Assessment Exam Flashcards

Question

In the DSM-5, sleep terror is included: Select one: A. with the Sleep-Wake Disorders as a separate diagnosis. B. as a type of Rapid Eye Movement Sleep Behavior Disorder. C. as a type of Non-Rapid Eye Movement Sleep Arousal Disorder. D. as a specifier for Nightmare Disorder.

Answer 1

Answer C is correct: In the DSM-5, sleep terror is a type of Non-Rapid Eye Movement Sleep Arousal Disorder. (The other type is sleepwalking.) The correct answer is: as a type of Non-Rapid Eye Movement Sleep Arousal Disorder.

Answer 2

Answer C is correct: Cholinesterase inhibitors (e.g., donepezil, galantamine, tacrine) are used to temporarily improve or slow the progression of memory loss and other cognitive impairments during the early stages of Alzheimer's disease. These drugs prevent the breakdown of acetylcholine, which is important for learning, memory, and other cognitive functions. Answers A, B, and D: See explanation for answer C. The correct answer is: acetylcholine

Answer 3

Answer D is correct: A lack of cooperation during testing is more characteristic of patients with depression than of those with a Neurocognitive Disorder who tend to be cooperative but inaccurate in their responses. Answer A: In Major Depressive Disorder, symptom onset is usually sudden; but, in mild Neurocognitive Disorder, it is typically insidious (gradual and subtle). Answer B: Increased severity of symptoms in the evening is characteristic of some forms of Neurocognitive Disorder but is uncommon in Major Depressive Disorder. Answer C: A patient with Major Depressive Disorder is likely to complain about and exaggerate his/her cognitive problems, while a patient with a Neurocognitive Disorder often denies problems in the early stage of the disorder and is unaware of them in the later stages. The correct answer is: The patient is uncooperative during cognitive testing.

Answer 4

Answer D is correct. Rosita's delusions are consistent with Delusional Disorder because they are continuing despite a lack of evidence and because the effects of the delusions on her functioning are circumscribed (affect only those aspects of functioning that are directly related to the delusion). Answer A: Paranoid Schizophrenia is not a DSM-5 diagnosis. Answer B: A diagnosis of Acute Stress Disorder requires exposure to actual or threatened death, severe injury, or sexual violation in at least one of four ways and the presence of at least nine symptoms from any of five categories (i.e., intrusion, negative mood, dissociative symptoms, avoidance symptoms, arousal symptoms). Answer C: A diagnosis of Conversion Disorder requires a disturbance in voluntary motor or sensory functioning that suggests a serious neurological or other medical condition (e.g., paralysis, seizures, blindness, loss of pain sensation) with evidence of an incompatibility between the symptom and recognized neurological and medical conditions. The correct answer is: Delusional Disorder.

Answer 5

Answer B is correct: The DSM-5 requires the presence of characteristic symptoms for a minimum duration of about six months for all of the Sexual Dysfunctions except Substance/Medication-Induced Sexual Dysfunction for which no minimum duration is specified. Answers A, C, and D: See explanation for answer B. The correct answer is: six

Answer 6

Answer D is correct: Angry/irritable mood, argumentative/defiant behavior, and vindictiveness are the three categories of symptoms included in the DSM-5 for Oppositional Defiant Disorder. Answer A: These are three of the four categories of symptoms included in the DSM-5 for Conduct Disorder (the fourth is aggression to people and animals). Answers B and C: See explanation for answer D. The correct answer is: angry/irritable mood, argumentative/defiant behavior, and vindictiveness.

Answer 7

Berry (1993) distinguishes between two independent dimensions in his discussion of acculturation -- involvement in one's minority culture and involvement in the majority culture. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT When a member of a minority group is uninvolved in both cultures, this is referred to as marginalization. (The other acculturation modes defined by Berry are integration, assimilation, and separation.) The correct answer is: marginalization

Answer 8

In recent decades, many psychoanalysts have broadened their view of countertransference. This shift can be traced to the work of Klein, Winnicott, and Kernberg who considered countertransference reactions to stem as much (or more) from the patient as from the analyst. (See G. O. Gabbard, Theories of personality and psychopathology: Psychoanalysis, in H. I. Kaplan and B. J. Sadock, Comprehensive textbook of psychiatry/VI, Baltimore,, Williams and Wilkins, 1995.) a. Incorrect See explanation above. b. CORRECT Countertransference is viewed by some psychoanalysts as the analyst's total response to the client, a response that has as much to do with the client as with the analyst's past. Consequently, the analyst's countertransference feelings can give him/her some insight into the client's processes. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: an aid for the analyst for gaining insight into the patient's inner world.

Answer 9

Efficacy studies are conducted in well-controlled conditions, often using a structured manualized session format. In contrast, effectiveness studies are conducted in real-world settings with less experimental control. (Note that, to identify the correct answer to this question, you not only have to be familiar with efficacy and effectiveness research but also with internal and external validity, which are described in the Statistics and Research Design chapter of the written study materials.) a. CORRECT A criticism of efficacy research is that, by controlling many of the crucial elements of what is actually done during the course of delivering psychotherapy, the results have good internal validity but limited external validity. Therefore, while efficacy studies are useful for determining whether a treatment has beneficial effects under controlled conditions, effectiveness studies are useful for determining if those effects generalize to other conditions. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: has better internal validity but limited external validity.

Answer 10

Adler believed that all behaviors are goal-directed and purposeful. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT Dreikurs, an associate of Adler's, described the misbehavior of children as attempts to belong, which reflect faulty beliefs about what it takes to belong (e.g., "I belong only when I"m the center of attention"). c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: Adlers individual psychology.

Answer 11

The "miracle question" is used to help clients identify solutions to their problems. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT As its name implies, solution-focused therapy focuses on identifying solutions to problems. The miracle question is one of the techniques used by solution-focused therapists to identify solutions and establish therapy goals. It involves asking the client how the client's life would be if his/her problems were suddenly resolved. The correct answer is: solution-focused

Answer 12

For the exam, you want to know that the primary goals of Gestalt therapy are to increase awareness and integration of all aspects of the self. a Incorrect In Gestalt therapy, the focus is on the present. In fact, its founder, Fritz Perls, argued that "nothing exists but the now." b. CORRECT A primary goal of gestalt therapy is to integrate all aspects of the self; i.e., one's feelings, thoughts, and actions. c Incorrect This is the goal of reality therapy. d Incorrect This sounds more like Adlerian therapy. The correct answer is: integrate the various aspects of the self.

Answer 13

Helms's White Racial Identity Development Model distinguishes between six identity statuses (stages): contact, disintegration, reintegration, pseudo-independence, immersion-emersion, and autonomy. For the exam, you'll want to be familiar with the characteristics of each stage. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Perhaps not surprisingly, a White therapist is likely to be most effective when working with a client from an ethnic/racial minority group when the therapist is in the final stage of White identity development - i.e., the autonomy stage. A person in this stage has internalized a positive (nonracist) White identity that includes appreciation of and respect for racial/cultural similarities and differences. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: autonomy

Answer 14

Prevention programs are often described as primary, secondary, or tertiary, depending on their goals. You're likely to encounter a question or two on prevention on the exam, so you'll want to be familiar with the characteristics of the three types -- and these are described in the Clinical Psychology chapter of the written study materials. a. Incorrect Primary preventions are designed to prevent the development of a mental disorder. b. Incorrect Secondary preventions are designed to reduce the prevalence of mental disorders through early identification and intervention. c. CORRECT Tertiary preventions are designed to reduce the prevalence of mental disorders by reducing their duration or preventing their recurrence. d. Incorrect Crisis interventions are designed to reduce the negative consequences of crises. The correct answer is: tertiary prevention.

Answer 15

The terms "emic" and "etic" were originally used by linguistic anthropologists but are now also used by psychologists interested in cross-cultural psychotherapy. a. CORRECT Traditional psychotherapies reflect an etic approach ("view from the outside"), while culturally sensitive therapies emphasize an emic ("view from the inside") approach. b. Incorrect See explanation for response b. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: emic

Answer 16

Mahler's theory of early development focuses on the processes that contribute to the development of a sense of identity. a. CORRECT Separation-individuation is triggered by the child's ability to separate from his/her primary caregiver. It begins at about 4 to 5 months of age when a child who is being held by his/her caregiver is able to lean away to scan the environment. b. Incorrect Melanie Klein used the term projective identification to refer to projecting disliked or undesirable aspects of the internal object (self) onto an external object (caregiver). c. Incorrect Pseudomutuality describes a relationship between family members that appears to be healthy (is open and mutually empathic) but is not. d. Incorrect Assimilation and accommodation are terms used by Piaget to describe the modification and development of cognitive schemas. The correct answer is: separation-individuation.

Answer 17

The correct answer to this question should have been easy to identify if you're at all familiar with Jung"s work, since only one of the answers includes language that is associated with his analytical psychology. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Jung viewed transference as the projection of both the personal and collective unconscious. The correct answer is: reflects the clients personal and collective unconscious.

Answer 18

For the exam, you want to be familiar with the results of the Smith et al. meta-analysis as well as understand what meta-analysis is used for and be able to interpret an effect size. These are described in the Clinical Psychology chapter of the written study materials. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Smith, Glass, and Miller (1980) report an average effect size of .85 for 475 controlled studies of psychotherapy. This means that the mean outcome score of people who receive treatment is higher than the mean outcome score of about 80% of people who need treatment but do not receive it. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: 80

Answer 19

Howard et al.'s (1996) phase model predicts that the effects of therapy vary, depending on the number of sessions. The characteristics of the three phases of the model (remoralization, remediation, and rehabilitation) are described in the Clinical Psychology chapter of the written study materials. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Remoralization occurs during the first few therapy sessions and is characterized by a decline in feelings of hopelessness (K. Howard et al., Evaluation of psychotherapy: Efficacy, effectiveness, and patient progress, American Psychologist, 51, 1059-1064, 1996). The correct answer is: feelings of hopelessness

Answer 20

Gerald Caplan (1970) distinguishes between four types of mental health consultation: client-centered case consultation, consultee-centered case consultation, program-centered administrative consultation, and consultee-centered administrative consultation. a. CORRECT Client-centered case consultation focuses on a particular client. In this type of consultation, the consultant collects information about the client and makes recommendations to the consultee about the best course of action. b. Incorrect This does not accurately describe the primary goal of client-centered case consultation. c. Incorrect This describes consultee-centered case consultation. d. Incorrect This describes "collaboration" rather than "consultation. " The correct answer is: help the consultee determine how to work more effectively with a particular client.

Answer 21

Although it is important not to overgeneralize about members of any particular group, the literature on cross-cultural psychotherapy does provide some general conclusions about clients belonging to different ethnic/cultural groups. a. Incorrect This is the opposite of what is true. b. Incorrect In terms of time perspective, individuals from Asian cultures usually place importance on the relationship of the past to the present. c. Incorrect It is usually best to identify goals early in therapy (even during the first session) when working with Asian clients. d. CORRECT People from Asian cultures ordinarily view the mind and body as inseparable and, as a result, often express mental health problems as somatic complaints such as headaches, fatigue, or sleep problems. The correct answer is: are likely to express emotional problems as somatic symptoms.

Answer 22

A key characteristic of feminist therapy is its emphasis on an egalitarian relationship. a. Incorrect Promoting a passive role in a client is discouraged in feminist therapy, but therapist self-disclosure (if done appropriately) is not considered a contributor to passivity. b. Incorrect This describes one use of self-disclosure, but this response doesn"t best describe the role of self-disclosure in feminist therapy. c. Incorrect Feminist therapists generally discourage developing a "special bond" because doing so can foster the client's dependence on the therapist. d. CORRECT Feminist therapists view sharing their own life experiences with clients as a way of promoting an egalitarian relationship. The correct answer is: useful for promoting an egalitarian relationship between the therapist and client.

Answer 23

The most recent version of Cross's Black Racial Identity Development Model distinguishes between four stages: pre-encounter, encounter, immersion-emersion, and internalization. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Cross's model is based on the premise that African American identity development is directly linked to racial oppression. During the initial pre-encounter stage, race has low salience. The correct answer is: pre-encounter.

Answer 24

Of the therapies listed, only one distinguishes between success and failure identities. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT Glasser, the founder of reality therapy, viewed identity as a basic psychological need and distinguished between success and failure identities. A person develops a success identity when the person fulfills his/her other needs in a responsible way. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: reality

Answer 25

For the exam, you want to be familiar with the six stages of Prochaska and DiClemente's stages of change model: precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance, and termination. The stages are described in the Clinical Psychology chapter of the written study materials. a. Incorrect A person in this stage is currently taking actions to alter his/her behavior. b. CORRECT A person in the contemplation stage intends to take action in the next six months. c. Incorrect A person in the preparation stage is planning to take action in the near future (usually defined as in the next month). d. Incorrect A person in this stage is not planning to change in the foreseeable future. The correct answer is: contemplation

Answer 26

The Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model distinguishes between five stages: conformity, dissonance, resistance and immersion, introspection, and integrative awareness. a. Incorrect The encounter stage is the second stage in Cross's (1991) Black Racial (Nigrescence) Identity Development Model. b. Incorrect During the dissonance stage, the individual begins to question conformity to the dominant culture. c. Incorrect During the integrative awareness stage, the person bases acceptance or rejection of aspects of the majority and minority cultures on an objective evaluation. d. CORRECT During the introspection stage, the individual begins to question the unequivocal position that he/she adopted during the previous resistance-immersion stage with regard to his/her own culture and the dominant culture. The correct answer is: introspection

Answer 27

As its name implies, structural family therapy focuses on altering the family"s structure in order to change the behavior patterns of family members. a. CORRECT Even if you are unfamiliar with Minuchin, you may have been able to guess that structural therapy would be concerned with boundaries. Structural family therapists view family dysfunction as being related to boundaries that are too diffuse (enmeshed) or too rigid (disengaged). b. Incorrect This is more characteristic of Bowen's approach to family therapy. c. Incorrect Minuchin"s approach does not involve the use of multiple-therapist teams. d. Incorrect The issuance of directives is more characteristic of strategic family therapy than of structural family therapy. The correct answer is: clarify boundaries between family members in order to reduce enmeshment.

