Abnormal Psychology - Domain Quiz Flashcards
For individuals with Autism Spectrum Disorder, a better prognosis has been linked to which of the following?
a. No or minimal delay in motor development
b. An ability to communicate verbally by age 5 or 6
c. A brief period of active-phase symptoms
d. Strong family support
The correct answer is B.
Research investigating the effectiveness of neurofeedback as a treatment for ADHD has generally found which of the following?
a. It is not an effective treatment for most individuals with this disorder
b. It is an effective treatment and exerts its strongest effects on inattention and impulsivity.
c. It is an effective treatment and exerts its strongest effects on hyperactivity.
d. It is an effective treatment only when used in conjunction with a CNS stimulant.
The correct answer is B.
Compared to children in the general population, children with a Specific Learning Disorder are:
a. At lower risk for ADHD and other mental disorders.
b. At about the same risk for ADHD and other mental disorders
c. At about the same risk fo ADHD and other mental disorders but at higher risk for more severe symptoms.
d. At higher risk for ADHD and other mental disorder.
The correct answer is D.
The mean age of onset of motor tics in Tourettes is:
a. 1-3 years
b. 5-7 years
c. 9-11 years
d. 12-14 years
The correct answer is B.
Onset of Vocal Ticks is:
11
Of the brain abnormalities associated with Schizophrenia, which of the following has been found in the largest proportion of patients?
a. Enlarged hippocampus
b. Enlarged frontal lobes
c. Enlarged temporal lobes
d. Enlarged ventricles
The Correct answer is D.
Mary Ann, age 29, seems very nervous during her fist therapy sessions with you. When she speaks, her hands shake and she blushes. She tells you that, while she isn’t afraid to be around people, she gets anxious and flustered whenever she has to speak to people she doesn’t know. Mary Ann also says she has trouble talking to her supervisor at work because he’s condescending and critical. Based on these symptoms, the most likely diagnosis for Mary Ann is which of the following?
a. Specific Phobia
b. Social Anxiety Disorder
c. Panic Disorder
d. Generalised Anxiety Disorder
The Correct Answer is B.
A child with a Specific Learning Disorder is most likely to also receive a diagnosis of:
Select one:
a. OCD.
b. Enuresis.
c. Intellectual Disability.
d. ADHD.
Answer D is correct:Individuals with Specific Learning Disorder typically have an IQ in the average to above-average range but have higher-than-normal rates of other problems and disorders, with the most frequent comorbid disorder being ADHD.
The correct answer is: ADHD.
A person with Tourette’s Disorder is MOST likely to also have which of the following?
Select one:
a. depressed mood
b. an eating disorder
c. aphasia and alcalulia
d. obsessions and compulsion
Answer D is correct:Many individuals with Tourette’s Disorder have comorbid symptoms and conditions, with the most common comorbid symptoms being obsessions and compulsions.
The correct answer is: obsessions and compulsion
Difficulties in phonological processing have been linked to:
Select one:
a. stuttering.
b. Intellectual Disability.
c. dyslexia.
d. Tourette’s Disorder.
Answer C is correct:Phonological processing refers to the ability to process the phonological features of words (i.e., the ability to understand how sounds combine to form words). Problems in phonological processing have been linked to reading disabilities (e.g., dyslexia) and other learning disorders.
The correct answer is: dyslexia.
Research by Brown and Madan-Swain (1993) found that which of the following is true about treatments for childhood leukemia?
Select one:
a. Chemotherapy is associated with neurocognitive deficits but irradiation is not.
b. Irradiation is associated with neurocognitive deficits but chemotherapy is not.
c. Chemotherapy and irradation are both associated with neurocognitive deficits.
d. Neither chemotherapy nor irradiation is associated with neurocognitive deficits.
Answer C is correct:Brown and Madan-Swain’s (1993) research found that intrathecal chemotherapy and CNS irradiation as treatments for leukemia were both associated with impaired neurocognitive functioning and an increased risk for a learning disability.
The correct answer is: Chemotherapy and irradation are both associated with neurocognitive deficits.
The best prognosis for Autism Spectrum Disorder is associated with: Select one: a.an early onset of symptoms. b.a precipitating factor. c.verbal communication skills by age 6. d.normal adaptive functioning.
Answer C is correct:The prognosis for Autism Spectrum Disorder is generally poor, although certain characteristics have been linked to a better prognosis including the acquisition of verbal communication skills by age 5 or 6, an IQ of 70 or higher, and a later onset of symptoms.
The correct answer is: verbal communication skills by age 6.
The DSM’s use of polythetic criteria sets is useful for:
Select one:
a. recognizing the heterogeneity of symptoms for a particular diagnosis.
b. identifying comorbid conditions.
c. recognizing the impact of medical conditions on a mental disorder.
d. prioritizing diagnoses.
Answer A is correct:A polythetic criteria set requires that an individual meet only a subset of the criteria for a given disorder to qualify for that diagnosis. Consequently, people with somewhat different symptoms can be assigned the same diagnosis.
The correct answer is: recognizing the heterogeneity of symptoms for a particular diagnosis.
When using the DSM-5, severity of a child’s Intellectual Disability is determined by considering which of the following?
Select one:
a. the child’s score on an individual standardized intelligence test
b. the child’s adaptive functioning in conceptual, social, and practical domains
c. the etiology of the child’s disability
d. the discrepancy between the child’s cognitive and adaptive functioning
Answer B is correct:The DSM-5 distinguishes between four levels of severity for Intellectual Disability - mild, moderate, severe, and profound. An individual’s level of severity is based on his or her adaptive functioning in conceptual, social, and practical domains.
The correct answer is: the child’s adaptive functioning in conceptual, social, and practical domains
Which of the following best describes ADHD in adults?
Select one:
a. Hyperactivity becomes less prominent while impulsivity and inattention stay the same or become more prominent.
b. Impulsivity becomes less prominent while hyperactivity and inattention stay the same or become more prominent.
c. Inattention becomes less prominent while hyperactivity and impulsivity stay the same or become more prominent.
d. Hyperactivity and impulsivity become less prominent while inattention stays the same or becomes more prominent.
Answer D is correct:The symptoms of ADHD vary somewhat over the lifespan. Hyperactivity and impulsivity decrease over time, while inattention predominates the symptom profile during adulthood, with common signs of inattention including inconsistency in the ability to concentrate, difficulty maintaining routines, and an inability to prioritize and complete important tasks.
