the result of dysfunctional object relations.
Answer C: Coercive family interactions have been linked to aggressive behavior in children by Patterson (1992).
Answer D: Some behavioral models of depression describe it as the result of a lack of response-contingent reinforcement.
The correct answer is: pervasive emotion dysregulation.
The revised learned helplessness model proposed by Abramson, Metalsky, and Alloy (1989) identifies ___________ as the key contributor to depression.
Select one:
A.
a high rate of self-punishment
B.
emotional oversensitivity
C.
the depressive cognitive triad
D.
hopelessness
Answer D is correct: According to Abramson, Metalsky, and Alloy’s (1989) version of the learned helplessness model, a sense of hopelessness is a proximal cause of some types of depression. From this perspective, the attributions a person makes about negative events in his/her life contribute to depression only to the degree that they foster a sense of hopelessness.
Answer A: A high rate of self-punishment has been identified by Rehm (1987) as a contributor to depression.
Answer B: Emotional oversensitivity is not a component of the learned helplessness model of depression.
Answer C: Beck’s (1976) cognitive theory views depression as involving a “depressive cognitive triad” that consists of negative, illogical self-statements about oneself, the world, and the future.
The correct answer is: hopelessness
A DSM diagnosis of Antisocial Personality Disorder requires a history of symptoms of Conduct Disorder prior to ___ years of age.
Select one:
A.
7
B.
10
C.
13
D.
15
Answer D is correct: As defined in the DSM, a diagnosis of Antisocial Personality Disorder requires that the person be at least 18 years of age, that there is evidence of Conduct Disorder prior to age 15, and that the person has exhibited at least three characteristic symptoms involving the violation of the rights of others since the age of 15.
Answers A, B, and C: See explanation for answer D.
The correct answer is: 15
Dalal D., age 21, displays several active psychotic symptoms including persecutory delusions, auditory hallucinations, incoherence, and loosening of associations. Assuming that her symptoms started suddenly three months ago and that she has no previous history of similar symptoms, your tentative diagnosis would be which of the following?
Select one:
A.
Schizophrenia
B.
Brief Psychotic Disorder
C.
Schizoaffective Disorder
D.
Schizophreniform Disorder
Answer D is correct: The disorders listed in the answers to this question share several characteristics but also differ in terms of duration and/or certain key symptoms. Dalal’s symptoms and their duration are most suggestive of Schizophreniform Disorder.
Answer A: Although Dalal’s symptoms suggest Schizophrenia, they do not meet the DSM requirement of a duration of least 6 months for a diagnosis of this disorder.
Answer B: The duration of Brief Psychotic Disorder is from one day to one month.
Answer C: For a diagnosis of Schizoaffective Disorder, mood symptoms must co-occur with psychotic symptoms except during a period of at least two weeks in which delusions or hallucinations are present without prominent mood symptoms.
The correct answer is: Schizophreniform Disorder
The prognosis for a child with autism is best if the child:
Select one:
A.
does not have delays in motor development.
B.
displays some ability to communicate verbally by age five or six.
C.
has one or more savant abilities.
D.
does not have a family history of a mental disorder.
Answer B is correct: Most individuals with autism continue to have significant impairments throughout their lives. However, a better prognosis has been linked to the ability to communicate verbally by age five or six, an IQ of 70 or above, and a later onset of symptoms.
Answers A, C, and D: See explanation for answer B.
The correct answer is: displays some ability to communicate verbally by age five or six.
Sensate focus is based on the assumption that sexual dysfunction is often due to:
Select one:
A.
mistaken beliefs about sexuality.
B.
decreased libido.
C.
intrapsychic conflicts related to sexuality.
D.
performance anxiety.
Answer D is correct: Sensate focus was developed by Masters and Johnson (1970) and consists of a series of exercises designed to help a couple overcome anxiety related to intimacy and sexual intercourse by focusing on pleasurable sensations. It has been found useful for treating premature ejaculation and other sexual dysfunctions that are due to performance anxiety.
Answer A: Masters and Johnson recognized the impact of misinformation and mistaken beliefs on sexual functioning, but these are not the targets of sensate focus.
Answer B: Decreased libido could, of course, be caused by performance anxiety; but sensate focus is not based on the assumption that sexual dysfunction is often due to decreased libido.
Answer C: Masters and Johnson did not view sexual dysfunction as a result of intrapsychic conflicts.
The correct answer is: performance anxiety.
For children and adolescents, a diagnosis of Cyclothymic Disorder requires the presence of symptoms for at least:
Select one:
A.
six months.
B.
twelve months.
C.
twenty-four months.
D.
thirty-six months.
Answer B is correct: Cyclothymic Disorder is characterized by a disturbance of mood involving hypomanic episodes and periods of depressed mood for an extended period of time. A DSM diagnosis of Cyclothymic Disorder requires the presence of symptoms for at least two years in adults and one year in children and adolescents.
Answers A, C, and D: See explanation for answer B.
The correct answer is: twelve months.
A DSM diagnosis of Bipolar II disorder requires which of the following?
Select one:
A.
one or more manic episodes
B.
one or more mixed episodes
C.
manic and major depressive episodes
D.
hypomanic and major depressive episodes
Answer D is correct: A diagnosis of Bipolar II disorder requires at least one major depressive episode and at least one hypomanic episode.
Answers A, B, and C: See explanation for Answer D.
The correct answer is: hypomanic and major depressive episodes
As defined by the DSM, a diagnosis of Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) requires which of the following?
Select one:
A.
an onset of symptoms prior to 4 years of age
B.
a duration of symptoms of at least 6 months
C.
markedly impaired academic performance
D.
negativistic, hostile, and defiant behavior
Answer B is correct: Of the diagnostic criteria listed in the answers, a duration of symptoms of at least 6 months is the only one required by the DSM-5 for a diagnosis of ADHD.
The correct answer is: a duration of symptoms of at least 6 months
According to the catecholamine hypothesis:
Select one:
A.
mania is due to a deficiency in norepinephrine.
B.
depression is due to a deficiency in norepinephrine.
C.
mania is due to excessive acetylcholine.
D.
depression is due to excessive acetylcholine.
Answer B is correct: According to the catecholamine hypothesis, at least some types of depression are due to a lower-than-normal level of norepinephrine.
Answer A: The catecholamine hypothesis predicts that mania is due to excessive norepinephrine.
Answers C and D: See explanation for answer B.
The correct answer is: depression is due to a deficiency in norepinephrine.
The prognosis for Schizophrenia has been linked to several factors. Which of the following is NOT associated with a better prognosis?
Select one:
A.
an acute and late onset of the disorder
B.
the presence of a precipitating event
C.
a family history of a mood disorder
D.
male gender
Answer D is correct: The course of Schizophrenia varies from individual to individual, but the disorder is usually chronic and complete remission is rare. However, research has identified several factors that are associated with a better prognosis including female gender, an acute and late onset of symptoms, the presence of a precipitating event, and a family history of a mood disorder.
Answers A, B, and C: See explanation for answer D.
The correct answer is: male gender
The most effective treatment for Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder is:
Select one:
A.
exposure therapy with response prevention.
B.
stress management with relaxation training.
C.
covert sensitization.
D.
stress inoculation training.
Answer A is correct: Exposing the individual to anxiety-arousing stimuli while prohibiting him or her from engaging in usual anxiety-reducing responses (rituals) is considered to be treatment-of-choice for OCD.
Answers B, C, and D: See explanation for response A.
The correct answer is: exposure therapy with response prevention.
Following cessation of alcohol use that has been prolonged and heavy, a 45-year old woman exhibits a number of symptoms including autonomic hyperactivity, hand tremor, and nausea. A diagnosis of Alcohol Withdrawal Delirium would be a more appropriate diagnosis than Alcohol Withdrawal if the woman also exhibits:
Select one:
A.
psychomotor agitation.
B.
tonic-clonic seizures.
C.
impaired attention and awareness.
D.
tardive dyskinesia.
Answer C is correct: The key to identifying the correct answer to this question is to know that disturbances in attention and awareness are essential features of Delirium.
Answer A: Psychomotor agitation is characteristic of Alcohol Withdrawal.
Answer B: In extreme cases, Alcohol Withdrawal can involve tonic-clonic seizures.
Answer D: Tardive dyskinesia is not a symptom of Delirium.
The correct answer is: impaired attention and awareness.
Marlatt and Gordon (1985) describe which of the following as the result of an “overlearned habit pattern”?
Select one:
A.
parasuicidal behavior
B.
substance addiction
C.
hypochondriasis
D.
paraphilias
Answer B is correct: Marlatt and Gordon (1985) describe addictions as the result of problematic learned habits or behaviors that have been acquired because they produce immediate gratification (reinforcement).
Answers A, C, and D: See explanation for answer B.
The correct answer is: substance addiction
Children with Tourette’s Disorder frequently exhibit significant problems in learning. This is most likely attributable to:
Select one:
A.
language disabilities.
B.
attention deficits and hyperactivity.
C.
lower-than-average IQ.
D.
peer and other social problems.
Answer B is correct: Hyperactivity, distractibility, and impulsivity are fairly common in individuals with Tourette’s Disorder and have been identified as a cause of school problems.
Answer A: Language disabilities are not associated with Tourette’s Disorder.
