Exam Simulation: Test 1 Flashcards
1
Q
Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder is more common in males than in females among those aged:
Select one:
A.
8 to 12
B.
21 to 26
C.
35 to 40
D.
60 to 65
A
The correct answer is A.
The rates of OCD for males and females are about equal among adolescents and adults. However, because the onset of the disorder is earlier for males than for females, OCD is more prevalent among male children than female children.
Answers B, C, and D: Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder is more common in males than in females among those aged 8-12 years of age.
2
Q
Level 1 cross-cutting symptom measures are useful for:
Select one:
A.
confirming a diagnosis
B.
screening symptoms
C.
treatment planning
D.
measuring treatment outcomes
A
The correct answer is B.
Level 1 cross-cutting symptom measures assess 13 domains for adults and 12 domains for children and adolescents and are useful for identifying areas that require additional evaluation.
Answers A, C, & D: Level 2 cross-cutting symptom measures provide in-depth information on specific domains (e.g., anxiety, depression, substance use) to help guide diagnosis, treatment planning, and follow-up.
3
Q
The Outline for Cultural Formulation assess all of the factors except:
Select one:
A.
cultural identity
B.
cultural conceptualization of distress
C.
psychosocial stressors and cultural factors that impact the client’s vulnerability and resilience
D.
universal factors relevant to the client-therapist relationship
A
The correct answer is D.
The Outline for Cultural Formulation provides guidelines for assessing four factors: the client’s cultural identity; the client’s cultural conceptualization of distress; the psychosocial stressors and cultural factors that impact the client’s vulnerability and resilience; and cultural factors relevant to the relationship between the client and therapist. Universal factors are not the focus of a cultural formulation.
Answer A: Cultural identity is an important assessment factor.
Answer B: One’s conceptualization of distress within the context of culture is also an important factor.
Answer C: Cultural factors impacting vulnerability and resilience are also important factors to assess when making a cultural formulation.
4
Q
The Cultural Formulation Interview is:
Select one:
A.
structured
B.
open-ended
C.
semi-structured
D.
unstructured
A
The correct answer is C.
The Cultural Formulation Interview (CFI) is a semi-structured interview consisting of 16 questions designed to obtain information on the client’s views regarding the social/cultural context of his/her presenting problems.
Answer A: The CFI is semi-structured.
Answer B: The CFI is not an open-ended interview.
Answer D: The CFI is not unstructured.
5
Q
The Cultural Formulation Interview (CFI) assesses all of the following except:
Select one:
A.
cultural identity development
B.
cultural perceptions of cause, context, and support
C.
cultural definition of the problem
D.
cultural factors affecting self-coping and help seeking
A
The correct answer is A.
The CFI focuses on four domains: cultural definition of the problem; cultural perceptions of cause, context, and support; cultural factors affecting self-coping and past help-seeking; and cultural factors affecting current help-seeking. The CFI does not assess cultural identity development.
Answer B: Cultural perceptions of the cause, context, and support are assessed by the CFI.
Answer C: Assessing cultural definitions of the problem is also an important component of the CFI.
Answer D: Assessing cultural factors related to self-coping and help-seeking are also crucial to the CFI.
6
Q
Specific Learning Disorder often co-occurs with all of the following except:
Select one:
A.
delays in language development
B.
attention and memory deficits
C.
below-average intelligence
D.
low self-esteem
A
The correct answer is C.
Individuals with Specific Learning Disorder typically have an IQ in the average to above-average range but have higher-than-normal rates of other problems and disorders, including delays in language development and/or motor coordination, attention and memory deficits, and low self-esteem.
Answer A: Delays in language development and/or motor coordination are correlated with Specific Learning Disorder diagnoses.
Answer B: ADHD is closely correlated with Specific Learning Disorder.
Answer D: Low self-esteem is also correlated with this diagnosis.
7
Q
Research suggests that, in general, the most effective treatment for Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) is which of the following?
Select one:
A.
Exposure with response prevention
B.
Overcorrection
C.
Desensitization and behavioral rehearsal
D.
Desensitization with reinforced practice
A
The correct answer is A.
A combination of exposure with response prevention and the tricyclic clomipramine or an SSRI is usually the treatment-of-choice for OCD. Exposure is often supplemented with thought stopping or other interventions that directly target obsessions.
Answers B, C, & D: Studies investigating the effects of various behavioral therapies have consistently found exposure with response (ritual) prevention to be the most effective treatment for OCD.
8
Q
___________ refers to the ways that cultural groups experience, understand, and communicate suffering, behavioral problems, or troubling thoughts and emotions.
Select one:
A.
Cultural syndromes
B.
Cultural concepts of distress
C.
Cultural idioms
D.
Cultural explanations
A
The correct answer is B.
The DSM-5 defines cultural concepts of distress as the “ways that cultural groups experience, understand, and communicate suffering, behavioral problems, or troubling thoughts and emotions.”
Answer A: Cultural syndromes are clusters of symptoms and attributions that co-occur among individuals from a particular culture and are recognized by members of that culture as coherent patterns of experience.
Answer C: Cultural idioms of distress are used by members of different cultures to express distress and provide shared ways for talking about personal and social concerns.
Answer D: Cultural explanations refer to the explanatory models that members of a culture use to explain the meaning and causes of symptoms, illness, and distress.
9
Q
Cultural idioms of distress are:
Select one:
A.
the explanatory models that members of a culture use to explain the meaning and causes of symptoms, illness, and distress
B.
clusters of symptoms and attributions that co-occur among individuals from a particular culture and are recognized by members of that culture as coherent patterns of experience
C.
phrases used by members of different cultures to express distress and provide shared ways for talking about personal and social concerns
D.
ways that cultural groups experience, understand, and communicate suffering, behavioral problems, or troubling thoughts and emotions
A
The correct answer is C.
Cultural idioms of distress are used by members of different cultures to express distress and provide shared ways for talking about personal and social concerns.
Answer A: This is the definition of cultural explanations.
Answer B: This is the definition of cultural syndromes.
Answer D: This is the definition of cultural concepts of distress.
10
Q
The explanatory models that members of a culture use to explain the meaning and causes of symptoms, illness, and distress are referred to as:
Select one:
A.
cultural idioms of distress
B.
cultural narratives
C.
cultural syndromes
D.
cultural explanations
A
The correct answer is D.
The DSM 5 defines cultural explanations as the explanatory models that members of a culture use to explain the meaning and causes of symptoms, illness, and distress.
Answer A: Cultural idioms of distress are used by members of different cultures to express distress and provide shared ways for talking about personal and social concerns.
Answer B: This is a made up term.
Answer C: Cultural syndromes are clusters of symptoms and attributions that co-occur among individuals from a particular culture and are recognized by members of that culture as coherent patterns of experience.
11
Q
Cultural syndromes are defined as:
Select one:
A.
clusters of symptoms and attributions that co-occur among individuals from a particular culture and are recognized by members of that culture as coherent patterns of experience
B.
ways that cultural groups experience, understand, and communicate suffering, behavioral problems, or troubling thoughts and emotions
C.
the explanatory models that members of a culture use to explain the meaning and causes of symptoms, illness, and distress
D.
phrases used by members of different cultures to express distress and provide shared ways for talking about personal and social concerns
A
The correct answer is A.
Cultural syndromes are clusters of symptoms and attributions that co-occur among individuals from a particular culture and are recognized by members of that culture as coherent patterns of experience.
Answer B: This is the definition of cultural concepts of distress.
Answer C: This is the definition of cultural explanations.
Answer D: This defines cultural idioms of distress.
12
Q
____________ is/are useful for obtaining information on a client’s cultural concepts of distress.
Select one:
A.
The Outline for Cultural Formulation
B.
The Cultural Formulation Interview
C.
Cross-cutting symptom measures
D.
Cross-cutting cultural measures
A
The correct answer is B.
The Cultural Formulation Interview (CFI) is a semi-structured interview consisting of 16 questions designed to obtain information on the client’s views regarding the social/cultural context of his/her presenting problems. It focuses on four domains: cultural definition of the problem; cultural perceptions of cause, context, and support; cultural factors affecting self-coping and past help seeking; and cultural factors affecting current help seeking. The CFI is useful for obtaining information on a client’s cultural concepts of distress.
Answer A: The Outline for Cultural Formulation provides guidelines for assessing four factors: the client’s cultural identity; the client’s cultural conceptualization of distress; the psychosocial stressors and cultural factors that impact the client’s vulnerability and resilience; and cultural factors relevant to the relationship between the client and therapist.
Answer C: Cross-cutting symptom measures are designed to be used in the initial patient interview and during treatment to monitor progress. They provide information on mental health domains that are important across the psychiatric diagnoses.
Answer D: This is a made up term.
13
Q
The DSM-5 provides three tools to help clinicians consider and understand the importance of cultural diagnosing and planning treatment. This tool set includes all of the following except:
Select one:
A.
the Cultural Formulation Interview
B.
Cultural concepts of distress
C.
Cultural measures of distress
D.
the Outline for Cultural Formulation
A
The correct answer is C.
The DSM-5 provides three tools to help clinicians consider and understand the impact of a client’s cultural background on diagnosis and treatment: the Outline for Cultural Formulation, the Cultural Formulation Interview, and Cultural concepts of distress. Cultural measures of distress is a made up term.
Answer A: The Cultural Formulation Interview (CFI) is a semi-structured interview consisting of 16 questions designed to obtain information on the client’s views regarding the social/cultural context of his/her presenting problems.
Answer B:The DSM-5 defines cultural concepts of distress as the “ways that cultural groups experience, understand, and communicate suffering, behavioral problems, or troubling thoughts and emotions.
Answer D: The Outline for Cultural Formulation provides guidelines for assessing four factors: the client’s cultural identity; the client’s cultural conceptualization of distress; the psychosocial stressors and cultural factors that impact the client’s vulnerability and resilience; and cultural factors relevant to the relationship between the client and therapist.
14
Q
A patient is extremely suspicious, distrustful, and sensitive to criticism. He appears to be constantly on guard, checking his environment for potential threats and evidence to confirm his suspicions and beliefs. In addition, he describes his relationship with his employer as one that was originally warm and supportive but quickly turned into a contest of wills. The patient’s clothes are wrinkled and do not fit him well, and his glasses are held together with duct tape. The patient’s symptoms are most suggestive of which personality disorder?
Select one:
A.
Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder
B.
Schizotypal Personality Disorder
C.
Paranoid Personality Disorder
D.
Antisocial Personality Disorder
A
The correct answer is C.
This question is a reminder to consider all of the symptoms presented and not to over-focus on an atypical or unusual symptom. Although many personality disorders involve problems with relationships, your clue was this patient’s tendency toward suspicion and distrust. Paranoid Personality Disorder involves a pervasive distrust and suspiciousness of others that leads to the misinterpretation of the motives of others as malevolent.
Answer A: Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder involves a pervasive pattern of preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and mental and interpersonal control, at the expense of flexibility, openness, and efficiency.
Answer B: Schizotypal Personality Disorder involves a pervasive pattern of social and interpersonal deficits marked by acute discomfort with, and reduced capacity for, close relationships and cognitive or perceptual distortions and eccentricities of behavior. While wrinkled, the man’s ill-fitting clothing may be more suggestive of Schizotypal Personality Disorder, his other symptoms are consistent with Paranoid Personality Disorder.
Answer D: Antisocial Personality Disorder involves a pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others. You have no evidence of antisocial acts in this case.
15
Q
Echokinesis involves:
Select one:
A.
imitating someone else’s movements
B.
repeating the sounds someone else makes
C.
repeating socially undesirable words
D.
imitating the sounds and movements that other’s make
A
The correct answer is A.
Echokinesis involves imitating someone else’s movements.
Answer B: This sounds more like echolalia.
Answer C: This defines Coprolalia.
Answer D: Echokinesis does not involve mimicking sound.
16
Q
Research in the area of pediatric psychology has found that openly communicating with children about their illness:
Select one:
A.
is detrimental
B.
has mixed results
C.
is recommended
D.
is inadvisable
A
The correct answer is C.
In most situations, open communication with a child about his/her illness is advisable.
Answer A: While it is important to provide children information in a developmentally appropriate manner, research has generally not found open communication to be detrimental.
Answer B: This is not true.
Answer D: The opposite is true.
17
Q
Coprolalia involves:
Select one:
A.
repeating other’s vocalizations
B.
mimicking others movements
C.
mimicking other’s facial expressions
D.
repeating socially undesirable words
A
The correct answer is D.
Coprolalia involves repeating socially undesirable words.
Answer A: This is the definition of echolalia.
Answer B: This defines echokinesis.
Answer C: This does not describe coprolalia.
18
Q
The rates of Schizophrenia are generally higher among Black Americans. This is due to:
Select one:
A.
internalized racism
B.
misdiagnosis
C.
poverty
D.
substance abuse
A
The correct answer is B.
Research suggests that the higher reported rate of Schizophrenia for African Americans is the result of misdiagnosis rather than actual differences in the prevalence of the disorder.
Answer A: While a lack of cultural competence among clinicians contributes to misdiagnosis among this population, internalized racism is not the cause of this discrepancy.
Answer C: Poverty may be a contributing factor to receiving adequate mental health care; however, misdiagnosis is believed to be the primary cause of this discrepancy.
Answer D: This is not true.
19
Q
In the DSM-5, personality traits are measured using 5 domains:
Select one:
A.
affect, attachment, antagonism, disinhibition, and psychoticism
B.
affect, attachment, antagonism, inhibition, and psychoticism
C.
negative affect, detachment, protagonism, inhibition, and psychoticism
D.
negative affect, detachment, antagonism, disinhibition, and psychoticism
A
The correct answer is D.
The DSM-5’s personality inventories measure personality traits in five domains: negative affect, detachment, antagonism, disinhibition, and psychoticism.
Answer A: Attachment and affect are not personality domains.
Answer B: Affect, attachment, and inhibition are not personality domains.
Answer C: Protagonism and inhibition are not personality domains.
20
Q
African Americans are more likely to experience hallucinations and delusions as symptoms of:
Select one:
A.
schizophrenia
B.
depression
C.
antisocial personality disorder
D.
borderline personality disorder
A
The correct answer is B.
The research suggests that the higher reported rate of Schizophrenia for African Americans is the result of misdiagnosis rather than actual differences in the prevalence of the disorder and that misdiagnosis is due to the fact that African Americans are more likely to experience hallucinations and delusions as symptoms of depression.
Answer A: African Americans are commonly misdiagnosed with Schizophrenia rather than depression or other disorders.
Answer C: These symptoms are not traditionally associated with this disorder.
Answer D: This is not true.
21
Q
In order to meet DSM-5 criteria for Brief Psychotic Disorder, the presence of at least one of the following symptoms must be present with the exception of:
Select one:
A.
disorganized speech
B.
hallucinations
C.
grossly disorganized behavior
D.
delusions
A
The correct answer is C.
Brief Psychotic Disorder is characterized by the presence of one or more of four characteristic symptoms (delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, grossly disorganized or catatonic behavior) with at least one symptom being delusions, hallucinations, or disorganized speech.
Answers A, B, & D: One of these three symptoms is required for this diagnosis.
22
Q
When considering diagnosing a Black American client with Schizophrenia, a culturally competent clinician would:
Select one:
A.
rule out substance use
B.
make sure the full criteria for the disorder is met
C.
assess for the potential of malingering
D.
assess whether psychotic symptoms are linked to depression
A
The correct answer is D.
The research suggests that the higher reported rate of Schizophrenia for African Americans is the result of misdiagnosis rather than actual differences in the prevalence of the disorder and that misdiagnosis is due to the fact that African Americans are more likely to experience hallucinations and delusions as symptoms of depression.
Answer A: Making this rule out is necessary with any client who may meet criteria for Schizophrenia.
Answer B: This would be necessary regardless of the client’s demographic.
Answer C: Ruling out malingering is not a cultural competence factor.
23
Q
The three subtypes of Specific Learning Disorder include impairment in:
Select one:
A.
reading, writing, and spelling
B.
reading, writing, and comprehension
C.
reading, comprehending, and spelling
D.
reading, writing, and math
A
The correct answer is D.
The DSM-5 distinguishes between three subtypes of Specific Learning Disorder: impairment in reading, impairment in written expression, and impairment in mathematics.
Answer A: Spelling is not included as a subtype.
Answer B: Comprehension is not a subtype.
Answer C: Comprehension and spelling are not subtypes.
24
Q
Beck’s depression cognitive triad includes negative illogical self-statements about:
Select one:
A.
oneself, the world, and the future
B.
oneself, others, and the world
C.
oneself, others, and the meaning of life
D.
oneself, others, and the future
A
The correct answer is A.
Beck’s (1976) cognitive theory views depression as being related to negative, illogical self-statements about oneself, the world, and the future. This is referred to as the “depressive cognitive triad.
Answer B: The triad does not include negative thoughts about others.
Answer C: Beck did not include negative thoughts about others or the meaning of life in this categorization.
Answer D: The triad does not include negative thoughts about others.
25
Renee R., age 16, is brought to therapy by her mother, who says her daughter has recently become "another person." She says Renee used to be easy-going and was well-liked at school by her peers and teachers. However, for about the last three weeks, Renee has been constantly irritable and "on the go," has been smoking and drinking, and has started having trouble at school. When the therapist interviews Renee, he learns that she is engaging in high-risk sexual behavior but feels that nothing bad can happen to her. Based on these symptoms, the most likely diagnosis is:
Select one:
A.
ADHD
B.
Cyclothymic Disorder
C.
Bipolar I Disorder
D.
Bipolar II Disorder
The correct answer is C.
The sudden change in Renee's behavior and the nature and duration of her symptoms are most suggestive of a manic episode. Bipolar I Disorder requires the presence of one or more manic episodes.
Answer A: Although some of Renee's symptoms are consistent with ADHD in adolescence, a diagnosis of this disorder requires an onset of symptoms prior to age 12.
Answer B: Cyclothymic Disorder requires fluctuating hypomanic and depressive symptoms for at least one year in children and adolescents.
Answer D: Bipolar II disorder is characterized by a combination of major depressive and hypomanic episodes.
26
Bill B., a 26-year old small business owner, has trouble completing tasks at home and work, frequently "blows his fuse" at family members and employees, and has his wife do all the paperwork at the office because he doesn't have the patience for it. His wife says Bill never listens to her and often does things without thinking about the consequences. When asked about his past, Bill says that he often got in trouble while he was in school. He frequently got into fights and, in high school, was arrested several times for drugs and drunk driving. All through school, his teachers said he wasn't living up to his potential. Although Bill no longer uses illegal drugs, he often drinks heavily on weekends. Based on these symptoms, the most likely diagnosis for Bill is:
Select one:
A.
Antisocial Personality Disorder
B.
Adult Antisocial Behavior
C.
ADHD
D.
Bipolar I Disorder
The correct answer is C.