The correct answer is: Hyperactivity and impulsivity become less prominent while inattention stays the same or becomes more prominent.
A 28-year old male client presents with hallucinations and bizarre delusions. His parents report that his symptoms were not preceded by an unusual or stressful event and that he has had these symptoms for about six weeks. Your tentative diagnosis is:
Select one:
a. Schizophrenia.
b. Schizophreniform Disorder.
c. Brief Psychotic Disorder.
d. Schizoaffective Disorder.
Answer B is correct: The symptoms of Schizophreniform Disorder are similar to those of Schizophrenia, except that the duration of symptoms is between one and six months.
Answer A is incorrect: A diagnosis of Schizophrenia requires the presence of characteristic psychotic symptoms, impaired functioning, and the presence of symptoms for at least six months.
Answer C is incorrect: A diagnosis of Brief Psychotic Disorder requires the presence of characteristic psychotic symptoms for no more than one month.
Answer D is incorrect: Schizoaffective Disorder is the appropriate diagnosis when the individual has a history of concurrent symptoms of Schizophrenia and a manic or major depressive episode with at least two weeks without prominent mood symptoms.
The correct answer is: Schizophreniform Disorder.
A 34-year-old woman is convinced that her boss is in love with her despite that fact that there is irrefutable evidence that her belief is false. The woman’s belief is an example of which of the following?
Select one:
a. grandiose delusion
b. erotomanic delusion
c. idea of reference
d. illusion
Answer B is correct: A person who believes that another person (usually of higher status) is in love with him or her despite incontrovertible evidence to the contrary is experiencing an erotomanic delusion.
Answer A is incorrect: A grandiose delusion is characterized by an inflated sense of worth, knowledge, power, or identity or the belief that one has made an important discovery.
Answer C is incorrect: An idea of reference is the belief that events, people, or objects in the environment have a special significance for the individual.
Answer D is incorrect: An illusion is a misperception or misinterpretation of an actual external stimulus.
The correct answer is: erotomanic delusion
For a diagnosis of Schizophrenia, the DSM-5 requires the presence of two or more active phase symptoms for at least one month with at least one symptom being:
Select one:
a. hallucinations, delusions, or disorganized speech.
b. hallucinations, delusions, or grossly disorganized behavior.
c. anhedonia, avolition, or other negative symptom.
d. depersonalization or derealization.
Answer A is correct: The diagnosis of Schizophrenia requires the presence of two or more active phase symptoms for at least one month and continuous signs of the disturbance for at least six months. It also requires at least one active phase symptom to be hallucinations, delusions, or disorganized speech.
The correct answer is: hallucinations, delusions, or disorganized speech.
For individuals with Schizophrenia, the poorest prognosis is associated with:
Select one:
a. female gender, younger age at onset, and predominant negative symptoms.
b. female gender, older age at onset, and predominant positive symptoms.
c. male gender, younger age at onset, and predominant negative symptoms.
d. male gender, older age at onset, and predominant positive symptoms.
Answer C is correct: The prognosis for Schizophrenia is generally poor with a worse prognosis being associated with several factors including male gender, an early onset, and the presence of negative symptoms.
The correct answer is: male gender, younger age at onset, and predominant negative symptoms.
If a child has Schizophrenia, his or her biological sibling has a _____ percent chance of developing the disorder.
Select one:
a. 5
b. 10
c. 17
d. 48
Answer B is correct: The concordance rate for Schizophrenia for biological siblings is about 10%, which means that if one child has Schizophrenia, his or her biological sibling has a 10% chance of developing the disorder.
Answer A is incorrect: The concordance rate for a child who has one grandparent with Schizophrenia is about 5%.
Answer C is incorrect: The concordance rate for fraternal twins is about 17%
Answer D is incorrect: The concordance rate for identical twins is about 48%
The correct answer is: 10
Schizophrenia has been linked to several structural brain abnormalities with the most consistent finding being:
Select one:
a. larger-than-normal prefrontal lobes.
b. an enlarged hippocampus.
c. enlarged ventricles.
d. smaller-than-normal ARAS.
Answer C is correct: Schizophrenia has been linked to a number of structural and functional brain abnormalities. Of the structural abnormalities, enlarged ventricles have been most frequently found.
The correct answer is: enlarged ventricles.
A 63-year-old college professor exhibits impairments in memory and other cognitive functions and a depressed mood. Which of the following suggests that his symptoms are more likely due to “pseudodementia” than to a major or mild Neurocognitive Disorder?
Select one:
a. The onset of the man’s symptoms was insidious.
b. The man exaggerates his cognitive deficits and seems overly concerned about them.
c. The man has marked deficits in both recognition and recall memory.
d. The man exhibits greater impairment in declarative memory than in procedural memory.
Answer B is correct: The term pseudodementia is sometimes used to describe Major Depressive Disorder when it involves apathy and prominent cognitive symptoms (e.g., memory loss, impaired concentration, distractibility). A distinguishing feature is that people with pseudodementia are likely to exaggerate their cognitive problems, while those with a major or mild Neurocognitive Disorder tend to deny or minimize them.
Answers A and C are incorrect: An insidious onset of symptoms and deficits in both recognition and recall memory are characteristic of Neurocognitive Disorder.
Answer D is incorrect: This is the opposite of what is true. People with pseudodementia tend to have greater impairment in procedural than declarative memory.
The correct answer is: The man exaggerates his cognitive deficits and seems overly concerned about them.
Abnormal levels of melatonin have been linked to which of the following?
Select one:
a. Bipolar I Disorder
b. Major Depressive Disorder with seasonal pattern
c. Major Depressive Disorder with peripartum onset
d. Cyclothymic Disorder
Answer B is correct: Melatonin is a hormone released by the pineal gland and is involved in the regulation of circadian rhythms. One explanation for Major Depressive Disorder with seasonal pattern (also known as seasonal affective disorder) is that it is related to elevated levels of melatonin.
The correct answer is: Major Depressive Disorder with seasonal pattern
According to the DSM-5, the 12-month prevalence rate for Bipolar I Disorder in the United States is _____ percent.
Select one:
a. 0.6
b. 1.8
c. 3.2
d. 5
Answer A is correct: The DSM-5 reports the 12-month prevalence rate for Bipolar I Disorder in the United States as 0.6% and the prevalence rate across 11 countries as ranging from 0.0% to 0.6%.