Answer C: A lower-than-average IQ is not characteristic of Tourette’s Disorder.
Answer D: Although impairments in social functioning are common, they have not been identified as a cause of academic failures.
The correct answer is: attention deficits and hyperactivity.
A DSM-5 diagnosis of Specific Learning Disorder requires that the individual’s academic skills be substantially below those expected for his or her:
Select one:
A.
chronological age.
B.
mental age.
C.
measured intelligence.
D.
academic aptitude.
Answer A is correct: A DSM-5 diagnosis of Specific Learning Disorder requires the individual’s academic skills to be “substantially and quantifiably below those expected for the individual’s chronological age” (APA, 2013, p. 67).
The correct answer is: chronological age.
As described in the DSM-5, a manic episode involves a period of abnormally and persistently elevated, expansive, or irritable mood plus:
Select one:
A.
inflated self-esteem or grandiosity.
B.
persistently increased activity or energy.
C.
involvement in activities that have a high potential for negative consequences.
D.
anxious distress.
Answer B is correct: Criterion A for both manic and hypomanic episodes in the DSM-5 includes “an emphasis on changes in activity and energy as well as mood” (2013, p. 4). Therefore, this is the best answer of those given.
Answers A and C: Inflated self-esteem and grandiosity and persistent involvement in activities that have a high potential for painful consequences are possible symptoms of a manic episode but are not required.
Answer D: Anxious distress is a possible accompanying symptom of Bipolar I Disorder and “with anxious distress” is included in the DSM-5 as a specifier for this disorder.
The correct answer is: persistently increased activity or energy.
Ethel E., age 36, has just been offered a promotion at work. Although she wants the increase in salary and prestige of the new position, she is planning to turn down the job because it will require extensive speaking in front of large groups of employees. Ethel has avoided situations that require her to speak to groups for as long as she can remember because public speaking is a very embarrassing experience for her. Whenever she has to speak in front of others, she is extremely anxious, her heart races and her palms become sweaty, and she becomes preoccupied with the concern that she will forget what she has planned to say. Ethel’s symptoms are most suggestive of which of the following disorders?
Select one:
A.
Panic Disorder
B.
Social Anxiety Disorder
C.
Avoidant Personality Disorder
D.
Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder
Answer B is correct: Of the disorders listed, Ethel’s symptoms come closest to those required for a DSM diagnosis of Social Anxiety Disorder (Social Phobia). She has an intense fear of a specific social situation (public speaking) because it exposes her to scrutiny by others. Consequently, she avoids the situation.
Answer A: The diagnosis of Panic Disorder requires recurrent unexpected panic attacks. Although Ethel’s symptoms are consistent with panic attacks, they are linked to a specific situation and are not unexpected.
Answers C and D: Ethel’s symptoms are not characteristic of Avoidant Personality Disorder or Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder.
The correct answer is: Social Anxiety Disorder
In prepubertal children, boys and girls are about equally affected by Major Depressive Disorder. In adolescents and adults:
Select one:
A.
the rates for males and females remain about equal.
B.
the rate for females is about 1.5 to 3 times the rate for males.
C.
the rate for females is about 4 to 5 times the rate for males.
D.
the rate for males is 2 to 3 times the rate for females.
Answer B is correct: According to the DSM-5, beginning in early adolescence, the rate of Major Depressive Disorder for females is 1.5 to 3 times the rate for males.
Answers A, C, and D: See explanation for answer B.
The correct answer is: the rate for females is about 1.5 to 3 times the rate for males.
A diagnosis of Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder should not be assigned for the first time before the individual is _____ years of age or older than _____ years of age.
Select one:
A.
three; fifteen
B.
five; sixteen
C.
six; eighteen
D.
ten; eighteen
Answer C is correct. As described in the DSM-5, the diagnosis of Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder must not be assigned for the first time when the individual is less than six years of age or more than 18 years of age, and the onset of symptoms must be prior to age 10.
Answers A, B, and D: See explanation for answer C.
The correct answer is: six; eighteen
Research has linked Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder to overactivity in which of the following?
Select one:
A.
caudate nucleus
B.
hippocampus
C.
suprachiasmatic nucleus
D.
medulla oblongata
Answer A is correct: Research using brain imaging techniques has found that the caudate nucleus (which is involved in the initiation and control of movement) tends to be overactive in individuals with OCD. The studies have also found that the reduction of obsessions and compulsions following treatment with cognitive-behavioral therapy or an SSRI is accompanied by a decrease in activity in the caudate nucleus.
Answers B, C, and D: See explanation for answer A.
The correct answer is: caudate nucleus
A DSM-5 diagnosis of Somatic Symptom Disorder requires the presence of one or more somatic symptoms that are distressing or cause significant disruption in daily life plus:
Select one:
A.
evidence that symptoms are not associated with a known medical condition.
B.
performance of excessive health-related behaviors or maladaptive avoidance of medical care.
C.
evidence that symptoms are not being feigned or voluntarily produced.
D.
excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors related to the symptoms.
Answer D is correct: Criterion B for the DSM-5 diagnosis of Somatic Symptom Disorder requires the presence of “excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors related to the somatic symptoms or associated health concerns” (APA, 2013, p. 311).
Answer A. For the diagnosis of Somatic Symptom Disorder, symptoms may or may not be associated with a medical condition.
Answer B: Performance of excessive health-related behaviors or maladaptive avoidance of medical care is a diagnostic criterion for Illness Anxiety Disorder.
Answer C: Evidence that symptoms are not being intentionally produced or feigned is not required for a DSM-5 diagnosis of Somatic Symptom Disorder.
The correct answer is: excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors related to the symptoms.
In the DSM-5, sleep terror is included:
Select one:
A.
with the Sleep-Wake Disorders as a separate diagnosis.
B.
as a type of Rapid Eye Movement Sleep Behavior Disorder.
C.
as a type of Non-Rapid Eye Movement Sleep Arousal Disorder.
D.
as a specifier for Nightmare Disorder.
Answer C is correct: In the DSM-5, sleep terror is a type of Non-Rapid Eye Movement Sleep Arousal Disorder. (The other type is sleepwalking.)
The correct answer is: as a type of Non-Rapid Eye Movement Sleep Arousal Disorder.
Drugs that interfere with the breakdown of __________ are used to treat memory loss and other cognitive problems in individuals with mild to moderate Alzheimer’s disease.
Select one:
A.
norepinephrine
B.
cortisol
C.
acetylcholine
D.
dopamine
Answer C is correct: Cholinesterase inhibitors (e.g., donepezil, galantamine, tacrine) are used to temporarily improve or slow the progression of memory loss and other cognitive impairments during the early stages of Alzheimer’s disease. These drugs prevent the breakdown of acetylcholine, which is important for learning, memory, and other cognitive functions.
Answers A, B, and D: See explanation for answer C.
The correct answer is: acetylcholine
The differential diagnosis of Major Depressive Disorder (pseudodementia) and mild Neurocognitive Disorder in older adults can be difficult because of the overlap in cognitive symptoms. However, the presence of which of the following suggests that Major Depressive Disorder is the appropriate diagnosis?
Select one:
A.
The onset of the patient’s cognitive symptoms was insidious.
B.
The severity of the patient’s cognitive symptoms increases in the evening.
C.
The patient seems unaware of his/her cognitive deficits.
D.
The patient is uncooperative during cognitive testing.
Answer D is correct: A lack of cooperation during testing is more characteristic of patients with depression than of those with a Neurocognitive Disorder who tend to be cooperative but inaccurate in their responses.
Answer A: In Major Depressive Disorder, symptom onset is usually sudden; but, in mild Neurocognitive Disorder, it is typically insidious (gradual and subtle).
Answer B: Increased severity of symptoms in the evening is characteristic of some forms of Neurocognitive Disorder but is uncommon in Major Depressive Disorder.
Answer C: A patient with Major Depressive Disorder is likely to complain about and exaggerate his/her cognitive problems, while a patient with a Neurocognitive Disorder often denies problems in the early stage of the disorder and is unaware of them in the later stages.
The correct answer is: The patient is uncooperative during cognitive testing.
Rosita R., age 32, maintains systematized paranoid delusions despite a lack of evidence for her beliefs. However, she shows almost no impairment in daily functioning other than some problems that are directly related to her delusions. The symptoms began six months ago shortly after she was fired from her job. The most likely DSM-5 diagnosis for Rosita is:
Select one:
A.
Paranoid Schizophrenia.
B.
Acute Stress Disorder.
C.
Conversion Disorder.
D.
Delusional Disorder.
Answer D is correct. Rosita’s delusions are consistent with Delusional Disorder because they are continuing despite a lack of evidence and because the effects of the delusions on her functioning are circumscribed (affect only those aspects of functioning that are directly related to the delusion).
Answer A: Paranoid Schizophrenia is not a DSM-5 diagnosis.
Answer B: A diagnosis of Acute Stress Disorder requires exposure to actual or threatened death, severe injury, or sexual violation in at least one of four ways and the presence of at least nine symptoms from any of five categories (i.e., intrusion, negative mood, dissociative symptoms, avoidance symptoms, arousal symptoms).