Answer 28

Yalom argues that the therapeutic relationship is the sine qua non of effective individual therapy and, therefore, that there must be a comparable phenomenon in group therapy. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Yalom uses the term cohesiveness to refer to the various relationships that occur in a group - i.e., the relationships between group members and between each member and the therapist and the relationship between each member and the group itself. For Yalom, cohesiveness is the primary mode of help in group therapy, with highly cohesive groups having better outcomes. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: cohesiveness

Answer 29

Freud interpreted dreams, slips of the tongue, etc. as manifestations of unconscious material. a. Incorrect Dynamogenesis is the principle that motor responses are proportional to sensory activities. b. Incorrect Reciprocal determinism proposes that behavior, person, and situation interact and influence each other. c. CORRECT According to Freud"s doctrine of psychic determinism, behaviors are not the result of free will but, instead, are caused by unconscious phenomena. d. Incorrect Ptyalism refers to the excessive production of saliva, something Pavlov, not Freud, would be interested in. The correct answer is: psychic determinism

Answer 30

In family systems theory, the information exchange between family members can act as either positive or negative feedback. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Negative feedback is corrective and helps the system return to or maintain its steady state. Thus, a "negative feedback loop" helps minimize deviation and thereby maintains the family's stability. d. Incorrect Positive feedback increases deviation from a steady state and, therefore, produces a change in the family's functioning. The correct answer is: negative

Answer 31

Research on African American families has generally found that African American men and women are less concerned about sex-role stereotypes than White men and women. However, the power structure of the African American family is not substantially different from that found in many White families. a. Incorrect A number of investigators have pointed out that African American and White husbands exercise the same degree of family decision-making power and that the matriarchal African American family is, in fact, a myth. b. Incorrect If anything, the opposite is true because of their de-emphasis on sex-role stereotypes and social conditions that have made it easier for African American women to succeed educationally and economically than African American men. c. CORRECT According to Billingsley, an important aspect of the cultural heritage of African American families is a de-emphasis on rigid sex-linked stereotypes (Black Families in White America, Englewood Cliffs: Prentice-Hall, 1969). d. Incorrect In terms of decision-making, there does not seem to be much difference between African American and White families. The correct answer is: African American males and females do not adhere as rigidly to gender stereotypes as White males and females do.

Answer 32

Even if you've never heard of "reframing," you probably could have guessed that its purpose is to redefine the situation. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT As its name implies, reframing is done in order to help a client see things from a different perspective. It is often used in a paradoxical way -- e.g., telling an adolescent that "your parents' nagging is a sign of their love for you." c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: redefine behaviors.

Answer 33

Ways to reduce bias in language are addressed in the APA's Publication Manual. a. Incorrect Non-white is improper. The actual race/ethnicity is preferable. b. Incorrect "Participant with a disability" would be more appropriate. c. CORRECT This is an acceptable way to describe an individual who has a mental disorder. d. Incorrect The word "suffering" is inappropriate. "A person with (or who has) multiple sclerosis" would be better. The correct answer is: participant diagnosed with Borderline Personality Disorder

Answer 34

Vicarious liability (also known as derivative and secondary liability) is a legal term that refers to a person's responsibility for the actions of another person. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT A psychologist may have vicarious liability when his/her employee or supervisee engages in illegal behavior. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: supervisor

Answer 35

This issue is addressed in the Guidelines for Child Custody Evaluations in Family Law Proceedings, which is summarized in the chapter on ethics and professional issues in the written study materials. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Regardless of who employed the psychologist, the child's best interests (which may or may not be consistent with the child's desires) are a priority, and a psychologist should make this clear to all parties at the outset. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: the best interests of the child.

Answer 36

For questions about insurance coverage, always choose the answer that is most consistent with legal and ethical requirements. a. CORRECT The practice described in this question represents insurance fraud, which is both illegal and unethical. Billing an insurance company for missed appointments would be acceptable only if the company agreed to this practice (which is, of course, unlikely). See, e.g., Standard 6.06 of the APA's Ethics Code. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: illegal and unethical.

Answer 37

The use of a collection agency is explicitly addressed by Standard 6.04 of the APA's Ethics Code and indirectly addressed by Principles I.12 and III.14 of the Canadian Code of Ethics and is discussed in the chapter on ethics and professional issues in the written study materials. a. Incorrect Use of a collection agency is not prohibited by ethical guidelines. b. Incorrect Informing the client of your policy at the beginning of therapy is a good idea but is not sufficient. c. CORRECT Psychologists always want to treat clients fairly, and the best policy would be to send a letter to the client informing her of your intent to use a collection agency prior to actually doing so. Informing the client is consistent with the provisions of Standard 6.04(e) of the Ethics Code, which states that if psychologists plan to use a collection agency or other legal means to collect unpaid fees, they "first inform the person that such measures will be taken and provide that person an opportunity to make prompt payment." d. Incorrect This answer does not address your ethical obligation in this situation. The correct answer is: contact the client first to inform her of your intent to use a collection agency if she does not pay her outstanding fees by a specific date.

Answer 38

Leticia is an adult and, even though her mother is paying for her therapy, this does not limit Leticia's confidentiality. a. Incorrect Discussing Leticia's status with her mother without Leticia's consent would represent a breach of confidentiality. b. Incorrect This alternative does not explicitly violate ethical guidelines, but response c is a better answer. c. CORRECT This course of action is most consistent with ethical guidelines regarding confidentiality and is also likely to be in the best interests of Leticia from a clinical perspective. d. Incorrect This would not be the most appropriate course of action from either an ethical or clinical perspective. The correct answer is: tell Mrs. Lopez that it would be best if you discussed this matter with Leticia.

Answer 39

The APA's Ethics Code and the Canadian Code of Ethics both discourage psychologists from becoming sexually involved with former therapy clients. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Standard 10.08 of the APA's Ethics Code states that sexual intimacies with former therapy clients may be acceptable two years after termination of therapy when certain conditions are met (e.g., when there is no exploitation of the client), while Principle II.27 of the Canadian Code of Ethics states that sexual intimacies with former therapy clients must be avoided when "the power relationship reasonably could be expected to influence the client's decision making." d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: Psychologists are prohibited from having sexual intimacies with former therapy clients in certain circumstances (e.g., when there is a risk of exploitation).

Answer 40

Privilege is a legal term that refers to a client's confidentiality in the context of a legal proceeding. Privilege is addressed in the discussion of privacy and confidentiality in the Ethics Manual of the written study materials. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT Privilege is a legal requirement that prohibits (with some exceptions) confidential client information from being disclosed in legal proceedings. The client is ordinarily the holder of the privilege - i.e., in most circumstances, only the client can determine when confidential information may be disclosed. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: the client.

Answer 41

As with many exam questions that pose an ethical dilemma, the best answer to this one is the answer that describes the most conservative (cautious) action. a. Incorrect Attraction to a client is not necessarily "normal" and "proceeding with caution" may not be adequate. Therefore, response d is a better answer. b. Incorrect Whether an attraction toward a client should ever be discussed with the client is a controversial issue among therapists. In most cases, however, it is not advisable. c. Incorrect Referring Lisa to another therapist might be the appropriate action if Dr. Jones feels that his attraction to Lisa is interfering with his ability to treat her. The information given in the question, however, does not suggest that this is the case, and response d is a better answer. d. CORRECT The most professional and ethical behavior in this situation would be for Dr. Jones to recognize his feelings while realizing that, as a professional, he cannot act on those feelings. It would be acceptable, under these conditions, for Dr. Jones to continue working with Lisa unless his feelings begin to interfere with his ability to provide treatment to her. If this occurs, Dr. Jones should seek professional consultation to determine the best course of action, and doing so would be consistent with the provisions of Standard 2.06 of the APA's Ethics Code. The correct answer is: continue working with Lisa but consult with a colleague if he believes his attraction might be interfering with his objectivity.

Answer 42

The primary goal of the psychology licensing board is the protection of the public. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Psychology licensing boards protect the public by creating and enforcing regulations designed to ensure that psychologists meet minimal levels of competence. While the boards sanction psychologists for illegal and unethical behavior (answer b), this is only one of a number of functions that serve the overall goal of protecting public welfare. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: protecting the public welfare.

Answer 43

The use of deception in research is addressed in Standard 8.07 of the APA's Ethics Code and Principles III.23, 24, and 27 of the Canadian Code of Ethics and is discussed in the chapter on ethics and professional issues in the written study materials. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT According to ethical guidelines, deception can be used in research only when it is justified by the study"s potential value, when it has been determined that alternative procedures are not available, and when participants are not deceived about aspects of a study that would otherwise influence their willingness to participate in the study. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: Deception is prohibited whenever it involves deceiving potential participants about aspects of the study that would affect their willingness to participate.

Answer 44

Standard 8.09 of the APA's Ethics Code and Principle II.46 of the Canadian Code of Ethics address the use of animals in research. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Standard 8.09(e) of the Ethics Code states that "psychologists use a procedure subjecting animals to pain, stress, or privation only when an alternative procedure is unavailable and the goal is justified by its prospective scientific, educational, or applied value." Principle II.46 of the Canadian Code of Ethics provides a nearly identical guideline. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: Inflicting pain or stress on animals is acceptable in research only when an alternative (nonpainful) procedure is unavailable and the use of the procedure is justified by the potential value of the study.

Answer 45

Multiple relationships are addressed in Standard 3 of the APA's Ethics Code and are discussed in the Ethics Manual. Keep in mind for the licensing exam that the prohibition against multiple relationships is not absolute. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT The ethical guidelines discourage multiple relationships whenever there is a potential for exploitation or loss of objectivity. The prohibition against multiple relationships is not absolute, however, so if Dr. Solo is the only psychologist in town, seeing the teacher and discussing the potential for conflict is the best choice. A better course of action might be to see if the teacher can be treated by a therapist in a neighboring town, but this option is not provided by any of the answers. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect Confidentiality is not the only issue of concern in multiple relationship situations, so this is not the best answer of those given. The correct answer is: begin therapy with her and discuss the potential for conflicts during the initial session and, if necessary, in subsequent sessions.

Answer 46

This situation is explicitly addressed by Standard 1.08 of the APA's Ethics Code and indirectly addressed by Principle I.13 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Standard 1.08 of the APA's Ethic Code prohibits denying a person a promotion "based solely upon their having made or their being the subject of an ethics complaint." Note that this prohibition does not necessarily preclude doing so when a charge against a person has been proven (in the situation described in this question, the charge is unresolved). Although the Canadian Code of Ethics does not explicitly address this situation, Principle I.13 states that psychologists "abide by due process or other natural justice procedures for employment." The correct answer is: has acted unethically by violating the requirements of the ethical guidelines regarding employment procedures.

Answer 47

Publication credit is addressed in Standard 8.12 of the APA's Ethics Code and Principle III.7 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT Of the responses given, this one is best because it addresses the need to consider Dr. Z's contribution to the research project (and Dr. X's lack of contribution). Ethical guidelines emphasize that it is a person's contribution, not his or her position or status, that determines publication credit. Moreover, when a published study is based on a student's dissertation, the student should ordinarily be listed as first author. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: Dr. Z should be listed as second author if her contribution warrants it.

Answer 48

Sliding scale fees are not explicitly addressed in the APA's Ethics Code or the Canadian Code of Ethics. a. CORRECT Sliding scale fees for psychological services are consistent with the "spirit" of ethical guidelines as long as they are fair and serve the best interests of the client. b. Incorrect See explanation above. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: ethically acceptable since it serves the best interests of his clients.

Answer 49

Consultation is addressed in Standard 4.06 of the APA's Ethics Code and Principles I.38 and 45 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. a. Incorrect This answer does not accurately describe ethical requirements related to consultation. b. Incorrect Obtaining a waiver of confidentiality is not necessary as long as the client"s identity is not revealed. c. Incorrect This answer does not accurately describe ethical requirements related to consultation. d. CORRECT This answer most accurately describes a psychologist's ethical obligation when consulting with a colleague about a therapy client. The correct answer is: it is unnecessary to advise the client of the consultation as long as the client's identity is not revealed.

Answer 50

Pro bono services are professional services that are provided for no compensation for the public good. a. CORRECT Pro bono services are not directly addressed by the APA's Ethics Code or the Canadian Code of Ethics. However, providing services for no compensation to serve the public good is certainly ethical. For example, pro bono services are consistent with General Principle A of the Ethics Code which states that psychologists "strive to contribute a portion of their professional time for little or no compensation or personal advantage." b. Incorrect Although psychologists are encouraged to provide services for little or no compensation, they are not required to do so. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: recommended.

Answer 51

This issue is addressed by Standard 5.06 of the APA's Ethics Code and Principle III.31 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect Providing individuals with inaccurate or misleading information would be unethical, but this answer states that solicitation is unethical only in this circumstance, which is not the case. d. CORRECT Although uninvited in-person solicitation of therapy clients is not entirely prohibited by ethical guidelines, the guidelines limit the types of in-person solicitation that are acceptable. Standard 5.06 states that "psychologists do not engage ... in uninvited in-person solicitation of business [from persons who] ... are vulnerable to undue influence"; and Principle III.31 states that psychologists do not exploit others by, for example, "taking advantage of trust or dependency to frighten clients into receiving services," which might occur when in-person solicitations are uninvited. The correct answer is: unethical when the solicited individuals are susceptible to exploitation or undue influence.