The correct answer is: 0.6
Anita A., age 16, is brought to therapy by her mother who says the girl has recently become “another person.” She says that Anita used to be friendly and cooperative and popular at school. However, for the last few weeks, Anita has been constantly irritable, is not doing her homework and has failed several tests, and has been getting very little sleep. When the therapist interviews Anita, her speech is loud and rapid and she is easily distracted. He learns that she has started drinking alcohol nearly every day and has engaged in high-risk sexual behavior. The most likely diagnosis for Anita is:
Select one:
a. Conduct Disorder.
b. ADHD.
c. Bipolar II Disorder.
d. Bipolar I Disorder.
Answer D is correct: The nature and sudden onset of Anita’s symptoms (e.g., irritability, substance use, school truancy and failure, and loud, rapid speech) are consistent with a manic episode. Therefore, the most likely diagnosis for Anita is Bipolar I Disorder.
Answer A is incorrect: The diagnosis of Conduct Disorder requires a persistent pattern of behavior that violates the basic rights of others and/or age-appropriate social norms and involves at least three characteristic symptoms from four categories - aggression to people and animals; destruction of property; deceitfulness or theft; and serious violation of rules.
Answer B is incorrect: The sudden onset of Anita’s symptoms and the presence of mood symptoms are more suggestive of Bipolar Disorder than of ADHD.
Answer C is incorrect: The diagnosis of Bipolar II Disorder requires at least one major depressive episode and one hypomanic episode.
The correct answer is: Bipolar I Disorder.
Lewinsohn’s (1974) behavioral model attributes depression to:
Select one:
a. internal, stable, and global attributions for negative life events.
b. inadequate stimulus discrimination.
c. emotion dysregulation.
d. a low rate of response-contingent reinforcement.
Answer D is correct: Lewinsohn’s theory is based on the principles of operant conditioning and attributes depression to low rates of response-contingent reinforcement.
Answer A is incorrect: Internal, stable, and global attributions for negative events is identified as a cause of depression by the learned helplessness model.
Answer B is incorrect: Pavlov found that difficult discriminations led to experimental neurosis, but Lewinsohn’s theory does not link depression to inadequate stimulus discrimination.
Answer C is incorrect: Emotion dysregulation has been identified by Linehan as a cause of Borderline Personality Disorder.
The correct answer is: a low rate of response-contingent reinforcement.
The DSM-5 diagnosis of Persistent Depressive Disorder requires a duration of symptoms of at least ________ in adults and ________ in children and adolescents.
Select one:
a. three years; one year
b. three years; eighteen months
c. two years; one year
d. one year; six months
Answer C is correct: Persistent Depressive Disorder is also known as Dysthymia and is characterized by the presence of a depressed mood on most days for at least two years in adults and one year in children and adolescents.
The correct answer is: two years; one year
Which of the following is true about the prevalence of Major Depressive Disorder in adolescents and adults?
Select one:
a. The rates for males and females are about equal.
b. The rate for females is one and one-half to three times the rate for males.
c. The rate for males is about one and one-half to three times the rate for females.
d. The rate for females is four to five times the rate for males.
Answer B is correct: Prior to puberty, the rates of Major Depressive Disorder are about equal for males and females; but, beginning in adolescence, the rate for females becomes one and one-half to three times the rate for males.
The correct answer is: The rate for females is one and one-half to three times the rate for males.
Ella G. was involved in a serious car accident three weeks ago in which her best friend was killed. Since the accident, Ella has experienced a loss of positive feelings toward friends and family members, increased irritability, flashbacks of the accident, an inability to remember what happened in the days following the accident, nightmares about the accident, and derealization. She has been avoiding the intersection where the accident occurred, doesn’t like to talk about the accident, and has been having trouble concentrating and sleeping. Based on these symptoms, the most likely diagnosis for Ella is which of the following?
Select one:
a. Brief Psychotic Disorder
b. Adjustment Disorder
c. PTSD
d. Acute Stress Disorder
Answer D is correct: The cause, nature, and duration of Ella’s symptoms meet the diagnostic criteria for Acute Stress Disorder.
Answer A is incorrect: As its name implies, Brief Psychotic Disorder involves symptoms of psychosis such as delusions, hallucinations, and/or disorganized speech or behavior.
Answer B is incorrect: Adjustment Disorder is a residual category for symptoms that represent a response to a psychosocial stressor that does not meet the requirements for a diagnosis of Acute Stress Disorder or PTSD.
Answer C is incorrect: Although the woman’s symptoms are characteristic of PTSD, their duration is not: A diagnosis of PTSD requires a duration of symptoms for more than one month.
The correct answer is: Acute Stress Disorder
Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) is often manifested in children as excessive worry about:
Select one:
a. relationships with friends and family members.
b. injury and illness.
c. the future.
d. school or sports performance.
Answer D is correct: The symptoms of GAD are age-related, with children and adolescents most often worrying about performance in school and sports and about earthquakes, tornados, and other disasters.
The correct answer is: school or sports performance.
It is generally agreed that, when treating a child for school refusal, the initial intervention should be to:
Select one:
a. begin family therapy.
b. identify factors that are reinforcing nonattendance.
c. temporarily remove the child from the school environment.
d. get the child back to school as soon as possible.
Answer D is correct: When identifying an appropriate intervention for school refusal, it would be important to determine its cause. However, most experts agree that an initial intervention is to get the child back to school as soon as possible.
The correct answer is: get the child back to school as soon as possible.
Soon after losing his job, a 43-year-old man develops feelings of sadness and hopelessness. He has trouble even thinking about looking for another job and thinks his unemployment is already having an adverse effect on his marriage. The man’s symptoms have lasted for ten days, and he has no previous history of a mental disorder. The most likely diagnosis is:
Select one:
a. Adjustment Disorder with depressed mood.
b. Adjustment Disorder, unspecified.
c. Major Depressive Disorder.
d. Acute Stress Disorder.
Answer A is correct: The man’s symptoms suggest depression but do not meet the diagnostic criteria for Major Depressive Disorder. Also, the nature and duration of his symptoms and the fact that they were apparently the result of his job loss are most suggestive of Adjustment Disorder with depressed mood.
Answer B is incorrect: The man’s feelings of sadness and hopelessness are consistent with the depressed mood specifier for Adjustment Disorder.
Answer C: The man’s symptoms are not sufficiently severe or of sufficient duration for a diagnosis of Major Depressive Disorder.
Answer D is incorrect: The man’s symptoms do not meet the criteria for a diagnosis of Acute Stress Disorder.