Answer C: A diagnosis of Conversion Disorder requires a disturbance in voluntary motor or sensory functioning that suggests a serious neurological or other medical condition (e.g., paralysis, seizures, blindness, loss of pain sensation) with evidence of an incompatibility between the symptom and recognized neurological and medical conditions.
The correct answer is: Delusional Disorder.
A DSM-5 diagnosis of Erectile Disorder requires the presence of characteristic symptoms for a minimum duration of approximately _____ months.
Select one:
A.
two
B.
six
C.
ten
D.
Answer B is correct: The DSM-5 requires the presence of characteristic symptoms for a minimum duration of about six months for all of the Sexual Dysfunctions except Substance/Medication-Induced Sexual Dysfunction for which no minimum duration is specified.
Answers A, C, and D: See explanation for answer B.
The correct answer is: six
The symptoms of Oppositional Defiant Disorder are categorized in three groups in the DSM-5. These groups are:
Select one:
A.
destruction of property, deceitfulness or theft, and serious violations of rules.
B.
negativistic, defiant, and hostile behavior.
C.
deceitfulness/dishonesty, irritability/aggressiveness, and failure to conform to social norms.
D.
angry/irritable mood, argumentative/defiant behavior, and vindictiveness.
Answer D is correct: Angry/irritable mood, argumentative/defiant behavior, and vindictiveness are the three categories of symptoms included in the DSM-5 for Oppositional Defiant Disorder.
Answer A: These are three of the four categories of symptoms included in the DSM-5 for Conduct Disorder (the fourth is aggression to people and animals).
Answers B and C: See explanation for answer D.
The correct answer is: angry/irritable mood, argumentative/defiant behavior, and vindictiveness.
According to Berry’s (1993) bidirectional acculturation model, ________ is characterized by low involvement in one’s own minority culture and in the majority culture.
Select one:
A.
moratorium
B.
alienation
C.
separation
D.
marginalization
Berry (1993) distinguishes between two independent dimensions in his discussion of acculturation – involvement in one’s minority culture and involvement in the majority culture.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT When a member of a minority group is uninvolved in both cultures, this is referred to as marginalization. (The other acculturation modes defined by Berry are integration, assimilation, and separation.)
The correct answer is: marginalization
Freud described countertransference as the analyst’s transference to the patient, which may interfere with the analyst’s functioning in therapy. More recently, psychoanalysts have begun to view countertransference as:
Select one:
A.
even more detrimental than Freud to the normal progress of therapy.
B.
an aid for the analyst for gaining insight into the patient’s inner world.
C.
an aid for the analyst in helping the client recognize how his/her behavior impacts on others.
D.
an opportunity for the analyst to respond to the client in an authentic way.
In recent decades, many psychoanalysts have broadened their view of countertransference. This shift can be traced to the work of Klein, Winnicott, and Kernberg who considered countertransference reactions to stem as much (or more) from the patient as from the analyst. (See G. O. Gabbard, Theories of personality and psychopathology: Psychoanalysis, in H. I. Kaplan and B. J. Sadock, Comprehensive textbook of psychiatry/VI, Baltimore,, Williams and Wilkins, 1995.)
a. Incorrect See explanation above.
b. CORRECT Countertransference is viewed by some psychoanalysts as the analyst’s total response to the client, a response that has as much to do with the client as with the analyst’s past. Consequently, the analyst’s countertransference feelings can give him/her some insight into the client’s processes.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: an aid for the analyst for gaining insight into the patient’s inner world.
Researchers interested in evaluating the outcomes of psychotherapy distinguish between effectiveness and efficacy research. In contrast to effectiveness research, efficacy research:
Select one:
A.
has better internal validity but limited external validity.
B.
has limited internal validity but better external validity.
C.
has better internal and external validity.
D.
has limited internal and external validity.
Efficacy studies are conducted in well-controlled conditions, often using a structured manualized session format. In contrast, effectiveness studies are conducted in real-world settings with less experimental control. (Note that, to identify the correct answer to this question, you not only have to be familiar with efficacy and effectiveness research but also with internal and external validity, which are described in the Statistics and Research Design chapter of the written study materials.)
a. CORRECT A criticism of efficacy research is that, by controlling many of the crucial elements of what is actually done during the course of delivering psychotherapy, the results have good internal validity but limited external validity. Therefore, while efficacy studies are useful for determining whether a treatment has beneficial effects under controlled conditions, effectiveness studies are useful for determining if those effects generalize to other conditions.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: has better internal validity but limited external validity.
The belief that a child’s misbehavior has one of four goals - i.e., attention, revenge, power, or to display inadequacy - is most consistent with:
Select one:
A.
Becks cognitive-behavioral therapy.
B.
Adlers individual psychology.
C.
Perlss Gestalt therapy.
D.
Mahlers object relations theory.
Adler believed that all behaviors are goal-directed and purposeful.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Dreikurs, an associate of Adler’s, described the misbehavior of children as attempts to belong, which reflect faulty beliefs about what it takes to belong (e.g., “I belong only when I”m the center of attention”).
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: Adlers individual psychology.
Asking the “miracle question” is an initial intervention in which type of therapy?
Select one:
A.
transtheoretical
B.
interpersonal
C.
REBT
D.
solution-focused
The “miracle question” is used to help clients identify solutions to their problems.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT As its name implies, solution-focused therapy focuses on identifying solutions to problems. The miracle question is one of the techniques used by solution-focused therapists to identify solutions and establish therapy goals. It involves asking the client how the client’s life would be if his/her problems were suddenly resolved.
The correct answer is: solution-focused
For a Gestalt therapist, a primary goal of treatment is to help the client:
Select one:
A.
integrate the present with his/her past and future.
B.
integrate the various aspects of the self.
C.
develop a success identity.
D.
develop a healthy style of life.
For the exam, you want to know that the primary goals of Gestalt therapy are to increase awareness and integration of all aspects of the self.
a Incorrect In Gestalt therapy, the focus is on the present. In fact, its founder, Fritz Perls, argued that “nothing exists but the now.”
b. CORRECT A primary goal of gestalt therapy is to integrate all aspects of the self; i.e., one’s feelings, thoughts, and actions.
c Incorrect This is the goal of reality therapy.
d Incorrect This sounds more like Adlerian therapy.
The correct answer is: integrate the various aspects of the self.
Research on Helms’s White Racial Identity Development Model suggests that a White therapist will usually be most successful when working with a client from an ethnic/racial minority group when the therapist is in which stage?
Select one:
A.
reintegration
B.
immersion-emersion
C.
autonomy
D.
integrative awareness
Helms’s White Racial Identity Development Model distinguishes between six identity statuses (stages): contact, disintegration, reintegration, pseudo-independence, immersion-emersion, and autonomy. For the exam, you’ll want to be familiar with the characteristics of each stage.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Perhaps not surprisingly, a White therapist is likely to be most effective when working with a client from an ethnic/racial minority group when the therapist is in the final stage of White identity development - i.e., the autonomy stage. A person in this stage has internalized a positive (nonracist) White identity that includes appreciation of and respect for racial/cultural similarities and differences.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: autonomy
The primary goal of a newly developed community-based mental health program is to help people recently released from a psychiatric hospital adjust to life in the community. This is an example of:
Select one:
A.
primary prevention.
B.
secondary prevention.
C.
tertiary prevention.
D.
crisis intervention.
Prevention programs are often described as primary, secondary, or tertiary, depending on their goals. You’re likely to encounter a question or two on prevention on the exam, so you’ll want to be familiar with the characteristics of the three types – and these are described in the Clinical Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect Primary preventions are designed to prevent the development of a mental disorder.
b. Incorrect Secondary preventions are designed to reduce the prevalence of mental disorders through early identification and intervention.
c. CORRECT Tertiary preventions are designed to reduce the prevalence of mental disorders by reducing their duration or preventing their recurrence.
d. Incorrect Crisis interventions are designed to reduce the negative consequences of crises.
The correct answer is: tertiary prevention.
In contrast to traditional approaches to psychotherapy, culturally sensitive approaches attempt to understand a client’s experience of an illness within the client’s cultural context. In other words, culturally sensitive approaches adopt an ______ perspective.
Select one:
A.
emic
B.
etic
C.
emetic
D.
endogenous
The terms “emic” and “etic” were originally used by linguistic anthropologists but are now also used by psychologists interested in cross-cultural psychotherapy.
a. CORRECT Traditional psychotherapies reflect an etic approach (“view from the outside”), while culturally sensitive therapies emphasize an emic (“view from the inside”) approach.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: emic
Margaret Mahler proposed that the development of a sense of self is related to:
Select one:
A.
separation-individuation.
B.
projective identification.
C.
pseudomutuality.
D.
assimilation-accommodation.
Mahler’s theory of early development focuses on the processes that contribute to the development of a sense of identity.
a. CORRECT Separation-individuation is triggered by the child’s ability to separate from his/her primary caregiver. It begins at about 4 to 5 months of age when a child who is being held by his/her caregiver is able to lean away to scan the environment.
b. Incorrect Melanie Klein used the term projective identification to refer to projecting disliked or undesirable aspects of the internal object (self) onto an external object (caregiver).
c. Incorrect Pseudomutuality describes a relationship between family members that appears to be healthy (is open and mutually empathic) but is not.
d. Incorrect Assimilation and accommodation are terms used by Piaget to describe the modification and development of cognitive schemas.