Answer 52

This issue is addressed by Standard 8.02 of the APA's Ethics Code and Principle I.24 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. a. Incorrect Simply warning the student of the negative consequences of withdrawing from the study would be coercive and, therefore, a violation of ethical guidelines. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT This answer is most consistent with ethical guidelines. Standard 8.02(a) states that research participants must be free to "decline to participate and to withdraw from the research once participation has begun"; and Principle I.24 similarly states that research participants must have "the option to refuse or withdraw at any time, without prejudice." The correct answer is: allow the student to withdraw from the study.

Answer 53

Termination of therapy is addressed in Standard 10.10 of the APA's Ethics Code and Principle II.37 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT The action described in this answer is most consistent with ethical requirements. Standard 10.10(a), for example, states that "psychologists terminate therapy when it becomes reasonably clear that the client/patient no longer needs the service, is not likely to benefit, or is being harmed by continued service," and Standard 10.10(c) states that, prior to termination, psychologists "suggest alternative service providers as appropriate." c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect In many cases, fourteen months is sufficiently long to consider the possibility of termination when a client has shown "no apparent change" in symptoms. The correct answer is: raise for discussion the possibility of termination and referral to another therapist.

Answer 54

Knowing that the Buckley Amendment is also known as the Family Education Rights and Privacy Act (FERPA) would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. Additional information about the Buckley Amendment is provided in the Ethics Manual. a. CORRECT The Buckley Amendment states that any school district may be denied federal funds if parents or other legal guardians of students or students who have reached the age of majority are not given access to the students' school records. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: the right of parents or legal guardians of a child to inspect the childs school records.

Answer 55

Dating students is ordinarily prohibited or discouraged because doing so represents a multiple relationship. a. Incorrect Dr. Carlson may or may not be violating ethical guidelines, depending on the circumstances (see response c). b. Incorrect The fact that Marla initiated the potential relationship is not relevant. c. CORRECT If Marla is a graduate student in another department, a relationship with her would not represent a multiple relationship because Dr. Carlson is not likely to be her instructor or advisor. d. Incorrect As long as Dr. Carlson does not have "supervisory, evaluative, or other authority" over Marla, it would not be a violation of ethical guidelines if he becomes sexually involved with her (see Standards 3.08 and 7.07 of the APA's Ethics Code and Principle II.28 of the Canadian Code of Ethics). (Note that personal relationships with students might be prohibited by university policy but that this question is asking about ethical guidelines.) The correct answer is: acting ethically as long as Marla is a student in a department other than the psychology department and will not be taking any classes in the psychology department.

Answer 56

Since the boy's parents have signed a release, you would ordinarily provide information to the school principal - but not necessarily all of the information that has been requested. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT The most ethical course of action in this situation would be to release only information that is relevant to the school's role in the boy"s treatment. Doing so would be consistent with the provisions of Standard 4.04(a) of the APA's Ethics Code, which states that written and oral reports include "only information germane to the purpose for which the communication is made." It is also consistent with the provisions of Principles I.37 and 39 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: release only that information you believe to be relevant to the school's concerns.

Answer 57

This issue is addressed by Standard 8.04 of the APA's Ethics Code and Principle I.36 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. a. CORRECT This answer is most consistent with ethical guidelines. Standard 8.04(b), for example, states that "when research participation is a course requirement or an opportunity for extra credit, the prospective participant is given the choice of equitable alternative activities." b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: ethical as long as students can choose to participate in an alternative activity instead.

Answer 58

The Tarasoff decision established that, under certain circumstances, client confidentiality must be breached when the client is a danger to others. Additional information on the ruling is provided in the Ethics Manual. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT Although the original 1974 Tarasoff decision established a "duty to warn" the intended victim of a therapy client, that decision was superceded by the 1976 rehearing of the case which established a "duty to protect" the intended victim. Specifically, the 1976 ruling states that a psychotherapist has a duty to protect an intended victim of a therapy client by warning "the intended victim or others likely to apprise the victim of the danger, ... [notifying] the police, or ... [taking] whatever other steps are reasonably necessary under the circumstances." c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: a psychologists duty to protect the intended victim of a therapy client.

Answer 59

This issue is addressed in Standards 1.04 and 1.05 of the APA's Ethics Code and Principles II.41 and II.42 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Ethical guidelines require psychologists to take action when they learn that a colleague has committed an ethical violation. This may involve addressing the issue informally when it seems appropriate to do so or reporting the violation to the Ethics Committee or licensing board when it does not seem appropriate for informal resolution or has not been resolved adequately through informal resolution. (Note that answer b is not the best answer because it states that a psychologist MUST report the violation to the Ethics Committee or licensing board, which is not true.) d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: may attempt to resolve the situation informally by discussing it with the colleague if it seems appropriate to do so.

Answer 60

Confidentiality is an important concern in any action that you take as a psychologist, and many ethical dilemmas will require consideration of this issue. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect If the information in the file is obsolete, it would be important to note this in any response to the Ethics Committee. However, this response does not address the issue of confidentiality and, therefore, is not the best answer. d. CORRECT This is most consistent with the provisions of the ethical guidelines, which require psychologists to respond to inquiries from Ethics Committees but, at the same, to address issues related to confidentiality (see, e.g., Standard 1.06 of the APA's Ethics Code). The correct answer is: respond immediately to the Committee's request but supply it with the requested information only after verifying that the client has signed a release of information.

Answer 61

Ethical Standard 3.07 states that "When psychologists agree to provide services to a person or entity at the request of a third party, psychologists attempt to clarify at the outset of the service the nature of the relationship with all individuals or organizations involved. This clarification includes the role of the psychologist (e.g., therapist, consultant, diagnostician, or expert witness), an identification of who is the client, the probable uses of the services provided or the information obtained, and the fact that there may be limits to confidentiality." a. Incorrect This is not true. There is no restriction regarding who can file a complaint against a psychologist (except that complaints generally cannot be filed anonymously). b. Incorrect This is not consistent with the provisions of the Ethics Code. c. Incorrect This is not consistent with the provisions of the Ethics Code. d. CORRECT In an actual case similar to this one (APA, 1987), the Ethics Committee censured the psychologist for not clearly explaining the purpose of the evaluation to the employee. The correct answer is: find that the psychologist acted unethically by not informing the employee of the purpose of the evaluation.

Answer 62

Overall, job satisfaction seems to be a stable trait. a. CORRECT This best summarizes the results of research on job satisfaction. It appears that job satisfaction is directly related to the tendency toward positive or negative affect, which is a stable characteristic. People with negative affect tend to be dissatisfied with work; people with positive affect tend to be satisfied. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: is a relatively stable trait and is minimally affected by job changes.

Answer 63

Group tasks are categorized as additive, compensatory, disjunctive, or conjunctive. Additional information on these tasks is included in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials. a. Incorrect On additive tasks, the coordinated efforts of several people add together to form the group product. b. Incorrect When performing a compensatory task, the average of the contributions of all members of the group represents the group product. c. Incorrect On a disjunctive task, the solution of one member of the group is chosen by the group to be the group's solution. d. CORRECT On a conjunctive task, the performance of the least competent member places a limit on the group's product or performance. Mountain climbing is an example of a conjunctive task. The correct answer is: conjunctive

Answer 64

According to expectancy theory, motivation is a function of three components: expectancy, instrumentality, and valence. For the exam, you want to be familiar with the characteristics of all three components (see the Industrial Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials). a. CORRECT Valence refers to the value a worker places on the outcomes that will be provided for successful performance. When these outcomes have positive valence, this increases the worker's motivation to perform. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: the employees beliefs about the value of rewards provided for successful performance.

Answer 65

Fiedler's LPC (least preferred coworker) scale measures the extent to which a leader describes ineffective subordinates in positive terms. A high LPC leader is one who has nice things to say even about inefficient workers. a. Incorrect Fiedler's theory is a "contingency" theory and predicts that the most effective leadership style depends on the nature of the situation. b. CORRECT According to Fiedler, low LPC leaders are most effective in low and high favorable situations, while high LPC leaders are most effective in moderately favorable situations. c. Incorrect This is not predicted by Fiedler's theory. d. Incorrect Fiedler did not directly address the issue of job motivation but, because his theory is a contingency theory, it implies that the ability of high and low LPC leaders to foster the motivation of employees would depend on the nature of the situation. The correct answer is: are more effective than low LPC leaders in moderately favorable situations.

Answer 66

For exam, you want to be familiar with all of the terms listed in the answers to this question. Additional information about these terms is provided in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials. a. Incorrect A test's incremental validity refers to the benefits that use of the test provides with regard to decision-making accuracy. b. Incorrect A test has discriminant (divergent) validity when it has low correlations with tests that measure different traits, characteristics, or abilities. Discriminant validity provides evidence of a test"s construct validity. c. CORRECT The selection test described in this question has different levels of validity for males and females -- i.e., it has differential validity. d. Incorrect A test has convergent validity when it correlates highly with tests that measure the same trait. Convergent validity provides evidence of construct validity. The correct answer is: differential validity.

Answer 67

The 80% rule is described in the EEOC's Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures and is used to determine if a selection test or other employment procedure is discriminating against members of a group protected by law. a. CORRECT As defined by the 80% rule, a selection test is having an adverse impact when the proportion of minority-group applicants who are selected is less than 80% of the proportion of majority-group applicants who are selected. b. Incorrect See explanation above. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: a selection procedure is having an adverse impact.

Answer 68

According to Lewin (1951), organizations continuously respond to forces that either promote or resist change. a. CORRECT Unfreezing, changing, and refreezing are the three stages of planned change identified by Lewin. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect These are the three stages of mediation. The correct answer is: unfreezing, changing, and refreezing

Answer 69

Realistic job previews may consist of job descriptions, videos, discussions with current employees, work samples, and/or other procedures or techniques. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Two assumptions underlying the use of realistic job previews are that turnover is related to unrealistic expectations about the job and that providing applicants with accurate information about what the job entails will reduce unrealistic expectations and thereby decrease dissatisfaction and turnover. The correct answer is: reduce employee dissatisfaction and turnover.

Answer 70

Super uses several pictures to illustrate elements of his life-space, life-span theory of career development. a. CORRECT The life career rainbow relates the individual's nine life roles (e.g., child, student, citizen) to five life stages (growth, exploration, establishment, maintenance, and disengagement). b. Incorrect Super does not use a life staircase to depict components of his theory. c. Incorrect Super does not use a mandala to depict his theory. d. Incorrect Super does not use an octagon to illustrate elements of his theory. The correct answer is: life career rainbow

Answer 71

Even if you're unfamiliar with "framing," you may have been able to identify the correct answer with your knowledge of transformational leadership. a. CORRECT Transformational leaders recognize the need for change and are able to communicate that need to employees. Framing is one technique these leaders use to inspire employees and involves describing the organization's goals in a way that makes them more meaningful to employees. b. Incorrect See the explanation for response a. c. Incorrect The term "framing" is also used to refer to a type of decision-making bias. In that context, framing occurs when the description of a problem in a positive or negative way influences the type of decision that is made. However, this question is asking about the use of framing by transformational leaders. d. Incorrect See the explanation for response a. The correct answer is: make the organization's goals more meaningful to employees.

Answer 72

The compressed workweek requires employees to work a 4-day, 40-hourweek. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Overall, alternative work schedules have been found to have more beneficial effects on attitudes than on productivity and this seems to be particularly true for the compressed workweek. For example, a meta-analysis of the research on the compressed workweek by Baltes and his colleagues (1999) found an effect size of .59 for satisfaction and .04 for productivity. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: positive effects on attitudes but little or no impact on productivity.

Answer 73

Hersey and Blanchard propose that a leader is most effective when his/her behavior matches the employee"s level of maturity. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Hersey and Blanchard distinguish between two aspects of employee maturity: Job maturity refers to the employee's knowledge and skills, while psychological maturity refers to the employee's self-confidence and willingness to assume responsibility. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: skills and willingness to assume responsibility.

Answer 74

Assessment centers were originally used during World War II as a means of selecting OSS agents. They are now used primarily for evaluating and predicting the performance of managerial-level employees. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT Assessment centers are used to evaluate managerial-level employees for the purpose of selection, promotion, or training and involve having participants engage in a variety of exercises, many of which simulate the actual tasks a manager performs on-the-job. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: hire and promote managers.

Answer 75

Answer A is correct. The paired comparison technique is a method of performance appraisal. See the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter for a description of other specific methods that you're likely to encounter on the exam. As its name implies, the use of the paired comparison technique involves comparing each employee to every other employee in pairs on each dimension of job performance. The correct answer is: evaluate an employee's job performance.

Answer 76

As its name implies, the rational-economic model assumes that decisions are based on a rational process. a. Incorrect This is not an assumption of the rational-economic model. b. CORRECT From the perspective of the rational-economic model, "rational" means considering all alternatives and their consequences before making a decision. c. Incorrect This is not an assumption of this model. d. Incorrect A criticism of the rational-economic model is that it does not take into account that a decision-maker's knowledge about alternatives is often incomplete. The correct answer is: decision-makers have complete information about all alternatives and their consequences before making decisions.