Bill's childhood history of problem behaviors and his current attention difficulties and impulsivity are most suggestive of ADHD.
Answer A: For a diagnosis of Antisocial Personality Disorder, there should be a current pattern of antisocial behavior.
Answer B: Adult Antisocial Behavior is included in the DSM-5 with Other Conditions That May Be a Focus of Clinical Attention and applies when the individual exhibits antisocial behavior that does not meet the diagnostic criteria for Antisocial Personality Disorder or another mental disorder.
Answer D: The continuous and long-term nature of Bill's symptoms are more suggestive of ADHD than Bipolar I Disorder.
27
All of the following interventions are recommended for stuttering except:
Select one:
A.
using exposure to reduce fear of verbal communication
B.
reducing psychological stress at home
C.
removing pressures to communicate verbally
D.
habit reversal training
The correct answer is A.
Stuttering is clinically diagnosed as Childhood-Onset Fluency Disorder. While exposure therapy is typically regarded as one of the most effective treatments for phobias, research has not supported the effectiveness of such treatment with the alleviation of stuttering. Rather, it has been found that the symptoms of this disorder become worse when there is special pressure to communicate.
Answer B: This has been found to be one of the most effective interventions for reducing stuttering among children.
Answer C: This is recommended as symptoms often worsen when such conditions are present.
Answer D: This is recommended for older children and adults who continue to struggle with stuttering.
28
The DSM-5 urges consideration of the following differentials when diagnosing Autism Spectrum Disorder except:
Select one:
A.
Stereotypic Movement Disorder
B.
Intellectual Disability
C.
Schizophrenia
D.
Social Anxiety Disorder
The correct answer is D.
According to the DSM-5, Autism Spectrum Disorder must be distinguished from Rett Syndrome, Selective Mutism, Language Disorder, Intellectual Disability, Stereotypic Movement Disorder, ADHD, and Schizophrenia. Social Anxiety Disorder is not included as a differential.
Answer A: Individuals along the spectrum may have motor deficits. Thus, this is an important differential diagnosis to consider.
Answer B: This is a common differential as many individuals with Autism Spectrum Disorder have intellectual impairments.
Answer C: Given the overlap of some of the negative symptoms associated with Schizophrenia this is an important differential.
29
According to the DSM-5, Specific Learning Disorder is more common among:
Select one:
A.
males
B.
women
C.
children
D.
adults
The correct answer is A.
Specific Learning Disorder is more common in males than in females, with reported gender ratios ranging from 2:1 to 3:1.
Answer B: The opposite is true.
Answer C: This disorder may be more commonly diagnosed during childhood but is not more common among this population.
Answer D: People with a Specific Learning Disorder continue to have learning difficulties throughout adolescence and adulthood.
30
Several authorities have noted that traditional forms of psychotherapy reflect a Eurocentric (Western) perspective that emphasizes:
Select one:
A.
a concrete non-linear approach
B.
a linear cause-effect approach
```
C.
a reciprocal (interactive) approach
```
D.
a directive behavioral approach
The correct answer is B.
This issue has been addressed by several experts interested in family therapy or cross-cultural counseling. The Eurocentric perspective emphasizes one-on-one problem-solving and adopts an atomistic, linear, and reductionist cause-effect approach.
Answer A: Traditional Western psychotherapies emphasize a linear approach.
Answer C: Traditional Western therapies are not reciprocal.
Answer D: There are numerous directive and non-directive traditional models.
31
A person with anosognosia will:
Select one:
A.
be unable to recognize parts of her own body
B.
be unable to recognize familiar faces
C.
deny the paralysis in her left leg
D.
report an area of blindness in her left visual field
The correct answer is C.
Anosognosia is one of several types of agnosia. All agnosias are characterized by a failure of recognition that is NOT due to a sensory deficit or verbal or intellectual impairment. Anosognosia involves a failure to recognize one's own neurological symptoms (e.g., paralysis). It often accompanies asomatognosia.
Answer A: This is called asomatognosia and is due to damage to the somatosensory cortex. It usually involves the left side of the body.
Answer B: Prosopagnosia is the inability to recognize familiar faces.
Answer D: This is called a scotoma and is due to damage to the primary visual cortex.
32
Which of the following approaches best fits with a Transtheoretical Model of therapy?
Select one:
A.
The therapist focuses on what is needed to help the client make the next step of change.
B.
The therapist focuses on the client’s strengths and resources.
C.
The therapist explores the client’s early relationships.
D.
The therapist focuses on the client’s ambivalence about making changes.
The correct answer is A.
According to the Transtheoretical Model of behavior change, the therapist does not focus on the origin or characteristics of a maladaptive behavior but instead focuses on factors that facilitate a behavioral change.
Answer B: This best describes Solution-Focused therapy
Answer C: This best describes Interpersonal or Psychodynamic Therapy
Answer D. Although there is some overlap between the Transtheoretical Model and Motivational Interviewing, this description most closely aligns with the primary technique of Motivational Interviewing: enhancing the client’s intrinsic motivation by helping the client examine and resolve their ambivalence about changing.
33
Which of the following are required for a DSM diagnosis of Antisocial Personality Disorder?
Select one:
A.
A pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others that began prior to age 15 plus a current age of 16 or older
B.
A pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others that began prior to age 15 plus a current age of 18 or older
C.
A pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others since age 14, a history of Conduct Disorder symptoms prior to age 14, plus a current age of 16 or older
D.
A pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others since age 15, a history of Conduct Disorder symptoms prior to age 15, plus a current age of 18 or older
The correct answer is D.
For the diagnosis of Antisocial Personality Disorder, the DSM requires a pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others since age 15 with symptoms of Conduct Disorder prior to age 15 and a current age of 18 years or older.
Answers A, B, & C: While all of these answer choices contain partially accurate information, only choice D lists fully accurate criteria consistent with the DSM.
34
"Criterion deficiency" refers to:
Select one:
A.
the degree to which the conceptual criterion is not measured by the actual criterion
B.
the degree to which the actual criterion systematically measures something other than the conceptual criterion
C.
the degree to which the actual criterion is entirely unrelated to the conceptual criterion
D.
the degree to which the actual criterion provides inconsistent information about the conceptual criterion
The correct answer is A.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with several terms that are used to describe the adequacy of a criterion measure. These are described in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials. This is the correct definition of criterion deficiency. An actual criterion (the criterion measure) is deficient to the extent that it does not measure the conceptual (or hypothetical) criterion. In other words, job performance is due to several factors, but most criterion measures are deficient because they measure only one or two of those factors.
Answer B: This response describes one aspect of criterion contamination.
Answer C: This describes another aspect of criterion contamination.
Answer D: This describes the unreliability of a criterion measure.
35
According to Hersey and Blanchard's (1974) situational leadership model, a ________ leader is most effective for an employee who is low in ability and high in motivation.
Select one:
A.
telling
B.
selling
C.
delegating
D.
participating
The correct answer is B.
Hersey and Blanchard's situational leadership model distinguishes between the four leadership styles listed in the answers to this question and proposes that the best style is the one that matches the employee's ability and motivation. A selling leader is best for employees who are low in ability but high in motivation.
Answer A: A telling leader is best for employees who are low in both ability and motivation.
Answer C: A delegating leader is best for employees who are high in both ability and motivation.
Answer D: A participating leader is best for employees who are high in ability but low in motivation.
36
A brief period of electrical stimulation of the hippocampus enhances nerve cell electrical activity in that area of the brain for minutes to hours. This is referred to as:
Select one:
A.
graded potentiation
B.
hyperpolarization
C.
absolute refractory period
D.
long-term potentiation
The correct answer is D.
Interestingly, the phenomenon described in this question not only occurs in the living brain but can also be induced in cells that have been removed from the brain. This is the name given to the phenomenon described in this question. Long-term potentiation (LTP) is believed to underlie certain types of learning and memory.
Answer A: Graded potentiation is a made-up term.
Answer B: Hyperpolarization refers to a state of inhibition.
Answer C: During the absolute refractory period, a cell cannot "fire" regardless of the amount of stimulation.
37
Which of the following imaging techniques would be used to obtain a "metabolic map" of the brain during various mental and physical activities?
Select one:
A.
CT
B.
PET
C.
MRI
D.
NMR
The correct answer is B.
In this situation, it is the function of the brain that is of interest. PET scans provide information on the functions of the brain (e.g., metabolic functions).
Answer A: CT is a structural imaging technique.
Answer C: MRI is also a structural technique.
Answer D: NMR (nuclear magnetic resonance) is another name for MRI, which is a structural imaging technique. (An fMRI is a functional technique.)
38
Which of the following is a cause of conductive deafness?
Select one:
A.
Infection of the middle ear
B.
Damage to the hair cells
C.
Cochlear damage
D.
Lesions in the auditory cortex
The correct answer is A.
There are three types of deafness: conductive, sensorineural, and central. Conductive deafness results from failure of mechanical stimulation to reach the cochlea and can be caused by an infection or obstruction in the outer or middle ear.
Answer B: This refers to sensorineural deafness.
Answer C: Damage to the cochlea results in sensorineural deafness.
Answer D: This is a cause of central deafness.
39
Group polarization has occurred when:
Select one:
A.
group members are split in their solution to a problem
B.
group members make riskier decisions as a group than they would have as individuals
C.
group members make either riskier or more conservative decisions as a group than they would have as individuals
D.
group members are encouraged to think alike and all dissent is discouraged
The correct answer is C.
Group polarization refers to the tendency for a group's decision to be more extreme (polarized) that the decisions that individual members would have made alone. This is an accurate description of group polarization.
Answer A: This is not an accurate description of group polarization.
Answer B: This describes the "risky shift" phenomenon.
Answer D: This sounds more like groupthink.
40
In his study on the effects of therapy fees on satisfaction with therapy, a social psychologist finds that clients who have to work overtime or get a second job to pay for therapy generally express greater satisfaction than wealthy clients, clients whose insurance covers most of their fee, or clients who are receiving therapy for free or at low cost. This finding provides support for which of the following?
Select one:
A.
The overjustification hypothesis
B.
Cognitive dissonance theory
C.
The approach-avoidance conflict
D.
Equity theory
The correct answer is B.
The results of the study indicate that people who "struggle" for therapy say it gives them greater satisfaction. This finding is consistent with other research on cognitive dissonance, including studies showing that students say they like a dull club more when they have experienced a difficult initiation.
Answer A: The overjustification hypothesis is used to explain why intrinsic motivation decreases after external rewards have been applied.
Answer C: The approach-avoidance conflict doesn't really fit the situation described in this question.
Answer D: Equity theory makes predictions about how people perform in situations they perceive to be either equitable or inequitable.
41
Research investigating the relationship between interest test scores and future occupational choice suggests that these tests have the highest predictive validity for:
Select one:
A.
individuals with lower SES
```
B.
middle-class individuals
```
C.
individuals with higher SES
D.
both lower and upper SES
The correct answer is B.
Socioeconomic status is one factor that has been found to affect the predictive validity of interest inventories. Members of the middle class usually have the greatest latitude when it comes to choosing an occupation and, therefore, are most likely to choose jobs that coincide with their interests.
Answer A: Those with lower SES do not always have the opportunity to pursue occupations that coincide with their interests and frequently choose jobs that provide the greatest pay and security.
Answer C: Those with higher SEC often choose occupations on the basis of family tradition or societal expectations rather than interests.
Answer D: Members of the middle class usually have the greatest latitude when it comes to choosing an occupation and, therefore, are most likely to choose jobs that coincide with their interests.
42
The __________ is best described as the "gateway to memory" because of its involvement in the storage of new information.
Select one:
A.
hippocampus
B.
hypothalamus
C.
thalamus
D.
R.A.S.
The correct answer is A.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the major functions of the brain structures listed in the answers to this question. Damage to the hippocampus is associated with memory impairments, especially impairments in retaining recently acquired information.
Answer B: The hypothalamus is involved in a number of important functions including the maintenance of the body's internal balance (homeostasis).
Answer C: The thalamus relays sensory messages to the cortex.
Answer D: The reticular activating system (RAS) is involved in arousing the cortex and screening incoming information.
43
You saw a family in therapy for several months but they terminated when the husband and wife decided to get a divorce. Now, two months later, you are being asked to conduct an evaluation of the husband for a custody hearing. Your best course of action is to:
Select one:
A.
do so but avoid making a recommendation without evaluating all members of the family
B.
do so only with the consent of both parents
C.
do so only if you believe you can remain unbiased
D.
not conduct the evaluation
The correct answer is D.
This issue is addressed by ethical guidelines that require psychologists to avoid multiple relationships. This issue is addressed, for example, in Guideline 7 of the Guidelines for Child Custody Evaluations in Family Law Proceedings, which states that "psychologists strive to avoid conflicts of interest and multiple relationships in conducting evaluations."
Answers A, B, C: While these options are not definitively unethical, considering the potential for bias, the most ethical choice would be to forego conducting the evaluation altogether.
44
When conducting a research study, you want to ensure that you will detect a difference between the treatment group and the control (no treatment) group. Therefore, you will:
Select one:
A.
decrease error variance by decreasing the magnitude of the independent variable
B.
increase experimental variance by increasing the magnitude of the independent variable
C.
decrease the probability of making a Type I error by decreasing alpha
D.
decrease the probability of making a Type II error by increasing beta
The correct answer is B.
Rephrased, this question would read "how do you increase power?" To identify the correct answer to this question, your understanding of power must be beyond a definitional level (e.g., "power is 1 - beta," or "power is the probability of correctly rejecting a false null hypothesis,") and at an abstract or conceptual level. Power can be thought of as the sensitivity of an empirical study. That is, if significant differences exist between groups, a powerful study will be sensitive enough to detect the differences. Increasing the magnitude of the independent variable would increase experimental variance by increasing the difference between the experimental and control (no treatment) groups. This would increase power, or the ability to detect the effects of the independent variable. As an example, if you are studying the effects of a new learning procedure on performance, you are more likely to detect its effects if you administer the learning procedure to the experimental group subjects for six weeks rather than for one week.
Answer A: Decreasing the magnitude of the independent variable will result in less power. For instance, if you are studying the effects of a drug on a behavior, you are less likely to detect its effects when your experimental group receives a low dosage than when it receives a higher dosage. Moreover, this response does not make sense because decreasing the magnitude of the independent variable does not decrease error variance.
Answer C: Decreasing alpha does decrease the probability of making a Type I error but, at the same time, it reduces power.
Answer D: Power does increase as the probability of making a Type II error decreases. However, this response does not make sense, since an increase in beta will, by definition, result in an INCREASE of the probability of making a Type II error.
45
A client who is classified as being in the preparation stage of the transtheoretical model:
Select one:
A.
is engaging in meaningful action in preparation for change
B.
plans to take action within the next six months that will alter his/her problematic behavior
C.
is planning to take action to change within the next month and has formulated a realistic action plan
D.
has committed to preparing to make consistent changes over the course of the next year
The correct answer is C.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the six stages of Prochaska and DiClemente's stages of change model: precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance, and termination. A person in the preparation stage is planning to take action in the near future (usually defined as in the next month) and has formulated a realistic plan of action for modifying his/her behavior.
Answer A: A person in the preparation stage has not yet actually engaged in actions to change but is mentally preparing to do so.
Answer B: A person in the contemplation stage intends to take action in the next six months.
Answer D: Persons in the preparation stage plan to make changes within the next month.
46
Eighteen-month old Tylee has learned the word "cup" and applies it to other similar objects such as bowls, glasses, and bottles. This is referred to as:
Select one:
A.
underextension
B.
overextension
C.
overregularization
D.
expansion
The correct answer is B.
Children exhibit a number of predictable errors when learning to speak. As its name implies, overextension involves applying a word to a wider collection of objects or events than is appropriate.
Answer A: Underextension involves applying a term too narrowly (e.g., using "dog" to refer only to the family dog).
Answer C: Overregularization is an overextension of grammatical rules to words that are exceptions (e.g., adding "s" to "feet").
Answer D: Expansion refers to the feedback that adults seem to naturally give young children, which provides children with information on appropriate language use.
47
Holland's Self-Directed Search provides scores on six occupational themes. A person who obtains the highest score on the realistic theme is best suited for a job involving:
Select one:
A.
physical, mechanical, or outdoor activities
B.
scientific, mathematical, or analytic tasks
C.
activities that require attention to detail and good organization skills
D.
tasks that require business, management, or sales skills
The correct answer is A.
Holland's scale distinguishes between five occupational themes ("RIASEC"): realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, and conventional. People who score high on the realistic scale are well suited for these types of tasks.
Answer B: These tasks fit the investigative type.
Answer C: These activities fit the interests of individuals receiving the highest score on the conventional scale.
Answer D: These tasks are of greatest interest to individuals with a high score on the enterprising scale.
48
A solution-focused therapist is working with a husband and wife whose conversations frequently escalate to bitter fights. The therapist will most likely:
Select one:
A.
reduce tension during therapy sessions by having the husband and wife talk directly to her rather than to each other
B.
instruct the couple to take a ten-minute "time-out" whenever they begin to argue at home
C.
ask the couple if they can remember a time when they were able to talk for an extended period without arguing
D.
ask the couple what rewards they derive from arguing
The correct answer is C.
As its name implies, solution-focused therapy focuses on solutions rather than problems. Solution-focused therapists use "exceptions" to help identify solutions to a client's problems. An exception is a time when the problem did not exist or existed in a less intense form.
Answer A: This sounds more like the approach a Bowenian family therapist would adopt.
Answer B: This isn't characteristic of the solution-focused approach.
Answer D: This is not characteristic of this approach.
49
Tiedeman and O'Hara's (1963) model of career development emphasizes which of the following?
Select one:
A.
Basic interests
B.
Basic instinctual needs
C.
Vocational identity
D.
Locus of control
The correct answer is C.
Tiedeman and O'Hara (1963) viewed career development as a process involving the acquisition of a personal vocational identity.
Answers A, B, & D: Tiedeman and O'Hara emphasized the development of a vocational identity. They proposed that the achievement of a personal vocational identity involves balancing integration (being part of a career field) with differentiation (retaining individuality and uniqueness).
50
A study conducted by Buhrmester and Furman (1990) of 3rd, 6th, 9th, and 12th graders found that, as children approach the end of middle childhood, relationships between siblings become more:
Select one:
A.
distant
B.
egalitarian
C.
conflictual
D.
complementary
The correct answer is B.
Research by D. Buhrmester and W. Furman found a combination of closeness and conflict among siblings in middle childhood with a trend toward less conflict and greater egalitarianism with increasing age (Perceptions of sibling relationships during middle childhood and adolescence, Child Development, 61, 1387-1398, 1990).
Answers A, C, & D: The study cited in the question found that, by the end of middle childhood, sibling relationships had become much more egalitarian and lower in intensity and conflict.
51
When a therapist overlooks a client's career difficulties because the client is going through a divorce, this is referred to as:
Select one:
A.
diagnostic overshadowing
B.
career overshadowing
C.
vocational overshadowing
D.
diagnostic overlooking
The correct answer is C.