The correct answer is: separation-individuation.
Carl Jung believed that a client’s transference:
Select one:
A.
is a fantasy that distracts the client from reality.
B.
represents mixed feelings toward the therapist.
C.
is a form of “acting out.”
D.
reflects the clients personal and collective unconscious.
The correct answer to this question should have been easy to identify if you’re at all familiar with Jung”s work, since only one of the answers includes language that is associated with his analytical psychology.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Jung viewed transference as the projection of both the personal and collective unconscious.
The correct answer is: reflects the clients personal and collective unconscious.
Smith, Glass, and Miller’s (1980) meta-analysis of the psychotherapy outcome research found that people receiving therapy are “better off” than about _____% of people who need treatment but do not receive it.
Select one:
A.
45
B.
55
C.
80
D.
95
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the results of the Smith et al. meta-analysis as well as understand what meta-analysis is used for and be able to interpret an effect size. These are described in the Clinical Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Smith, Glass, and Miller (1980) report an average effect size of .85 for 475 controlled studies of psychotherapy. This means that the mean outcome score of people who receive treatment is higher than the mean outcome score of about 80% of people who need treatment but do not receive it.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: 80
According to Howard et al.’s (1996) phase model, which of the following is most likely to be affected during the first few sessions of psychotherapy?
Select one:
A.
coping skills
B.
severity of symptoms
C.
insight
D.
feelings of hopelessness
Howard et al.’s (1996) phase model predicts that the effects of therapy vary, depending on the number of sessions. The characteristics of the three phases of the model (remoralization, remediation, and rehabilitation) are described in the Clinical Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Remoralization occurs during the first few therapy sessions and is characterized by a decline in feelings of hopelessness (K. Howard et al., Evaluation of psychotherapy: Efficacy, effectiveness, and patient progress, American Psychologist, 51, 1059-1064, 1996).
The correct answer is: feelings of hopelessness
In client-centered case consultation, the consultant’s primary goal is to:
Select one:
A.
help the consultee determine how to work more effectively with a particular client.
B.
help the consultee identify methods for evaluating his/her own professional services.
C.
help a consultee enhance his/her skills and knowledge so that the consultee functions more effectively in the future.
D.
work collaboratively with the consultee to jointly deliver an appropriate intervention to a client.
Gerald Caplan (1970) distinguishes between four types of mental health consultation: client-centered case consultation, consultee-centered case consultation, program-centered administrative consultation, and consultee-centered administrative consultation.
a. CORRECT Client-centered case consultation focuses on a particular client. In this type of consultation, the consultant collects information about the client and makes recommendations to the consultee about the best course of action.
b. Incorrect This does not accurately describe the primary goal of client-centered case consultation.
c. Incorrect This describes consultee-centered case consultation.
d. Incorrect This describes “collaboration” rather than “consultation. “
The correct answer is: help the consultee determine how to work more effectively with a particular client.
In comparing Asian and Asian-American therapy clients to Anglo clients, the experts frequently point out that the former:
Select one:
A.
tend to prefer a less directive therapeutic approach.
B.
are grounded more in the here-and-now than in the past or the future.
C.
respond better when goal-setting is delayed.
D.
are likely to express emotional problems as somatic symptoms.
Although it is important not to overgeneralize about members of any particular group, the literature on cross-cultural psychotherapy does provide some general conclusions about clients belonging to different ethnic/cultural groups.
a. Incorrect This is the opposite of what is true.
b. Incorrect In terms of time perspective, individuals from Asian cultures usually place importance on the relationship of the past to the present.
c. Incorrect It is usually best to identify goals early in therapy (even during the first session) when working with Asian clients.
d. CORRECT People from Asian cultures ordinarily view the mind and body as inseparable and, as a result, often express mental health problems as somatic complaints such as headaches, fatigue, or sleep problems.
The correct answer is: are likely to express emotional problems as somatic symptoms.
From the perspective of feminist therapy, therapist self-disclosure is:
Select one:
A.
contraindicated because it puts the client in a passive role.
B.
necessary during the early stages of therapy to encourage the client’s participation.
C.
a means of fostering a special bond between the client and the therapist.
D.
useful for promoting an egalitarian relationship between the therapist and client.
A key characteristic of feminist therapy is its emphasis on an egalitarian relationship.
a. Incorrect Promoting a passive role in a client is discouraged in feminist therapy, but therapist self-disclosure (if done appropriately) is not considered a contributor to passivity.
b. Incorrect This describes one use of self-disclosure, but this response doesn”t best describe the role of self-disclosure in feminist therapy.
c. Incorrect Feminist therapists generally discourage developing a “special bond” because doing so can foster the client’s dependence on the therapist.
d. CORRECT Feminist therapists view sharing their own life experiences with clients as a way of promoting an egalitarian relationship.
The correct answer is: useful for promoting an egalitarian relationship between the therapist and client.
The first stage in Cross’s (2001) Black Racial Identity Development Model is:
Select one:
A.
conformity.
B.
incorporation.
C.
contact.
D.
pre-encounter.
The most recent version of Cross’s Black Racial Identity Development Model distinguishes between four stages: pre-encounter, encounter, immersion-emersion, and internalization.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Cross’s model is based on the premise that African American identity development is directly linked to racial oppression. During the initial pre-encounter stage, race has low salience.
The correct answer is: pre-encounter.
Replacing a “failure identity” with a “success identity” is a goal of treatment for practitioners of _______ therapy.
Select one:
A.
Gestalt
B.
reality
C.
solution-focused
D.
Adlerian
Of the therapies listed, only one distinguishes between success and failure identities.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Glasser, the founder of reality therapy, viewed identity as a basic psychological need and distinguished between success and failure identities. A person develops a success identity when the person fulfills his/her other needs in a responsible way.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: reality
Prochaska and DiClemente’s (1982) stages of change (transtheoretical) model predicts that a person in the __________ stage plans to take action within the next six months that will alter his/her problematic behavior.
Select one:
A.
action
B.
contemplation
C.
preparation
D.
precontemplation
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the six stages of Prochaska and DiClemente’s stages of change model: precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance, and termination. The stages are described in the Clinical Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect A person in this stage is currently taking actions to alter his/her behavior.
b. CORRECT A person in the contemplation stage intends to take action in the next six months.
c. Incorrect A person in the preparation stage is planning to take action in the near future (usually defined as in the next month).
d. Incorrect A person in this stage is not planning to change in the foreseeable future.
The correct answer is: contemplation
Atkinson, Morten, and Sue’s (1993) Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model proposes that people in which of the following stages begin to question their rejection of all aspects of the dominant culture and absolute loyalty to their own culture?
Select one:
A.
encounter
B.
dissonance
C.
integrative awareness
D.
introspection
The Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model distinguishes between five stages: conformity, dissonance, resistance and immersion, introspection, and integrative awareness.
a. Incorrect The encounter stage is the second stage in Cross’s (1991) Black Racial (Nigrescence) Identity Development Model.
b. Incorrect During the dissonance stage, the individual begins to question conformity to the dominant culture.
c. Incorrect During the integrative awareness stage, the person bases acceptance or rejection of aspects of the majority and minority cultures on an objective evaluation.
d. CORRECT During the introspection stage, the individual begins to question the unequivocal position that he/she adopted during the previous resistance-immersion stage with regard to his/her own culture and the dominant culture.
The correct answer is: introspection
A family therapist using the structural approach of Salvador Minuchin would most likely:
Select one:
A.
clarify boundaries between family members in order to reduce enmeshment.
B.
work initially with the most differentiated family member.
C.
use a multiple-therapist team to prevent any one therapist from becoming “triangulated” into the family system.
D.
issue specific “directives” designed to counteract dysfunctional processes.
As its name implies, structural family therapy focuses on altering the family”s structure in order to change the behavior patterns of family members.
a. CORRECT Even if you are unfamiliar with Minuchin, you may have been able to guess that structural therapy would be concerned with boundaries. Structural family therapists view family dysfunction as being related to boundaries that are too diffuse (enmeshed) or too rigid (disengaged).
b. Incorrect This is more characteristic of Bowen’s approach to family therapy.
c. Incorrect Minuchin”s approach does not involve the use of multiple-therapist teams.
d. Incorrect The issuance of directives is more characteristic of strategic family therapy than of structural family therapy.
The correct answer is: clarify boundaries between family members in order to reduce enmeshment.
According to Irvin Yalom, __________ in group therapy is the analogue of the therapist-client relationship in individual therapy.
Select one:
A.
universality
B.
identification
C.
cohesiveness
D.
alliance
Yalom argues that the therapeutic relationship is the sine qua non of effective individual therapy and, therefore, that there must be a comparable phenomenon in group therapy.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Yalom uses the term cohesiveness to refer to the various relationships that occur in a group - i.e., the relationships between group members and between each member and the therapist and the relationship between each member and the group itself. For Yalom, cohesiveness is the primary mode of help in group therapy, with highly cohesive groups having better outcomes.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: cohesiveness
According to Freud’s notion of __________, dreams and slips of the tongue are meaningful goal-directed phenomena.