Answer 77

Of the procedures listed in the answers, only one is conducted specifically to facilitate decisions related to compensation. a. Incorrect A needs assessment is conducted to identify training needs. b. Incorrect An organizational analysis is often part of a needs assessment and is conducted to identify the organization's goals. c. Incorrect A job analysis is conducted to identify the essential characteristics of a job. Job analysis serves several functions in an organization and may be the first step in a job evaluation. d. CORRECT A job evaluation is conducted specifically for the purpose of determining the relative worth of jobs in order to set wages and salaries. The correct answer is: job evaluation

Answer 78

Vestibule training involves the use of a simulated job environment. a. CORRECT Vestibule training is used when on-the-job training would be too costly or hazardous, as it would be in pilot training. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: airline pilot

Answer 79

For the exam, you want to be able to distinguish between needs analysis, job analysis, and job evaluation. All three are described in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials. a. CORRECT Training program development begins with a needs analysis (also known as a needs assessment), which usually consists of three components: an organizational analysis, a job analysis, and a person analysis. b. Incorrect A job evaluation is conducted to determine the appropriate compensation for a job. c. Incorrect A summative evaluation is conducted to determine the effects of a training program or intervention after it has been developed. d. Incorrect A formative evaluation is conducted while a training program or intervention is being developed to determine if modifications are required in order for the program or intervention to achieve its goals. The correct answer is: needs analysis.

Answer 80

Scientific management was developed by Frederick Taylor (1911) who applied the scientific method to the study of job productivity a. Incorrect This describes McGregor's Theory Y managers. b. Incorrect This is an assumption of the human relations movement, which was an alternative to scientific management. c. CORRECT Taylor believed that employees are motivated primarily by economic self-interest and, therefore, that money is the most effective motivator. d. Incorrect This sounds like Maslow's need hierarchy theory. The correct answer is: Because employees value money more than other incentives, pay is the most effective motivator.

Answer 81

All of the terms listed in the answers to this question refer to constructs that are important in Holland's theory. a. Incorrect In Holland's model, consistency refers to the similarity of the individual's primary interests (highest codes). For example, realistic and enterprising are consistent but realistic and social are not consistent. b. CORRECT The question provides an accurate description of differentiation. A highly differentiated person obtains a high score on one personality type and low scores on all other types. c. Incorrect Vocational identity refers to the degree to which the individual has a clear and stable picture of his or her goals, interests, and talents. d. Incorrect Congruence refers to the degree of similarity between the person and the person's work environment. The correct answer is: differentiation

Answer 82

Even if you're not familiar with the Yerkes-Dodson law (which proposes that learning and performance are curvilinearly related to arousal), you may have been able to identify the correct answer on the basis of common sense - i.e., most people perform best when their level of arousal is somewhere between "none" and "a lot." a. Incorrect A low level of arousal can lead to boredom which can negatively affect learning and performance. b. CORRECT Moderate levels of arousal are associated with the highest levels of learning and performance. This is particularly true when moderate levels of arousal are combined with moderate task difficulty. c. Incorrect A high level of arousal can lead to stress and fatigue, which can negatively affect learning and performance. d. Incorrect Varying levels of arousal would not be optimal for learning and performance. The correct answer is: moderate levels of arousal.

Answer 83

The assessment of employee performance often involves subjective measures, which are associated with rater biases. One bias is the halo effect, which occurs when a rater's rating of an employee on one dimension of job performance affects his/her rating of the employee on other dimensions. a. CORRECT Training raters in the use of rating scales increases the accuracy of ratings, and research has demonstrated that comprehensive training can significantly reduce the halo effect. The halo effect and other rater biases can also be reduced with the use of multiple raters, ratings based on specific rather than global behaviors, and the use of certain types of scales, such as forced-choice and paired comparison scales. b. Incorrect Peer ratings, although they have been found to be good predictors of training success and subsequent promotions, have not been found to be an effective method of reducing the halo effect. c. Incorrect Making such results available to employees enhances employee acceptance of the appraisal process, but it does not help to reduce the halo effect. d. Incorrect This does not represent a direct method of decreasing the halo effect, although rater involvement in the entire rating process can increase a rater's motivation to fill out rating scales accurately and thoroughly. The correct answer is: Train the raters.

Answer 84

A major problem with subjective rating scales is that they are susceptible to rater biases and thus may not provide accurate information about an employee's job performance. However, biases can be controlled by using certain types of subjective rating scales. a. Incorrect The paired comparison method requires the rater to compare each employee with each other employee and, therefore, does eliminate response biases. b. CORRECT Likert-type scales and other graphic rating scales are very susceptible to rater biases, especially when the dimensions of job behavior being rated are very global. c. Incorrect The forced distribution is a method of controlling rater biases. d. Incorrect Like the paired comparison and forced distribution methods, ranking is a relative technique and helps reduce rating biases. The correct answer is: Likert scale

Answer 85

Title VII and related legislation provides for exceptions to antidiscrimination requirements when discrimination is necessary for the normal operation of the business. a. Incorrect This is not an acceptable reason for not hiring older workers. b. Incorrect One or a few "bad experiences" would not be sufficient justification for not hiring older workers. c. Incorrect This is not considered an adequate remedy by antidiscrimination legislation. d. CORRECT Age discrimination is acceptable if age is clearly a "BFOQ" (bona fide occupational qualification). For instance, Disneyland would probably not get in trouble with the EEOC for hiring only younger men for the position of "Prince Charming." The correct answer is: when younger age is clearly required by the nature of the job.

Answer 86

Implosive therapy and flooding are behavioral treatments based on the principles of classical conditioning. a. Incorrect Exposure is to the conditioned, not the unconditioned, stimulus. b. Incorrect Systematic desensitization utilizes counterconditioning. c. Incorrect As noted above, both techniques are derived from classical (not operant)conditioning. d. CORRECT Through exposure to the feared stimulus either in vivo (flooding) or in imagination (implosive therapy), the conditioned response is eventually extinguished. The correct answer is: They both lead to extinction of the undesirable response.

Answer 87

According to social learning theory, an individual learn (acquire) a new behavior simply by observing another person engage in that behavior. a. CORRECT Bandura concluded that observational learning involves four processes: attention, retention, reproduction, and motivation. The first two of these, attention (attending to and accurately perceiving the behavior), and retention (symbolic processing of the modeled behavior) are cognitive processes. b. Incorrect This is not an assumption of Bandura's social learning theory. c. Incorrect This is the opposite of what is true. Bandura has proposed that reinforcement is more important for performance than learning. d. Incorrect This is not an assumption of Bandura's social learning theory. The correct answer is: cognitive events act as intervening variables in the acquisition of a new behavior.

Answer 88

Knowing that Ellis's approach is classified as a type of cognitive-behavioral therapy would have helped you identify the correct response to this question. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT The basic premise of Ellis's rational-emotive behavior therapy (REBT) is that maladaptive behaviors and emotions are the result of irrational thoughts and beliefs. Thus, the primary goal of REBT is to replace the client"s irrational thoughts and beliefs with more rational, adaptive ones. The correct answer is: irrational thoughts and beliefs

Answer 89

In this situation, the parents' behavior (letting Elmo eat something other than the disliked food) results in termination of Elmo's tantrum. In other words, the parents' behavior is being negatively reinforced. a. CORRECT Escape conditioning occurs when a person"s behavior is maintained because it allows the person to escape an undesirable stimulus. Escape conditioning is a type of negative reinforcement. b. Incorrect In avoidance conditioning, a cue signals that the undesirable stimulus is about to begin. In this situation, the individual can avoid the stimulus entirely by performing the appropriate behavior as soon as he/she perceives the cue. Avoidance conditioning is another type of negative reinforcement. (For a more detailed description of escape and avoidance conditioning, see the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.) c. Incorrect In stimulus discrimination, a cue (stimulus) signals whether or not a reinforcer will be provided when the individual performs a particular behavior. d. Incorrect In stimulus generalization, the individual responds with a CR to stimuli that are similar to the original CS. The correct answer is: escape conditioning

Answer 90

In classical conditioning, a conditioned stimulus (CS) elicits a conditioned response (CR) as a result of its pairing with an unconditioned stimulus (US) that naturally elicits the unconditioned response (UR). If this is confusing or difficult to remember, the illustration of the classical conditioning process in the Learning Theory chapter of the written materials may help clarify it. a. CORRECT In Pavlov's studies, the tone was a conditioned stimulus (CS) - i.e., it elicited salivation only as the result of being paired with an unconditioned stimulus (meat powder) that naturally elicited salivation. b. Incorrect An unconditioned stimulus (US) elicits a response without conditioning (learning trials). In Pavlov"s studies, the unconditioned stimulus was the meat powder. c. Incorrect In operant conditioning, primary reinforcers are inherently reinforcing. Food and water are examples of primary reinforcers. d. Incorrect In operant conditioning, secondary reinforcers are not inherently reinforcing but acquire their reinforcing value by being associated with primary reinforcers. Tokens in a token economy are secondary reinforcers because they can be exchanged for primary reinforcers. The correct answer is: a conditioned stimulus.

Answer 91

The phenomena listed in the answers to this question are all cognitive distortions that have been identified as contributors to maladaptive behavior. a. Incorrect "Mustabatory thinking" is a term used by Ellis and refers to the belief that certain conditions must be met - e.g., "I must be liked by everyone; if not, I'm a terrible person." b. Incorrect Polarized (dichotomous) thinking involves seeing things as either "black or white." c. Incorrect Pesonalization involves mistakenly viewing oneself as the source of an event that actually had another cause. d. CORRECT As defined by Beck, arbitrary inference involves drawing a conclusion that is made in the absence of supporting evidence or in the presence of contradictory evidence. The correct answer is: arbitrary inference

Answer 92

The serial position effect refers to the tendency to recall items in the beginning and end of a list better than items in the middle of the list, especially when recall occurs immediately after rehearsing the list. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT One explanation for the serial position effect is that items in the beginning of the list have been stored in long-term memory, while those in the end of the list are still present in short-term memory. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: short- and long-term memory.

Answer 93

The Premack Principle is a type of positive reinforcement. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT When using the Premack Principle, a high-frequency behavior is used as the reinforcer for a low-frequency behavior. The Premack Principle is also known as "Grandma"s Rule" - e.g., "you can go out and play once you"ve cleaned your room." d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: a behavior that occurs frequently.

Answer 94

The child is being reinforced for every 5-minute period during which she engages in behaviors other than nailbiting. a. CORRECT Differential reinforcement is what it sounds like - i.e., it involves reinforcing behaviors other than (different from) the target behavior. b. Incorrect Response cost involves removing a specific reinforcer following a behavior in order to decrease the behavior. c. Incorrect Overcorrection is used to reduce undesirable behaviors and involves having the individual engage in alternative behaviors after performing the undesirable behavior (i.e., returning the environment to its previous condition and/or practicing correct behaviors). d. Incorrect When using the Premack Principle, a high-frequency behavior is used as a reinforcer for a low-frequency behavior in order to increase the occurrence of the low-frequency behavior. The correct answer is: differential reinforcement

Answer 95

Little Albert's response to a particular stimulus (the white rat) generalized to similar stimuli (other white furry objects). a. Incorrect Higher-order conditioning is a classical conditioning technique in which a neutral stimulus elicits a conditioned response as a result of its pairing with a conditioned stimulus. In this situation, other white furry objects were not "paired with" the white rat. b. Incorrect Negative transfer occurs when previous learning interferes with present learning. c. Incorrect Pseudoconditioning occurs when a neutral stimulus elicits a response due to the accidental pairing of the stimulus with another stimulus that evokes that response or when repeated exposure to a US increases the likelihood that the individual will respond to a neutral stimulus with a response similar to the UR. d. CORRECT Stimulus generalization occurs when an individual responds with a conditioned response to stimuli that are similar to the original conditioned stimulus. The correct answer is: stimulus generalization.

Answer 96

Systematic desensitization was developed as an application of reciprocal inhibition (counterconditioning). However, research using the dismantling strategy suggests that reciprocal inhibition is not the essential component. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT The results of research using the dismantling strategy has led researchers to conclude that repeated exposure to feared stimuli leads to extinction of the undesirable anxiety response and is responsible for the benefits of systematic desensitization. (For a description of the dismantling strategy, see the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.) c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: extinction

Answer 97

Stress inoculation (Meichenbaum & Jaremko, 1982) was designed to help people deal with stressful events by increasing their coping skills. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Stress inoculation is a cognitive-behavioral technique that consists of the three phases listed in this response -- i.e., conceptualization/education (also known as the cognitive preparation phase), skills acquisition and rehearsal, and application. The correct answer is: conceptualization/education, skill acquisition and rehearsal, and application.

Answer 98

A continuous schedule of reinforcement involves reinforcing the individual each time he/she emits the target response. a. CORRECT Satiation occurs when a reinforcer loses its reinforcing value because the organism has become satisfied (satiated). It is a potential problem when using positive reinforcement, especially when the reinforcer is a primary reinforcer and is delivered on a continuous schedule. b. Incorrect In the context of learning theory, sensitization has at least two meanings: It refers to either the initial increase in responsiveness to a stimulus when it is presented repeatedly or to the increase in responsiveness to a stimulus that occurs after exposure to a very intense or irritating stimulus. c. Incorrect Experimental neurosis occurs in classical conditioning when the organism is required to discriminate between very similar stimuli. d. Incorrect Spontaneous recovery refers to the return of a conditioned response following the apparent extinction of that response. The correct answer is: satiation

Answer 99

Researchers interested in memory distinguish between two types of rehearsal - elaborative and maintenance. a. CORRECT Elaborative rehearsal involves making new information meaningful in order to enhance its retention and retrieval. Relating new information to previously acquired information is one type of elaborative rehearsal. b. Incorrect This sounds more like maintenance rehearsal which involves the rote repetition of information. c. Incorrect This describes "overlearning." d. Incorrect This does not describe elaborative rehearsal. The correct answer is: making new information meaningful

Answer 100

According to the law of effect, a response that is followed by a "satisfying state of affairs" is more likely to be repeated. a. Incorrect Tolman is associated with cognitive maps. b. CORRECT Thorndike's research established a connection between the consequences of a behavior and the likelihood that the behavior will be repeated, and he referred to this connection as the law of effect. c. Incorrect Watson used Pavlovian (classical) conditioning to explain the development of fear responses. d. Incorrect Bandura is most associated with social (observational) learning theory. The correct answer is: Thorndike.