Vocational overshadowing occurs when a professional overlooks a client's vocational problems because the client has a co-existing personal problem.
Answer A: Diagnostic overshadowing was originally used to describe the tendency of health professionals to attribute all of a person's psychiatric symptoms to his or her intellectual disabilities.
Answer B: This is a "made up" term.
Answer D: Diagnostic overlooking is not an actual clinical term.
52
For Miller and Dollard (1941), the approach-approach conflict:
Select one:
A.
is a dilemma because as soon as the individual approaches one positive goal, the pull of the other positive goal increases in strength
B.
is a dilemma that is often resolved by "leaving the field" and choosing a third goal
C.
is not really a dilemma since, once the individual begins to approach one positive goal, the strength of the pull of the other positive goal decreases
D.
is an unpredictable dilemma because it is impossible to ever know if the appropriate goal has been selected
The correct answer is C.
Miller and Dollard distinguish between three conflicts: approach-avoidance, avoidance-avoidance, and approach-approach.
Answer A: This is not a prediction made by Miller and Dollard but does sound somewhat like what Lewin concluded about this type of dilemma.
Answer B: This sounds more like what Lewin concluded about avoidance-avoidance conflicts. According to Miller and Dollard, the approach-approach conflict is not really a dilemma. When it does arouse conflict, it is because there are hidden or latent avoidance conditions operating.
Answer D: According to Miller and Dollard the approach-approach conflict is not really a dilemma.
53
Which of the following aspects of the central nervous system is least well-developed at birth?
Select one:
A.
Diencephalon
B.
Midbrain
C.
Cerebral cortex
D.
Cerebellum
The correct answer is C.
The brain develops both before and after birth in an orderly sequence. At birth, the infant's brain is about one-fourth the size of an adult brain. The cortex is not well-developed at birth, which suggests that newborn behaviors are primarily reflexive (i.e., mediated by the lower centers of the brain). Some areas of the cortex (e.g., those involved in problem-solving, self-concept, and planning) do not fully develop until adolescence or early adulthood.
Answer A: The diencephalon consists of the thalamus and hypothalamus and is sufficiently well-developed at birth to allow for critical functions that are necessary for life.
Answer B: Like the diencephalon, the midbrain is relatively well-developed at birth.
Answer D: The cerebellum is involved in motor coordination, and the motor areas of the brain develop prior to the areas governing the higher cognitive functions.
54
As used by Lorenz (1965), the term "critical period" refers to:
Select one:
A.
the period from ages three to six months during which the basic structure of the personality is formed
B.
periods when the infant shows predictable "growth spurts"
C.
the third trimester when the brain is at greatest vulnerability to structural damage
D.
a period shortly after birth during which an infant ordinarily bonds with its mother
The correct answer is D.
The term "critical period" refers to a period when a specific experience will have its greatest impact on development. Lorenz applied the term to the period during which geese bond with (imprint on) their mothers. Lorenz found that the "critical period" for imprinting in geese is 2-3 days after birth. In other words, geese will stay close (attach) to stimuli that they are exposed to two to three days after birth. Research investigating the existence of a similar critical period in humans has been inconclusive.
Answer A: As defined by Lorenz, the critical period involves bonding rather than personality development and occurs shortly after birth.
Answer B: Lorenz's definition of the critical period does not involve growth spurts.
Answer C: As defined by Lorenz, the critical period occurs after birth.
55
Which of the following is an example of cultural encapsulation?
Select one:
A.
A client belonging to a minority group cannot separate problems due to individual factors from those related to oppression.
B.
A White male therapist doesn't recognize that he interprets clients' problems from his own cultural worldview.
C.
A young woman's conflict is related to her inability to separate from the values, attitudes, and expectations of her immigrant parents.
D.
A therapist tends to view all problems of minority clients as due to factors inherent to the client's cultural background.
The correct answer is B.
The term cultural encapsulation was used by Wrenn (1985) to describe the characteristics of a therapist who is "encapsulated" within his/her dominant culture. Culturally encapsulated therapists not only view clients' problems through the filter of their own culture but are also unaware of doing so.
Answers A & C: Cultural encapsulation relates to the therapist's worldview and how this impacts her/his client conceptualizations.
Answer D: This describes racial prejudice.
56
Dr. Hyer, a psychologist who heads the personnel committee at a mental health facility, recommends that a psychologist who has an unresolved charge of sexual harassment against him not be considered for a promotion. In terms of ethical guidelines published by the American and Canadian Psychological Associations, Dr. Hyer _____.
Select one:
A.
has acted ethically since sexual harassment is explicitly prohibited by ethical guidelines
B.
acted ethically as long as he is willing to consider the psychologist for promotion if he is acquitted of the harassment charge
C.
has acted unethically by violating the ethical requirement that psychologists not deny promotions on the basis of pending sexual harassment charges
D.
has acted unprofessionally but has not violated ethical guidelines
The correct answer is C.
This is one of the issues that is explicitly addressed by the Ethics Code. Standard 1.08 of the APA's Ethics Code applies in this situation. It specifically prohibits denying a person employment or promotion "based solely upon their having made or their being the subject of an ethics complaint." This prohibition does not necessarily, however, preclude such actions when a charge against an individual has been proven. This answer is also most consistent with Principle I.13 of the Canadian Code of Ethics for Psychologists.
Answer A: Unless the charge has been proven, denying promotion or employment under these circumstances is prohibited.
Answer B: This answer does not reflect the position of either the APA's Ethics Code or the Canadian Code of Ethics.
Answer D: This answer fails to address the ethical issue specific to dealing with allegations that have not been proven.
57
A young man is found guilty of driving while intoxicated and is required by the court to receive in-patient treatment at an alcohol rehabilitation center. As a therapist working at the rehabilitation center, you should be aware that _______.
Select one:
A.
it is not necessary to have the man sign a waiver of confidentiality since his treatment is court-ordered
B.
it is not necessary to have the man sign a waiver of confidentiality because he has apparently voluntarily chosen treatment rather than some other form of punishment
C.
it is not necessary to have the man sign a waiver of confidentiality since no information should be given to the court in this situation under any circumstances
D.
it is necessary to have the man sign a waiver of confidentiality before releasing any information to the court
The correct answer is D.
The best approach to answering a question on informed consents and waivers of confidentiality is to choose the most conservative answer. Although the court has ordered the treatment, the client's right to confidentiality is not waived. In fact, a court order is likely to be required for the release of information to it, and the information that must be released would likely be limited to objective data (see, e.g., L. C. Sobell and M. B. Sobell, Client rights in alcohol treatment programs, In. G. T. Hannah, et al. (eds.), Preservation of Client Rights, New York: The Free Press, 1981).
Answer A: While the man has been court ordered to treatment, without a waiver of confidentiality, treatment information cannot be released.
Answer B: The man has not automatically given up his rights to confidentiality. A release or court order needs to be in place before releasing information.
Answer C: This answer is incorrect as it is likely the court will request treatment information and the psychologist will need to know his or her ethical and legal responsibilities.
58
Dr. Bradley is not a member of APA. If he violates the standards of ethical conduct in the APA Ethics Code, he _______.
Select one:
A.
cannot be sanctioned by APA or other professional bodies
B.
could still be sanctioned by his state licensure board
C.
could still be sanctioned by APA
D.
could still be sanctioned by both APA and his state licensure board
The correct answer is B.
The Introduction and Applicability section of the APA Ethics Code states, "Actions that violate the standards of the Ethics Code may also lead to the imposition of sanctions on psychologists or students whether or not they are APA members by bodies other than APA...." The state licensure board is one of those bodies.
Answer A: This answer is incorrect. APA cannot sanction nonmembers, but other boards and organizations may sanction psychologists who violate APA ethical standards.
Answer C: This answer is incorrect. The APA cannot sanction nonmembers.
Answer D: This answer is incorrect. While the state licensure board may sanction a psychologist, APA would not sanction a nonmember.
59
Due to his violation of the Ethics Code, Dr. Riley is __________.
Select one:
A.
legally liable in a court action
B.
legally liable only when the violation involves breach of contract
C.
legally liable in both court actions and in cases where there is breach of contract
D.
not automatically liable for court actions or breach of contract
The correct answer is D.
The APA Ethics Code states, "Whether a psychologist has violated the Ethics Code standards does not by itself determine whether the psychologist is legally liable in a court action, whether a contract is enforceable, or whether other legal consequences occur."
Answer A: A psychologist who violates ethical standards is not automatically legally liable in court.
Answer B: A psychologist who violates ethical standards is not automatically legally liable in the event of contract breach.
Answer C: This answer is incorrect. Legal liability does not automatically stem from ethical violations.
60
The Ethics Code uses modifiers such as "reasonably" and "appropriate" to allow for professional judgment on the part of psychologists. When applied in the Ethical Standards, the term "reasonably" refers to _______.
Select one:
A.
the judgment of the psychologist's peers, based on current APA ethical standards
B.
the knowledge the psychologist had or should have had at the time, regardless of the judgment of peers
C.
the knowledge of psychologists in similar circumstances, as determined by a jury of professional peers
D.
the judgment of psychologists engaged in similar activities in similar circumstances, given the knowledge the psychologist had or should have had at the time
The correct answer is D.
This language is taken directly from the APA Ethics Code, which states, "As used in this Ethics Code, the term reasonable means the prevailing professional judgment of psychologists engaged in similar activities in similar circumstances, given the knowledge the psychologist had or should have had at the time.
Answer A: This answer is incorrect because it is incomplete.
Answer B: This answer is incomplete as well.
Answer C: The APA Ethics Code does not refer to a jury of one's peers.
61
The Ethics Code sets forth specific standards that address most situations psychologists encounter, with the primary goal best described as the _______.
Select one:
A.
promotion of the discipline of psychology
B.
protection of individuals and groups
C.
protection of people and education regarding ethical standards of the discipline
D.
education of students, psychologists, and the public regarding ethical standards of the discipline of psychology
The correct answer is C.
The Preamble of the APA Ethics Code states its goals include, "the welfare and protection of the individuals and groups with whom psychologists work and the education of members, students, and the public regarding ethical standards of the discipline."
Answer A: Promoting discipline is not the main goal of the Ethics Code.
Answer B: This answer is incorrect because it does not fully respond to the question.
Answer D: Education is one goal of the Ethics Code, but this answer is incomplete as it does not address the other goal, which is protecting those with whom psychologists work.
62
According to the APA Ethics Code, engaging in pro bono services is __________.
Select one:
A.
required
B.
recommended
C.
recommended and required
D.
Neither recommended nor required
The correct answer is B.
Pro bono services are professional services a psychologist provides without charge. The term is not used explicitly in the Ethics Code, but General Principle B (Fidelity and Responsibility) encourages psychologists to contribute some of their professional time for little or no compensation. Given that pro bono services are described in the General Principles, they are not mandated, but are recommended only.
Answer A: This answer is incorrect. Because pro bono services are described in the aspirational General Principles, they are not required.
Answer C: This answer is incorrect. Pro bono services are recommended, but not required.
Answer D: This answer is incorrect. Pro bono services are recommended.
63
APA may take action against a member after his or her conviction of _______.
Select one:
A.
a crime that was committed when the psychologist was acting in a professional role
B.
misdemeanor or felony
C.
felony
D.
a crime that involves harm to another person regardless of whether it is associated with the psychologist's professional role
The correct answer is C.
The Ethics Code states, "...APA may take action against a member after his or her conviction of a felony, expulsion or suspension from an affiliated state psychological association, or suspension or loss of licensure."
Answer A: The APA may take action in the event of a member's felony conviction regardless of whether it was associated with a psychologist's private conduct.
Answer B: The APA does not take action in the event of a misdemeanor.
Answer D: This answer is too vague and does not reflect the language contained in the Ethics Code.
64
When a psychologist encounters a conflict between ethical and legal requirements, psychologists should resolve it in a way that _______________.
Select one:
A.
preserves the ethical foundations of the profession
B.
is in keeping with basic principles of human rights
C.
adheres to legal standards
D.
is in keeping with accepted practices
The correct answer is B.
In the Introduction of the APA Ethics Code, psychologists are advised that when there is a conflict between ethical and legal requirements, psychologists must resolve it in a way that is "in keeping with basic principles of human rights."
Answer A: This answer is incorrect as it is incomplete. It is important to understand that the code advises psychologists to weigh human rights when faced with a conflict between ethical and legal responsibilities.
Answer C: This answer is incorrect. It fails to include language specific to the Ethics Code.
Answer D: This answer is too vague.
65
Dr. Cohen believes her colleague has engaged in unethical behavior that will result in harm to the colleague's clients. Dr. Cohen files a report with the state licensing board. Dr. Cohen has acted _________.
Select one:
A.
ethically provided she does not violate confidentiality rights
B.
unethically, because she should have confronted her colleague first
C.
ethically, provided she does not file a complaint with the APA Ethics Committee until after the licensure board renders its decision
D.
unethically, because she should have filed a complaint with the APA Ethics Committee first
The correct answer is A.
Standard 1.05 states, "If an apparent ethical violation has substantially harmed or is likely to substantially harm a person or organization and is not appropriate for informal resolution...psychologists take further action appropriate to the situation."
Answer B: While Standard 1.04 advises psychologists to "attempt to resolve the issue by bringing it to the attention of that individual," Standard 1.05 allows for further action in more serious cases.
Answer C: This answer is incorrect. There are no restrictions regarding the order in which complaints should be filed.
Answer D: This answer is incorrect, as this is not required.
66
Dr. Grant's new client tells her she stopped seeing her previous therapist because he repeatedly borrowed money from her and did not pay her back. The client said her friend is also a client of this psychologist and the friend believes the psychologist has a gambling problem, because he asked her for a loan as well. Dr. Grant should __________.
Select one:
A.
file an ethics complaint, given the psychologist's behavior may involve substantial harm to other clients
B.
contact the client's previous therapist to try to resolve the issue informally
C.
talk with the client about her options
D.
ask the client to give you the contact information of her friend so you can investigate further
The correct answer is C.
Of the answers available, this one is the best. Talking with the client about her options makes the most sense. While the other psychologist's behavior is clearly unethical and may be causing harm, Dr. Cohen cannot file a complaint or contact the other therapist without the client's permission.
Answer A: Client confidentiality takes precedence over reporting another psychologist's unethical behavior, and this answer does not indicate the client has given permission.
Answer B: Without the client's permission, Dr. Cohen cannot contact the previous psychologist.
Answer D: This answer is obviously incorrect as Dr. Cohen would not want to contact another client.
67
Dr. Stover is a psychologist whose practice involves assessment for educational and forensic concerns. After a hurricane devastates Dr. Stover's community, the emergency response team asks her to help people coping with the aftermath. Dr. Stover should ___________.
Select one:
A.
let the response team know she is not qualified to provide individual and group psychotherapy
B.
agree to help only if it does not interfere with her regularly scheduled assessment appointments
C.
agree to help with the emergency response until appropriate services are available
D.
agree to help after she completes a refresher workshop on interviewing skills.
The correct answer is C.
This question addresses the boundaries of competence in crisis situations. Ethical Standard 2.02 states, "In emergencies, when psychologists provide services ...for which psychologists have not obtained the necessary training, psychologists may provide such services in order to ensure that services are not denied." Importantly, the standard also requires that services be discontinued once appropriate services are available.
Answer A: Given this is an emergency situation, Dr. Stover may provide services.
Answer B: This answer is incorrect as it fails to address the central ethical concern, which is responding in an emergency.
Answer D: This answer is incorrect. While taking a refresher workshop is not a bad idea, it is unlikely that in a crisis situation, Dr. Stover should wait until that event is scheduled.
68
Dr. Kramer is in private practice. Which situation would be most likely to trigger concerns about vicarious liability?
Select one:
A.
Providing consultation to a foster care agency
B.
Agreeing to take psychology interns at her practice site
C.
Offering expert testimony in a child abuse case
D.
Offering to administer personality inventories to police candidates
The correct answer is B.
Vicarious liability refers to the legal responsibility psychologists assume when they supervise others. In accepting interns at her practice site, Dr. Kramer will be held responsible for the actions of her supervisees.
Answer A: This answer is incorrect. Vicarious liability is not likely to be an issue in this case.
Answer C: Vicarious liability is relevant to situations where a psychologist provides supervision, not testimony.
Answer D: Vicarious liability is not related to this situation.
69
Dr. Kennedy is a skilled cognitive-behavioral psychologist. While attending a conference, she stops to talk with a vendor selling biofeedback equipment. The vendor, also a therapist, tells Dr. Kennedy his equipment is intuitive to use, and that she can easily set it up and apply biofeedback with clients this coming week. Dr. Kennedy decides to buy the equipment to try the technique with some of her more challenging clients. Dr. Kennedy is _______.
Select one:
A.
behaving ethically given biofeedback is based on behavioral skills she already has
B.
behaving ethically, given psychologists are expected to learn new skills to remain competent
C.
behaving unethically if she does not first obtain biofeedback training prior to using it with her patients
D.
behaving unethically if she does not give patients the choice of using biofeedback instead of her usual therapeutic approach
The correct answer is C.
In this case, biofeedback would be a new technique that Dr. Kennedy has not used before. Standard 2.01 states that psychologists provide therapeutic services that are within their current level of competence. Dr. Kennedy needs to obtain training on this new technique before using it with patients.
Answer A: Even though biofeedback is related to behavioral techniques, its use requires specific training.
Answer B: This answer is incorrect. While psychologists are expected to update their skills, this answer misses the central ethical issue, which is obtaining the necessary training to be competent.
Answer D: This answer is incorrect. It overlooks the more critical issue of Dr. Kennedy needing to develop skills before trying biofeedback with her patients.
70
Dr. Preston has been planning to lead a pro bono grief group associated with the local hospice. She has screened the group members and notified them the first meeting will occur in one week. That evening, Dr. Preston learns that her sister has been killed in a car accident. Dr. Preston should ________.
Select one:
A.
proceed with the group as planned, letting the group know about the loss of her sister
B.
ask the group to meet without her for the first few weeks
C.
let the group know she needs to postpone the start of the group for two weeks, so she can deal with her sister's death
D.
cancel the group
The correct answer is D.
Standard 2.06 advises psychologist to refrain from initiating professional activities when there is a likelihood that personal problems will interfere with those activities. The death of Dr. Preston's sister is significant enough that she should cancel the group or find another psychologist to lead it.
Answer A: This answer is incorrect. Dr. Preston's loss is likely to interfere with her ability to successfully lead the group.
Answer B: This answer is incorrect. It is unlikely "a few weeks" will be enough time to cope with her sister's death in such a way that Dr. Preston can assure her competence.
Answer C: This answer is incorrect. Again, two weeks is unlikely to be enough time to assure she will lead the group with competence.
71
Which of the following best describes the ethical requirements regarding the two-year limit on sexual intimacies?