The correct answer is: Adjustment Disorder with depressed mood.
The diagnosis of Reactive Attachment Disorder requires:
Select one:
a. evidence of self-injurious behavior.
b. an onset of at least some symptoms prior to two years of age.
c. a persistence of symptoms for at least two months.
d. evidence that symptoms are due to extreme insufficient care.
Characterized by a consistent pattern of inhibited and emotionally withdrawn behavior toward adult caregivers. The diagnosis is assigned only if there is evidence that symptoms are related to exposure to a pattern of extreme insufficient care.
Answer A is incorrect: Self-injurious behavior is not a diagnostic criterion for Reactive Attachment Disorder.
Answer B is incorrect: For the diagnosis, the onset of symptoms must be prior to five years of age.
Answer C is incorrect: The DSM does not specify a minimum duration of symptoms for Reactive Attachment Disorder.
The correct answer is: evidence that symptoms are due to extreme insufficient care.
The rates of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder are:
Select one:
a. higher for males in childhood but about equal for males and females in adulthood.
b. higher for females in childhood but about equal for males and females in adulthood.
c. about equal for males and females throughout the lifespan.
d. higher for females throughout the lifespan.
Answer A is correct: In adults, the rate of OCD is about equal for males and females. However, because the average age of onset is earlier for males, the rate for males is higher during childhood.
The correct answer is: higher for males in childhood but about equal for males and females in adulthood.
The treatment-of-choice for Agoraphobia is ordinarily:
Select one:
a. systematic desensitization.
b. covert sensitization.
c. exposure with response prevention.
d. EMDR.
Answer C is correct: For Agoraphobia and many other Anxiety Disorders, exposure with response prevention (ERP) alone or in conjunction with other interventions is the treatment-of-choice.
The correct answer is: exposure with response prevention.
When faced with a feared stimulus, a person with Specific Phobia, blood-injection-injury type will most likely:
Select one:
a. faint.
b. fall asleep.
c. scream.
d. have a seizure.
Answer A is correct: The blood-injection-injury type differs from other Specific Phobias in terms of the physical reaction to feared stimuli: For people with this type, feared stimuli produce an initial increase in heart rate and blood pressure that is immediately followed by a drop in both and, as a consequence, fainting.
The correct answer is: faint.
A hypnagogic hallucination is:
Select one:
a. a sense of detachment from oneself.
b. a drug-induced sensory perception.
c. a vivid dream that occurs just before waking up.
d. a vivid dream-like sensation that occurs just before falling asleep.
Answer D is correct: Hypnagogic hallucinations are vivid dreams that occur during the transition from an awake to a sleep state.
Answer C is incorrect: A hypnopompic hallucination is a vivid dream that occurs during the transition from sleep to wakefulness.
The correct answer is: a vivid dream-like sensation that occurs just before falling asleep.
At least eight times in the past month, Mark has experienced a sudden arousal from sleep that starts with a loud scream and is accompanied by signs of autonomic arousal. When his partner tries to comfort him during these episodes, Mark does not respond and, in the morning, does not remember what happened. Assuming that Mark’s episodes usually happen in the first third of the night during stage 3 or 4 sleep, the most likely diagnosis is which of the following?
Select one:
a. Narcolepsy
b. Nightmare Disorder
c. Non-REM Sleep Arousal Disorder
d. REM Sleep Behavior Disorder
Answer C is correct: Mark’s symptoms (sudden arousal from sleep that starts with a loud scream and is accompanied by autonomic arousal) and the fact that his arousal from sleep occurs during stage 3 or 4 sleep are consistent with a diagnosis of Non-REM Sleep Arousal Disorder, sleep terror type.
Answer A is incorrect: Narcolepsy involves recurrent episodes within the same day of an irrepressible need to sleep.
Answer B is incorrect: Non-REM Sleep Arousal Disorder and Nightmare disorder both involve awakening during sleep with autonomic arousal, but episodes associated with Nightmare Disorder usually occur later in the night during REM sleep. In addition, a person with Nightmare Disorder recalls having a dream that involved a threat to his or her survival or security.
Answer D is incorrect: REM Sleep Behavior Disorder is characterized by repeated episodes of arousal during REM sleep that are often accompanied by complex motor behavior or vocalizations that are consistent with the content of a dream.
The correct answer is: Non-REM Sleep Arousal Disorder
Dissociative Amnesia is most associated with:
Select one:
a. a loss of memory for events from the distant past.
b. an inability to recall personal information.
c. an inability to form new sensory memories.
d. an inability to attach emotions to memories.
Answer B is correct: Dissociative Amnesia differs from amnesias that have a physiological cause in terms of the nature of the memory loss. Specifically, Dissociative Amnesia is characterized by a loss of memory for personal (biographical) information.
The correct answer is: an inability to recall personal information.
Lead poisoning is associated with which of the following disorders?
Select one:
a. Tourette’s Disorder
b. Rumination Disorder
c. Pica
d. Enuresis
Answer C is correct: Pica involves persistent eating of nonnutritive substances (e.g., lead-based paint) for at least one month, with the eating behavior being inappropriate for the individual’s developmental level and not being part of a culturally supported practice.
Answer A is incorrect: Tourette’s Disorder is a Tic Disorder and is not associated with lead poisoning.
Answer B is incorrect: Rumination Disorder is characterized by repeated regurgitation of food that is not attributable to a medical condition and does not occur exclusively during the course of another eating disorder.
Answer D is incorrect: Enuresis is an Elimination Disorder and is not associated with lead poisoning.
The correct answer is: Pica
Research evaluating the effects of imipramine as a treatment for Enuresis suggests that it is:
Select one:
a. more effective than the bell-and-pad.
b. less effective than the bell-and-pad in terms of long-term effects.
c. about equally effective as the bell-and-pad in terms of both short- and long-term effects.
d. ineffective in terms of both short- and long-term effects.
Answer B is correct: Although imipramine has good short-term effects for Enuresis, it does not have good long-term effects.
The correct answer is: less effective than the bell-and-pad in terms of long-term effects.
The intentional production of symptoms for the purpose of obtaining an external reward is characteristic of which of the following?
Select one:
a. Factitious Disorder
b. Malingering
c. Somatic Symptom Disorder
d. Illness Anxiety Disorder
Answer B is correct: Malingering is characterized by an intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms for the purpose of obtaining an external reward such as avoiding work, receiving financial compensation, or obtaining drugs.