Answer 101

This question is asking which technique involves removing a stimulus following a behavior in order to reduce or eliminate that behavior. Note that, for the exam, you want to be familiar wih the four techniques listed in the answers to this question. These techniques are all described in greater detail in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials. a. Incorrect Negative reinforcement involves removing a stimulus following a behavior, but its goal is to increase the behavior, not to decrease it. b. CORRECT Response cost is used to eliminate an undesirable behavior and involves imposing a penalty or fine (i.e., removing a specific stimulus) whenever the undesirable behavior occurs. Response cost is an application of negative punishment. c. Incorrect The Premack Principle involves using a high frequency behavior as a reinforcer for a low frequency behavior in order to increase the low frequency behavior. d. Incorrect Differential reinforcement is used to decrease an undesirable behavior by reinforcing alternative behaviors. It does not involve removing a specific stimulus (e.g., tokens) following the undesirable behavior, which is what is occurring in the situation described in this question. The correct answer is: response cost

Answer 102

The process of gradually eliminating prompts is referred to as "fading." a. Incorrect Extinction refers to the removal of an unconditioned stimulus (classical conditioning) or a reinforcer (operant conditioning). b. Incorrect Shaping involves reinforcing successive approximations to the desired behavior. c. CORRECT The gradual reduction or withdrawal of prompts is called fading. d. Incorrect Thinning is the process of gradually reducing the frequency of reinforcement (e.g., of switching from a continuous to an intermittent schedule of reinforcement). The correct answer is: fading.

Answer 103

The research referred to in this question found that participants who slept remembered more than those who stayed awake. a. Incorrect Trace decay theory predicts that forgetting is due to the passage of time. If this theory were correct, participants who did or did not sleep would have exhibited similar levels of recall. b. CORRECT The results of this research suggest that forgetting is not due simply to the passage of time but, instead, to the events that follow learning. In other words, memory loss is due to the interference of other events. c. Incorrect Freud proposed that motivated forgetting is due to the repression of unconscious desires. d. Incorrect Retrieval failure theory predicts that a loss of memory is not due to a failure to store information in long-term memory but, instead, to an inability to retrieve that information. The correct answer is: interference theory

Answer 104

All of the individuals listed in the responses conducted studies on learning, but only one used chimpanzees as his research subjects. a. Incorrect Tolman's research with rats led to his identification of "latent learning." b. Incorrect Ebbinghaus acted as his own subject in research on forgetting. c. Incorrect Thorndike's research with cats in puzzle boxes led to the formulation of the "law of effect." d. CORRECT Kohler's work with chimpanzees led to his description of insight learning. The correct answer is: Kohler

Answer 105

As the result of pairing an imagined aversive scene with a sundae, eating a sundae has became unpleasant and, as a result, "sundae-eating behavior" will be avoided. In this situation, the imagined aversive scene is the US, the sundae is the CS, and the avoidance response is the UR/CR. a. Incorrect This situation is not similar to operant shaping, which uses reinforcement of successive approximations to a desired behavior to increase or establish that behavior. b. Incorrect This situation is not similar to prompting and fading. Prompting is used to facilitate the acquisition of a new behavior. Verbal instructions, physical guidance, nonverbal cues are examples of prompts. Fading is the gradual removal of prompts. c. Incorrect This situation is not similar to paradoxical intention, which involves imagining an exaggerated version of conditions surrounding a fear in order to eliminate the fear. d. CORRECT This situation is most similar to covert sensitization, a type of aversive counterconditioning in which the aversive stimulus (US) is presented in imagination. The goal of covert sensitization is to replace the desirable or pleasant response to a CS with an undesirable or unpleasant response. The correct answer is: covert sensitization

Answer 106

Blocking occurs when a CS blocks the ability of a second neutral stimulus from becoming a CS. a. CORRECT Blocking occurs when an association between the CS and the US has been established before the CS and a new neutral stimulus are presented together before the US. In this situation, the new neutral stimulus provides redundant information and, consequently, does not become associated with the US and does not produce a CR. b. Incorrect See explanation above. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: The CS is presented prior to the US until a CR is established; then the CS and a new neutral stimulus are presented together several times prior to the US.

Answer 107

Humans experience several changes in sensory abilities as part of the normal aging process. a. CORRECT Most adults begin to experience problems focusing on close objects by around age 40. This is referred to as presbyopia and occurs when the near focal point moves away from the eye. b. Incorrect See explanation above. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: our near focal point will move away from our eyes

Answer 108

Emotional contagion refers to the tendency of babies to cry at the sound of another infant's cries. This behavior is considered by experts to be the first sign of empathy. a. CORRECT Emotional contagion is observed in infants as young as two days. b. Incorrect See explanation above. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: in the first weeks of life.

Answer 109

PKU (phenylketonuria) is a recessive gene disorder. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT PKU involves an inability to metabolize the amino acid phenylalanine. Intellectual disability and other symptoms of PKU can be reduced or eliminated by a diet low in phenylalanine beginning at birth. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: a special diet.

Answer 110

Baumrind and her colleagues distinguish between authoritarian, authoritative, permissive, and rejecting-neglecting parents. It's very likely you'll encounter a question on these styles on the exam, so you'll want to be familiar with their characteristics and effects, which are described in the written study materials. a. CORRECT Of the four parenting styles, the authoritative style is most likely to produce independent self-confident children and adolescents. Authoritative parents combine rational control with warmth, receptivity, and the encouragement of independence. b. Incorrect Authoritarian parents impose absolute standards of control, stress obedience, and are willing to use force to obtain compliance. Their children tend to be insecure, anxious, and dependent and display a limited sense of responsibility. c. Incorrect Permissive parents provide their children with few controls or demands and display moderate levels of warmth. Their children exhibit little self-reliance, exploratory behavior, or self-control. d. Incorrect "Traditional" is not a parenting style identified by Baumrind. The correct answer is: authoritative.

Answer 111

Babbling involves the repetition of vowel and consonant sounds - e.g., bi-bi-bi and da-da-da. a. CORRECT Babbling initially consists of phonemes from all languages; but, by about 9 months, it narrows to include the sounds of the child's native language only. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: phonemes from all languages.

Answer 112

Kohlberg's theory of moral development consists of three levels, with each level including two stages. For the exam, you want to be familiar with the characteristics of the six stages, which are described in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials. a. Incorrect This is characteristic of the second stage of Kohlberg's conventional level. b. Incorrect This doesn't describe the second stage of the preconventional level. c. Incorrect This is characteristic of the initial punishment and obedience stage of the preconventional level. d. CORRECT Instrumental hedonism is the second stage of the preconventional level. Children in this stage consider the correct action to be the one that best satisfies their own personal needs. To illustrate this stage, Kohlberg described a 10-year old boy who, when asked what it means to be a good son, replied, "Be good to your father and he will be good to you." The correct answer is: doing so helps them satisfy their personal needs.

Answer 113

Piaget distinguished between two complementary processes that underlie cognitive development: assimilation and accommodation. a. CORRECT Assimilation involves incorporating new knowledge into existing cognitive structures or schemes. The child in the question doesn't know what a dog is and is incorporating it into her existing "kitty" scheme. b. Incorrect Accommodation involves modifying an existing scheme or creating a new one. c. Incorrect Piaget did not use the term "categorization" to describe the incorporation of new knowledge into an existing cognitive scheme. d. Incorrect Centration is a limitation of the preoperational stage and refers to the tendency to focus on the most salient aspect of an object. The correct answer is: assimilation.

Answer 114

A number of child and parent factors have been linked to children's adjustment to the divorce of their parents. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Of the factors listed in the answers, the frequency and severity of post-divorce conflict between the parents has most consistently been linked to children's adjustment. In fact, some experts argue that it is marital conflict - and not the divorce itself - that is responsible for children's adjustment problems. The correct answer is: the degree of post-divorce conflict between the parents.

Answer 115

Knowing that Thomas and Chess studied temperament would have enabled you to identify the correct response to this question. a. CORRECT Based on their research, Thomas and Chess concluded that it is not the child's early temperament that predicts future adjustment but the match between the child's temperament and his/her caregivers' childrearing practices. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: a mismatch between the childs basic temperament and his/her parents childrearing practices.

Answer 116

Stranger anxiety involves anxious, fearful responses in the presence of a stranger, especially when a caregiver is not present. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Although the experts differ somewhat with regard to the exact age of onset of stranger anxiety, most agree that it begins during the second half of the first year. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: 8 to 10

Answer 117

Elkind (1967) proposed that adolescents experience a renewed egocentrisim that is manifested in several ways. a. Incorrect Self-conscious emotions include shame, embarrassment, and pride and are not relevant to Elkind's explanation for Alice's behavior. b. Incorrect The personal fable is one manifestation of adolescent egocentrism but does not describe Alice's concern. It refers to the belief that one is special and unique and not subject to the same dangers as other people are. c. Incorrect Social referencing refers to relying on the emotional response of another person (e.g., caregiver) to decide how to respond in an ambiguous situation. d. CORRECT Elkind used the term "imaginary audience" to describe the adolescent's belief that he/she is the focus of everyone's attention. The correct answer is: the imaginary audience.

Answer 118

Bronfenbrenner's ecological model distinguishes between five layers (levels) that influence a child's development: microsystem, mesosystem, exosystem, macrosystem, and chronosystem. a. CORRECT The mesosystem is the second layer and consists of interactions between components of the microsystem - e.g., the parents' involvement in the child's school experiences and interactions between the child's church and community. b. Incorrect The exosystem consists of elements in the social setting that indirectly affect the child's development (e.g., the parents' jobs). c. Incorrect The macrosystem is the outermost layer and includes the values, laws, customs, etc. of the child's culture. d. Incorrect The endosystem is not one of the levels identified by Bronfenbrenner. The correct answer is: mesosystem

Answer 119

Erikson's psychosocial theory proposes that personality development occurs throughout the lifespan and involves eight stages and, for the exam, you want to be familiar with the names of the stages and the ages at which they occur. a. Incorrect The industry vs. inferiority stage is characteristic of children aged 6 to 11 years and corresponds to Freud's latency stage. b. Incorrect The autonomy vs. shame and doubt stage occurs between the ages of 1 and 3 years and corresponds to Freud's anal stage. c. Incorrect The basic trust vs. mistrust stage occurs from birth to 1 year of age and corresponds to Freud's oral stage. d. CORRECT The initiative vs. guilt stage is characteristic of children aged 3 to 6 years and corresponds to Freud's phallic stage. The correct answer is: initiative vs. guilt

Answer 120

The four attachment patterns described by Ainsworth and her colleagues (secure, insecure/ambivalent, insecure/avoidant, and disorganized/disoriented) are described in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials. You'll want to become familiar with the characteristics associated with each pattern because you're likely to encounter a question similar to this one on the exam. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT In Ainsworth's "strange situation," insecure/avoidant children are uninterested in exploration, show little distress when separated from their mothers, and avoid her when she returns. The correct answer is: shows little distress when separated from his/her mother and turns away from her when she returns.

Answer 121

Imprinting refers to the bond that develops during a critical period following birth in some non-human species. a. CORRECT The ethologist Lorenz found that geese bonded to the first moving object they encounter during the first few days following birth. His research led to a search for a similar "critical period" for attachment in human infants. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: a critical period for attachment

Answer 122

The social learning approach of Patterson and his colleagues focuses on the family factors that contribute to aggressiveness in children. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Patterson et al.'s "coercive family interaction model" attributes aggression in children primarily to interactions between parents and their children, especially interactions involving the parents' childrearing behaviors. The correct answer is: the parents childrearing behaviors

Answer 123

Not surprisingly, it is the higher centers of the brain that are least developed at birth. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT The cerebral cortex, which is responsible for higher-level cognitive skills, complex motor behaviors, language, and spatial skills, is almost completely undeveloped at birth. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: cerebral cortex

Answer 124

For the exam, you want to be familiar with the language milestones of early childhood that are described in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Most infants say their first recognizable word at 12 months of age. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: 12

Answer 125

The consistent and deliberate use of memory strategies does not occur until age 9 or 10. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect Preschoolers sometimes use memory strategies but do so in non-deliberate and often ineffective ways. In addition, children of this age can be taught to use memory strategies for a specific task but do not apply them to new tasks. c. CORRECT The research has shown that the deliberate and consistent use of the memory strategies listed in the question begins at about 9 to 10 years of age. d. Incorrect The use of these strategies continues to be "fine-tuned" during adolescence. The correct answer is: 9 to 10

Answer 126

Approximately 1 in 200 babies is born with a chromosomal abnormality. a. Incorrect Down syndrome is attributable to the presence of an extra chromosome. b. Incorrect Turner syndrome is caused by the absence of a chromosome. It occurs only in females and involves the absence of one X chromosome. c. Incorrect Klinefelter syndrome occurs in males and is due to the presence of two or more X chromosomes and a single Y chromosome. d. CORRECT Prader-Willi syndrome is caused by a chromosomal deletion, which occurs when part of a chromosome is missing. The correct answer is: Prader-Willi syndrome

Answer 127

Reflexes are unlearned responses to particular stimuli in the environment. a. CORRECT The rooting reflex occurs when the baby turns his/her head in the direction of a touch or stroke on his/her cheek. b. Incorrect This describes the Babinski reflex. c. Incorrect This does not describe the rooting reflex. d. Incorrect This describes the Moro (startle) reflex. The correct answer is: the newborns cheek is touched.