Select one:
A.
Psychologists may enter into a sexual relationship with a former client provided two years have passed since treatment ended.
B.
Psychologists do not engage in sexual intimacies with former clients/patients even after a two-year interval except in the most unusual circumstances.
C.
Psychologists may work with former intimate partners provided two years have passed since the relationship was terminated.
D.
Psychologists do not enter into a therapeutic relationship with a former sexual partner even after a two-year interval except in the most unusual circumstances.
The correct answer is B.
Ethics Standard 10.08 prohibits psychologists from having sexual relationships with a client for at least two years after therapy has ceased. Further, it states that such a relationship may be acceptable only in the "most unusual circumstances." The standard lays out a series of circumstances the psychologist bears the burden of addressing to demonstrate the relationship is not exploitative.
Answer A: This answer is incorrect as it fails to account for the fact that sexual relationships two years after treatment has terminated should be highly unusual.
Answer C: This answer is incorrect. Accepting a client who is a former sexual partner is not ethical.
Answer D: This answer is incorrect. It is never ethical to begin therapy with a former sexual partner.
72
Which situation is most likely to be informed by the Tarasoff decision?
Select one:
A.
A client says his brother talks about killing his neighbor.
B.
A client confesses to you he killed a co-worker 8 years ago.
C.
A client says she is thinking about overdosing on pills.
D.
A client tells you he is thinking of poisoning his brother.
The correct answer is D.
The Tarasoff decision refers to a psychologist's duty to protect an intended victim. If a client says he is thinking of poisoning his brother, the psychologist should act to protect the brother.
Answer A: This answer is incorrect. Tarasoff does not apply in this case.
Answer B: Tarasoff does not apply to past situations.
Answer C: Tarasoff does not apply to self-harm or suicide cases.
73
Dr. Israel is a psychologist in a university counseling center. A new 18-year old client tells Dr. Israel that growing up, her father would become violent when drunk, and that he repeatedly hit her. The student cries as she explains that violent incidents have become more frequent, leading the student to avoid going home to see her mother and two younger sisters who still live there. Dr. Israel should __________________.
Select one:
A.
contact the police, given the Tarasoff decision requires Dr. Israel act to protect the family
B.
continue meeting with the student to provide support
C.
contact authorities about child abuse
D.
help the client develop a safety plan for the next time she visits her family
The correct answer is C.
As mandated reporters, psychologists are required by law to report suspected child abuse. The fact that the client's two younger sisters live in the home where the client's father is violent, places them at risk, especially since the client was abused herself while she lived there.
Answer A: The Tarasoff decision does not have bearing on this case.
Answer B: This answer is not completely incorrect, but it fails to account for the fact that the psychologist has a responsibility to report suspected child abuse.
Answer D: Developing a safety plan is a good idea, but the more critical ethical and legal concern in this case is that fact that the psychologist has a responsibility to report suspected child abuse.
74
Dr. Huang is a psychology professor who maintains an active private practice. Her doctoral students appreciate the fact that Dr. Huang uses timely examples from her practice to illustrate clinical content she teaches. Dr. Huang is careful to provide pseudonyms that mask the identity of her patients in class. Dr. Huang has acted _______________.
Select one:
A.
ethically, given she does not reveal the identity of her patients
B.
unethically, because faculty should not use real-life examples of patients in their classroom instruction
C.
ethically, provided she does not use examples in her undergraduate courses, thereby limiting the sharing of patient information in doctoral courses
D.
unethically; masking patient names is not sufficient
The correct answer is D.
Standard 4.07 prohibits psychologists from using confidential, information about their clients unless they have taken reasonable steps to remove all personally identifiable information. Simply using a pseudonym is not sufficient, when other details have not been changed.
Answer A: Simply using a different name for the client is not sufficient to mask their identity.
Answer B: Faculty may use examples if they sufficiently protect a client's identity or obtain client permission.
Answer C: Psychologists must protect their client's confidentiality and mask their identity regardless of whether they are teaching undergraduate or doctoral students.
75
Dr. Peterson has been working with a 22-year-old female client for the past three months. The client tells Dr. Peterson she was sexually assaulted by an older boyfriend when she was 15. Dr. Peterson should _____________.
Select one:
A.
contact child abuse authorities, given the client was 15 when the abuse occurred
B.
find out whether the client's boyfriend at the time currently has access to underaged youth he could be abusing
C.
contact the police, given they will handle the case now that the client is an adult
D.
continue working with the client to help her cope with the experience
The correct answer is D.
Dr. Peterson should continue working with the client.
Answer A: In most jurisdictions, psychologists are not required to report abuse when an adult client reveals she or he was abused as a child, unless there is reason to believe the perpetrator is still victimizing a minor.
Answer B: Unless the client indicates the abuser is still abusing children or youth, psychologists should not conduct an investigation to determine this.
Answer C: If the client wants to report the abuse to police, the psychologist can support her, but the psychologist should not file the report without the client's permission.
76
To adhere with APA ethics requirements, a psychologist should _______________.
Select one:
A.
obtain a patient's signature for informed consent
B.
document informed consent
C.
obtain a signature for a witness to document informed consent
D.
obtain the signature of both the patient and a witness to document informed consent
The correct answer is B.
The APA's Ethical Code requires that psychologists document informed consent, but does not specify that such documentation must include a signature.
Answer A: While obtaining a signature is a good idea and is one way to document consent, it is not required by the APA's ethics code.
Answer C: Securing a witness's signature is not required by APA.
Answer D: APA does not require a signature by either a witness or the client, though it does require documentation in the record. A signature is one way to document informed consent, but it is not the only way.
77
Dr. Simmons recruits research participants through social media to join a focus group research study dealing with the stressors facing parents of teens. The focus group is scheduled to last for two hours and participants are told they will be paid $50 for their participation. At the beginning of the focus group, Dr. Simmons advises the participants that their comments will be kept confidential and that she needs all participants to stay for the full duration of the focus group in order to receive their payment. Dr. Simmons study is ________________.
Select one:
A.
unethical, because psychologists should not use social media to recruit research participants
B.
unethical because psychologists should not pay research participants
C.
unethical because psychologists should not require research participants to stay for the duration of a research study
D.
ethical, but Dr. Simmons should include the perspectives of the teens in addition to their parents
The correct answer is C.
Psychologists should not require research participants to stay for the full duration of the study and need to communicate that participants may leave.
Answer A: The APA Ethics Code does not specify that recruitment through social media is unethical.
Answer B: This answer is incorrect. Researchers may pay their participants for their time.
Answer D: This answer is incorrect, because it fails to acknowledge that psychologists should not mandate participants complete a research study if they want to leave before it is over.
78
Pope et al. (1993) found that which therapists were more likely to engage in sexual relationships with their clients?
Select one:
A.
Male therapists ages 30-32
B.
Female therapists ages 30-32
C.
Male therapists ages 42-44
D.
Female therapists ages 42-44.
The correct answer is C.
Pope et al.'s study found that male therapists were more likely to engage in sexual relationships with their clients than female therapists. Knowing this should help you narrow down your answer from the available choices. The average age for these male therapists who engaged in a sexual relationship was 42-44. Typically, the female client was younger and between the ages of 30 and 33.
Answer A: This answer is incorrect, because older male therapists were more likely to engage in a sexual relationship with their client.
Answer B: This answer is incorrect. Male therapists were reported as more likely to pursue a sexual relationship with a client.
Answer D: This answer is incorrect. It could be ruled out by knowing that male therapists were more likely than female therapists to pursue a relationship with a client.
79
Dr. Gingerich is preparing to terminate with a couple after working with them for several months. The next day Dr. Gingerich is contacted by the husband who says he would like to start working with Dr. Gingerich in individual therapy after the couple's last session scheduled for next week. Dr. Gingerich's best course of action would be to ________________.
Select one:
A.
make an appointment with him as long as you believe that he will benefit from individual therapy
B.
make an appointment with him only if it is your practice to see members of couples conjointly and individually
C.
suggest that you discuss this with him during the next conjoint session
D.
tell him that you'd be glad to see him individually once conjoint treatment has been terminated
The correct answer is C.
This is a difficult question because not enough information is given to know why the request for individual therapy was made and what has already been discussed about individual therapy with the couple. To identify why the man is seeking individual therapy and to avoid "secrets" and conflicts regarding confidentiality, the best course of action would be to discuss the possibility of seeing the man in individual therapy during the next conjoint session.
Answer A: This answer fails to account for the more critical concern related to the couple as the client and the potential for creating an alliance with the husband that alienates the wife.
Answer B: This answer does not adequately address the more critical concern related to establishing an alliance with one member of the couple at the expense of the other member.
Answer D: This answer is incorrect, because before deciding to pursue this route toward future treatment, the couple and therapist should discuss together the potential problems inherent in seeing one member of the couple and not the other, especially if the couple should want to resume therapy at a later date.
80
Dr. Stanford, a licensed psychologist, receives a call from Beth, a former client. Beth tells Dr. Stanford that she has been treated by her family medicine doctor for the past two months with an antidepressant. The woman says she doesn't think the medication is helping at all and that she plans to stop taking the medication and start therapy again with Dr. Stanford. Dr. Stanford should __________.
Select one:
A.
make an appointment with Beth to discuss her concerns
B.
advise Beth that it would be best if she discusses her concerns with the family physician before scheduling an appointment with Dr. Stanford
C.
make an appointment with Beth so Dr. Stanford can determine whether the medication is helping or not
D.
tell Beth that he will call the doctor to discuss the Beth's concerns
The correct answer is B.
This is the only response that involves advising the client to check with her doctor about the continued use of the medication. In most situations, psychologists currently cannot prescribe medication or give advice about medication. Therefore, the correct answer to this question must be the answer that involves advising the client to speak with the doctor who prescribed the medication.
Answer A: Because Dr. Stanford is not able to make recommendations about medications, this is not the best course of action.
Answer C: Because prescribing medications is not within Dr. Stanford's area of expertise, this is not an appropriate course of action.
Answer D: Again, since Dr. Stanford is not able to give advice about medications, this is not the best choice.
81
At the gym, an acquaintance approaches you and asks if you've heard the rumor that a colleague of yours has a significant drinking problem and has been drunk while seeing clients. He heard your colleague passed out while treating someone who ultimately didn't go back to see him. The acquaintance says that the rumor seems to be widely known and believed. You think that it's possible that the rumor is true. What should you do?
Select one:
A.
Nothing, since it is only a rumor
B.
Suggest to the acquaintance that he discuss the rumor with the colleague
C.
Send a letter to the Ethics Committee about the matter
D.
Discuss the matter with the colleague yourself
The correct answer is D.
As an ethical psychologist, you have a responsibility to follow through on possible ethical violations of colleagues. The best course of action would be to confront the colleague directly. In the event that the rumor is not true, the colleague should be made aware of it.
Answer A: The APA's Ethics Code requires psychologists to intervene in the event of a colleague's unethical behavior. Therefore, you should not ignore this information.
Answer B: Because you are a psychologist and a colleague, you have a responsibility to act on this information.
Answer C: The APA's Ethics Code advises psychologists to attempt to remedy the situation directly in most cases. Further, you do not have details to provide in a complaint.
82
Research on complex clinical decision-making has confirmed that:
Select one:
A.
statistical prediction is usually more accurate than clinical judgment.
B.
clinical judgment is usually more accurate than statistical prediction.
C.
clinical judgment is more accurate than statistical prediction as long as the clinician "optimizes" rather than "satisfices."
D.
clinical judgment and statistical prediction are about equal in accuracy.
The correct answer is A.
Although the relative accuracy of statistical (actuarial) and clinical predictions continues to be debated, the research indicates that some general conclusions can be drawn. In their meta-analysis of the research, Grove and Meehl (1996) found that actuarial prediction alone was most accurate in 64 studies, a combination of actuarial prediction and clinical judgment was most accurate than either alone in 64 studies, and clinical judgment alone was most accurate in only 8 studies.
Answer B: Research on complex clinical decision-making has not confirmed that clinical judgment is usually more accurate than statistical prediction. See explanation for response A.
Answer C: Research on complex clinical decision-making has not confirmed that clinical judgment is more accurate than statistical prediction as long as the clinician "optimizes" rather than "satisfices" (which sounds like the opposite of what the bounded rationality (administrative) model espouses with regards to decison-makers). See explanation for response A.
Answer D: Research on complex clinical decision-making has not confirmed that clinical judgment and statistical prediction are about equal in accuracy. See explanation for response A.
83
According to ____________, symbolic play offers young children opportunities to engage in activities that are developmentally more advanced than they could successfully perform in reality on their own.
Select one:
A.
J. H. Flavell
B.
E. Gibson
C.
L. Vygotsky
D.
J. Piaget
The correct answer is C.
Symbolic (make-believe) play refers to play in which one object represents another (e.g., a doll represents a baby). For Vygotsky, symbolic play provides a "zone of proximal development" that enables a child to practice behaviors in a situation that requires less precision and accuracy than would be required in reality.
Answer A: Flavell is probably best known for his research on children's ability to distinguish between appearance and reality.
Answer B: Eleanor and James Gibson are best known for their research on perceptual development in infants.
Answer D: Piaget viewed symbolic play as an opportunity to practice representational schemes.
84
When excellent performance on one measure can offset poor performance on another measure, which of the following techniques would be most useful for combining test scores?
Select one:
A.
Multiple regression
B.
Multiple cutoff
C.
Multiple hurdle
D.
Multiple baseline
The correct answer is A.
This question describes a situation in which a compensatory technique would be the preferred technique for combining test scores. Multiple regression is a compensatory technique for combining test scores since a low score on one test can be offset (compensated for) by high scores on other tests.
Answer B: Multiple cutoff is a noncompensatory technique.
Answer C: Multiple hurdle is also a noncompensatory technique.
Answer D: Multiple baseline refers to a research design, not a method for combining test scores.
85
Joining and accommodating are the initial steps in __________ family therapy.
Select one:
A.
object relations
B.
strategic
C.
Milan systemic
D.
structural
The correct answer is D.
For the exam, you want to have joining and accommodating associated with Minuchin's structural family therapy. Minuchin viewed joining and accommodating as necessary initial processes that reduce family members' resistance to change.
Answer A: Joining and accommodating are not the initial steps in object relations family therapy. See explanation for response D.
Answer B: Joining and accommodating are not the initial steps in strategic family therapy. See explanation for response D.
Answer C: Joining and accommodating are not the initial steps in Milan systemic. See explanation for response D.
86
In an experiment on memory, the researcher utters a string of ten letters within a span of 3 seconds and suddenly stops and asks the participant what the last four letters were. Apparently, this researcher is investigating:
Select one:
A.
working memory
B.
semantic memory
C.
iconic memory
D.
echoic memory
The correct answer is D.
In this study, the participant must recall what he/she has just heard -- i.e., to recall information that is in sensory memory. The auditory part of sensory memory is referred to as echoic memory.
Answer A: Working memory is part of short-term memory.
Answer B: Semantic memory is part of long-term memory.
Answer C: Iconic memory is the visual aspect of sensory memory.
87
The final stage in Cross's (1991) Black Racial Identity Development Model is:
Select one:
A.
internalization
B.
incorporation
C.
integrative awareness
D.
autonomy
The correct answer is A.
The most recent version of Cross's model distinguishes between four stages of identity development: pre-encounter, encounter, immersion-emersion, and internalization. An African-American in the internalization stage has developed a strong ethnic identity but has also resolved global anti-white sentiments and become more bicultural.
Answer B: The final stage in Cross's (1991) Black Racial Identity Development Model is not incorporation. See explanation for response A.
Answer C: The final stage in Cross's (1991) Black Racial Identity Development Model is not integrative awareness. See explanation for response A.
Answer D: The final stage in Cross's (1991) Black Racial Identity Development Model is not autonomy. See explanation for response A.
88
Cross-cultural research has identified several universal emotions that are associated with similar facial expressions by individuals from diverse cultures. Which of the following is NOT one of these?
Select one:
A.
Fear
B.
Anger
C.
Disgust
D.
Shame
The correct answer is D.
The universal emotions identified by Ekman (1993) and Izard (1971) are: happiness, sadness, fear, anger, disgust, surprise, and contempt. People from diverse cultural backgrounds use very similar facial expressions to express these emotions. Shame is not one of the universal emotions identified by the researchers.
Answer A: Fear is one of the universal emotions identified by the researchers. See explanation for response D.
Answer B: Anger is one of the universal emotions identified by the researchers. See explanation for response D.
Answer C: Disgust is one of the universal emotions identified by the researchers. See explanation for response D.
89
An infant's first expression of fear is often in response to unfamiliar adults. The onset and severity of this "stranger anxiety" depends on several factors -- for instance, the child's temperament and previous experience with strangers -- but is ordinarily first evident when the child is _____ months of age.
Select one:
A.
4 to 6
B.
8 to 10
C.
10 to 12
D.
13 to 15
The correct answer is B.
Stranger anxiety is considered one manifestation of a child's attachment to his/her primary caregiver(s). In most infants, stranger anxiety is first evident by about 8 to 10 months.
Answer A: Stranger anxiety, in most infants, is not first evident by about 4 to 6 months. See explanation for response B.
Answer C: Stranger anxiety, in most infants, is not first evident by about 10 to 12 months. See explanation for response B.
Answer D: Stranger anxiety, in most infants, is not first evident by about 13 to 15 months. See explanation for response B.
90
```
Michael Rutter (1979) identified several factors ("Rutter's indicators") that increase the risk for psychopathology in children and adolescents. These include all of the following except:
Select one:
```
A.
low socioeconomic status
B.
large family size and overcrowding
C.
maternal psychopathology
D.
racial/ethnic minority status
The correct answer is D.
Rutter's (1979) indicators for psychopathology are low SES, marital discord, large family size and overcrowding, paternal criminality, maternal psychiatric disorder, and being placed in foster care. Racial/ethnic minority status is not one of Rutter's indicators.
Answer A: Low SES was identified by Rutter as a high-risk factor.
Answer B: Rutter identified large family size as a high-risk factor.
Answer C: Maternal psychopathology was also identified as a risk factor by Rutter.
91
An older adult in the middle (second) stage of Alzheimer's disease is most likely to exhibit which of the following?
Select one:
A.
Apathy, incontinence, and an inability to recognize close relatives and friends
B.
Restlessness and agitation, anterograde and retrograde amnesia, and flat or labile mood
C.
Impaired attention and judgment, anterograde amnesia, and indifference or sadness
D.
Poor judgment and insight, changes in speech and writing, and tremor
The correct answer is B.
Alzheimer's disease is often described in terms of three stages (see the Abnormal Psychology chapter of the written study materials). The symptoms listed in this answer are characteristic of the second stage.
Answer A: Apathy, incontinence, and an inability to recognize close relatives and friends are symptoms characteristic of the third (late) stage of the disorder.