Select one:
A.
psychic dynamogenesis
B.
reciprocal determinism
C.
psychic determinism
D.
ptyalism
Freud interpreted dreams, slips of the tongue, etc. as manifestations of unconscious material.
a. Incorrect Dynamogenesis is the principle that motor responses are proportional to sensory activities.
b. Incorrect Reciprocal determinism proposes that behavior, person, and situation interact and influence each other.
c. CORRECT According to Freud”s doctrine of psychic determinism, behaviors are not the result of free will but, instead, are caused by unconscious phenomena.
d. Incorrect Ptyalism refers to the excessive production of saliva, something Pavlov, not Freud, would be interested in.
The correct answer is: psychic determinism
The information that family members continuously exchange and that helps minimize deviation and maintain the family’s stability is referred to as ________ feedback.
Select one:
A.
external
B.
internal
C.
negative
D.
positive
In family systems theory, the information exchange between family members can act as either positive or negative feedback.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Negative feedback is corrective and helps the system return to or maintain its steady state. Thus, a “negative feedback loop” helps minimize deviation and thereby maintains the family’s stability.
d. Incorrect Positive feedback increases deviation from a steady state and, therefore, produces a change in the family’s functioning.
The correct answer is: negative
When working with an African American family, it is important to keep in mind that:
Select one:
A.
African American families are typically matriarchal.
B.
African American husbands are usually less tolerant of the career efforts of their wives than White husbands are.
C.
African American males and females do not adhere as rigidly to gender stereotypes as White males and females do.
D.
African American wives are more willing than White wives to let their husbands make domestic decisions.
Research on African American families has generally found that African American men and women are less concerned about sex-role stereotypes than White men and women. However, the power structure of the African American family is not substantially different from that found in many White families.
a. Incorrect A number of investigators have pointed out that African American and White husbands exercise the same degree of family decision-making power and that the matriarchal African American family is, in fact, a myth.
b. Incorrect If anything, the opposite is true because of their de-emphasis on sex-role stereotypes and social conditions that have made it easier for African American women to succeed educationally and economically than African American men.
c. CORRECT According to Billingsley, an important aspect of the cultural heritage of African American families is a de-emphasis on rigid sex-linked stereotypes (Black Families in White America, Englewood Cliffs: Prentice-Hall, 1969).
d. Incorrect In terms of decision-making, there does not seem to be much difference between African American and White families.
The correct answer is: African American males and females do not adhere as rigidly to gender stereotypes as White males and females do.
In the context of family therapy, the purpose of “reframing” is to:
Select one:
A.
diffuse blame.
B.
redefine behaviors.
C.
increase specificity.
D.
anchor behaviors.
Even if you’ve never heard of “reframing,” you probably could have guessed that its purpose is to redefine the situation.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT As its name implies, reframing is done in order to help a client see things from a different perspective. It is often used in a paradoxical way – e.g., telling an adolescent that “your parents’ nagging is a sign of their love for you.”
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: redefine behaviors.
According to the Publication Manual of the American Psychological Association, which of the following statements is an acceptable description of a research participant?
Select one:
A.
non-white participant
B.
disabled participant
C.
participant diagnosed with Borderline Personality Disorder
D.
participant suffering from multiple sclerosis
Ways to reduce bias in language are addressed in the APA’s Publication Manual.
a. Incorrect Non-white is improper. The actual race/ethnicity is preferable.
b. Incorrect “Participant with a disability” would be more appropriate.
c. CORRECT This is an acceptable way to describe an individual who has a mental disorder.
d. Incorrect The word “suffering” is inappropriate. “A person with (or who has) multiple sclerosis” would be better.
The correct answer is: participant diagnosed with Borderline Personality Disorder
Vicarious liability is most likely to be an issue when a psychologist is acting in which of the following capacities?
Select one:
A.
faculty member
B.
supervisor
C.
mentor
D.
therapist
Vicarious liability (also known as derivative and secondary liability) is a legal term that refers to a person’s responsibility for the actions of another person.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT A psychologist may have vicarious liability when his/her employee or supervisee engages in illegal behavior.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: supervisor
When serving as an evaluator in a child custody case, a psychologist’s primary concern should be:
Select one:
A.
what the child desires.
B.
maintaining a position of neutrality.
C.
the best interests of the child.
D.
the best interests of the person who hired the psychologist.
This issue is addressed in the Guidelines for Child Custody Evaluations in Family Law Proceedings, which is summarized in the chapter on ethics and professional issues in the written study materials.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Regardless of who employed the psychologist, the child’s best interests (which may or may not be consistent with the child’s desires) are a priority, and a psychologist should make this clear to all parties at the outset.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: the best interests of the child.
Whenever her clients cancel an appointment with Dr. Penny Pincher within less than 24 hours of the appointment, Dr. Pincher routinely bills the client’s insurance company for her full hourly fee without informing the company that the client missed the appointment. This practice is:
Select one:
A.
illegal and unethical.
B.
illegal but ethical.
C.
legal and ethical.
D.
legal but unethical.
For questions about insurance coverage, always choose the answer that is most consistent with legal and ethical requirements.
a. CORRECT The practice described in this question represents insurance fraud, which is both illegal and unethical. Billing an insurance company for missed appointments would be acceptable only if the company agreed to this practice (which is, of course, unlikely). See, e.g., Standard 6.06 of the APA’s Ethics Code.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: illegal and unethical.
A former client owes you over $600.00 in therapy fees and you are considering using a collection agency to collect the money she owes you. As an ethical psychologist, you should:
Select one:
A.
decide not to do so because using a collection agency is prohibited by the ethical guidelines.
B.
do so only if you had informed the client at the beginning of therapy that you would do so if she did not pay her fees in a timely manner.
C.
contact the client first to inform her of your intent to use a collection agency if she does not pay her outstanding fees by a specific date.
D.
use a collection agency only as a last resort.
The use of a collection agency is explicitly addressed by Standard 6.04 of the APA’s Ethics Code and indirectly addressed by Principles I.12 and III.14 of the Canadian Code of Ethics and is discussed in the chapter on ethics and professional issues in the written study materials.
a. Incorrect Use of a collection agency is not prohibited by ethical guidelines.
b. Incorrect Informing the client of your policy at the beginning of therapy is a good idea but is not sufficient.
c. CORRECT Psychologists always want to treat clients fairly, and the best policy would be to send a letter to the client informing her of your intent to use a collection agency prior to actually doing so. Informing the client is consistent with the provisions of Standard 6.04(e) of the Ethics Code, which states that if psychologists plan to use a collection agency or other legal means to collect unpaid fees, they “first inform the person that such measures will be taken and provide that person an opportunity to make prompt payment.”
d. Incorrect This answer does not address your ethical obligation in this situation.
The correct answer is: contact the client first to inform her of your intent to use a collection agency if she does not pay her outstanding fees by a specific date.
You have been seeing Leticia Lopez in therapy for several months. Leticia is 24 years old and lives with her widowed mother, who is paying for Leticia’s therapy. One day, Leticia”s mother calls and says she is very concerned about Leticia and wants to know what she can do to help Leticia feel better about herself. Mrs. Lopez asks that you not tell Leticia that she has called. Your best course of action in this situation would be to:
Select one:
A.
give Mrs. Lopez the specific advice she has requested.
B.
tell Mrs. Lopez to ask Leticia what she (Mrs. Lopez) can do to help her.
C.
tell Mrs. Lopez that it would be best if you discussed this matter with Leticia.
D.
suggest that Mrs. Lopez accompany Leticia to her next therapy session.
Leticia is an adult and, even though her mother is paying for her therapy, this does not limit Leticia’s confidentiality.
a. Incorrect Discussing Leticia’s status with her mother without Leticia’s consent would represent a breach of confidentiality.
b. Incorrect This alternative does not explicitly violate ethical guidelines, but response c is a better answer.
c. CORRECT This course of action is most consistent with ethical guidelines regarding confidentiality and is also likely to be in the best interests of Leticia from a clinical perspective.
d. Incorrect This would not be the most appropriate course of action from either an ethical or clinical perspective.
The correct answer is: tell Mrs. Lopez that it would be best if you discussed this matter with Leticia.
Which of the following best describes ethical guidelines regarding sexual intimacies with former therapy clients?
Select one:
A.
Psychologists are prohibited from having sexual intimacies with former therapy clients under any circumstances.
B.
Psychologists are prohibited from having sexual intimacies with former therapy clients for at least one year following the termination of therapy.
C.
Psychologists are prohibited from having sexual intimacies with former therapy clients in certain circumstances (e.g., when there is a risk of exploitation).
D.
Psychologists are not prohibited from having sexual intimacies with former therapy clients.
The APA’s Ethics Code and the Canadian Code of Ethics both discourage psychologists from becoming sexually involved with former therapy clients.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Standard 10.08 of the APA’s Ethics Code states that sexual intimacies with former therapy clients may be acceptable two years after termination of therapy when certain conditions are met (e.g., when there is no exploitation of the client), while Principle II.27 of the Canadian Code of Ethics states that sexual intimacies with former therapy clients must be avoided when “the power relationship reasonably could be expected to influence the client’s decision making.”
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: Psychologists are prohibited from having sexual intimacies with former therapy clients in certain circumstances (e.g., when there is a risk of exploitation).
In most situations, the “holder of the privilege” is:
Select one:
A.
the therapist.
B.
the client.
C.
the therapist and client jointly.