Answer A is incorrect: Individuals with Factitious Disorder Imposed on Self falsify physical or psychological symptoms that are associated with their deception, present themselves to others as being ill or impaired, and engage in the deceptive behavior even in the absence of an obvious external reward for doing so.
Answer C is incorrect: The essential feature of Somatic Symptom Disorder is the presence of one or more somatic symptoms that cause distress or a significant disruption in daily life accompanied by excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors related to the symptoms. The DSM does not require symptoms to be linked to a desire to obtain an external reward.
Answer D is incorrect: Illness Anxiety Disorder is characterized by a preoccupation with having a serious illness, an absence of somatic symptoms or the presence of mild somatic symptoms, a high level of anxiety about one’s health, and performance of excessive health-related behaviors or maladaptive avoidance of doctors and hospitals. The DSM does not require symptoms to be linked to a desire to obtain an external reward.
The correct answer is: Malingering
The research suggests that a person with Anorexia Nervosa restricts his or her food intake to alleviate restlessness, anxiety, and obsessive thinking, which are caused by:
Select one:
a. higher-than-normal levels of serotonin.
b. lower-than-normal levels of serotonin.
c. higher-than-normal levels of dopamine.
d. lower-than-normal levels of dopamine.
Answer A is correct: Research on the contributors to Anorexia Nervosa suggests that food restriction reduces higher-than-normal serotonin levels and thereby alleviates anxiety and other unpleasant feelings.
The correct answer is: higher-than-normal levels of serotonin.
Two weeks ago, Amy A., age 17, suddenly began experiencing weakness in both legs and a loss of balance, which causes her to fall down when she tries to walk. Amy hasn’t been able to go to school because of her symptoms and says she thinks they started after she had an argument with her best friend. A thorough physical examination has not found a medical explanation for her symptoms, and the symptoms are not compatible with any known neurological or medical condition. The most likely diagnosis for Amy is:
Select one:
a. Conversion Disorder.
b. Somatic Symptom Disorder.
c. Body Dysmorphic Disorder.
d. Acute Stress Disorder.
Answer A is correct: Conversion Disorder involves one or more symptoms involving motor or sensory functioning that are incompatible with recognized neurological or medical conditions and cannot be better explained by a medical or other mental disorder.
Answer B is incorrect: The incompatibility of Amy’s symptoms with any known medical or neurological conditions is more characteristic of Conversion Disorder than Somatic Symptom Disorder. In addition, no information is provided in the question indicating that Amy is having excessive thoughts and feelings about the symptoms, which is required for the diagnosis of Somatic Symptom Disorder.
Answer C is incorrect: Body Dysmorphic Disorder is characterized by a preoccupation with a defect or flaw in appearance that appears minor or is unobservable to others.
Answer D is incorrect: A diagnosis of Acute Stress Disorder requires exposure to actual or threatened death, severe injury, or sexual violation and at least nine symptoms from any one of five categories (intrusion, negative mood, dissociative symptoms, avoidance symptoms, arousal symptoms).
The correct answer is: Conversion Disorder.
According to Marlatt and Gordon (1985), relapse for an individual with an alcohol addiction is LEAST likely when:
Select one:
a. he or she is provided with an intervention that incorporates a 12-step program.
b. he or she is encouraged to view relapse as the result of external, controllable factors.
c. his or her denial is consistently and directly challenged.
d. he or she is in the “action” stage of change
Answer B is correct: Marlatt and Gordon’s (1985) relapse prevention therapy focuses on identifying circumstances that increase the individual’s risk for relapse and implementing strategies that will help him or her deal more effectively with those circumstances. According to Marlatt and Gordon, the potential for future relapse is reduced when the individual views lapses as resulting from specific, external, and controllable factors.
The correct answer is: he or she is encouraged to view relapse as the result of external, controllable factors.
A thiamine deficiency is associated with which of the following?
Select one:
a. Alcohol-Induced Major Neurocognitive Disorder.
b. Alcohol Withdrawal Delirium.
c. Alcohol Idiosyncratic Intoxication.
d. Alcohol-Induced Sleep Disorder.
Answer A is correct: Alcohol-Induced Major Neurocognitive Disorder is also known as Korsakoff Syndrome when its symptoms include anterograde and retrograde amnesia and confabulation. It is believed to be due to a thiamine deficiency.
The correct answer is: Alcohol-Induced Major Neurocognitive Disorder.
Moffitt (1993) attributes the adolescence-limited type of antisocial behavior to which of the following?
Select one:
a. a “psychopathic constitution”
b. observational learning
c. a “maturity gap”
d. neuropsychological impairment
Answer C is correct: Moffitt describes the adolescence-limited type of antisocial behavior as a temporary form of antisocial behavior that reflects a “maturity gap” between the adolescent’s biological maturity and lack of opportunities for adult privileges and rewards.
Answer D is incorrect: Moffitt attributes the life-course persistent type of antisocial behavior to neuropsychological impairments (especially deficits in verbal and executive functions), a difficult temperament, and exposure to a criminogenic social environment.
The correct answer is: a “maturity gap”
Orgasmic reconditioning is used to treat which of the following?
Select one:
a. Erectile Disorder
b. Genito-Pelvic Pain or Penetration Disorder
c. Paraphilic Disorders
d. Gender Dysphoria
Answer C is correct: Orgasmic reconditioning is used to treat Paraphilic Disorders and involves redirecting sexual arousal to more acceptable sources of stimulation by having the individual replace an unacceptable sexual fantasy with a more acceptable one while masturbating.
The correct answer is: Paraphilic Disorders
Symptoms of __________ are similar to those associated with a moderate to severe case of the flu (e.g., muscle pain and cramps, diarrhea, chills, sneezing, lethargy).
Select one:
a. Opioid Intoxication
b. Opioid Withdrawal
c. Cocaine Intoxication
d. Cocaine Withdrawal
Answer B is correct: Symptoms of Opioid Withdrawal are uncomfortable but usually not life-threatening and are similar to those associated with a bad cold or the flu.
The correct answer is: Opioid Withdrawal
The research suggests that sex therapy is most effective for which of the following sexual dysfunctions?
Select one:
a. Male Erectile Disorder
b. Orgasmic Disorder
c. Hypoactive Sexual Desire Disorder
d. Premature Ejaculation
Answer D is correct: Most forms of sex therapy are based on the work of MASTERS & JOHNSON; and their research and research by others has found sex therapy to be most effective for Premature Ejaculation and Vaginismus (Genito-Pelvic Pain or Penetration Disorder in DSM-5).