Answer C: Impaired attention and judgment, anterograde amnesia, and indifference or sadness are symptoms characteristic of the first (early) stage of Alzheimer's disease.
Answer D: Poor judgment and insight, changes in speech and writing, and tremor are symptoms characteristic of Huntington's disease.
92
In Ainsworth's Strange Situation, children classified as __________may or may not cry when their mother leaves, ignore her when she returns, and, if they do become distressed, are just as likely to be comforted by a stranger as by their own mother.
Select one:
A.
secure
B.
insecure/avoidant
C.
insecure/resistant
D.
disorganized/disoriented
The correct answer is B.
Ainsworth originally identified three attachment patterns --secure, insecure/avoidant, and insecure/resistant. Main subsequently added the disorganized/disoriented pattern. Insecure/avoidant infants ordinarily show little distress in response to mom's departure, ignore her when she returns, and are often more friendly to a stranger than to mom.
Answer A: Secure infants often exhibit some distress when mom leaves and are unlikely to be comforted by a stranger.
Answer C: Insecure/resistant infants become very upset when mom leaves and are not comforted by her return.
Answer D: Disorganized/disoriented infants exhibit contradictory, disoriented behavior during the events of the Strange Situation.
93
Research on the effects of gender on goal-setting indicates that:
Select one:
A.
goal-setting increases the performance of both males and females when goals are participatively set or assigned
B.
goal-setting increases the performance of both males and females only when goals are participatively set
C.
goal-setting increases the performance of males but not females when goals are assigned but increases the performance of males and females when goals are participatively set
D.
goal-setting increases the performance of females but not males when goals are assigned but increases the performance of males and females when goals are participatively set
The correct answer is A.
The effects of gender on goal-setting are discussed by E. A. Locke and G. P. Latham (A Theory of Goal-Setting and Task Performance Englewood Cliffs, NJ: Prentice-Hall, 1990). The few studies that have examined the effects of gender have found that, overall, goal-setting is equally effective for males and females.
Answer B: Research on the effects of gender on goal-setting does not find that goal-setting increases the performance of both males and females only when goals are participatively set. See explanation for response A.
Answer C: Research on the effects of gender on goal-setting does not find that goal-setting increases the performance of males but not females when goals are assigned but increases the performance of males and females when goals are participatively set. See explanation for response A.
Answer D: Research on the effects of gender on goal-setting does not find that goal-setting increases the performance of females but not males when goals are assigned but increases the performance of males and females when goals are participatively set. See explanation for response A.
94
When initially hired by a company, Wally Worker is told that he'll be receiving regular raises and bonuses as long as his work is satisfactory. Although Wally has received excellent reviews from his supervisor during his two-year period of employment, he has not been given the rewards he was promised. According to expectancy theory, which of the following of Wally's beliefs will be most negatively affected by these circumstances?
Select one:
A.
Valence
B.
Autonomy
C.
Expectancy
D.
Instrumentality
The correct answer is D.
Expectancy theory distinguishes between three beliefs that affect motivation -- expectancy, instrumentality, and valence. Instrumentality refers to the belief that one's performance will be rewarded.
Answer A: Valence refers to the perceived value of the available rewards.
Answer B: Autonomy is not part of expectancy theory.
Answer C: Expectancy is the belief that one's effort will result in performance.
95
Gerstmann's Syndrome is characterized by:
Select one:
A.
dysgraphia, finger agnosia, acalculia, and right-left disorientation
B.
responding to simple questions with absurd, approximate, or inappropriate answers
C.
strong oral tendencies, hypersexuality, lack of concentration, and alterations in appetite
D.
anterograde amnesia, confusion, and confabulation
The correct answer is A.
Gerstmann's Syndrome is caused by damage to left (dominant) parietal lobe. Dysgraphia, finger agnosia, acalculia, and right-left disorientation are the four primary symptoms of Gerstmann's Syndrome.
Answer B: Responding to simple questions with absurd, approximate, or inappropriate answers are symptoms characteristic of Ganser Syndrome, which is a rare disorder most often seen in patients under examination for commitment and prisoners awaiting trial.
Answer C: Strong oral tendencies, hypersexuality, lack of concentration, and alterations in appetite are characteristic symptoms of Kluver-Bucy Syndrome.
Answer D: Anterograde amnesia, confusion, and confabulation are symptoms observed in Korsakoff's Syndrome.
96
Studies examining the therapist preferences of individuals belonging to culturally diverse groups indicates that they typically:
Select one:
A.
rank race/ethnic similarity as more important than attitude or worldview similarity
B.
rank attitude and worldview similarity as more important than race/ethnic similarity
C.
rank personality similarity as more important than either race/ethnic similarity or attitude similarity
D.
rank age and gender similarity as more important than either race-ethic similarity or attitude similarity
The correct answer is B.
Although members of culturally diverse groups express a stronger preference for therapists who are similar in terms of race or ethnicity, race and ethnicity are not always their first consideration. This was the finding of several studies which found that, when members of culturally diverse groups were given a choice between race/ethnic similarity and attitude similarity, most ranked attitude similarity as more important. See, e.g., D. R. Atkinson and C. E. Thompson, Racial, ethnic, and cultural variables in counseling, in S. D. Brown and R. W. Lent (Eds.), Handbook of counseling psychology New York, John Wiley & Sons, 1992).
Answer A: The idea that rank race/ethnic similarity is more important than attitude or worldview similarity is the opposite of what some research has found.
Answer C: Personality is ranked as less important than attitude or race/ethnicity.
Answer D: The idea that rank age and gender similarity is more important than either race-ethic similarity or attitude similarity is not a finding of these studies. See explanation above.
97
The failure to take into account the prior probability of an event when considering its current probability is referred to as:
Select one:
A.
the base-rate fallacy
B.
the fundamental attribution bias
C.
illusory correlation
D.
the discounting principle
The correct answer is A.
The correct answer to this question is the term that sounds like what it is -- the "base-rate fallacy." The base-rate fallacy is the failure to take the base rate into account when making decisions or forming attitudes. An example of the base-rate fallacy is the tendency of people to be more afraid of flying than of driving a car despite the fact that more people are killed on the road than in the sky.
Answer B: The fundamental attribution bias is described in the Social Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
Answer C: Illusory correlation is also described in the Social Psychology chapter.
Answer D: The discounting principle refers to the tendency to decrease the role of a given cause in producing an effect when other plausible causes are present.
98
Predictors of a positive response to a tricyclic antidepressant as a treatment for Major Depressive Disorder include all of the following except:
Select one:
A.
insidious onset of symptoms
B.
weight loss
C.
middle and late insomnia
D.
delusions
The correct answer is D.
The various antidepressants, to some degree, are most effective for different depressive symptoms. Hysterical traits, multiple previous episodes, and delusions are associated with a poor response to the tricyclic drugs. The symptoms listed in responses A, B, and C (along with psychomotor disturbances and other vegetative symptoms) are predictive of a positive response.
Answer A: Insidious onset of symptoms are predictive of a positive response. See explanation for response D.
Answer B: Weight loss is predictive of a positive response. See explanation for response D.
Answer C: Middle and late insomnia are predictive of a positive response. See explanation for response D.
99
In adults, Major Depressive Disorder occurs about twice as often in females than in males. This gender difference:
Select one:
A.
is the opposite of what is found in prepubertal children
B.
is the same as what is found in prepubertal children
C.
does not become evident until adolescence
D.
does not become evident until early adulthood
The correct answer is C.
Although there is some evidence that young girls exhibit more risk factors for depression during childhood, it is not until puberty that the gender difference in rates of Major Depressive Disorder becomes evident.
Answer A: It is not the case that, in adults, Major Depressive Disorder occurs about twice as often in females than in males due to this gender difference being the opposite of what is found in prepubertal children. See explanation for response C.
Answer B: It is not the case that, in adults, Major Depressive Disorder occurs about twice as often in females than in males due to this gender difference being the same as what is found in prepubertal children. See explanation for response C.
Answer D: It is not the case that, in adults, Major Depressive Disorder occurs about twice as often in females than in males due to this gender difference not becoming evident until early adulthood. See explanation for response C.
100
In contrast to most other theories, Herzberg’s two-factor theory describes satisfaction and dissatisfaction as _____________________.
Select one:
A.
dependent traits
B.
independent attitudes
C.
a job requirement
D.
stages of the career decision-making process
The correct answer is B.
Herzberg’s two-factor theory is a theory of both satisfaction and motivation, and, in contrast to most other theories, it describes satisfaction and dissatisfaction as independent attitudes. Using a critical-incidents technique that involved having engineers and accountants identify specific work experiences that contributed to their satisfaction and dissatisfaction, Herzberg (1966) derived two basic needs: lower-level and higher-level needs.
Answers A, C, and D: Herzberg’s theory has not been fully supported by the research. While motivators appear to be more potent than lower-level factors in producing motivation and satisfaction, there is evidence that both types of factors affect satisfaction and dissatisfaction.
101
You have been hired by a school psychologist to help enhance her ability to work with children with conduct problems. During the consultation, you realize that the psychologist is exhibiting "theme interference" - that is, she has a marked lack of objectivity when working with conduct-disordered children due to her own childhood experience with an emotionally-disturbed sibling. The type of consultation you are involved in is best described as:
Select one:
A.
process-centered
B.
advocacy-centered
C.
client-centered case consultation
D.
consultee-centered case consultation
The correct answer is D.
In this situation, you have been hired by the school psychologist to help her deal more effectively with a particular type of client. In consultee-centered case consultation, the focus is on the consultee's skill, knowledge, or objectivity, and the goal is to improve the consultee's effectiveness with members of a particular population.
Answer A: Process consultation is a type of organizational consultation and development that focuses on communication and other employee processes.
Answer B: The purpose of advocacy consultation is to act as an advocate for a disenfranchised group.
Answer C: In client-centered case consultation, the focus of the consultation is on a specific client (not a group of clients).
102
Due to improved treatments for acute lymphacytic leukemia, at least 50% of children with this condition now have a normal life expectancy. Research investigating the cognitive impact of treatments for this disorder - that is, CNS chemotherapy and irradiation - has found that:
Select one:
A.
CNS chemotherapy and irradiation are both associated with neurocognitive deficits.
B.
CNS chemotherapy is associated with neurocognitive deficits but irradiation is not.
C.
CNS irradiation is associated with neurocognitive deficits but chemotherapy is not.
D.
any apparent negative impact of either treatment on neurocognitive functioning is actually due to the disease.
The correct answer is A.
The research in this area is not entirely consistent, but it does appear that CNS chemotherapy and irradiation treatments for children with cancer do have some negative effects on their cognitive functioning, especially in terms of academic performance. [See, e.g., R. T. Brown and A. Madan-Sevain, Cognitive, neuropsychological, and academic sequelae in children with leukemia, Journal of Learning Disabilities, 26(2), 74-90, 1993.].
Answer B: Research does not show that CNS chemotherapy is associated with neurocognitive deficits but irradiation is not. See explanation for answer A.
Answer C: Research does not show that CNS irradiation is associated with neurocognitive deficits but chemotherapy is not. See explanation for answer A.
Answer D: Research does not show that any apparent negative impact of either treatment on neurocognitive functioning is actually due to the disease. See explanation for answer A.
103
A college freshman is being pressured by his parents to make a career choice and choose a college major. The young man is leaning toward a career in agriculture, but both of his parents are accountants and they want him to choose accounting so that he can eventually take over the family business. In terms of Marcia's "identity statuses," if the young man acquiesces to his parents' wishes, this will represent:
Select one:
A.
moratorium
B.
diffusion
C.
foreclosure
D.
pseudo-achievement
The correct answer is C.
Marcia (1980) distinguished between four identity statuses: diffusion, foreclosure, moratorium, and achievement. Information about these statuses is provided in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials. Identity-foreclosed individuals have made a commitment to an identity that has been imposed by parents or other authority figures.
Answer A: Moratorium occurs when adolescent experiences an identity crisis and actively explores alternative identities. See explanation for answer C.
Answer B: Diffusion occurs when adolescents have not yet experienced an identity crisis or explored alternatives and are not committed to an identity. See explanation for answer C.
Answer D: Pseudo-achievement is not one of Marcia's "identity statuses." See explanation for answer C.
104
Of the intermittment schedules of reinforcement, the variable ratio schedule produces the quickest acquisition of a behavior and the greatest resistance to extinction once reinforcement is terminated. This is because reinforcement is presented:
Select one:
A.
after a predictable number of responses
B.
after an unpredictable number of responses
C.
after a predictable interval of time
D.
after an unpredictable interval of time
The correct answer is B.
Ratio schedules provide reinforcement after a prespecified number of responses, while interval schedules provide reinforcement after a prespecified period of time (as long as at least one response is made during that interval). When using a variable ratio schedule, the number of responses required for reinforcement varies from trial to trial. It is the unpredictability of responses required that accounts for the effectiveness of this schedule in establishing and maintaining behaviors.
Answer A: This describes a fixed ratio schedule.
Answer C: This describes a fixed interval schedule.
Answer D: This describes a variable interval schedule.
105
The use of implosive therapy is based on the assumption that:
Select one:
A.
pairing stimuli associated with an undesirable response with a stimulus that produces a more adaptive response will result in elimination of the undesirable response
B.
consistently withholding reinforcement from an undesirable response will eventually result in extinction of that response
C.
repeatedly presenting stimuli associated with an undesirable conditioned response without the unconditioned stimulus will eventually result in extinction of that response
D.
consistently applying an aversive (unconditioned) stimulus following an undesirable conditioned response will eventually eliminate that response
The correct answer is C.
Knowing that implosive therapy is based on classical conditioning and uses extinction to eliminate an undesirable response would have helped answer this question. Implosive therapy is used to treat phobic responses and involves repeatedly presenting the feared stimulus (conditioned stimulus or CS) in imagination without the unconditioned stimulus (US) so that the feared stimulus no longer produces an anxiety response. It also incorporates psychodynamic principles by embellishing the imagined images with psychodynamic themes.
Answer A: Reciprocal inhibition is a form of counterconditioning developed by Wolpe to alleviate anxiety reactions by pairing a stimulus (CS) that produces anxiety with a stimulus (US) that produces relaxation or other response that is incompatible with anxiety. Thus, pairing stimuli associated with anxiety with stimuli that induce relaxation will result in a more adaptive response to anxiety (and a decrease of anxiety).
Answer B: This describes operant, not classical, extinction.
Answer D: When using aversive counterconditioning, the stimulus associated with a maladaptive behavior (CS) is paired with an unconditioned stimulus (US) that naturally evokes pain or unpleasant response. As a result, the maladaptive behavior and associated stimuli are avoided because they elicit an undesirable response.
106
In the context of the serial position effect, the "primacy effect":
Select one:
A.
is due to the transfer of information from short- to long-term memory
B.
is due to interference that prohibits transfer from short- to long-term memory
C.
is due to the repetition of information so that it is maintained in short-term memory
D.
is due to distractions that make it difficult to retrieve information from long-term memory
The correct answer is A.
The serial position effect refers to the tendency to recall items in the beginning and end of a word list better than the items in the middle of the list. The ability to recall items in the beginning of the list (primacy effect) is believed to be due to the fact that these items have been transferred from short- to long-term memory, while the ability to recall items in the end of the list (recency effect) is due to the fact that they are still present in short-term memory.
Answer B: Competing stimuli or disruption from injury or disease will inhibit transfer from short- to long-term memory. This is not addressed by the serial position effect.
Answer C: Maintenance rehearsal involves simply repeating information with little or no processing to maintain the information in short-term memory.
Answer D: Interference theory suggests that either newly-learned or previously-learned information makes it difficult to retrieve information from long-term memory.
107
When creating an acrostic:
Select one:
A.
a sentence or rhyme is formed using words that begin with the first letter of the words to be memorized
B.
a word or pronounceable sequence of letters is created from the first letter of the words to be memorized
C.
a word or phrase is constructed from another word by rearranging the letters of that word
D.
an image is created from the images of two or more words
The correct answer is A.
An acrostic is a phrase that is formed from words that begin with the first letter of each word to be memorized. "See Piaget creep forward" is an acrostic for Piaget's four stages of cognitive development (sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, and formal operational).
Answer B: This describes an acronym.
Answer C: This describes an anagram.
Answer D: This describes the keyword method.
108
In an experiment, a tone is presented to a dog just before meat powder is presented numerous times so that, eventually, the dog salivates when the tone is presented alone. Then a light and the tone are simultaneously presented just before the meat powder numerous times. Based on your knowledge of "blocking," you predict the dog will subsequently:
Select one:
A.
salivate in response to the light when it is presented alone and continue to salivate in response to the tone when it is presented alone
B.
salivate in response to the light when it is presented alone but salivate in response to the tone only when it is presented with the light
C.
continue to salivate in response to the tone but not salivate in response to the light
D.
not salivate in response to either the tone or the light
The correct answer is C.
Blocking occurs when an association between a conditioned stimulus (CS) and an unconditioned stimulus (US) has been made and, subsequently, the presence of the CS blocks a developing association between a new neutral stimulus and the US. In this situation, the tone will block the light from becoming a CS since the tone was the first stimulus to be paired with the meat powder. Blocking occurs because the second stimulus (the light in this case) provides redundant information and does not become linked to the unconditioned stimulus (meat powder).
Answer A: The dog will not salivate in response to the light but will salivate in response to the tone.
Answer B: The dog will not salivate in response to the light (alone or with the tone), but will salivate in response to the tone (presented either alone or with the light).
Answer D: The dog will salivate in response to the tone.
109
A working mother who has been reassured by her husband and friends many times that she is a "great mother" states that she is a "terrible mother" after she forgets to wash her daughter's baseball uniform the night before an important game. Aaron Beck would consider the mother's conclusion to be an example of which of the following?
Select one:
A.
Personalization
B.
Arbitrary inference
C.
Selective abstraction
D.
Dichotomous thinking
The correct answer is B.
All four answer choices are terms that Beck describes as cognitive distortions. Arbitrary interference involves drawing a specific conclusion without supporting evidence or in the face of contradictory evidence.
Answer A: Personalization occurs when a person attributes external events to him/herself without evidence supporting such a causal connection.
Answer C: Selective abstraction occurs when a person interprets a situation on the basis of a single detail taken out of context (e.g., a jealous husband thinks his wife is having an affair with the neighbor when he sees her pat the neighbor on the back).
Answer D: Dichotomous thinking involves categorizing an experience in terms of one of two extremes (e.g., "If I do this, everything will be perfect; if I don't, everything will be terrible").
110
As a diathesis-stress model, Beck's cognitive theory predicts that which of the following serves as the diathesis in the development of depressive symptomology?
Select one:
A.
Dysfunctional schemas
B.
A genetic predisposition
C.
Exposure to a negative event
D.
Faulty attributions
The correct answer is A.