D.
the court.
Privilege is a legal term that refers to a client’s confidentiality in the context of a legal proceeding. Privilege is addressed in the discussion of privacy and confidentiality in the Ethics Manual of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Privilege is a legal requirement that prohibits (with some exceptions) confidential client information from being disclosed in legal proceedings. The client is ordinarily the holder of the privilege - i.e., in most circumstances, only the client can determine when confidential information may be disclosed.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: the client.
Dr. Jones, a clinical psychologist, has been seeing Lisa L. in therapy for one month. Dr. Jones considers Lisa to be a very attractive woman and finds himself having sexual fantasies about her. As an ethical psychologist, Dr. Jones should:
Select one:
A.
recognize that such attraction is normal but proceed with caution.
B.
confess his attraction to Lisa and make it a topic for mutual examination in therapy.
C.
recognize that such attraction is inappropriate and refer Lisa to another therapist without explaining the reason to her.
D.
continue working with Lisa but consult with a colleague if he believes his attraction might be interfering with his objectivity.
As with many exam questions that pose an ethical dilemma, the best answer to this one is the answer that describes the most conservative (cautious) action.
a. Incorrect Attraction to a client is not necessarily “normal” and “proceeding with caution” may not be adequate. Therefore, response d is a better answer.
b. Incorrect Whether an attraction toward a client should ever be discussed with the client is a controversial issue among therapists. In most cases, however, it is not advisable.
c. Incorrect Referring Lisa to another therapist might be the appropriate action if Dr. Jones feels that his attraction to Lisa is interfering with his ability to treat her. The information given in the question, however, does not suggest that this is the case, and response d is a better answer.
d. CORRECT The most professional and ethical behavior in this situation would be for Dr. Jones to recognize his feelings while realizing that, as a professional, he cannot act on those feelings. It would be acceptable, under these conditions, for Dr. Jones to continue working with Lisa unless his feelings begin to interfere with his ability to provide treatment to her. If this occurs, Dr. Jones should seek professional consultation to determine the best course of action, and doing so would be consistent with the provisions of Standard 2.06 of the APA’s Ethics Code.
The correct answer is: continue working with Lisa but consult with a colleague if he believes his attraction might be interfering with his objectivity.
The primary function of the psychology licensing board is best described as:
Select one:
A.
limiting access to the profession.
B.
providing sanctions for unethical and illegal behavior on the part of psychologists.
C.
protecting the public welfare.
D.
accrediting graduate programs in psychology.
The primary goal of the psychology licensing board is the protection of the public.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Psychology licensing boards protect the public by creating and enforcing regulations designed to ensure that psychologists meet minimal levels of competence. While the boards sanction psychologists for illegal and unethical behavior (answer b), this is only one of a number of functions that serve the overall goal of protecting public welfare.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: protecting the public welfare.
Which of the following best describes ethical guidelines for the use of deception in research?
Select one:
A.
Deception is prohibited in all circumstances.
B.
Deception is prohibited except when the purpose and design of the study require the use of unobtrusive measures.
C.
Deception is prohibited whenever it involves deceiving potential participants about aspects of the study that would affect their willingness to participate.
D.
Deception is acceptable only when participants have given limited consent after being told about the general nature of the study.
The use of deception in research is addressed in Standard 8.07 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principles III.23, 24, and 27 of the Canadian Code of Ethics and is discussed in the chapter on ethics and professional issues in the written study materials.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT According to ethical guidelines, deception can be used in research only when it is justified by the study”s potential value, when it has been determined that alternative procedures are not available, and when participants are not deceived about aspects of a study that would otherwise influence their willingness to participate in the study.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: Deception is prohibited whenever it involves deceiving potential participants about aspects of the study that would affect their willingness to participate.
Which of the following statements best describes a researcher’s obligations regarding the use of animals in psychological research?
Select one:
A.
Animals should never be used in research when alternative procedures are available.
B.
Animals should never be used in research if a research procedure will cause them pain or stress.
C.
Inflicting pain or stress on animals is acceptable in research only when an alternative (nonpainful) procedure is unavailable and the use of the procedure is justified by the potential value of the study.
D.
Inflicting pain or stress on animals is acceptable in research as long as it is minimized and the animals life is terminated as soon as is feasible.
Standard 8.09 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principle II.46 of the Canadian Code of Ethics address the use of animals in research.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Standard 8.09(e) of the Ethics Code states that “psychologists use a procedure subjecting animals to pain, stress, or privation only when an alternative procedure is unavailable and the goal is justified by its prospective scientific, educational, or applied value.” Principle II.46 of the Canadian Code of Ethics provides a nearly identical guideline.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: Inflicting pain or stress on animals is acceptable in research only when an alternative (nonpainful) procedure is unavailable and the use of the procedure is justified by the potential value of the study.
Dr. Sam Solo is the only psychologist in a small town, and his son is enrolled in the town’s only elementary school. Dr. Solo receives a call from his son’s teacher who says she would like to begin therapy with him. As an ethical psychologist, Dr. Solo should:
Select one:
A.
tell the teacher that he is ethically prohibited from seeing her because to do so would constitute a multiple (dual) relationship.
B.
begin therapy with her and discuss the potential for conflicts during the initial session and, if necessary, in subsequent sessions.
C.
begin therapy with her but seek consultation if any problems arise.
D.
begin therapy with her but take special precautions to ensure that client confidentiality is maintained.
Multiple relationships are addressed in Standard 3 of the APA’s Ethics Code and are discussed in the Ethics Manual. Keep in mind for the licensing exam that the prohibition against multiple relationships is not absolute.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT The ethical guidelines discourage multiple relationships whenever there is a potential for exploitation or loss of objectivity. The prohibition against multiple relationships is not absolute, however, so if Dr. Solo is the only psychologist in town, seeing the teacher and discussing the potential for conflict is the best choice. A better course of action might be to see if the teacher can be treated by a therapist in a neighboring town, but this option is not provided by any of the answers.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect Confidentiality is not the only issue of concern in multiple relationship situations, so this is not the best answer of those given.
The correct answer is: begin therapy with her and discuss the potential for conflicts during the initial session and, if necessary, in subsequent sessions.
Dr. Harold Hanson, a psychologist who heads the personnel committee at a mental health facility, recommends that a psychologist who has an unresolved charge of sexual harassment against him not be considered for a promotion. In terms of his ethical responsibilities, Dr. Hanson:
Select one:
A.
has acted ethically since sexual harassment is explicitly prohibited by the ethical guidelines.
B.
has acted ethically as long as he is willing to consider the psychologist for promotion if he is acquitted of the harassment charge.
C.
has acted ethically as long as his decision is consistent with the stated promotion policy of the mental health facility.
D.
has acted unethically by violating the requirements of the ethical guidelines regarding employment procedures.
This situation is explicitly addressed by Standard 1.08 of the APA’s Ethics Code and indirectly addressed by Principle I.13 of the Canadian Code of Ethics.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Standard 1.08 of the APA’s Ethic Code prohibits denying a person a promotion “based solely upon their having made or their being the subject of an ethics complaint.” Note that this prohibition does not necessarily preclude doing so when a charge against a person has been proven (in the situation described in this question, the charge is unresolved). Although the Canadian Code of Ethics does not explicitly address this situation, Principle I.13 states that psychologists “abide by due process or other natural justice procedures for employment.”
The correct answer is: has acted unethically by violating the requirements of the ethical guidelines regarding employment procedures.
A graduate student’s dissertation chair, Dr. X, turns out to be of little help, and the student ends up obtaining advice and assistance from an associate professor, Dr. Z. Dr. X does review the dissertation when it is completed and she is listed as the dissertation chair. Several months later, the student decides to write an article for a professional journal that is based on his dissertation research. In terms of publication credit:
Select one:
A.
Dr. Z should be listed as first author if her contribution was substantial.
B.
Dr. Z should be listed as second author if her contribution warrants it.
C.
Dr. X should be listed as second author since she was the students official dissertation chair.
D.
Dr. X and Dr. Z should both be listed as co-authors.
Publication credit is addressed in Standard 8.12 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principle III.7 of the Canadian Code of Ethics.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Of the responses given, this one is best because it addresses the need to consider Dr. Z’s contribution to the research project (and Dr. X’s lack of contribution). Ethical guidelines emphasize that it is a person’s contribution, not his or her position or status, that determines publication credit. Moreover, when a published study is based on a student’s dissertation, the student should ordinarily be listed as first author.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: Dr. Z should be listed as second author if her contribution warrants it.
Dr. Marcos Manzetti uses a “sliding scale” that is based on a client’s current income to set his fees for therapy. Dr. Manzetti’s practice is:
Select one:
A.
ethically acceptable since it serves the best interests of his clients.
B.
explicitly recommended in the ethical guidelines.
C.
ethically unacceptable since it treats clients inequitably.
D.
explicitly prohibited in the ethical guidelines.
Sliding scale fees are not explicitly addressed in the APA’s Ethics Code or the Canadian Code of Ethics.
a. CORRECT Sliding scale fees for psychological services are consistent with the “spirit” of ethical guidelines as long as they are fair and serve the best interests of the client.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: ethically acceptable since it serves the best interests of his clients.