The correct answer is: Premature Ejaculation
A patient whose corpus callous has been severed to control severe epilepsy is blindfolded. When a familiar object is placed in his left hand and he is asked to say its name, he is unable to do so. However, when an unfamiliar object is placed in his right hand, he is able to say its name. Which of the following terms describes this phenomenon?
a. pure Alexia
b. ideational apraxia
c. synesthesia
d. unilateral anomia
The correct answer is D.
a. pure alexia – inability to read
b. ideational apraxia – inability to carry out purposeful movements, despite ability to do so. Ideational apraxia – inability to perform series of actions needed to perform a task (ex., making a sandwich, using a coffee maker).
c. synesthesia - stimulation of one sensory modality triggers an stimulation in another sensory modality (seeing blue when hearing the number 7).
d. unilateral (occurring on one side); anomia (inability to recall names of objects); this happens when the corpus callosum is severed.
Which of the following best describes the memory impairment associated with Mild Neurocognitive Disorder Due to Alzeimher’s Disease?
a. Episodic, semantic, and procedural memory are adversely affected to the same degree.
b. Procedural memory is more adversely affected than episodic and semantic memory.
c. Episodic and semantic memory are more adversely affected than procedural memory.
d. Episodic and procedural memory are more adversely affected than semantic memory.
Answer C.
Mild Neurocog. Disorder is associated with greater impairment of declarative memory than procedural memory. *DECLARATIVE memory consists of EPISODIC and SEMANTIC MEMORY.
D(E+S) vs. Pro.
Mildred M, age 26, says she rarely experiences strong feelings, describes herself as a “loner,” and says she doesn’t really care what other people think of her. Based on these symptoms, the most likely diagnosis for Mildred is:
a. Avoidant Personality Disorder
b. Shizotypal Personality Disorder
c. Schizoid Personality Disorder
d. Borderline Personality Disorder
The Correct answer is C.
a. Avoidant (would like to have close relationships, but avoid them)
b. Schizotypal (may say they would like to have close relationships, but their behaviour shows otherwise; exhibit cog. distortions and eccentric behaviour
c. Schizoid (restricted range of emotional expression and detachment from relationships and not concerned with what others think of her)
d. borderline (history of unstable relationships)
Borderline Personality Disorder is most commonly diagnosed in individuals who are ages:
a. 19 - 34
b. 29 - 44
c. 39 - 54
d. 49 - 64
The Correct answer is A.
Rates are highest during young adult years.
Despite the extensive research on EMDR as a treatment for PTSD, it continues to be a controversial treatment. The best conclusion that can be drawn from the research is that EMDR:
a. is clearly less effective than Cognitive- Behavioural interventions that include exposure
b. seems to be effective only when it is applied within 24 hours after exposure to the traumatic event.
c. is effective, and eye movements are pivotal to its effectiveness
d. is effective, but the reason for its effectiveness remains unclear.
The Correct answer is D.
For the past four months, Samantha S., age 34, has insisted that she is pregnant and has several signs of pregnancy including abdominal distention, breast tenderness, menstrual irregularities, nausea, vomiting, and weight gain. However, pregnancy tests and an ultrasound have confirmed that she has done something to produce her symptoms. Based on the information, the appropriate DSM-5 diagnosis for Samantha is:
a. Facititious Disorder Imposed on Self
b. Somatic Symptom Disorder
c. Conversion Disorder
d. Other Specified Somatic Symptom and Related Disorder
The Correct answer is D.
False pregnancy - pseudocyesis (this qualifies for Other Specified Somatic Symptom and Related Disorder
a. Facititious Must be evidence of feigned or induced symptoms; associated with identified deception.
b. Somatic Symptom Disorder – 1 or more somatic symptoms that interfere and cause excessive thoughts, feelings, behaviours related to symptoms
c. Conversion Disorder – disturbance in motor functioning that suggest a serious neurological or medical condition (paralysis, blindness, etc.)
d. Symptoms don’t meet the criteria for a specific diagnosis in this category.
The presence of which of the following is more suggestive of a DSM-5 diagnosis of Malingering than Factitious Disorder?
a. The motive for symptom production is to adopt the “sick role.”
b. The motive for symptom production is “secondary gain.”
c. The symptoms are physical rather than psychological in nature.
d. The symptoms are deliberately produced or feigned.
The Correct answer is B.
c. Both disorders can involve psychological or physical symptoms.
d. BOTH are deliberately produced or feigned. (e.g., “secondary gain” = benefit)
* Factitous - feign symptoms in the absence of an external reward
The distinction between Agoraphobia and Social Anxiety Disorder can be difficult because the two disorders share several characteristics. However, the presence of which of the following suggests that the correct diagnosis is Agoraphobia?
a. The person fears that he or she will exhibit embarrassing symptoms in certain social situations.
b. The person’s symptoms do not include those associated with a panic attack.
c. The person is aware that his or her fears are excessive or unreasonable.
d. The person’s anxiety in feared situations is alleviated when he or she is accompanied by a friend.
The Correct answer is D.
a. Characteristic of both. Agoraphobia (fear being able to get help); Soc. Anxiety Disorder (fear being judged).
b. Both may or may not include panic attacks.
c. Neither are required for either diagnosis.
d. This distinguishes agoraphobia from Social Anxiety Disorder.
Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder and Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder share which of the following?
a. repetitive rituals
b. anhedonia
c. prominent obsessions and/or compulsions
d. orderliness, perfectionism, and interpersonal control
The Correct answer is A.
a. Both involve rituals (OCD - to reduce anxiety); (OCPD - related to orderliness)
b. This is a negative symptom of Schizophrenia.
c. This is OCD.
d. This is OCPD.