Diathesis-stress models describe illness as the result of a combination of vulnerability (diathesis) and stress, with the nature of the vulnerability depending on the type of theory. Not surprisingly, Beck's cognitive theory of depression identifies cognitive factors as the source of vulnerability. Beck's cognitive diathesis-stress model of depression proposes that certain people have depressogenic schemas that make them vulnerable to experiencing depression when exposed to a negative life event.
Answer B: Beck's cognitive theory focuses on cognitive, not biological, factors.
Answer C: Exposure to a negative event is the "stress" in Beck's cognitive diathesis-stress model.
Answer D: Certain types of attributions - i.e., internal, stable, and global attributions - for negative outcomes are identified as the diathesis in Abramson, Metalsky, and Alloy's (1989) hopelessness model of depression. Although their theory is a cognitive theory, this question is asking about Beck's cognitive theory, so this is not the best answer.
111
When using covert sensitization to reduce a client's cigarette smoking, a mild electric shock is applied to the client's hand just as he begins to smoke. In this situation, the electric shock is acting as:
Select one:
A.
a conditioned stimulus
B.
an unconditioned stimulus
C.
a negative reinforcer
D.
a negative discrimination stimulus
The correct answer is B.
Knowing that covert sensitization is classified as a type of aversive counterconditioning may have helped you identify the correct answer. When using covert sensitization, a stimulus that is associated with the undesirable behavior is the conditioned stimulus, which is paired with an unconditioned stimulus that naturally elicits an unpleasant response. In the situation described in this question, the cigarette is the conditioned stimulus and the electric shock is the unconditioned stimulus.
Answer A: The cigarette is the conditioned stimulus.
Answer C: Covert sensitization utilizes counterconditioning, which is based on classical (not operant) conditioning.
Answer D: In operant conditioning, stimulus control is the process by which a behavior does or does not occur due to the presence of discriminative stimuli. Negative discriminative stimuli signal the behavior will not be reinforced. Covert sensitization does not utilize stimulus control.
112
B. F. Skinner attributed which of the following to accidental, noncontingent reinforcement?
Select one:
A.
Experimental neurosis
B.
Superstitious behavior
C.
Overshadowing
D.
Satiation
The correct answer is B.
Skinner found that his animal subjects would repeat behaviors that were accidentally reinforced and proposed that noncontingent reinforcement may account for the acquisition of superstitious behaviors in humans.
Answer A: Experimental neurosis refers to subjects' uncharacteristic behaviors that may include extreme restlessness, agitation, and unprovoked aggression, which may occur when subjects have difficulty with stimulus discriminations.
Answer C: Overshadowing occurs when two neutral stimuli are repeatedly presented together prior to an unconditioned stimulus (US). Subsequent presentations of the two stimuli together produce a CR, but when the two stimuli are presented separately, only the stimulus that is more salient to the subject will produce a CR.
Answer D: Satiation occurs when a reinforcer loses its effectiveness.
113
A parent yells at her 5-year-old son whenever he misbehaves. The boy quickly figures out that if he apologizes for his behavior, his mother will stop yelling at him. Consequently, he begins to say "I'm sorry" as soon as his mother starts yelling at him. The boy's apologizing is best described as the result of which of the following?
Select one:
A.
Avoidance conditioning
B.
Escape conditioning
C.
Stimulus control
D.
Stimulus generalization
The correct answer is B.
In this situation, the boy's apologizing is maintained due to escape conditioning. Escape behavior (in this situation, apologizing) is the result of escape conditioning in which a behavior increases because its performance allows the subject to escape an undesirable stimulus (mother's yelling). Escape behaviors are maintained by negative reinforcement.
Answer A: Avoidance conditioning involves presenting a stimulus that signals an aversive event is about to occur so that, eventually, the stimulus elicits a behavior that allows the individual to avoid the aversive event.
Answer C: A behavior is brought under stimulus control when a stimulus signals whether or not the behavior will be reinforced.
Answer D: Stimulus generalization occurs when stimuli similar to the original conditioned stimulus (CS) elicit the conditioned response (CR).
114
A researcher is studying the ability of college students to remember lists of related word pairs (e.g., dog-cat, chair-table, pen-paper). Prior to studying the to-be-remembered list of word pairs, the experimental group is presented with a list of opposite word pairs such as tall-short, while the control group completes multiplication problems. What results should the researcher expect when the two groups are subsequently asked to recall the word pairs?
Select one:
A.
Due to retroactive interference, the control group will recall more word pairs.
B.
Due to retroactive interference, the experimental group will recall more word pairs.
C.
Due to proactive interference, the experimental group will recall fewer word pairs.
D.
Due to proactive inteference, the control group will recall fewer word pairs.
The correct answer is C.
This question describes a standard proactive interference study. During the first phase, the experimental group is presented with a list of word pairs (e.g., tall-short) and the control group engages in an unrelated arithmetic task. During the second phase, the experimental and control groups both study the to-be-remembered word pairs (e.g., dog-cat). During the third phase, participants in both groups are asked to recall the word pairs. For the experimental group, the two tasks are similar, and the first list of word pairs interferes with the ability to learn or recall the second list. This is referred to as proactive interference. For the control group, the two tasks are dissimilar, and there is less interference. Consequently, the control group will remember more words than the experimental group.
Answer A: Retroactive interference occurs when recently learned material interferes with recall of previously learned material. In this study, the word pairs presented in the first phase interfered with the recall of word pairs presented in the second phase; thus, previously learned material interfered with the recall of newly learned material (proactive interference). Although the control group will recall more word pairs, it is due to the effects of proactive, not retroactive, interference.
Answer B: The experimental group will recall fewer word pairs than the control group due to the effects of proactive interference.
Answer D: Due to the effects of proactive interference on the experimental group, the control group will recall more word pairs.
115
Which of the following memory techniques relies on the use of visual images?
Select one:
A.
Acronym
B.
Chunking
C.
Acrostic
D.
Keyword method
The correct answer i: D.
The keyword method is useful for paired associate tasks in which two words must be linked (e.g., foreign language learning). It involves constructing a visual images that combines the two words.
Answer A: An acronym involves constructing a word from the first letter of the words to be memorized (e.g., SMART goals are specific, measurable, attainable, relevant, and time-bound).
Answer B: Chunking involves grouping items that are to be recalled and is useful for increasing the amount of information that can be held in short-term memory.
Answer C: An acrostic is a phrase or rhyme that is composed of words that begin with the first letter of the words to be memorized. "Please excuse my dear Aunt Sally" is an acrostic to help remember the arithmetic order of operations (parentheses, exponentials, multiplication, division, addition, subtraction).
116
When someone plays the slot machines in Las Vegas, that person will be reinforced on the basis of:
Select one:
A.
the number of responses between reinforcers with the number remaining the same from trial to trial
B.
the number of responses between reinforcers with the number varying unpredictably from trial to trial
C.
the interval of time between reinforcers with the length of time remaining constant from trial to trial
D.
the interval of time between reinforcers with the length of time varying unpredictably from trial to trial
The correct answer is B.
The person will be reinforced on a variable ratio schedule, which is intermittent schedule least vulnerable to extinction. Slot machines use intermittent reinforcement to reduce the likelihood of extinction.
Answer A: This describes a fixed ratio schedule.
Answer C: This describes a fixed interval schedule.
Answer D: This describes a variable interval schedule.
117
The view that depression is the result of exposure to an aversive event, coupled with the tendency to attribute negative events to personal, global, and stable factors, is consistent with:
Select one:
A.
the reformulated learned helplessness model
B.
the fundamental attribution bias
C.
the behavioral model
D.
Rehm's self-control model
The correct answer is A.
Abramson et al.'s (1978) reformulated version of the learned helplessness model added attributions for negative events to the original model. According to the reformulated version, people who are depressed tend to blame themselves for negative events, believe that negative events will always happen to them, and think that negativity will affect all aspects of their lives.
Answer B: The fundamental attribution bias refers to the tendency to attribute the behavior of others to dispositional factors.
Answer C: Lewinsohn's (1974) behavioral model is based on operant conditioning and focuses on the consequence of behavior. Lewinsohn described depression as being primarily the result of a low rate of response-contingent reinforcement.
Answer D: Rehm's self-control model views depression as being the result of problems related to self-monitoring, self-evaluation, and self-reinforcement.
118
Which of the following best describes the effects of overlearning?
Select one:
A.
Good long-term recall and resistance to extinction
B.
Good short-term recall but no effect on long-term recall or extinction
C.
Slight detrimental effects on recall
D.
No significant effects on short- or long-term recall
The correct answer is A.
Overlearning refers to continued practice past the point of mastery. Overlearning is associated with improvements in both short- and long-term recall and resistance to extinction.
Answer B: Overlearning has shown to be effective for short-term and long-term recall. Overlearning is also associated with resistance to extinction.
Answer C: There are no detrimental effects with overlearning.
Answer D: Overlearning has positive effects on recall.
119
Sleeping immediately after studying on the night before your 8:00 a.m. exam would help minimize the effects of which of the following on your ability to recall information during the exam?
Select one:
A.
Cue-dependent forgetting
B.
Trace decay
C.
Retroactive interference
D.
Proactive interference
The correct answer is C.
Retroactive interference occurs when recently learned information interferes with the ability to recall previously learned information. Sleeping between learning information and being tested on that information would eliminate retroactive interference.
Answer A: Cue-dependent forgetting refers to the inability to recall information due to inadequate retrieval cues.
Answer B: Trace decay theory predicts that memory traces fade over time.
Answer D: Proactive interference occurs when previously learned information interferes with the ability to recall more recently learned information.
120
Which of the following behavioral techniques is most useful for establishing a response that has a low probability of occurring spontaneously?
Select one:
A.
Successive approximation conditioning
B.
Differential reinforcement
C.
Overcorrection
D.
Response cost
The correct answer is A.
Successive approximation conditioning is another name for shaping, which is used to "shape" responses that are unlikely to occur spontaneously.
Answer B: Differential reinforcement combines positive reinforcement with extinction and involves reinforcing alternative behaviors while ignoring the target behavior.
Answer C: Overcorrection is a form of positive punishment and involves a combination of restitution (having the individual "fix" the negative consequences of his/her behavior) and positive practice (having the individual practice alternative behaviors).
Answer D: Response cost is a form of negative punishment and involves removing a reinforcer following a behavior in order to reduce that behavior.
121
The treatment-of-choice for Specific Phobia is:
Select one:
A.
covert sensitization
B.
exposure with response prevention
C.
stimulus control
D.
self-control therapy
The correct answer is B.
The treatment-of-choice for Specific Phobia is exposure with response prevention (especially in vivo exposure) that exposes the individual to the feared object or situation while preventing him or her from engaging in cognitive or behavioral avoidance.
Answer A: Covert sensitization is a type of aversion therapy and may be used to treat maladaptive behaviors (such as smoking). Covert sensitization uses counterconditioning in imagination in order to reduce or eliminate an undesirable behavior.
Answer C: In operant conditioning, stimulus control is the process by which a behavior does or does not occur due the presence of discriminative stimuli.
Answer D: Rehm's self-control therapy may be used to treat depression. Rehm's self-control model views depression as being the result of problems related to self-monitoring, self-evaluation, and self-reinforcement.
122
A father is trying to work in the garden, but his son wants his attention and keeps whining and nagging. The father finally gives in and plays with the boy, who stops whining. The father's behavior (playing with his son) is the result of:
Select one:
A.
positive punishment
B.
negative punishment
C.
positive reinforcement
D.
negative reinforcement
The correct answer is D.
Negative reinforcement occurs when the removal of a stimulus following a behavior increases the likelihood that the behavior will be repeated. In this situation, the father's behavior (playing with his son) is negatively reinforced by the removal of an unpleasant stimulus (the son's whining).
Answer A: Positive punishment occurs when a behavior decreases because of the application of a stimulus following the behavior.
Answer B: Negative punishment occurs when a behavior decreases because of the removal or cessation of a stimulus following the behavior.
Answer C: Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior increases because of the stimulus that is applied (or added) following the behavior.
123
A practitioner of Beck's cognitive-behavioral therapy adopts the role of _____________ when working with therapy clients.
Select one:
A.
supervisor
B.
teacher
C.
collaborator
D.
consultant
The correct answer is C.
A key characteristic of Beck's CBT is its emphasis on the active participation of the client. Beck refers to his approach as "collaborative empiricism" because the client is encouraged to be actively engaged in the therapeutic process. Clients collaborate with the therapist in defining goals and evaluating the progress of therapy.
Answers A, B, & D are incorrect. Although these terms may be utilized in other forms of therapy, treatment, or intervention, the role of collaborator is fundamental to Beck's CBT.
124
In vivo exposure with response prevention has been found to be an effective treatment for Agoraphobia, Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder, and several other anxiety disorders. Studies investigating the effects of this treatment for this suggest that:
Select one:
A.
frequent, brief exposures are more effective than less frequent, longer exposures to the feared stimuli
B.
people with high arousability are more responsive to in vivo treatments than people with low arousability
C.
high anxiety provocation is not the key factor in its effectiveness
D.
counterconditioning is a necessary component of the treatment
The correct answer is C.
The goal of in vivo exposure is to extinguish the classically conditioned response by repeatedly exposing the person to the conditioned stimulus (CS) without the unconditioned stimulus (US). There is evidence that high anxiety arousal is not necessary for successful treatment with in vivo exposure.
Answer A: The is the opposite of what has been found to be true.
Answer B: Arousability has been linked to the effects of systematic desensitization, not in vivo exposure. Systematic desensitization is usually more successful for individual low in arousability than for those high in arousability.
Answer D: Counterconditioning is not a component of in vivo exposure.
125
Based on his research with rats in mazes, Edward Tolman (1938) concluded that rats had developed cognitive maps as the result of:
Select one:
A.
latent learning
B.
insight learning
C.
vicarious learning
D.
associative learning
The correct answer is A.
Tolman found that rats who had been allowed to explore the maze without reinforcement were able to reach the end of the maze faster when reinforcement was provided than did rats who had not been allowed to explore the maze. Tolman concluded that rats that had been allowed to explore the maze had formed cognitive maps (mental representations) of the maze and confirmed that latent learning (learning without reinforcement) can occur.
Answer B: Kohler proposed that learning can be the result of insight (an "aha" experience) that reflects an internal cognitive restructuring of the environment that allows the organism to achieve its goals.
Answer C: Bandura proposed that human behavior is influenced by vicarious learning - i.e., by watching another person engage in that behavior.
Answer D: Associative learning broadly refers to the formation of a relationship between two stimuli (such as classical conditioning) or the formation of an association between a stimulus and a behavior (such as operant conditioning).
126
Which of the following is most consistent with the Neo-Piagetian theories of moral development?
Select one:
A.
It is not related to biological maturation
B.
It proceeds in predictable stages
C.
It is driven by increasing cognitive capacity, for example, in reasoning skills which expand with age.
D.
It is consistent across contexts
The correct answer is C.
The idea that distinguishes the neo-Piagetian theory is the focus on cognitive ability as a necessary precursor to moral reasoning.
Answer A: Both Piaget and neo-Piagetian theorists assume a biological basis for moral development.
Answer B: The unfolding of moral development in stages is most associated with Piaget.
Answer D: While consistency across contexts may be assumed, it is not a central distinguishing feature in the neo-Piagetian theories.
127
The idea of a "midlife crisis":
Select one:
A.
has not been supported by recent longitudinal studies
B.
was observed by Levinson across genders
C.
is countered by evidence that middle-aged samples have low rates of depression
D.
was first proposed by Erickson (as the central idea in Erickson's description of the stagnation of middle adulthood)
The correct answer is A.
Recent longitudinal studies have shown that life satisfaction appears to be stable through midlife, a finding that counters the idea of a midlife crisis (see Galambos, Fang, Krahn, Johnson and Lachman, 2015 in Developmental Psychology).
Answer B: Levinson's sample was exclusively male, making this answer false.
Answer C: Rates of depression and serious psychological distress are highest in midlife. See Brody, Pratt & Hughes, 2018, National Center for Health Statistics Brief No. 303).
Answer D: Erickson's idea of generativity refers to a drive to leave a legacy that will outlast the individual. It emphasizes having an effect on others, rather than the egocentric behavior described by a midlife crisis.
128
Sandy is a young woman in her twenties who has been diagnosed with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome, a condition that causes rapid heartbeat and gives her the sensation that she's having a heart attack. According to socioemotional selectivity theory, Sandy may:
Select one:
A.
be more likely than her peers to be focused on travel and expanding her knowledge of other cultures
B.
be more likely than her peers to settle down and marry
C.
be less likely than her peers to settle down and marry
D.
be no different than her peers in her choices, as the theory predicts stability in the value of relations over time
The correct answer is B.
Socioemotional selectivity theory suggests that when the future appears limited, people are more likely to focus on developing emotional connections.
Answer A: Although the theory generally suggests that young people focus on new experiences, Sandy's condition is likely to influence her to act based on a view that the future is not guaranteed.
Answer C: The opposite is true, Sandy is more likely to focus on developing emotional connections.
Answer D: Socioemotional selectivity theory does not predict that the value of relations is stable across development.
129
Ainsworth's contribution to attachment theory was based on the idea that:
Select one:
A.
there are no individual differences in how children respond to the Strange Situation Procedure.
B.
attachment behaviors of children are universal across cultures.
C.
differences in children's attachment behaviors are the result of interpersonal interaction with caregivers
D.
distressing the infant has a negative effect on the development of healthy attachment patterns.
The correct answer is C.
Ainsworth described different patterns in infants and caregivers, with an emphasis on the nature of the interaction between them. The quality of the relationship is central to her explanation of the infant attachment patterns.
Answer A: Ainsworth's theory is based on the observation of individual differences in the behavior of both infants and caregivers.
Answer B:The influence of culture on attachment was not a focus of Ainsworth's contribution to attachment theory. Whether attachment patterns are universal has been a subject of controversy. Some studies (e.g. Harwood et al, 1995) have observed differences in families in Japan or on a kibbutz. Behrens (2016, in Developmental Psychology and Culture) provides a review of the issues and concludes that further research is needed.
Answer D: Distressing the infant was a necessary aspect of the procedure for observing the attachment patterns, and was the motive behind creation of the Strange Situation. Since all the infants undergo distress in this procedure, this answer is counter to Ainsworth's theory.
130
Which of the following is not common in the transition from childhood to adolescence?
Select one:
A.
Biological changes of puberty
B.
Increased egocentric ways
C.
Desire to spend more time with family
D.
Greater interest in romantic relationships
The correct answer is C.
In the transition from childhood to adolescence, individuals will prioritize spending time with peers instead of family, there will be a greater focus on the self and identity development, and there will be biological changes associated with puberty along with increased interest in romantic relationships.
Answer A: Biological changes associated with puberty is one of the main developmental changes in the transition from childhood to adolescence.
Answer B: In adolescence, there is an increase in egocentrism.
Answer D: As adolescents begin puberty and spend more time with peers, there is also a greater interest in romantic relationships.