Answer 128

Auditory localization refers to the ability to orient toward the direction of a sound (i.e., by turning one's head toward the sound). a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Infants exhibit some auditory localization during the first month of life but, between two and four months, there seems to be a loss of this ability. At four months, the ability returns, and by, one year, is completely (or almost completely) established. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: has fully developed by about the end of the first year.

Answer 129

Although "just say no" and educational programs are probably the most popular types of anti-drug programs aimed at children and adolescents, the research suggests that their success is destined to be limited because they are based on the wrong assumptions regarding the causes of problem drug use. a. Incorrect While peer pressure does underlie experimentation with drugs, it does not seem to be linked with problem drug use among adolescents. b. Incorrect Lack of information has not been found to be a significant contributor to problem drug use. c. CORRECT Based on their longitudinal study, J. Shedler and J. Block (Adolescent Drug Use and Psychological Health, American Psychologist, 45, 612-630, 1990) conclude that problem drug users exhibit a coherent syndrome, often as early as age 7, that is characterized by alienation, impulsivity, and subjective distress and that these symptoms clearly precede the onset of drug use. d. Incorrect Experimentation is only a predictor of problem drug use in the presence of the syndrome described above. The correct answer is: alienation, impulsivity, and subjective distress.

Answer 130

Although children vary considerably in motor and other aspects of development, some generalizations can be made. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT At about 9 to 10 months, most babies are able to take a few steps while holding onto furniture. This is followed, at about 12 to 13 months, by the ability to walk without help or support. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: 9 to 10 months of age.

Answer 131

This question is asking about the Rosenthal effect, which is also known as the self-fulfilling prophecy effect and was originally described by Rosenthal and Jacobson (1968). a. CORRECT Rosenthal and Jacobson found that telling a teacher that randomly selected children were expected to be academic spurters had a self-fulfilling prophecy effect. In other words, those children showed greater improvements at the end of the school year than children who were not identified as academic spurters. b. Incorrect See explanation above. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: will have made more gains than the other students in the class by the end of the school year.

Answer 132

The developmental trajectories of rejected and neglected children differ, with outcomes generally being worse for rejected children. a. CORRECT Studies of rejected and neglected children have found that changing schools doesn't help rejected children who continue to be rejected in the new environment. In contrast, when neglected children change schools, their peer status often changes. See J. D. Coie and J. B. Kupersmidt, A behavioral analysis of emerging social status in boys' groups, Child Development, 1983, 54, 1400-1416. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: has no effect on the peer status of rejected children but may have beneficial effects on the peer status of neglected children.

Answer 133

For the exam, you want to be familiar with the effects of age on sleep patterns that are described in the written study materials. a. Incorrect Increasing age is associated with decreases in REM, Stage 3, and Stage 4 sleep. b. Incorrect This is not true as evidenced by the fact that a lack of sleep at night is accompanied by increased sleepiness during the day. c. CORRECT As we age, our circadian clock advances, causing an advanced sleep phase, which means that we get sleepier earlier in the evening and wake up earlier in the morning. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: They often experience an advanced sleep phase.

Answer 134

Hypothyroidism is caused by underactivity of the thyroid gland. Like other endocrine disorders, hypothyroidism produces symptoms suggestive of a mental disorder. a. CORRECT These are the classic symptoms of untreated hypothyroidism, which produces a slowing down of functioning and diminished capabilities. b. Incorrect These symptoms are more suggestive of hyperthyroidism. c. Incorrect These symptoms are characteristic of hyperparathyroidism. d. Incorrect This sounds more like hypoglycemia. The correct answer is: depressive symptoms, mental slowing, and memory impairment

Answer 135

The question describes a typical task used to assess the effects of severing the corpus callosum. a. Incorrect Although the hippocampus is involved with memory, damage to the hippocampus will not necessarily result in the behavior described in this question. b. Incorrect The cerebellum governs coordinated movements. c. CORRECT Research on "split-brain" patients has found that severing the corpus callosum limits the amount of information that can be transferred from one hemisphere to the other. When an object is placed in the left hand of a split-brain patient, the information goes directly to the right hemisphere but cannot then be transferred to the left hemisphere, which governs language. d. Incorrect The RAS (reticular activating system) is involved in attention and arousal. The correct answer is: corpus callosum

Answer 136

Don't let the term "conditioned fear" confuse you. To answer this question, you just need to know which of the four brain structures listed in the answers is associated with emotion. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT The research (including research investigating conditioned fear) has shown that fear is mediated by circuitry in the amygdala. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: amygdala

Answer 137

A question on the exam on the corpus calllosum may be relatively easy like this one or may be more difficult and require you to know how functioning is affected in a "split-brain patient" whose corpus callosum has been severed. These effects are described in the Physiological Psychology chapter of the written study materials. a. CORRECT The corpus callosum is the largest band of fibers connecting the two hemispheres of the brain. Abnormalities in corpus callosum functioning have been linked to several disorders including dyslexia, ADHD, Tourette"s syndrome, and schizophrenia. b. Incorrect The arcuate fasciculus connects Wernicke's and Broca's areas and carries signals related to the production and comprehension of language. c. Incorrect The cingulate gyrus is part of the limbic system and is believed to be responsible for focusing attention on emotionally significant events, linking sensory input to emotions, mediating emotional reactions to pain, and regulating aggressive behavior. d. Incorrect The globus pallidus is part of the basal ganglia and is involved in motor control. The correct answer is: corpus callosum

Answer 138

Seasonal affective disorder is a recurrent type of depression that occurs in the fall and winter months and has been linked to reduced exposure to daylight. a. Incorrect The red nucleus is a midbrain structure and is involved in motor coordination. b. CORRECT Knowing that the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) mediates the sleep-wake cycle and other circadian rhythms may have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. The SCN's role in SAD is believed to be related to its impact on melatonin levels, which are generally higher in individuals with this disorder and are affected by exposure to light. c. Incorrect The tectum is part of the midbrain and is involved in auditory and visual processing. d. Incorrect The striatum is part of the basal ganglia and is involved in movement and certain cognitive processes. The correct answer is: suprachiasmatic nucleus

Answer 139

You're likely to encounter a question on the exam the characteristics or causes of Huntington's disease, so you'll want to be familiar with the information on this disorder included in the Physiological Psychology chapter of the written study materials. Also be sure that you can distinguish between Huntington's and Parkinson's disease. a. CORRECT The term "autosome" refers to a chromosome that is not an X or Y sex chromosome. Huntington's disease is transmitted by a single dominant autosomal chromosome. b. Incorrect See explanation above. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: autosomal dominant disorder.

Answer 140

You're likely to encounter at least two or three questions on the exam that require you to be familiar with the functions of one of the four lobes of the cerebral cortex. These are described in the Physiological Psychology chaper of the written study materials. a. Incorrect Damage to the parietal lobes affects somatosensory functioning. b. CORRECT The prefrontal area of the frontal lobes is involved in a variety of complex behaviors including emotions, memory, self-awareness, and executive cognitive functions. Depending on its location, damage to this area can cause disinhibition (impulsivity, loss of tact), apathy (limited motivation and initiative), and/or deficits in higher-order cognitive skills. c. Incorrect Temporal lobe damage may cause memory loss and auditory deficits. d. Incorrect Damage to the occipital lobes produces disturbances in visual processing. The correct answer is: frontal

Answer 141

Knowing that the James-Lange theory is a peripheralist theory of emotion would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT According to the James-Lange theory, the psychological experience of emotion follows bodily responses to external stimuli. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: I'm trembling, so I must be scared.

Answer 142

People with a Type A personality pattern are very competitive and achievement-oriented, have a sense of time urgency, and tend to be irritable, angry, and hostile. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT Most of the research on the Type A personality has found that, in general, it is not predictive of an increased risk for coronary heart disease. However, anger and hostility, which are characteristic of the Type A personality, have been linked to this disease and other stress-related illnesses. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: hostility and anger

Answer 143

For the exam, you want to be familiar with the characteristics of the five types of aphasia described in the written study materials -- i.e., Wernicke's, Broca's, conduction, transcortical, and global. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Wernicke's aphasia is characterized by impairments in the ability to produce and comprehend language. People with this type of aphasia have trouble understanding written and spoken language and their speech is fluent but unintelligible because it contains multiple errors including sound and word substitutions. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: fluent but unintelligible speech.

Answer 144

Each type of seizure listed in the answers is associated with a different etiology and combination of symptoms. a. Incorrect Atonic seizures involve a sudden loss of muscle tone that may cause the individual to fall down. The individual usually remains conscious during the seizure. b. CORRECT The question accurately describes an absence (petit mal) seizure. c. Incorrect Clonic seizures are characterized by jerky movements. d. Incorrect A simple partial seizure begins on one side of the brain and, at least initially, affects only one side of the body. It causes changes in movement and sensation but does not produce a loss of consciousness. The correct answer is: absence

Answer 145

The four symptoms listed in this question are caused by damage to the left (dominant) angular gyrus, which is located at the point of convergence of the parietal, occipital, and temporal lobes. a. Incorrect Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is a rare degenerative brain disease that usually leads to dementia and is characterized by memory loss, behavioral changes, loss of coordination, and visual disturbances. b. Incorrect Addison's disease is due to a lower-than-normal production of cortisol by the adrenal glands. Its symptoms include weight loss, orthostatic hypotension, weakness, fatigue, and hyperpigmentation. c. CORRECT These are the characteristic symptoms of Gerstmann's syndrome. d. Incorrect Gerschwind syndrome is a personality syndrome associated with temporal lobe epilepsy and is characterized by circumstantiality, hypergraphia, alterations in sexuality, emotional volatility, and, in some cases, hyperreligiosity. The correct answer is: Gerstmanns syndrome

Answer 146

The symptoms listed in each answer to this question are associated with lesions in a different lobe of the cerebral cortex. a. CORRECT The temporal lobe is important for auditory perception and long-term memory, and a lesion in this lobe affects memory, may produce hallucinations (especially auditory hallucinations), and often affects mood. Note that knowing that the temporal lobe plays a role in memory would have helped you identify this as the correct answer even if you're unfamiliar with its other functions. b. Incorrect These symptoms are associated with lesions in certain areas of the frontal lobe. c. Incorrect These symptoms are more likely to be caused by an occipital lobe lesion. d. Incorrect A lesion in the parietal lobe may produce these symptoms. The correct answer is: memory impairment, depression or anxiety, and hallucinations

Answer 147

Alma is unable to recognize familiar faces, a condition that is caused by damage to certain areas of the occipital and temporal lobes. a. Incorrect Paresthesia is an altered sensation in the skin that causes numbness or tingling. b. Incorrect Anosmia is the absence of the sense of smell. c. CORRECT Prosopagnosia is a type of visual agnosia that involves an inability to recognize familiar faces, often including one's own face. d. Incorrect Anosognosia is the inability to recognize (or the denial of) one's own neurological symptoms. The correct answer is: prosopagnosia.

Answer 148

The endocrine disorders produce a combination of physical and neuropsychiatric symptoms. a. Incorrect Hyperthyroidism is characterized by heat intolerance, tachycardia, hyperactive reflexes, distractibility, and impaired problem-solving. b. Incorrect Symptoms of hyperglycemia (high blood sugar) include polydipsia, polyuria, polyphagia, fatigue, weight loss, and recurrent infections. c. Incorrect Hypothyroidism is characterized by cold intolerance, bradycardia, fatigue, mental slowing, and decreased libido. d. CORRECT The symptoms described in this question are characteristic of hypoglycemia (low blood sugar), which has several causes including excessive production of insulin by the pancreas. The correct answer is: hypoglycemia

Answer 149

For the exam, you'll want to be familiar with the functions of the major neurotransmitters that are described in the Physiological Psychology chapter of the written study materials. a. Incorrect GABA is an inhibitory neurotransmitter. It is believed to play a role in anxiety, sleep, and eating disorders and is affected by CNS depressants. b. Incorrect Serotonin has been linked to a variety of functions including memory. However, abnormalities in serotonin levels have not been as consistently linked to the early memory loss of Alzheimer's dementia as have been abnormalities in acetylcholine. Instead, serotonin is believed to contribute to other symptoms of this disorder including sensory disturbances, mood swings, and sleep disruption. c. Incorrect Glycine plays a role in spinal reflexes and motor behavior. d. CORRECT Acetylcholine (ACh) mediates motor functions as well as memory processes, and decreased levels of ACh in the hippocampus have been linked to the memory loss associated Alzheimer's dementia. The correct answer is: acetylcholine.

Answer 150

For the exam, you want to have the hippocampus linked to memory consolidation. a. Incorrect Although the hippocampus contributes to memory consolidation, it does not appear to be involved in the storage of long-term memories. b. Incorrect The hippocampus has not been found to contribute to the ability to manipulate information in working memory. c. CORRECT The research has shown that the hippocampus is involved in explicit (conscious) memory and, more specifically, in transferring explicit memories from short- to long-term memory. d. Incorrect The hippocampus appears to be more involved in explicit than in implicit memory. The correct answer is: transfer information from short- to long-term memory.