When consulting with a colleague about a “therapeutic impasse” you are having with a therapy client:
Select one:
A.
it is always necessary to advise the client about the consultation.
B.
it is necessary to get a signed waiver of confidentiality from the client before discussing confidential information with the consultant.
C.
it is unnecessary to advise the client of the consultation as long as only information that is relevant to the impasse is discussed.
D.
it is unnecessary to advise the client of the consultation as long as the client’s identity is not revealed.
Consultation is addressed in Standard 4.06 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principles I.38 and 45 of the Canadian Code of Ethics.
a. Incorrect This answer does not accurately describe ethical requirements related to consultation.
b. Incorrect Obtaining a waiver of confidentiality is not necessary as long as the client”s identity is not revealed.
c. Incorrect This answer does not accurately describe ethical requirements related to consultation.
d. CORRECT This answer most accurately describes a psychologist’s ethical obligation when consulting with a colleague about a therapy client.
The correct answer is: it is unnecessary to advise the client of the consultation as long as the client’s identity is not revealed.
In terms of ethical guidelines, providing pro bono services is:
Select one:
A.
recommended.
B.
required.
C.
discouraged.
D.
prohibited.
Pro bono services are professional services that are provided for no compensation for the public good.
a. CORRECT Pro bono services are not directly addressed by the APA’s Ethics Code or the Canadian Code of Ethics. However, providing services for no compensation to serve the public good is certainly ethical. For example, pro bono services are consistent with General Principle A of the Ethics Code which states that psychologists “strive to contribute a portion of their professional time for little or no compensation or personal advantage.”
b. Incorrect Although psychologists are encouraged to provide services for little or no compensation, they are not required to do so.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: recommended.
Dr. Isaac Ibraham, a licensed psychologist, wants to expand his private practice. When doing so, he should keep in mind that uninvited in-person solicitations for therapy clients are:
Select one:
A.
always ethical.
B.
always unethical.
C.
unethical only when they provide potential clients with misleading or inaccurate information.
D.
unethical when the solicited individuals are susceptible to exploitation or undue influence.
This issue is addressed by Standard 5.06 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principle III.31 of the Canadian Code of Ethics.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect Providing individuals with inaccurate or misleading information would be unethical, but this answer states that solicitation is unethical only in this circumstance, which is not the case.
d. CORRECT Although uninvited in-person solicitation of therapy clients is not entirely prohibited by ethical guidelines, the guidelines limit the types of in-person solicitation that are acceptable. Standard 5.06 states that “psychologists do not engage … in uninvited in-person solicitation of business [from persons who] … are vulnerable to undue influence”; and Principle III.31 states that psychologists do not exploit others by, for example, “taking advantage of trust or dependency to frighten clients into receiving services,” which might occur when in-person solicitations are uninvited.
The correct answer is: unethical when the solicited individuals are susceptible to exploitation or undue influence.
A student participant in a research study involving matched pairs decides to withdraw from the study. The chief investigator (who is a licensed psychologist) stresses to the student the importance of the student’s data to the study, but he insists that his data be withdrawn. The investigator should:
Select one:
A.
warn the student that withdrawal from the study will affect his course grade.
B.
remind the student that he signed an informed consent and cannot now request that his data be withdrawn.
C.
tell the student that his name will be removed from all data and include his data in the study.
D.
allow the student to withdraw from the study.
This issue is addressed by Standard 8.02 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principle I.24 of the Canadian Code of Ethics.
a. Incorrect Simply warning the student of the negative consequences of withdrawing from the study would be coercive and, therefore, a violation of ethical guidelines.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT This answer is most consistent with ethical guidelines. Standard 8.02(a) states that research participants must be free to “decline to participate and to withdraw from the research once participation has begun”; and Principle I.24 similarly states that research participants must have “the option to refuse or withdraw at any time, without prejudice.”
The correct answer is: allow the student to withdraw from the study.
Dr. Pavel Petrovich, a licensed psychologist, has been seeing a client in therapy for over fourteen months with no apparent change in the client’s symptoms. Dr. Petrovich should:
Select one:
A.
advise the client that he is ethically obligated to terminate therapy.
B.
raise for discussion the possibility of termination and referral to another therapist.
C.
search the literature for discussions of similar cases that have been treated and reported by others.
D.
continue seeing the client since fourteen months is not an unusually long time for therapy to continue without a significant change in symptoms.
Termination of therapy is addressed in Standard 10.10 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principle II.37 of the Canadian Code of Ethics.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT The action described in this answer is most consistent with ethical requirements. Standard 10.10(a), for example, states that “psychologists terminate therapy when it becomes reasonably clear that the client/patient no longer needs the service, is not likely to benefit, or is being harmed by continued service,” and Standard 10.10(c) states that, prior to termination, psychologists “suggest alternative service providers as appropriate.”
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect In many cases, fourteen months is sufficiently long to consider the possibility of termination when a client has shown “no apparent change” in symptoms.
The correct answer is: raise for discussion the possibility of termination and referral to another therapist.
The Buckley Amendment establishes:
Select one:
A.
the right of parents or legal guardians of a child to inspect the childs school records.
B.
the right of patients to have access to their own hospital records.
C.
the requirement for employers to make reasonable modifications to tests for applicants with disabilities.
D.
the requirement for schools to provide a free appropriate public education to students with disabilities.
Knowing that the Buckley Amendment is also known as the Family Education Rights and Privacy Act (FERPA) would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. Additional information about the Buckley Amendment is provided in the Ethics Manual.
a. CORRECT The Buckley Amendment states that any school district may be denied federal funds if parents or other legal guardians of students or students who have reached the age of majority are not given access to the students’ school records.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: the right of parents or legal guardians of a child to inspect the childs school records.
Dr. Carl Carlson is a licensed psychologist and professor in the psychology department at a large university. He is approached by a graduate student, Marla M., age 36, who asks him if he’d like to attend a baseball game on Friday night. Dr. Carlson is divorced and finds Marla to be a very attractive woman. In terms of ethical guidelines, if Dr. Carlson accepts Marla’s invitation, he will be:
Select one:
A.
clearly violating ethical guidelines.
B.
acting ethically since he is not the one who initiated a potential relationship.
C.
acting ethically as long as Marla is a student in a department other than the psychology department and will not be taking any classes in the psychology department.
D.
acting ethically as long as he does not become sexually involved with Marla until she is no longer affiliated with the university.
Dating students is ordinarily prohibited or discouraged because doing so represents a multiple relationship.
a. Incorrect Dr. Carlson may or may not be violating ethical guidelines, depending on the circumstances (see response c).
b. Incorrect The fact that Marla initiated the potential relationship is not relevant.
c. CORRECT If Marla is a graduate student in another department, a relationship with her would not represent a multiple relationship because Dr. Carlson is not likely to be her instructor or advisor.
d. Incorrect As long as Dr. Carlson does not have “supervisory, evaluative, or other authority” over Marla, it would not be a violation of ethical guidelines if he becomes sexually involved with her (see Standards 3.08 and 7.07 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principle II.28 of the Canadian Code of Ethics). (Note that personal relationships with students might be prohibited by university policy but that this question is asking about ethical guidelines.)
The correct answer is: acting ethically as long as Marla is a student in a department other than the psychology department and will not be taking any classes in the psychology department.
A couple brings their ten-year-old son to therapy at the suggestion of his school counselor who is concerned because the boy has started arguing with his teacher and getting into physical fights with his classmates. After several sessions with the boy and his family, you receive a letter from the school principal requesting information about the boy’s condition, and a signed release from the boy’s parents is included with the letter. As an ethical psychologist, you should:
Select one:
A.
refuse to release the records to anyone but a licensed psychologist.
B.
refuse to release the records to anyone but the boy’s parents.
C.
release only that information you believe to be relevant to the school’s concerns.
D.
release photocopies of your complete file on the boy and his family.
Since the boy’s parents have signed a release, you would ordinarily provide information to the school principal - but not necessarily all of the information that has been requested.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT The most ethical course of action in this situation would be to release only information that is relevant to the school’s role in the boy”s treatment. Doing so would be consistent with the provisions of Standard 4.04(a) of the APA’s Ethics Code, which states that written and oral reports include “only information germane to the purpose for which the communication is made.” It is also consistent with the provisions of Principles I.37 and 39 of the Canadian Code of Ethics.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: release only that information you believe to be relevant to the school’s concerns.
Students in an introductory psychology class are required to participate in one of the university's ongoing research projects. This practice is: Select one:
A.
ethical as long as students can choose to participate in an alternative activity instead.
B.
ethical as long as students are free to choose the research project they participate in.
C.
ethical as long as informed consents are obtained from students before they participate.
D.
clearly unethical.
This issue is addressed by Standard 8.04 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principle I.36 of the Canadian Code of Ethics.
a. CORRECT This answer is most consistent with ethical guidelines. Standard 8.04(b), for example, states that “when research participation is a course requirement or an opportunity for extra credit, the prospective participant is given the choice of equitable alternative activities.”
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: ethical as long as students can choose to participate in an alternative activity instead.
The 1976 Tarasoff decision established:
Select one:
A.
the right of a parent to inspect and request modifications to his/her childs school records.
B.
a psychologists duty to protect the intended victim of a therapy client.
C.
the 80% rule as a standard for determining the fairness of a selection test or other employment procedure.