131
Debbie grew up in a home with multiple siblings, limited income, and parents who used substances. Debbie's parents weren't always home and her older siblings often stepped in to make sure she had food and went to school. When Debbie went to school, other children often teased her because her clothes weren't always clean and in ill repair, and she didn't have school supplies. Despite all of these challenges, Debbie went to college, has a successful career, and is in a committed relationship. Debbie's ability to bounce back from these adverse experiences is best known as _____.
Select one:
A.
hardiness
B.
propriate striving
C.
self-efficacy
D.
resilience
The correct answer is D.
Resilience is the ability to adapt positively and achieve successful outcomes despite significant risks and adverse consequences.
Answer A: Hardiness describes a personality trait characterized by resilience and the ability to cope effectively with stress.
Answer B: Allport believed propriate striving was the core problem for the adolescent. An adolescent knows their future must follow a plan and selects an occupation or other life goal, and as a result, this makes them lose their childhood.
Answer C: Self-efficacy is a belief in one's abilities to organize and execute courses of action when managing prospective. In other words, self-efficacy is a person's belief in their ability to succeed in a particular situation. Debbie may have displayed self-efficacy in her path to success, but this is not the specific concept described in the scenario.
132
Anaclitic depression refers to:
Select one:
A.
a syndrome of developmental delays that occurs when primary caregivers are inconsistent and moody.
B.
the negative reaction of some children to separation from caregivers before age 1.
C.
one of the rare outcomes of fetal alcohol syndrome.
D.
the adjustment problems demonstrated by a small percentage of insecurely attached infants.
The correct answer is B.
Anaclitic depression is a term used to describe the transient depressed state of infants after their separation from a mothering figure. This term has been used in research with human infants and animal infants, ranging from experiments with nonhuman primates to studies with guinea pigs and rats.
Answer A: Anaclitic depression is not a syndrome and is not associated with developmental delays.
Answer C: Fetal alcohol syndrome children suffer significant problems such as retarded intellect, stunted growth, and nervous system abnormalities, social problems, and isolation. Anaclitic depression is not associated with in utero alcohol exposure.
Answer D: Common to all insecurely attached children is the inability to use one's parent as a secure base and safe haven, and negative beliefs about the availability and accessibility of caregivers. The term anaclitic depression has not been associated with this syndrome.
133
Which is NOT a system influencing development, according to Bronfenbrenner?
Select one:
A.
Macrosystem
B.
Mesosystem
C.
Chronosystem
D.
Ecosystem
The correct answer is D.
Each system in the model is an environment and the entire model is called the ecological model. Ecosystem is not one of the 5 systems he names.
Answer A: Macrosystem is a Bronfenbrenner system referring to the broader social environment including culture, politics and the economy.
Answer B: Mesosystem is a Bronfenbrenner system and refers to interactions between components of the microsystem.
Answer C: Chronosystem is a Bronfenbrenner system that refers to events and influences encountered over the lifespan.
134
Factors that improve outcomes for high risk infants include:
Select one:
A.
the presence of siblings
B.
stable support from a parent or caregiver
C.
no such factors have been found
D.
maternal psychopathology
The correct answer is B.
Stable support by a parent or caregiver has been shown to improve outcomes in high-risk infants. In their longitudinal study of high-risk infants on the island of Kauai, Werner and her colleagues (Werner & Smith, 1982; Werner, 1993) found this to be a stabilizing factor.
Answer A: The presence of a sibling has not been identified with influencing the outcome for these infants.
Answer C: Stable support by a parent or caregiver has been shown to improve outcomes in high-risk infants.
Answer D: The presence of stress including poor maternal health has been associated with poorer outcomes, maternal psychopathology has not been specifically identified as a factor, but would likely be a negative influence.
135
Reaction range refers to:
Select one:
A.
confluence of genotype and environmental influence
B.
the degree to which an individual seeks experience consistent with their genotype
C.
the degree to which environment can determine expression of a genetic trait
D.
the relative importance of the different types of genotype-environment changes
The correct answer is B.
The degree to which the environment can determine the expression of a genetic trait is called the reaction range. Genes set the boundaries within which traits can operate, and the environment interacts with the genes to determine where in that range the trait is expressed.
Answer A: A confluence of genotype and environmental influence is called a passive-genotype environment correlation. For example, parents pass on genotypes to their children, as well as provide home environments that correlate with their genotypes. A child's temperament may be a result of both of these influences.
Answer B: When an individual seeks experience consistent with their genotype, this is called niche-picking. For example, a child with an extroverted orientation may seek out social experiences that encourage that behavior.
Answer D: Reaction range refers to the degree to which an individual seeks experience consistent with their genotype.
136
Epigenesis proposes that:
Select one:
A.
development is a bi-directional web of influences
B.
genetic influences are primarily in the pre-natal period
C.
genotype-environmental correlations are determined by stage of development
D.
there is a critical period for the environmental expression of a genotype
The correct answer is A.
Epigenesis is the term for the phenomenon in which each stage of development is affected by previous genetic, neural, behavioral, and environmental interactions and, in turn, affects future interactions. For example, environment can influence the expression of certain genetic traits, which can then determine future exposure to select environments.
Answer B: Incorrect. Genetic influences are not restricted to the prenatal period of development.
Answer C: This statement may be true, but it is not the definition of epigenesis.
Answer D: This statement may be true, but it is not the definition of epigenesis.
137
Ryan is a 14 year-old recently admitted to the hospital for self-injurious behavior. You notice his hair is dyed purple, his finger nails painted black, and he is wearing black skinny jeans, which is a stark contrast from his last hospitalization where his hair was sandy blonde, he wore overalls with a plaid shirt and his nails were not painted. Ryan's parents are asking about this change in his appearance and whether they should be concerned. How should the psychologist best respond to this question?
Select one:
A.
They should be concerned because he is showing early signs of conduct disorder.
B.
They shouldn't be concerned, but they should assert more boundaries and control over his behavior to prevent his behaviors from worsening.
C.
They shouldn't be concerned. Ryan is testing boundaries and discovering his identity.
D.
They should be concerned and Ryan would benefit from counseling for his hostility issues.
The correct answer is C.
Identity exploration and development is typical of adolescence, this may involve exploring other friend groups, changing their outward appearance, and developing their own beliefs independent from their parents' beliefs. Recall that the parents were asking about Ryan's shift in clothing choices and not his self-injurious behavior or reasons for hospitalization.
Answer A: There is nothing in this scenario that suggests Ryan is at-risk of conduct disorder. His only presenting symptoms are self-injurious behavior and change in clothing choice, neither of which are pre-cursors to conduct disorder.
Answer B: Asserting more boundaries and control over an adolescent is likely to result in an unnecessary power struggle and Ryan may increase his behavior and/or escalate to something more concerning or dangerous to assert his independence. Ryan's clothing choices are part of typical identity development and should not be a focus of control.
Answer D: There is nothing listed in the scenario that would suggest Ryan has existing or emerging hostility issues.
138
Ethological theories:
Select one:
A.
propose that processes of adaptation may frame the emergence of certain behaviors in response to the environment
B.
propose that even complex behavioral patterns are primarily biological
C.
propose that early maturation processes are due to imprinting
D.
propose that critical periods are more important for survival than sensitive periods
The correct answer is A.
Ethological theories are based on the assumption that "all animal species are born with a number of 'biologically programmed' behaviors that are (1)products of evolution and (2) are adaptive in that they contribute to survival" (Shaffer & Kipp, 2014, p. 79). In this view, behaviors occur at certain times due to the emergence of need to adapt to the environment.
Answer B: Although complex behaviors may be biologically programmed, ethological theory does not necessarily weigh the genetic contribution over the environmental contribution.
Answer C: Although imprinting was an ethological process studied by Lorenz, and is often cited as illustrating an ethological process, this is not the only example of ethological process.
Answer D: Sensitive periods are broader and more flexible developmental time periods than critical periods. The latter are not considered to be more or less important.
139
Which of the following statements about Piaget's concrete operational stage is true?
Select one:
A.
It lasts from birth to about 2 years of age.
B.
Individuals in this stage can perform operations that involve developing hypotheses.
C.
It encompasses the ability to think in an abstract manner.
D.
It lasts from approximately 7 to 11 years of age.
The correct answer is D.
Individuals in the concrete operational stage are capable of mental operations, which are logical rules for transforming and manipulating information. They can classify information in more sophisticated ways, seriate, understand part-whole relationships in relational terms, and conserve.
Answer A: This describes the sensorimotor stage where a child learns about objects and other people through the sensory information they provide and the actions that can be performed on them.
Answer B: This describes the formal operational stage, which typically begins at age 11 and above.
Answer C: This describes the formal operation stage which typically begins at age 11 and above.
140
Which system in Bronfenbrenner's theory takes into account sociohistorical circumstances?
Select one:
A.
Mesosystem
B.
Microsystem
C.
Chronosystem
D.
Exosystem
The correct answer is C.
The chronosystem consists of environmental events that occur over an individual's lifespan and impact the individual in ways that depend on their circumstances and developmental stage -- this system accounts for sociohistorial circumstances.
Answer A: The mesosystem refers to interactions between components of the microsystem, such as the influence of family factors on the child's behavior at school.
Answer B: The microsystem is the child's immediate environment and includes face-to-face relationships within the home, school, and neighborhood (e.g., the child's relationships with parents, siblings, peers, and teachers).
Answer D: The exosystem consists of elements in the broader environment that affect the child's immediate environment. This can include the parents' workplace, the school board, community agencies, local industry, and the mass media.
141
Matt is 6 ft. 6in. tall and has brown hair and green eyes. His half-brother, Chris, is 5 feet, 10 inches tall, and has red hair and green eyes. Both men are described as gregarious, friendly and outgoing. These descriptions of genetic expression are known as their _____.
Select one:
A.
genotype
B.
phenotype
C.
pheromones
D.
epigenetic inheritance
The correct answer is B.
Phenotype refers to observable characteristics, which are due to a combination of genetic and environmental factors.
Answer A: Genotype refers to a person's genetic make-up.
Answer C: Pheromones are a secreted or excreted chemical factor that triggers a social response in members of the same species.
Answer D: This reflects the transmission of epigenetic markers from one organism to the next (i.e., from parent to child) that affects the traits of offspring.
142
Bella is confronted with new information that isn't consistent with her current thoughts and beliefs. If she changes her existing way of thinking as a result of this new information, what process would developmental psychologists say is happening?
Select one:
A.
Accommodation
B.
Equilibrium
C.
Synthesis
D.
Assimilation
The correct answer is A.
Accommodation is the modification of existing schemas to incorporate new knowledge.
Answer B: Accommodation is driven by equilibration. Motivation for cognitive development comes from a drive toward cognitive equilibrium or equilibration. Development occurs when a state of disequilibrium is brought on by a discrepancy between reality and the person's current understanding of the world.
Answer C: Synthesis is the process by which we combine ideas and images into objects of thought.
Answer D: Assimilation is the incorporation of new knowledge into existing cognitive schemas.
143
According to Vygotsky, the range of tasks that a person can master with the guidance of a more skilled peer or adult is known as _____.
Select one:
A.
scaffolding
B.
the zone of collaborative problem solving and learning
C.
the zone of proximal development
D.
the zone of distal development
The correct answer is C.
This refers to the discrepancy between a child's current developmental level (i.e., the level at which the child can function independently) and the level of development that is just beyond their current level but can be reached when an adult or more experienced peer provides appropriate scaffolding.
Answer A: Scaffolding is the type of support, assistance, and instruction provided to others to assist them with achieving the next level. It is most effective when it involves modeling, providing cues, and encouraging the individual to think about alternative plans of action.
Answer B: While Collaborative Problem Solving is an approach developed to help adults support children in developing problem solving skills and strategies, the zone of collaborative problem solving and learning is a made up term.
Answer D: This is not a concept in psychology.
144
According to Elkind, adolescent egocentrism can be broken down into two types of social thinking: the personal fable and the _____.
Select one:
A.
invulnerability aspect
B.
imaginary audience
C.
imposter phenomenon
D.
renewed egocentrism
The correct answer is B.
Imaginary audience is the belief that one is always the center of attention or that all eyes are on them.
Answer A: The invulnerability aspect is one of the sub-characteristics of the personal fable with the other being feelings of uniqueness.
Answer C: The imposter phenomena occurs in high achievers who have difficulty internalizing and accepting their success. They often attribute their accomplishments to luck rather than to ability.
Answer D: Renewed egocentrism marks the beginning of adolescence and the formal operational stage. This is where the adolescent turns their focus inward on themselves and their experience.
145
Christina's parents have always told her that she will be a surgeon like her parents. Christina has never considered any other career, has taken a series of science classes in school, and she is now enrolled in a pre-med program in college. James Marcia would classify Christina in which identity status?
Select one:
A.
Identity diffusion
B.
Identity foreclosure
C.
Identity moratorium
D.
Identity achievement
The correct answer is B.
Adolescents are in the foreclosure status when they have not experienced a crisis but have adopted an identity (occupation, ideology, etc.) that has been imposed by the same-sex parent or other person.
Answer A: Adolescents exhibiting diffusion have not yet experienced an identity crisis or explored alternatives and are not committed to an identity.
Answer C: Identity moratorium occurs when an adolescent experiences an identity crisis and actively explores alternative identities.
Answer D: Adolescents who have resolved the identity crisis by evaluating alternatives and committing to an identity are "identity achieved."
146
A parent coach is explaining to her client that to foster healthy growth and development, there must be a match between a child's temperament and the demands of their environment. What concept is the coach explaining?
Select one:
A.
Congruence
B.
Lock-and-key theory
C.
Optimum environment
D.
Goodness-of-fit
The correct answer is D.
According to Thomas and Chess's goodness-of-fit model, behavioral and adjustment outcomes are best for children when parents' caregiving behaviors match their child's temperament.
Answer A: Congruence is a term used by Carl Rogers to describe a state in which a person's ideal self and actual experience are consistent or very similar.
Answer B: The lock-and-key theory purports a specific fit between two or more of its components, in a way analogous to how a key fits in a lock. It's not specific to parenting or attachment.
Answer C: This is not a specific psychological term related to temperament, parenting, or attachment, rather it is broad term used to explain ideal environments in general.
147
Which of the following statements regarding androgyny is not true?
Select one:
A.
Androgyny has been linked to higher levels of stress.
B.
Androgynous individuals have greater comfort with their sexuality.
C.
Androgynous individuals are more flexible than either masculine or feminine individuals.
D.
Androgynous individuals report higher levels of life satisfaction.
The correct answer is A.
This statement is not true of androgynous individuals. Androgynous individuals actually report higher levels of life satisfaction, are more flexible than either masculine or feminine individuals, and have greater comfort with their sexuality.
Answer B: This is a true statement about androgynous individuals -- they tend to have greater comfort with their sexuality.
Answer C: Research has shown the individuals who are androgynous tend to exhibit more flexibility than either masculine or feminine individuals.
Answer D: This is a true statement. Androgynous individuals report higher levels of life satisfaction.
148
Which of the following best exemplifies an evocative genotype-environment correlation?
Select one:
A.
Musically inclined parents buy musical instruments for their children.
B.
A high-school student living on a farm and bound for an agricultural college signs up for courses in plant biology.
C.
A nervous child displays anxiety at school.
D.
Parents suggest joining a sports team for their athletically talented children.
The correct answer is D.
Evocative genotype-environment correlation occurs when a child’s genetic make-up evokes reactions from parents and others that reinforce his or her genetic make-up. For example, parents suggest joining a sports team for their athletically talented children.
Answer A: This describes the passive genotype-environment correlation which occurs when children inherit genes from their parents that predispose them toward particular traits, and the parents provide the children with environments that encourage the development of those traits.
Answer B: This is reflective of the active genotype-environment correlation and is also referred to as niche-picking. It occurs when children actively seek out experiences that are consistent with their genetic predispositions
Answer C: This is unrelated to genotype-environment correlation.
149
There is frequent turmoil in Justine's home and she constantly fights with her parents. Because of the chaos in her home, Justine also has difficulty relating to teachers and administrators at school. According to Bronfenbrenner, Justine is having difficulty relating to her teachers because of a disruption in her _____.
Select one:
A.
mesosystem
B.
exosystem
C.
chronosystem
D.
macrosystem
The correct answer is A.
The mesosystem refers to interactions between components of the microsystem, such as the influence of family factors on the child's behavior at school.
Answer B: The exosystem consists of elements in the broader environment that affect the child's immediate environment and includes the parents' workplace, the school board, community agencies, local industry, and the mass media.
Answer C. The chronosystem consists of environmental events that occur over an individual's lifespan and impact the individual in ways that depend on their circumstances and developmental stage (e.g., the immediate and long-term effects of a change in family structure or socioeconomic status).
Answer D: The macrosystem is comprised of overarching environmental influences such as cultural beliefs and practices, economic conditions, and political ideologies.
150
Marshaun has explored a number of career paths as he approaches senior year of high school. Marshaun has decided that he would like to pursue a career in clinical psychology. According to James Marcia, what identity status is most reflective of Marshaun's situation?
Select one:
A.
Identity foreclosure
B.
Identity diffusion
C.
Identity moratorium
D.
Identity achievement
The correct answer is D.
In identity achievement, adolescents have resolved their identity crisis by evaluating alternatives and committing to an identity. They are considered "identity achieved."
Answer A: In identity foreclosure, adolescents have not experienced a crisis but have adopted an identity (e.g., occupation, ideology, etc.) that has been imposed by the same-sex parent or other person.
Answer B: Identity diffusion describes adolescents who have not yet experienced an identity crisis or explored alternatives and are not committed to an identity.
Answer C: Identity moratorium occurs when an adolescent experiences an identity crisis and actively explores alternative identities.
151
The hormone melatonin is secreted by which part of the brain?
Select one:
A.
Basal ganglia
B.
Hypothalamus
C.
Pineal gland
D.
Hippocampus
The correct answer is C.
The pineal gland sits on top of the midbrain, just in front of the cerebellum. It secretes the hormone melatonin.
Answer A: The basal ganglia are a group of subcortical nuclei that is an important part of the motor system.
Answer B: The hypothalamus is involved in the regulation of the autonomic nervous system, control of the anterior and posterior pituitary glands, and the integration of species-typical behaviors.
Answer D: The hippocampus plays an important role in the limbic system. It is involved in the formation of new memories and the association of learning and emotions.
152
Phototherapy is an effective therapy for which of the following disorders?
Select one:
A.
Seasonal affective disorder
B.
Major depressive disorder
C.
Posttraumatic stress disorder
D.
Schizophrenia
The correct answer is A.
Phototherapy occurs when an individual is exposed to bright light for several hours per day. Light helps synchronize the biological clock to the day/night cycle. It is a safe and effective treatment for seasonal affective disorder.
Answer B: Major depressive disorder is commonly treated with medication and psychotherapy. In extreme cases, electroconvulsive therapy or other brain stimulation therapies may be explored.