Answer 151

Combining an MAOI (a type of antidepressant) with certain foods or other drugs can produce potentially fatal side effects. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Taking an MAOI in combination with foods containing tyramine can cause a hypertensive crisis which involves elevated blood pressure, severe headache, nausea and vomiting, palpitations, blurred vision, stiff neck, sweating, and confusion. The correct answer is: hypertensive crisis

Answer 152

One of the disadvantages of some of the atypical antipsychotic drugs is that they may cause agranulocytosis. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Agranulocytosis is an abnormally low level of white blood cells. It is a rare but dangerous side effect of clozapine. The correct answer is: blood

Answer 153

For the exam, you want to know that propranolol hydrochloride is a beta-blocker and is used to treat cardiovascular disorders, tremors, migraine headaches, and the physical symptoms of anxiety. You also want to be familiar with its side effects, which are described in the written study materials. a. Incorrect Propranolol HCl is used to treat hypertension and is contraindicated for hypotension. b. CORRECT Essential tremor (tremor associated with purposeful movement) is one of the conditions that propranolol HCl is used to treat. c. Incorrect Propranolol HCl is contraindicated for bronchial asthma. d. Incorrect Propranolol HCl is not used as a treatment for diabetes. The correct answer is: essential tremor

Answer 154

RNA is involved in protein synthesis and other cell activities. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT The results of research indicate that the coding of memory may involve changes in protein molecules and, consequently, that RNA acts as a chemical mediator for learning and memory. RNA has not been linked to the sleep-wake cycle, creativity, or motivation. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: learning and memory

Answer 155

For Jennifer, stimulation of one sensory modality triggers sensation in another sensory modality. a. CORRECT Synesthesia occurs when two or more senses are automatically and involuntarily joined so that stimulation of one sense automatically elicits another sense (e.g., a certain sound elicits a specific color). b. Incorrect Somesthesis refers to the sensory perception associated with the skin, muscles, joints, and viscera and includes touch-pressure, warmth-coolness, and proprioception. c. Incorrect Anosognosia is a lack of awareness of one's own disability or illness. d. Incorrect Alexithymia is an inability to describe one's own feelings. The correct answer is: synesthesia.

Answer 156

The autonomic nervous system is divided into two branches: the parasympathetic and sympathetic. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT The sympathetic nervous system mediates arousal and expenditure of energy and prepares the body for action, while the parasympathetic nervous system allows the body to increase its store of energy and is active during states of relaxation. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: sympathetic; parasympathetic

Answer 157

Knowing that the benzodiazepines are anxiolytics that are used primarily as treatments for anxiety and sleep disturbances would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. a. Incorrect These are common side effects of the psychostimulant drugs. b. CORRECT Common side effects of the benzodiazepines include drowsiness, impaired psychomotor ability, disorientation and confusion, anterograde amnesia, and depression. c. Incorrect These are signs of narcotic-analgesic overdose. d. Incorrect These are side effects of the beta-blocker propranolol. The correct answer is: confusion, memory loss, and psychomotor impairment.

Answer 158

When answering questions about split-brain patients, keep in mind that, in most people, language is controlled by the left hemisphere and that most functions are controlled contralaterally (an exception is olfaction). a. Incorrect Because information projected to the left visual field would go directly to the right hemisphere, a split-brain patient would not be able to say what he/she has just seen. b. Incorrect Information entering the left ear is sent to the right hemisphere and, consequently, the split-brain patient cannot repeat that information. c. Incorrect As noted above, olfactory signals do not cross to the other side of the brain. Consequently, stimulation entering the right nostril will be sent to the right hemisphere. d. CORRECT An image presented to the left visual field will be processed in the right hemisphere, which controls the left hand. Therefore, a split-brain patient will be able to perform this task. The correct answer is: identify a spoon with his left hand after an image of a spoon is projected to his left visual field

Answer 159

Being familiar with the purpose of one of the two tests listed in the question would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT The frontal lobes are involved in a number of functions including initiative, planning, and completing tasks in sequence. Performance on the measures listed in the question (Wisconsin Card Sort, Category Test) depends on intact frontal lobe functioning. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: frontal lobe damage.

Answer 160

Holland's six personality types are realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, and conventional ("RIASEC"). a. Incorrect This type of job is appropriate for an artistic individual. b. CORRECT Realistic jobs require mechanical, manual, and technical skills. c. Incorrect This type of job is suited to a person who is conventional. d. Incorrect This describes the investigative type. The correct answer is: require manual or technical skills and concrete problem-solving.

Answer 161

For the licensing exam, you'll want to be familiar with the tests designed for individuals with physical disabilities that are described in the Psychological Assessment chapter of the study materials. a. Incorrect The Haptic Intelligence Scale was designed for adolescents and adults with visual impairments. b. Incorrect The Hiskey-Nebraska Test is a measure of intelligence for children and adolescents with hearing impairments. c. Incorrect The PPVT was not originally designed for examinees with autism. d. CORRECT The PPVT requires the examinee to point to (or otherwise indicate) the picture that best corresponds to the word verbally provided by the examiner and was originally developed for examinees with a motor or speech impairment. The correct answer is: children, adolescents, and adults with a motor or speech impairment.

Answer 162

The test developer described in this question is trying to determine which items distinguish between specific criterion groups (i.e., people in different occupations). a. CORRECT Empirical criterion keying involves choosing items for different scales on the basis of how well the items distinguish between different criterion groups. This method was used in the development of the Occupational scales of the Strong Interest Inventory. b. Incorrect When using homogeneous keying, items are selected on the basis of the degree to which they measure the same domain. c. Incorrect When factor analysis is used for scale construction, items that correlate highly with the same factor are included in the same scale. d. Incorrect Multiple regression analysis is a multivariate technique that is useful when performance on two or more predictors will be used to predict or estimate an individual's score on a criterion. It is not a method of scale construction. The correct answer is: empirical criterion keying

Answer 163

Of the tests listed in the answers, only one is useful for evaluating the intelligence of a child with impaired hearing. a. Incorrect The Halstead-Reitan is used to identify individuals with neurological impairment. b. Incorrect The KABC-II is a measure of cognitive ability for individuals aged 3 to 18. Administration of the KABC-II involves verbal instructions, so it would not be useful for children with hearing impairments. c. Incorrect The Haptic Intelligence Test is a measure of intelligence for adolescents and adults with impaired vision. d. CORRECT A number of tests have been developed as alternatives to the Stanford-Binet and Wechsler tests for assessing the general intellectual ability of individuals with disabilities. The Hiskey-Nebraska test was developed for use with children aged 3 to 17 who have hearing impairments. The correct answer is: Hiskey-Nebraska

Answer 164

Confabulation on the Rorschach refers to the tendency to overgeneralize from a part of an inkblot to the entire inkblot. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Confabulation is associated with cognitive impairment, especially impairment related to organic brain dysfunction. The correct answer is: organic brain dysfunction

Answer 165

For the licensing exam, you'll want to be familiar with the IQ concordance rates listed in the Psychological Assessment chapter of the written study materials. a. Incorrect Bouchard and Gue (1981) report a concordance rate of .85 for IQ for identical twins reared together. b. Incorrect The concordance rate for identical twins reared apart is .67. c. CORRECT Bouchard and Gue report a concordance rate of .45 for biological (non-twin) siblings reared together. d. Incorrect The concordance rate for biological parent and child living apart is .22. The correct answer is: .45.

Answer 166

In the Larry P. case, a suit was brought against the California State Department of Education and the San Francisco School Board on the ground that the use of standard IQ tests as a placement technique resulted in an over-representation of African American children in special education classes. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT Judge Peckham"s ruling in the case of Larry P. reflected his conclusion that IQ tests are racially and culturally biased and, therefore, should not be used as placement tools for minority children. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: are racially and culturally biased.

Answer 167

The Bender-Gestalt II is a brief assessment of visual-motor integration. a. Incorrect See explanation above. b. CORRECT The Bender-Gestalt II is a drawing test that requires the examinee to copy several geometric figures. It is used to assess visual-motor integration and to assist in the assessment of perceptual disorders, organic brain dysfunction, and psychopathology. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: visual-motor integration.

Answer 168

The K (Correction) Scale is one of the MMPI's validity scales. For the exam, you want to be familiar with all of the MMPI validity that are described in the Psychological Assessment chapter of the written study materials. a. Incorrect An elevated K score might indicate an attempt to "fake good." b. CORRECT A very low score on the K scale indicates excessive frankness or self-criticism or an attempt to "fake bad." c. Incorrect The MMPI-2's validity scales were not designed to provide information about personality disorders. d. Incorrect The MMPI-2's validity scales were not designed to detect organicity. The correct answer is: is very self-critical.

Answer 169

For the exam, you want to be familiar with the four types of conflicts listed in the answers to these questions. Additional information about these conflicts is presented in the Social Psychology chapter of the written study materials. a. Incorrect An approach-approach conflict occurs when a person has to choose between two equally positive events or objects. In this case, the two cars have both positive and negative characteristics, so this is not the best answer. b. Incorrect An avoidance-avoidance conflict occurs when a person has to choose between two equally undesirable events or objects. Again, because the cars have both positive and negative qualities, this is not the best answer. c. Incorrect A single approach-avoidance conflict occurs when a single object or event has both positive and negative qualities. d. CORRECT As its name implies, a double approach-avoidance conflict occurs when a person has to choose between two objects or events that have both positive and negative qualities, which is the case in the situation described in this question. The correct answer is: double approach-avoidance

Answer 170

This question is vague, and you may have had to rely on the process of elimination to identify the correct answer. a. Incorrect The overjustification hypothesis predicts that internal motivation to perform a specific action is weakened when one is given external reinforcement for performing the action. b. Incorrect The self-serving bias applies to the attributions one makes about one's own behavior and is not relevant to the situation described in this question. c. CORRECT The fundamental attribution bias is the tendency to attribute another person's behavior to dispositional factors (e.g., traits) and, therefore, to expect a great deal of consistency in behavior. d. Incorrect Self-verification theory predicts that people prefer receiving information about themselves from others that is consistent with their self-evaluations. The correct answer is: fundamental attribution bias

Answer 171

Deindividuation occurs in conditions that foster a loss of personal identity. a. CORRECT This is the kind of behavior that was originally linked with deindividuation - i.e., the research found that people who are normally non-aggressive may act in aggressive ways in crowds as the result of their ability to act anonymously. b. Incorrect This describes bystander apathy. c. Incorrect This sounds like groupthink. d. Incorrect This is referred to as the sucker effect. The correct answer is: A usually quiet, reserved person acts uncharacteristically violent in a crowd because he is able to do so anonymously.

Answer 172

The concept of inoculation (McGuire, 1969) was derived from the medical model and is based on the assumption that a person will be better able to resist a persuasive communication when he/she has been "inoculated" against it. Inoculation involves providing weak arguments against a position and counterarguments refuting those arguments. a. CORRECT Inoculation has been shown to be an effective method for increasing an individual's resistance to persuasion. McGuire found, for example, that it is more effective than providing the individual only with arguments that support his/her initial position. b. Incorrect This is not the goal of inoculation. c. Incorrect Distraction is associated with increased persuasiveness when a listener is initially opposed to a message and decreased persuasiveness when a listener is initially in favor of a message. Inoculation does not involve distraction. d. Incorrect This is not a goal of inoculation. The correct answer is: increasing a persons resistance to persuasion.

Answer 173

For the exam, you want to be familiar with the definition of superordinate goals, what impact they have, and the classic research on these goals. These topics are all described in the Social Psychology chapter of the written study materials. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Superordinate goals can be achieved only through intergroup cooperation. In their Robber's Cave study, Sherif and his colleagues (1961) found that the introduction of superordinate goals was the most effective way for reducing intergroup hostility. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: reducing intergroup conflict.

Answer 174

Self-perception theory predicts that people judge or determine their own internal states in the same way that they determine the states of other people - i.e., by considering external cues. a. Incorrect This is predicted by cognitive dissonance theory but not by self-perception theory. b. Incorrect This is not a prediction of self-perception theory. c. Incorrect This answer describes the self-serving bias. d. CORRECT According to self-perception theory, we're most likely to rely on external information for determining or judging our internal states when internal cues are ambiguous, weak, or difficult to interpret. The correct answer is: people infer their own attitudes and emotions by observing their own behaviors and the circumstances in which those behaviors occur.

Answer 175

Even if you're unfamiliar with the cognitive bias being asked about by this question, you may have been able to identify the correct answer (confirmation bias) because it "sounds like" what is it. a. Incorrect The hindsight bias refers to the tendency to believe that, after an outcome occurs, you could have predicted the outcome beforehand. b. Incorrect The primacy effect refers to the tendency to remember stimuli that occurred first better than stimuli that occurred last. c. Incorrect The focusing effect is the tendency to place too much importance (focus) on one aspect of an event or situation when predicting a future outcome. d. CORRECT The confirmation bias is a cognitive bias which, as its name implies, involves focusing on and seeking out information that confirms our preconceptions. The correct answer is: confirmation bias.

Answer 176

Ajzen's (1991) theory of planned behavior (also known as the theory of reasoned action) predicts that behaviors are the result of several factors. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect This answer is only partially correct and, therefore, not the best answer of those given. d. CORRECT The theory of planned behavior attributes behaviors to three factors: attitudes toward the behavior; beliefs about people's opinions of the behavior and motivation to comply with people's expectations (subjective norms); and the intention to perform the behavior (behavioral intention). The correct answer is: behaviors are the result of attitudes, subjective norms, and behavioral intentions.

Answer 177

Attitudes are relatively stable evaluative responses to an entity or situation and are often described as consisting of three components. a. CORRECT Most researchers interested in attitudes describe them as consisting of three components: affective (evaluative), cognitive, and behavioral (conative). b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: affect, cognition, and behavior.

Answer 178

Studies on the effects of media violence on attitudes and behavior have confirmed the predictions of social learning theory. a. CORRECT The results of the studies are not entirely consistent but, overall, they indicate that frequent viewing of media violence is associated with an increased fear of the environment. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: fear their environment more than people who report being less frequent viewers.

Answer 179

As its name suggests, the randomized block ANOVA is the appropriate inferential statistical test when blocking has been used to control an extraneous variable. a. CORRECT When using the randomized block ANOVA, the extraneous ("blocking") variable is treated like an independent variable so that its main and interaction effects on the dependent variable can be evaluated. b. Incorrect A randomized block ANOVA would not be useful for this purpose. c. Incorrect A MANOVA would be useful for this purpose. d. Incorrect The chi-square test would be useful for this purpose. The correct answer is: analyze the main and interaction effects of an extraneous variable.