D.
a psychologists duty to report suspected or known cases of child abuse.
The Tarasoff decision established that, under certain circumstances, client confidentiality must be breached when the client is a danger to others. Additional information on the ruling is provided in the Ethics Manual.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Although the original 1974 Tarasoff decision established a “duty to warn” the intended victim of a therapy client, that decision was superceded by the 1976 rehearing of the case which established a “duty to protect” the intended victim. Specifically, the 1976 ruling states that a psychotherapist has a duty to protect an intended victim of a therapy client by warning “the intended victim or others likely to apprise the victim of the danger, … [notifying] the police, or … [taking] whatever other steps are reasonably necessary under the circumstances.”
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: a psychologists duty to protect the intended victim of a therapy client.
When a psychologist learns that a colleague has committed an ethical violation, the psychologist:
Select one:
A.
may choose to ignore the violation if it is unlikely to be repeated by the colleague.
B.
must report the violation to the Ethics Committee or state/provincial licensing board.
C.
may attempt to resolve the situation informally by discussing it with the colleague if it seems appropriate to do so.
D.
should contact the colleague’s client to ascertain that a violation has actually occurred before taking any further action.
This issue is addressed in Standards 1.04 and 1.05 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principles II.41 and II.42 of the Canadian Code of Ethics.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Ethical guidelines require psychologists to take action when they learn that a colleague has committed an ethical violation. This may involve addressing the issue informally when it seems appropriate to do so or reporting the violation to the Ethics Committee or licensing board when it does not seem appropriate for informal resolution or has not been resolved adequately through informal resolution. (Note that answer b is not the best answer because it states that a psychologist MUST report the violation to the Ethics Committee or licensing board, which is not true.)
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: may attempt to resolve the situation informally by discussing it with the colleague if it seems appropriate to do so.
The Ethics Committee is investigating a complaint against a psychologist and requests, by letter, that you provide the Committee with information about the complainant who is a former client of yours. When you check your records, you realize that you stopped seeing this client nine years ago. As an ethical psychologist, you should:
Select one:
A.
respond immediately to the Committee’s request by supplying it with the information it has asked for.
B.
respond immediately to the Committee’s request but provide it only with the information you feel is relevant to the complaint.
C.
respond to the Committee’s request by informing it that the information you have about the client is obsolete.
D.
respond immediately to the Committee’s request but supply it with the requested information only after verifying that the client has signed a release of information.
Confidentiality is an important concern in any action that you take as a psychologist, and many ethical dilemmas will require consideration of this issue.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect If the information in the file is obsolete, it would be important to note this in any response to the Ethics Committee. However, this response does not address the issue of confidentiality and, therefore, is not the best answer.
d. CORRECT This is most consistent with the provisions of the ethical guidelines, which require psychologists to respond to inquiries from Ethics Committees but, at the same, to address issues related to confidentiality (see, e.g., Standard 1.06 of the APA’s Ethics Code).
The correct answer is: respond immediately to the Committee’s request but supply it with the requested information only after verifying that the client has signed a release of information.
The owner of a small advertising agency refers an employee of the agency to Dr. K., a clinical psychologist, for an evaluation. The owner suspects that the employee is too “thick-headed” to be a benefit to the company. The owner and Dr. K. agree, prior to the evaluation, that the psychologist will report back to the owner as to whether or not additional training might improve the employee’s job performance. Following several sessions with the employee, the psychologist prepares a report, which he gives to the owner. On the basis of the report and the employee’s previous work history, the owner decides to fire the employee. The employee is very upset with Dr. K. for not informing him about the purpose of the evaluation and files a complaint against Dr. K. with the Ethics Committee. The Committee is likely to:
Select one:
A.
dismiss the complaint since complaints can be filed only by the clients of psychologists (in this case, the owner) or by other psychologists.
B.
dismiss the complaint since, in this situation, the psychologist could not reveal the purpose of the evaluation to the employee in order to obtain accurate information.
C.
dismiss the complaint since the psychologist had acted appropriately by providing information only to his client, the owner, who was responsible for informing the employee of the purpose of the evaluation.
D.
find that the psychologist acted unethically by not informing the employee of the purpose of the evaluation.
Ethical Standard 3.07 states that “When psychologists agree to provide services to a person or entity at the request of a third party, psychologists attempt to clarify at the outset of the service the nature of the relationship with all individuals or organizations involved. This clarification includes the role of the psychologist (e.g., therapist, consultant, diagnostician, or expert witness), an identification of who is the client, the probable uses of the services provided or the information obtained, and the fact that there may be limits to confidentiality.”
a. Incorrect This is not true. There is no restriction regarding who can file a complaint against a psychologist (except that complaints generally cannot be filed anonymously).
b. Incorrect This is not consistent with the provisions of the Ethics Code.
c. Incorrect This is not consistent with the provisions of the Ethics Code.
d. CORRECT In an actual case similar to this one (APA, 1987), the Ethics Committee censured the psychologist for not clearly explaining the purpose of the evaluation to the employee.
The correct answer is: find that the psychologist acted unethically by not informing the employee of the purpose of the evaluation.
Research on job satisfaction suggests that it:
Select one:
A.
is a relatively stable trait and is minimally affected by job changes.
B.
is relatively stable within the same job but unstable when measured across different jobs.
C.
is relatively unstable and varies over time both within the same job and across different jobs.
D.
may be stable or unstable within and across jobs depending on the characteristics of the particular worker.
Overall, job satisfaction seems to be a stable trait.
a. CORRECT This best summarizes the results of research on job satisfaction. It appears that job satisfaction is directly related to the tendency toward positive or negative affect, which is a stable characteristic. People with negative affect tend to be dissatisfied with work; people with positive affect tend to be satisfied.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: is a relatively stable trait and is minimally affected by job changes.
A group’s performance on a(n) __________ task is limited by the performance of the least skilled or knowledgeable member of the group.
Select one:
A.
additive
B.
compensatory
C.
disjunctive
D.
conjunctive
Group tasks are categorized as additive, compensatory, disjunctive, or conjunctive. Additional information on these tasks is included in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect On additive tasks, the coordinated efforts of several people add together to form the group product.
b. Incorrect When performing a compensatory task, the average of the contributions of all members of the group represents the group product.
c. Incorrect On a disjunctive task, the solution of one member of the group is chosen by the group to be the group’s solution.
d. CORRECT On a conjunctive task, the performance of the least competent member places a limit on the group’s product or performance. Mountain climbing is an example of a conjunctive task.
The correct answer is: conjunctive
Expectancy theory predicts that worker motivation depends on several factors including “valence”, which refers to:
Select one:
A.
the employees beliefs about the value of rewards provided for successful performance.
B.
the employees beliefs about the inherent (intrinsic) value of the work itself.
C.
the strength of the worker’s motivation and organizational commitment.
D.
the strength of the effort (versus ability) component of the worker’s motivation.
According to expectancy theory, motivation is a function of three components: expectancy, instrumentality, and valence. For the exam, you want to be familiar with the characteristics of all three components (see the Industrial Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials).
a. CORRECT Valence refers to the value a worker places on the outcomes that will be provided for successful performance. When these outcomes have positive valence, this increases the worker’s motivation to perform.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: the employees beliefs about the value of rewards provided for successful performance.
According to Fiedler’s contingency model of leadership, high LPC leaders:
Select one:
A.
are always more effective than low LPC leaders.
B.
are more effective than low LPC leaders in moderately favorable situations.
C.
elicit less trust from supervisees than do low LPC leaders.
D.
elicit less intrinsic motivation from supervisees than do low LPC leaders.
Fiedler’s LPC (least preferred coworker) scale measures the extent to which a leader describes ineffective subordinates in positive terms. A high LPC leader is one who has nice things to say even about inefficient workers.
a. Incorrect Fiedler’s theory is a “contingency” theory and predicts that the most effective leadership style depends on the nature of the situation.
b. CORRECT According to Fiedler, low LPC leaders are most effective in low and high favorable situations, while high LPC leaders are most effective in moderately favorable situations.
c. Incorrect This is not predicted by Fiedler’s theory.
d. Incorrect Fiedler did not directly address the issue of job motivation but, because his theory is a contingency theory, it implies that the ability of high and low LPC leaders to foster the motivation of employees would depend on the nature of the situation.
The correct answer is: are more effective than low LPC leaders in moderately favorable situations.
An organizational psychologist finds that his newly developed selection test has different validity coefficients for male and female applicants and that the difference is statistically significant. This suggests that the test has:
Select one:
A.
incremental validity.
B.
discriminant validity.
C.
differential validity.
D.
convergent validity.
For exam, you want to be familiar with all of the terms listed in the answers to this question. Additional information about these terms is provided in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect A test’s incremental validity refers to the benefits that use of the test provides with regard to decision-making accuracy.
b. Incorrect A test has discriminant (divergent) validity when it has low correlations with tests that measure different traits, characteristics, or abilities. Discriminant validity provides evidence of a test”s construct validity.
c. CORRECT The selection test described in this question has different levels of validity for males and females – i.e., it has differential validity.
d. Incorrect A test has convergent validity when it correlates highly with tests that measure the same trait. Convergent validity provides evidence of construct validity.
The correct answer is: differential validity.