Jenie J., age 15, is brought to therapy by her mother who says her daughter has recently become “a completely different person.” She says Jenie used to be a good student and was easy to get along with and popular with her peers. But since the break-up with her boyfriend six weeks ago, Jenie has frequent “mood swings” that alternate between being very silly to being short-tempered and irritable. Jenie has also started sleeping only a couple of hours each night, is no longer talking to her best friend, and failed two exams at school. When you interview Jenie, you learn that she has started engaging in high-risk sexual behaviours with several boys but feels like “nothing bad” will ever happen to her. Based on these symptoms, the most likely diagnosis for Jenie is:
a. ADHD
b. Conduct Disorder
c. Bipolar I Disorder
d. Bipolar II Disorder
The Correct answer is C.
a. ADHD – requires to onset of symptoms prior to age 12. She’s 15 and her symptoms started a few weeks ago.
b. Conduct – behaviour. that violates the rights of others. Symptoms for 6 weeks.
c. BP I (requires one manic episode) Her symptoms are more characteristic of mania rather than hypomania (having substantial negative impact on relationships and school).
d. BP II (requires combination of hypomanic and depressive episodes)
Your new client, Amanda A., age 16, is well-groomed, friendly, and cooperative. However, she shows some signs of depression and hopelessness, and she tell you that these symptoms have lasted for just over one year. Your provisional DSM-5 diagnosis is:
a. Cyclothymic Disorder
b. Persistent Depressive Disorder
c. Major Depressive Disorder
d. Bipolar II Disorder
The correct answer is B.
a. Cyclothymic D. (her symptoms don’t include hypomania, therefore exclude this)
b. Persistent Depressive Disorder (symptoms = depression and hopelessness; duration 1 year)
c. Major Depressive Disorder (her symptoms are more mild and persistent)
d. BP II (requires hypomanic episode and one depressive episode)
If one of the children in a family develops Schizophrenia, what is the chance that a non-twin biological sibling of this child will also receive the diagnosis?
a. 1%
b. 10%
c. 25%
d. 45%
The correct answer is B.
1% is prevalence rate for Schizophrenia is the population.
Your new client is Robert R., age 22, who is brought to therapy by his mother. Robert’s mother tells you that he recently lost his job at a bookstore because of bizarre comments he was making to customers and because of his increasingly sloppy appearance. During your interview with Robert, he often changes topics suddenly and sometimes requests the last few words of your questions. Robert tells you that voices in his head keep telling him that he can control other people with his thoughts. Assuming that Robert’s symptoms began three months ago and that he had no previous history of similar symptoms, the most likely diagnosis is which of the following?
a. Schizophrenia
b. Delusional Disorder
c. Schizaffective Disorder
d. Schizophreniform Disorder
The correct answer is C.
a. Schizophrenia requires 6 month duration.
b. Delusional Disorder (1 or more delusions with none of the other symptoms associated with Schizophrenia)
c. Schizoaffective (requires combination of psychotic and moods symptoms with a period with at least 2 weeks without mood symptoms)
d. Schizophreniform (duration of 1-6 months)
A DSM-5 diagnosis of Intellectual Disability requires deficits in intellectual functioning that are confirmed by clinical assessment and performance on an individualized, standardized intelligence test. With regard to the latter, a deficit in intellectual functioning is suggested by a Wechsler or Stanford-Binet IQ score that is at least how many standard deviations below the population mean?
a. .5
b. 1.0
c. 2.0
d. 2.5
The correct answer is C.
Max, age 6, and his parents are referred to you by Max’s pediatrician. Based on your interview with Max’s parents, you determine that Max has had signs of overactivity and impulsivity since he was a toddler and that his behaviours at home are consistent with a diagnosis of ADHD, predominantly hyperactive impulsive presentation. To confirm this diagnosis, you would:
a. determine when Max’s symptoms of hyperactivity and impulsivity began.
b. contact Max’s teacher to discuss the nature of his behaviour at school.
c. have Max’s pediatrician prescribe a stimulant drug for Max and observe his reactions to the drug.
d. determine if there is a family history of ADHD.
The correct answer is B.
- Two settings.
a. ADHD requires onset before age 12. This has been met.
b. Two settings
c. prescribing stimulant drugs is not a good tool.
d. not as useful as talking to his teachers.
Autism Spectrum Disorder is best described as being which of the following?
a. an idiopathic disorder
b. a psychosomatic disorder
c. a psychogenic disorder
d. a biogenic disorder
The correct answer is D.
a. idiopathic (unknown etiology); we have an idea about etiology of autism!
b. psychosomatic (physical symptoms due to psychological factors)
c. psychogenic is used interchangeably with psychosomatic
d. biogenic (due to biological factors)
A psychologist is using Linehan’s dialectical behavior therapy to treat a patient with Borderline Personality Disorder. The essential components of her intervention will be:
Select one:
a. individual inpatient therapy and the token economy.
b. individual outpatient therapy and group skills training.
c. family therapy and psychotropic medication.
d. residential treatment and a self-help group.
Answer B is correct: Dialectical behavior therapy (DBT) includes three components - group skills training that focuses on the acquisition of social skills; individual outpatient therapy that targets motivational issues and the strengthening of social skills; and telephone consultations that help the client apply new skills to situations outside therapy. Other techniques may also be used, but these three make up the core of DBT.
The correct answer is: individual outpatient therapy and group skills training.
Early memory impairment associated with Neurocognitive Disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease has been most consistently linked to a loss of neurons that secrete __________, especially in the hippocampus and certain areas of the cortex.
Select one:
a. GABA
b. norepinephrine
c. serotonin
d. acetylcholine
Answer D is correct: Although Neurocognitive Disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease has been linked to several neurotransmitter abnormalities, a loss of cells that secrete acetylcholine (ACh) has been most consistently linked to early memory loss.
The correct answer is: acetylcholine
Early signs of Neurocognitive Disorder due to HIV infection are most likely to be:
Select one:
a. forgetfulness and impaired concentration.
b. focal neurological signs.
c. emotional over-reactivity and psychomotor agitation.
d. vertigo and tinnitus.
Answer A is correct: Early signs of Neurocognitive Disorder due to HIV infection include forgetfulness (e.g., difficulty keep track of daily activities), impaired concentration, impaired judgment, psychomotor slowing, and irritability.
Answer B is incorrect: Focal neurological signs are symptoms associated with damage to particular areas of the brain and are characteristic of Vascular Neurocognitive Disorder.
Answer C is incorrect: Emotional over-reactivity and psychomotor agitation are not symptoms associated with Neurocognitive Disorder due to HIV infection.
Answer D is incorrect: Vertigo and tinnitus are associated symptoms of Neurocognitive Disorder due to traumatic brain injury.
The correct answer is: forgetfulness and impaired concentration.
For a DSM-5 diagnosis of Delirium, a person must exhibit ___________ plus at least one other disturbance in cognition.
Select one:
a. an impairment in executive functioning
b. profound retrograde amnesia
c. aphasia or other language disorder
d. a disturbance in attention and awareness
Answer D is correct: A diagnosis of Delirium requires a disturbance in attention and awareness and at least one additional disturbance in cognition - e.g., impaired memory, disorientation, impaired language, deficits in visuospatial ability, or perceptual distortions.