Answer 180

Heteroscedasticity means unequal variability. a. Incorrect This is not a conclusion that can be drawn from knowing that there is heteroscedasticity in a scattergram. b. Incorrect This is not a conclusion that can be drawn from knowing that there is heteroscedasticity in a scattergram. c. CORRECT Heteroscedasticity is occurring when variability of scores on the criterion differs for different scores on the predictor - e.g., when there is a narrow range of criterion scores for low and high predictor scores but a wide range of criterion scores for moderate predictor scores. A figure illustrating heteroscedasticity and homoscedasticity is included in the Statistics and Research Design chapter of the written study materials. d. Incorrect This is not a conclusion that can be drawn from knowing that there is heteroscedasticity in a scattergram. The correct answer is: the variability (range) of scores on the criterion varies for different scores on the predictor.

Answer 181

Statistical power is the ability to detect a false null hypothesis. a. Incorrect This answer describes a Type II error. b. Incorrect This is not a description of power. c. CORRECT This is an accurate description of power, which refers to the ability to reject a false null hypotheses. Note: If you're having trouble remembering what power is or what the difference between a Type I and a Type II error is, the Decision Outcomes table in the Statistics and Research Design chapter may be helpful. d. Incorrect Power refers to the ability to reject a false null hypothesis, not just to the ability to reject any null hypothesis. Therefore, answer c is the best response. The correct answer is: a false null hypothesis will be rejected.

Answer 182

Of the techniques listed in the answers, only one is used to study cognitive processes. a. Incorrect Event sampling is a behavioral observation technique that is useful when the behavior of interest occurs infrequently. b. Incorrect Situation sampling is a behavioral observation technique that involves observing a behavior in a variety of situations. c. Incorrect A functional analysis is used to identify the functions of a behavior - i.e., the antecedents and consequences that maintain the behavior. d. CORRECT Protocol analysis (also known as the "think aloud" technique) is used to identify the mental processes that occur during the solution of problems or the performance of tasks. The correct answer is: protocol analysis

Answer 183

In this situation, the analysis will involve comparing the frequencies (numbers) of Republican and Democrat voters at the two schools. a. Incorrect The two-way ANOVA is used when a study involves two independent variables and data on the dependent variable represent an interval or ratio scale. b. Incorrect The t-test is used to compare two means. c. CORRECT The chi-square test is used when data are reported as the frequency of observations, which is the case in this study - i.e., the analysis will involve comparing the number of Democrats versus Republicans at the two colleges. d. Incorrect The Mann-Whitney U test is used when the analysis involves comparing rank-ordered data obtained from two independent samples. The correct answer is: chi-square test

Answer 184

The choice of a correlation coefficient is based on several factors including the scale of measurement of the variables and the shape of the relationship between them (linear vs. non-linear). a. Incorrect The phi coefficient is appropriate when both variables are true (natural) dichotomies. b. Incorrect Kendall's tau is appropriate when both variables are measured on an ordinal scale. c. Incorrect Rho (also known as the Spearman rank-order correlation coefficient) is used when both variables are measured as ranks. d. CORRECT Eta is used to measure the relationship between two continuous (interval or ratio) variables when their relationship is nonlinear. The correct answer is: eta.

Answer 185

Knowing the formula for the standard error of the mean would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT The standard error of the mean is equal to the population standard deviation divided by the square root of the sample size. This formula indicates that, as the population standard deviation increases and/or the sample size decreases, the standard error increases in magnitude. A more detailed description of the standard error of the mean is provided in the Statistics and Research Design chapter of the written study mateials. The correct answer is: the sample size decreases and the population variance increases.

Answer 186

Autocorrelation refers to the correlation between measurements of the dependent variable when it is repeatedly administered to the same participants. Autocorrelation is a problem in repeated measures designs because it can artificially inflate the value of the inferential statistic and thereby increase the probability of making a Type I error. a. CORRECT Of the research designs listed in the answers, repeated measurement of the dependent variable is characteristic only of the time series design, which is a type of repeated measures (within subjects) design. b. Incorrect Factorial designs include two or more independent variables and do not necessarily involve repeated measurements of the dependent variable. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: time-series

Answer 187

When choosing predictors for a multiple regression equation, the optimal condition is for each predictor to explain unique variability in the criterion. When predictors are correlated, this condition is violated. a. CORRECT The term multicollinearity is used to describe high correlations between predictors (X variables). Additional information on multiple regression and multicollinearity is presented in the Statistics and Research Design chapter of the written study materials. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: the predictors are highly correlated with one another.

Answer 188

The Solomon four-group design combines the pretest-posttest control group design with the posttest only control group design. a Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT The purpose of the Solomon four-group design is to evaluate the impact of pretesting on a study's internal and external validity. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: evaluate the impact of pretesting.

Answer 189

True experimental research provides the researcher with greater experimental control than does quasi-experimental research. a. Incorrect An operational definition is a precise description of a variable in a way that facilitates its measurement. Variables are operationally defined when using either a true or quasi-experimental research strategy. b. Incorrect The choice of a parametric or nonparametric statistical test is based on the characteristics of the data, not the research strategy used. c. Incorrect Random selection is not a requirement for either true or quasi-experimental research. d. CORRECT The key feature that distinguishes true and quasi-experimental research is the ability to randomly assign participants to groups in true experimental research, which makes it possible to draw causal inferences about the relationships between variables. The correct answer is: randomly assign participants to treatment groups.

Answer 190

In a positively skewed distribution, the "tail" is extended on the high side of the distribution - i.e., most of the scores (outliers) are "piled up" in the low end of the distribution, while a few scores are in its high end. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT In a positively skewed distribution, the mean has the highest value; the mode has the lowest value; and the median is between the mean and the mode. A figure illustrating the relationship between the mean, median, and mode in skewed distributions is included in the Statistics and Research Design chapter of the written study materials. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: The mean is the highest score and the mode is the lowest score.

Answer 191

This is a difficult question because the answers are all somewhat convoluted. However, if you recall that multiple regression is used for the purpose of prediction, this would help you pick the correct response. a. Incorrect The Spearman-Brown formula is used to estimate the effects of increasing or decreasing the length of a test on its reliability coefficient and is not used in this situation. b. CORRECT The coefficient of multiple determination (which is the square of R) is used to determine if adding or subtracting a predictor has a significant effect on the proportion of variability in Y that has been explained by the predictors included in the multiple regression equation. c. Incorrect Although it is important to check the correlations between the predictors in order to avoid the problem of multicollinearity, this is not the best response. d. Incorrect You should have the term "eigenvalues" associated with principal components analysis, not multiple regression. The correct answer is: use R-squared (coefficient of multiple determination) to determine if predictability is substantially affected by adding or subtracting another X variable.

Answer 192

By the time you take the licensing exam, you'll want to have memorized the areas under the normal curve so that you can answer questions like this one. A figure that you may find helpful for this purpose is included in the Test Construction chapter of the written study materials. a. CORRECT In a normal distribution, 50% of examinees obtain scores at the mean or below and an additional 34% obtain scores falling between the mean and the score that is one standard deviation above the mean: 50% plus 34% equals 84%. Consequently, the score that is one standard deviation above the mean divides the distribution into two sections: 84% of the people in the distribution obtain scores below that score and the remaining 16% obtain higher scores. The test described in this question has a mean of 50 and a standard deviation of 5, so the score that is one standard deviation above the mean is 55. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: 55

Answer 193

Split-half reliability tends to underestimate a measure's reliability, so a correction formula is often used to estimate what the measure's reliability coefficient would be if it were based on the full length of the test. a. Incorrect The correction for attenuation formula is used to estimate the effects of increasing a predictor's and/or criterion's reliability coefficient on the predictor"s validity coefficient. b. Incorrect The standard error of measurement is used to calculate the range within which an examinee"s true score is likely to fall given his/her obtained score. c. Incorrect Kuder-Richardson 20 (KR-20) is a type of internal consistency reliability that is used when test items are scored dichotomously. d. CORRECT The Spearman-Brown formula is commonly used to correct the split-half reliability coefficient but can also be used whenever the goal is to estimate the effects of lengthening or shortening a test on its reliability coefficient. The correct answer is: Spearman-Brown formula

Answer 194

Because the relationship between a predictor and a criterion is never "perfect," any predicted criterion score for an individual may or may not be his/her actual criterion score. Consequently, a good strategy is to interpret an examinee's obtained score in terms of a confidence interval. a. CORRECT The standard error of estimate is used to construct the range within which an examinee's true criterion score is likely to fall given his/her predicted criterion score. This range is referred to as a confidence interval. b. Incorrect The standard error of measurement is used to construct a confidence interval around an examinee's obtained (not predicted) score. c. Incorrect The standard error of difference is used to construct a confidence interval around a difference score; i.e., a score that is calculated by subtracting scores on two tests (for example, by subtracting Performance IQ from Verbal IQ). d. Incorrect The standard error of the mean is the standard deviation of the sampling distribution of means and is not used to construct a confidence interval around a predicted score. The correct answer is: standard error of estimate

Answer 195

When a test developer wants to use a screening test to estimate or evaluate current behavior, he/she will be most interested in the test"s concurrent validity. a. Incorrect Content validity is of most concern when test items are expected to be a representative sample of a particular content domain. b. Incorrect Construct validity is of concern for tests designed to measure a hypothetical trait or construct (e.g., motivation, self-esteem). c. CORRECT As noted above, concurrent validity (a type of criterion-related validity) is of concern when the purpose of a test is to estimate an individual"s current status on some external criterion. Screening tests are usually used to estimate the results of a more thorough evaluation (the criterion) which, in this case, would be a more thorough diagnostic procedure. d. Incorrect The screening test is being used to estimate current status, not to predict future status. Therefore, concurrent validity would be of greater concern than would predictive validity. The correct answer is: concurrent

Answer 196

Covariation is another word for correlation, so this question is asking what technique is used to determine what accounts for the intercorrelations among a set of tests or other variables. You may have been able to answer this question using the process of elimination if you're familiar with the techniques listed in the incorrect answers. a. CORRECT The primary function of factor analysis is to identify the factors (dimensions) that explain or underlie the intercorrelations among a set of tests or other variables. b. Incorrect Path analysis is used to test causal models for the relationships among a set of variables. c. Incorrect Trend analysis is a type of analysis of variance that is used when the independent variable is quantitative. d. Incorrect Multiple regression is used when the goal is to predict a score on a criterion based on scores on two or more predictors. The correct answer is: factor analysis

Answer 197

The item discrimination index ranges from -1.0 to +1.0 and is calculated by subtracting the percent of low-scoring examinees who answered the item correctly (examinees who obtained low total scores on the test) from the percent of high-scoring examinees who answered the item correctly (examinees who obtain high total scores on the test). a. CORRECT An item discrimination index of +1.0 indicates that all of the high-scoring and none of the low-scoring examinees answered the item correctly. b. Incorrect An item discrimination index of -1.0 indicates that all of the low-scoring and none of the high-scoring examinees answered the item correctly. c. Incorrect An item discrimination index of .50 indicates that the 50% fewer of the examinees in the low-scoring group (versus the high-scoring group) answered the item correctly. d. Incorrect An item discrimination index of 0 indicates that the same percent of examinees in the low- and high-scoring groups answered the item correctly. The correct answer is: 1

Answer 198

A test's reliability limits its validity -- i.e., an unreliable test cannot be valid. The formula for the relationship between reliability and validity is given in the Test Construction chapter of the written study materials, and knowing the formula would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT A predictor's validity coefficient can be no greater than the square root of its reliability coefficient. In this situation, the predictor's reliability coefficient is .81, so its validity coefficient can be no greater than the square root of .81, which is .90. The correct answer is: no greater than .90.

Answer 199

In the context of test construction, shrinkage refers to a reduction in the magnitude of a measure's criterion-related validity coefficient. a. Incorrect A test has differential validity when it has different validity coefficients for different groups. b. Incorrect Incremental validity refers to the increase in decision-making accuracy that results from use of a predictor. c. CORRECT Cross-validation refers to validating a predictor with a new sample. Because the predictor is often "tailor-made" for the original validation sample (i.e., items are included in the predictor based on their correlation with the criterion for that sample), the chance factors that contributed to the original validity coefficient may not be present in the cross-validation sample. As a result, the validity coefficient for the cross-validation sample is usually smaller. d. Incorrect Process validation refers to determining that a process will continue to meet pre-determined standards and is not relevant to the phenomenon known as shrinkage. The correct answer is: cross-validation.

Answer 200

The various item response theory models produce item response curves (ICCs) that provide information on either one, two, or three parameters - difficulty level, discrimination, and probability of guessing correctly. a. CORRECT An item's ability to discriminate between those who have high and low levels of the attribute measured by the item is indicated by the slope of the ICC - the steeper the slope, the greater its discrimination. b. Incorrect An item's difficulty level is indicated by the ability level (charted on the horizontal axis) at which 50% of examines in the sample answered the item correctly. c. Incorrect Susceptibility to social desirability is not indicated by the ICC. d. Incorrect The probability of guessing correctly is indicated by the point at which the ICC intercepts the vertical axis. The correct answer is: the items ability to discriminate between high and low achievers.

Answer 201

A reliability coefficient is interpreted directly as a measure of true score variability. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Reliability is a measure of the extent to which a test consistently measures the attribute(s) assessed by the test - i.e., the extent to which scores reflect true score variability. Note that the reliability coefficient is not squared in order to interpret it but is, instead, interpreted directly. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: 80% of variability in test scores is true score variability.

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