The correct answer is: a disturbance in attention and awareness
For several years, a 26-year-old woman has exhibited cycles of overidealization and devaluation in interpersonal relationships, uncertainty about career plans, reckless driving, drug use, and frequent suicide attempts. The most likely diagnosis is:
Select one:
a. Histrionic Personality Disorder.
b. Borderline Personality Disorder.
c. Schizotypal Personality Disorder.
d. Narcissistic Personality Disorder.
Answer B is correct: The essential feature of Borderline Personality Disorder is a pervasive pattern of instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, and affect and marked impulsivity.
Answer A is incorrect: Histrionic Personality Disorder is characterized by a pervasive pattern of emotionality and attention-seeking.
Answer C is incorrect: Schizotypal Personality Disorder is characterized by pervasive pattern of social and interpersonal deficits involving acute discomfort with and reduced capacity for close relationships and eccentricities in cognition, perception, and behavior.
Answer D is incorrect: Narcissistic Personality Disorder involves a pervasive pattern of grandiosity, a need for admiration, and a lack of empathy.
The correct answer is: Borderline Personality Disorder.
Magical thinking, depression, ideas of reference, paranoia, discomfort in social situations, and inappropriate affect are most characteristic of which of the following disorders?
Select one:
a. Schizoaffective Personality Disorder
b. Schizoid Personality Disorder
c. Schizotypal Personality Disorder
d. Borderline Personality Disorder
Answer C is correct: Schizotypal Personality Disorder is diagnosed in the presence of pervasive social and interpersonal deficits and eccentricities in cognition, perception, and behavior.
Answer A is incorrect: Schizoaffective Personality Disorder is not a DSM diagnosis.
Answer B is incorrect: Schizoid Personality Disorder involves a pervasive pattern of detachment from interpersonal relationships and a restricted range of emotional expression in social settings.
Answer D is incorrect: The essential features of Borderline Personality Disorder are a pervasive pattern of instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, and affect and marked impulsivity
The correct answer is: Schizotypal Personality Disorder
The progression of Alzheimer’s disease can be described in terms of three stages. A person in the second (middle) stage of the disease is most likely to exhibit:
Select one:
a. retrograde amnesia for recent long-term events, indifference or irritability, and anomia.
b. anterograde and retrograde amnesia, flat or labile mood, restlessness, and fluent aphasia.
c. anterograde amnesia, indifference or sadness, and urinary incontinence.
d. severely deteriorated intellectual functioning, apathy, and urinary and fecal incontinence.
Answer B is correct: The symptoms listed in this answer are characteristic of the second stage.
Answer A is incorrect: Indifference or irritability and anomia are more characteristic of the first stage.
Answer C is incorrect: Anterograde amnesia and indifference or sadness are characteristic of the first stage, and urinary incontinence is characteristic of the third stage.
Answer D is incorrect: Severely deteriorated intellectual functioning, apathy, and urinary and fecal incontinence are characteristic of the third stage.
The correct answer is: anterograde and retrograde amnesia, flat or labile mood, restlessness, and fluent aphasia.
Young adults who receive which of the following diagnoses are most likely to no longer meet the diagnostic criteria for the disorder when they reach middle-age?
Select one:
a. Schizotypal Personality Disorder
b. Paranoid Personality Disorder
c. Avoidant Personality Disorder
d. Antisocial Personality Disorder
Answer D is correct: Although Antisocial Personality Disorder is chronic, its symptoms usually become less evident and pervasive in adulthood beginning in middle-age.
The correct answer is: Antisocial Personality Disorder
The research suggests that, as a means of preventing the development of PTSD, single-session psychological debriefing (PD) immediately following exposure to a traumatic event:
Select one:
A. is effective only for individuals who have early signs of PTSD.
B. is an effective strategy when administered individually or in a group setting.
C. is more effective than multiple-session psychological debriefing.
D. is not effective when used alone and may actually increase the risk for PTSD.
Although single-session PD has been utilized as a prevention for PTSD following exposure to a traumatic event, the research has generally not supported its use for this purpose.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Based on their review of the research, Rose, Bisson, and Wessely (2001) conclude that single-session psychological debriefing is not effective for reducing the risk for PTSD when used alone and, for some individuals, may have negative effects. They recommend that PD be used cautiously and as part of a comprehensive treatment program.
The correct answer is: is not effective when used alone and may actually increase the risk for PTSD.
Which of the following is likely to be the most effective treatment for a client with Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)?
Select one:
A. pharmacotherapy and insight-oriented psychotherapy
B. in vivo exposure with response prevention
C. covert sensitization, thought stopping, and relaxation training
D. relaxation training, worry exposure, and cognitive therapy
Multicomponent cognitive-behavioral therapy is usually the preferred treatment for GAD.
a. Incorrect Pharmacotherapy is usually necessary only for individuals whose anxiety results in significant impairment in daily functioning. In addition, insight-oriented therapy is not a treatment-of-choice for this disorder.
b. Incorrect Exposure therapy may be useful but is not as useful as a treatment that combines cognitive and behavioral techniques – i.e., that combines exposure with cognitive strategies and other behavioral strategies.
c. Incorrect Covert sensitization is used to eliminate self-reinforcing behaviors such as substance abuse, gambling, and paraphilias and is not used to treat anxiety.
d. CORRECT Multimodal interventions that incorporate behavioral and cognitive strategies are generally most effective for clients with GAD. Of the answers given, this is the only one that includes both behavioral and cognitive techniques.
The correct answer is: relaxation training, worry exposure, and cognitive therapy
The primary feature that distinguishes Acute Stress Disorder from Posttraumatic Stress Disorder is:
Select one:
A. the shorter duration of symptoms in the former disorder.
B. a less severe precipitant in the former disorder.
C. reliving of the trauma in dreams or flashbacks in the latter disorder.
D. symptoms of increased arousal in the latter disorder.
The name of the disorder - Acute Stress Disorder - should have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
a. CORRECT The symptoms of Acute Stress Disorder must have a duration no longer than one month. When symptoms last for more than one month and meet the criteria for PTSD, the diagnosis is changed to PTSD.
b. Incorrect Both disorders are precipitated by a very severe trauma.
c. Incorrect These are symptoms of both disorders.
d. Incorrect This is also characteristic of both disorders.
The correct answer is: the shorter duration of symptoms in the former disorder.