Answer C: Posttraumatic stress disorder is treated with cognitive behavioral therapy, EMDR, exposure therapy, medications, and/or group therapy.
Answer D: Schizophrenia is treated with a combination of medication and skills training.
153
In response to a stressful stimulus or situation, the hypothalamus and the sympathetic nervous system stimulate which area of the brain to release epinephrine and norepinephrine?
Select one:
A.
Medulla oblongata
B.
Hypothalamic pituitary adrenal axis
C.
Adrenal medulla
D.
Paraventricular nucleus
The correct answer is C.
The adrenal medulla secretes hormones that initiate the fight-or-flight response. Both epinephrine and norepinephrine are released into the bloodstream by the adrenal medulla.
Answer A: The medulla oblongata connects the brain to the spinal cord. It regulates respiration and certain functions of breathing.
Answer B: The hypothalamic pituitary adrenal axis is the central stress response system. It is comprised of the hypothalamus, the pituitary gland, and the adrenal glands.
Answer D: The paraventricular nucleus is a nucleus in the hypothalamus. This structure is one of the most important autonomic control centers in the brain. Primary roles include controlling stress, growth, and reproduction.
154
Which type of proteins are involved in the release of neurotransmitters and recycling of the vesicles?
Select one:
A.
Transport proteins
B.
Trafficking proteins
C.
Molecule proteins
D.
Membrane proteins
The correct answer is B.
Trafficking proteins transport neurotransmitters to extracellular space and are involved in the recycling of vesicles.
Answer A: A transport protein serves the function of moving materials within an organism. They also fill vesicles with neurotransmitters.
Answer C: A "protein molecule" is made from a long chain of amino acids linked to its neighboring peptide bond.
Answer D: Membrane receptor proteins relay signals between the cell's internal and external environments.
155
The middle layer of the meninges, located between the outer dura mater and inner pia is know as?
Select one:
A.
Subarachnoid space
B.
Arachnoid membrane
C.
Choroid plexus
D.
Arachnoid granulation
The correct answer is B.
The arachnoid membrane is a delicate fibrous membrane forming the middle of the three coverings of the brain and spinal cord, closely attached to the dura mater.
Answer A: The subarachnoid space is the fluid-filled space that cushions the brain and is located between the arachnoid membrane and the pia mater.
Answer C: The choroid plexus is highly vascular tissue that protrudes into the ventricles and produces cerebrospinal fluid.
Answer D: Arachnoid granulations are small projections of the arachnoid membrane through the dura mater into the superior sagittal sinus. Cerebrospinal fluid flows through these granulations to be reabsorbed into the blood supply.
156
When an axon fires, acetylcholine is liberated by the terminal buttons and produces depolarization of the postsynaptic membrane called a(an):
Select one:
A.
motor endplates
B.
action potential
C.
neuromuscular junction
D.
endplate potential
The correct answer is D.
The endplate potential is much larger than an excitatory postsynaptic potential in synapses between neurons. An endplate potential always causes the muscle fiber to fire, propagating the potential along its length.
Answer A: Motor endplates are the postsynaptic membranes of a neuromuscular junction.
Answer B: An action potential is the brief electrical impulse that provides the basis for the conduction of information along an axon.
Answer C: A neuromuscular junction is a synapse between the terminal buttons of an axon and a muscle fiber.
157
Narcolepsy is the result of the destruction of which of the following peptide?
Select one:
A.
Secretin
B.
Eledoisin
C.
Hypocretin
D.
Amylin
The correct answer is C.
Hypocretin is also known as orexin and is produced by neurons whose cell bodies are located in the hypothalamus. Abnormalities in the hypocretin system appear to be the cause of narcolepsy in humans.
Answer A: Secretin is a hormone that is produced by the digestive tract. It stimulates the release of bicarbonate and water from the pancreas to aid digestion.
Answer B: Eledoisin is a peptide extracted from the salivary glands of certain octopi. It is a potent vasodilator and increases capillary permeability.
Answer D: Amylin is a peptide hormone that is secreted along with insulin by beta cells of the pancreas and helps regulate blood sugar levels by inhibiting glucagon secretion and by slowing the rate at which food leaves the stomach.
158
Which of the following describes the characteristic of a solution that contains enough solute that it will draw water out of a cell placed in it through the process of osmosis?
Select one:
A.
Hypertonic
B.
Hypotonic
C.
Hypovolemia
D.
Isotonic
The correct answer is A.
Hypertonic means that the environment outside the cell has a higher concentration of solutes than the cell itself. This leads to the shrinking of the cell.
Answer B: A hypotonic solution has decreased solute concentration and a net movement of water inside the cell, which causes swelling.
Answer C: Hypovolemia is a reduction in the volume of the intravascular fluid.
Answer D: A cell placed in an isotonic solution neither gains nor loses water. It is equal in osmotic pressure.
159
__________ produce myelin sheaths that insulate certain vertebrate axons in the brain and spinal cord.
Select one:
A.
Schwann cells
B.
Astrocytes
C.
Oligodendrocytes
D.
Radial glia
The correct answer is C.
Oligodendrocytes are specialized types of glia that build the myelin sheaths that surround and insulate certain vertebrate axons. Each oligodendrocyte can form a segment of myelin sheath for 30 to 50 axons.
Answer A: Schwann cells have similar functions in the periphery.
Answer B: Astrocytes pass chemicals back and forth between neurons and blood and among neighboring neurons. They wrap around the presynaptic terminals of a group of functionally related axons.
Answer D: Radial glia guide the migration of neurons during embryological development. When development finishes, most radial glia differentiates into neurons, and a smaller number differentiate into astrocytes and oligodendrocytes.
160
The presynaptic terminal stores high concentrations of neurotransmitter molecules in the _________.
Select one:
A.
axons
B.
vesicles
C.
end bulb
D.
soma
The correct answer is B.
Vesicles are tiny nearly spherical packets that store neurotransmitter molecules.
Answer A: Axons, or nerve fibers, that conduct electrical impulses away from the neuron's cell body or soma.
Answer C: The end bulb, also known as the presynaptic terminal, is the point from which the axon releases chemicals that cross through the junction between one neuron to the next.
Answer D: The soma, also known as the cell body, contains the nucleus, ribosomes, and mitochondria of the cell.
161
Individuals with Parkinson's disease and Alzheimer's disease have impairments in attention and intellect because of inactivity or deterioration of which structure in the brain?
Select one:
A.
Basal ganglia
B.
Pituitary gland
C.
Nucleus basalis
D.
Hippocampus
The correct answer is C.
Several structures lie on the ventral surface of the forebrain including the nucleus basalis. It receives input from the hypothalamus and basal ganglia.
Answer A: The basal ganglia is comprised of three major structures including the caudate nucleus, the putamen, and the globus pallidus. Damage to this area of the brain impairs movement (i.e., Parkinson's disease, Huntington's disease).
Answer B: The pituitary gland is an endocrine gland attached to the base of the hypothalamus. The pituitary synthesizes hormones that the blood carries to organs throughout the body.
Answer D: The hippocampus is a structure between the thalamus and the cerebral cortex that is critical for storing memories for individual events. Those with damage to this area of the brain have trouble storing new memories.
162
Of the following, which one uses an across-fiber pattern code?
Select one:
A.
Flipping a light switch
B.
Playing a piano
C.
Dialing a telephone number
D.
Playing the guitar
The correct answer is C.
Dialing a telephone number is an example of an across-fiber pattern code because the result depends on the combination of numbers.
Answer A: Flipping a light switch does not depend on more than one action or combination of actions.
Answer B: Playing the piano also does not depend on more than one action.
Answer D: Playing the guitar is similar to playing the piano and is not an example of an across-fiber pattern code.
163
Which type of receptors are specialized to respond only to pheromones?
Select one:
A.
Vomeronasal organ receptors
B.
Odorant receptors
C.
Formyl receptors
D.
Trace amine receptors
The correct answer is A.
The vomeronasal organ (VNO) is a set of receptors located near, but separate from, the olfactory receptors. Each VNO receptor responds to just one pheromone, in concentrations as low as one part in a hundred billion.
Answer B: Odorant receptors are another name for olfactory receptors. These receptors are located on the cilia.
Answer C: Formyl peptide receptors are G-protein-coupled receptors that mediate host-defense as well as inflammatory responses including cell adhesion, directed migration, granule release, and superoxide production.
Answer D: Trace amine receptors are a member of the G-protein-coupled receptor family known to be expressed in olfactory sensory neurons. In carnivores, these receptors play an important role in sensing predator and prey odors.
164
Which type of muscles control the digestive system and other organs?
Select one:
A.
Striated muscles
B.
Skeletal muscles
C.
Cardiac muscles
D.
Smooth muscles
The correct answer is D.
Smooth muscle is a type of muscle tissue that is used by various systems to apply pressure to vessels and organs. It is composed of sheets or strands of smooth muscle cells.
Answer A: Striated muscles are highly organized tissues that convert chemical energy into physical work. The primary function of striated muscles is to generate force and contract to support respiration, locomotion, and posture in addition to pumping blood throughout the body.
Answer B: Skeletal muscles maintain posture, stabilize bones and joints, control internal movement, and generate heat. Skeletal muscle fibers are long, multinucleated cells.
Answer C: Cardiac muscle tissue is a specialized, organized type of tissue that only exists in the heart. It is responsible for keeping the heart pumping and blood circulating.
165
Which of the following terms indicates that body temperature matches the temperature of the environment?
Select one:
A.
Homeothermic
B.
Hypothermic
C.
Poikilothermic
D.
Hyperthermic
The correct answer is C.
Poikilothermic means "varied heat." Amphibians, reptiles, and most fish match their body temperature to their environment. Poikilothermic animals lack physiological mechanisms of temperature regulation, such as shivering and sweating.
Answer A: Mammals and birds are homeothermic. Homeothermic animals use physiological mechanisms to maintain a nearly constant body temperature of the environment.
Answer B: Hypothermia occurs when the temperature drops below that required to maintain normal metabolism.
Answer D: Hyperthermia refers to a group of heat-related conditions characterized by abnormally high body temperature. The condition occurs when the body's heat-regulation system becomes overwhelmed by outside factors, causing the internal temperature to rise.
166
A lesion to this area of the brain produces undereating, weight loss, low insulin levels, underarousal, and underresponsiveness.
Select one:
A.
ventromedial hypothalamus
B.
lateral hypothalamus
C.
paraventricular nucleus
D.
lateral preoptic area
The correct answer is B.
The lateral hypothalamus controls insulin secretion, alters taste responsiveness, and facilitates feeding in other ways. An animal with damage to this area refuses food and water, averting its head as if the food were distasteful.
Answer A: Lesions to the ventromedial hypothalamus causes increased meal frequency, weight gain, and high insulin levels.
Answer C: Damage to the paraventricular nucleus results in increased meal size (i.e., specifically in carbohydrate intake).
Answer D: Lesions in the lateral preoptic area result in deficits in osmotic thirst due to damaged cells and the interruption of passing axons.
167
Which term best describes an imaginary line drawn through the center of the length of the central nervous system, from the bottom of the spinal cord to the front of the forebrain?
Select one:
A.
Neuraxis
B.
Frontal section
C.
Horizontal section
D.
Midsagittal plane
The correct answer is A.
The neuraxis is the imaginary line drawn through the spinal cord up to the front of the brain. Directions in the nervous system are normally described relative to the neuraxis (i.e., anterior, posterior, rostral, etc).
Answer B: A frontal section is a slice through the brain parallel to the forehead.
Answer C: A horizontal section is a slice through the brain parallel to the ground.
Answer D: The midsagittal plane is the plane through the neuraxis perpendicular to the ground which divides the brain into two symmetrical halves.
168
Drugs that increase the amount of __________ in the brain appear to improve memory function and are used to delay the onset of Alzheimer's disease?
Select one:
A.
dopamine
B.
serotonin
C.
acetylcholine
D.
glutamate
The correct answer is C.
Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter that plays a role in memory function, sensory processing, and motor coordination. In Alzheimer's patients, acetylcholine was lower than normal.
Answer A: Dopamine is a neurotransmitter that is essential for motor regulation, mood, concentration, hormone control, and hypoxic drive.
Answer B: Serotonin is a neurotransmitter that is key for emotional processing, mood, appetite, sleep, pain processing, and reflex regulation.
Answer D: Glutamate is an excitatory neurotransmitter that plays an essential role in long-term potentiation and memory.
169
Which area of the brain plays a role in cognition, and is the communication center for the two hemispheres?
Select one:
A.
Hippocampus
B.
Limbic system
C.
Cerebral cortex
D.
Corpus callosum
The correct answer is D.
The main function of the corpus callosum is to assist with communication between the right and left hemispheres. Besides its importance in communication, the corpus callosum is hypothesized to play a primary role in cognition.
Answer A: The hippocampus is part of the limbic system and is involved in the formation of new memories.
Answer B: The limbic system is a set of structures that deal with emotions and memory. It regulates autonomic/endocrine function in response to emotional stimuli and is involved in reinforcing behavior.
Answer C: The cerebral cortex plays a key role in attention, perception, awareness, thought, memory, language, and consciousness.
170
Which types of cells have neurons whose two arms connect the shallowest and deepest layers of the retina?
Select one:
A.
Ganglion cells
B.
Horizontal cells
C.
Bipolar cells
D.
Amacrine cells
The correct answer is C.
Photoreceptors form synapses with bipolar cells. Bipolar cells are interneurons in the retina which transfer visual information from photoreceptors to amacrine and ganglion cells.
Answer A: Ganglion cells collect information about the visual world from bipolar cells and amacrine cells. Ganglion cells are the final output neurons of the vertebrate retina.
Answer B: Horizontal cells allow for communication between rods and cones.
Answer D: Amacrine cells receive signals from bipolar cells and are involved in the regulation and integration of activity in bipolar and ganglion cells.
171
In the central nervous system ________ is involved in REM sleep, the regulation of the sleep-wake cycle, and learning and memory.
Select one:
A.
acetylcholine
B.
dopamine
C.
norepinephrine
D.
serotonin
The correct answer is A.
Acetylcholine is the primary neurotransmitter found in the parasympathetic nervous system. It can be found in all motor neurons where it stimulates muscles to contract. Additionally, acetylcholine plays an important role in mental processes such as memory and cognition. Severe depletion of this transmitter is associated with Alzheimer's disease.
Answer B: Dopamine is involved in several functions including personality, mood, memory, and sleep. Dopamine is also implicated in the regulation of movement and has been linked to several disorders with prominent motor symptoms including Tourette's Disorder and Parkinson's disease.
Answer C: Norepinephrine plays an important role in mood, attention, dreaming, learning, and certain autonomic functions.
Answer D: Serotonin is linked to mood, hunger, temperature regulation, sexual activity, arousal, sleep, aggression, and migraine headache. Elevated levels of serotonin contribute to schizophrenia.
172
Oversensitivity to or excessive dopamine in the caudate nucleus contributes to which of the following disorder?
Select one:
A.
Schizophrenia
B.
Alzheimer's disease
C.
Tourette's Disorder
D.
Parkinson's disease
The correct answer is C.
Dopamine is involved in the regulation of movement and has been linked to the prominent motor symptoms of Tourette's Disorder.
Answer A: Elevated levels of serotonin contribute to schizophrenia, autistic disorder, and food restriction associated with anorexia nervosa.
Answer B: Degeneration of cholinergic cells in the entorhinal cortex that communicates directly with the hippocampus is believed to underlie the memory deficits associated with Alzheimer's disease.
Answer D: A degeneration of dopamine receptors in the substantia nigra underlies the tremors, muscle rigidity, and other motor symptoms of Parkinson's disease.
173
The consequences of injury to the spinal cord depend on its location. Damage at the thoracic level causes _________, which entails a loss of sensory and voluntary functioning in the legs.
Select one:
A.
paraplegia
B.
quadriplegia
C.
tetraplegia
D.
monoplegia
The correct answer is A.
Paraplegia is a loss of sensory and voluntary functioning in both legs due to damage at the thoracic level. Paraplegia can be complete or partial paralysis of the lower half of the body.
Answer B: Damage at the cervical level can result in quadriplegia. This type of paralysis involves a loss of sensory and voluntary motor functioning in the arms and legs.
Answer C: Tetraplegia is another name for quadriplegia.
Answer D: Monoplegia only affects one arm or leg. This type of paralysis is often caused by cerebral palsy.
174
Reduced metabolism, also known as hypofrontality, in which area of the brain, has been linked to Schizophrenia, Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder, and dementia?
Select one:
A.
Corpus callosum
B.
Cerebral cortex
C.
Somatosensory cortex
D.
Prefrontal cortex
The correct answer is D.
The prefrontal cortex is involved in a variety of complex behaviors including emotion, memory, attention, self-awareness, and higher-order cognitive executive functions. Damage to certain areas in the prefrontal cortex may impair performance on measures of problem-solving and creativity. Abnormalities in this area contribute to certain mental disorders.
Answer A: The function of the corpus callosum is to provide communication between the two hemispheres. Lesions to part of this area can lead to a loss of contact between the hemispheres in addition to pseudobulbar palsy, speech, and movement ataxia.
Answer B: The cerebral cortex plays a role in attention, perception, awareness, thought, memory, language, and consciousness. Damage to this area can impair an individual's ability to think and manage emotions.
Answer C: The somatosensory cortex is involved in tactile attention, sensorimotor integration, and the processing of painful stimuli, empathy, and emotion. Damage to this area results in decreased sensory thresholds, and the inability to discriminate the properties of tactile stimuli and/or to identify objects by touch.
175
The area of the body that is innervated by the dorsal root of a given segment of the spinal cord is referred to as a __________.
Select one:
A.
axon
B.
dendrite
C.
dermatome
D.
axon terminal
The correct answer is C.
The dermatome is a strip of skin innervated by a particular spinal root. Adjacent dermatomes overlap so that damage to a nerve usually causes diminished sensation rather than a complete loss of sensation in the corresponding dermatome.
Answer A: An axon is a single extension from the nerve cell that carries nerve impulses from the cell body to other neurons.
Answer B: Cellular extensions called dendrites serve as an input zone, receiving information from other neurons.
Answer D: An axon terminal is the end of an axon, which forms a synapse on a neuron or other target.
176
When providing online assessment services, what is one of the primary concerns?
Select one:
A.
Quality of therapeutic services being delivered
B.
Privacy and security as the assessment is being administered
C.
Potential technical difficulties that could arise during the assessment
D.
Client knowledge of the technology, or lack thereof, that could impact the quality of the services being provided
The correct answer is B.
With assessments and evaluations being performed online, there can be greater security and privacy as access can be severely limited to a select few if necessary. The drawback to this has been an increase to cyber infiltration, threatening privacy and personal records.
Answer A: Considering quality of service can still be maintained using long distance technology, this response is incorrect.
Answer C: While technical difficulties could arise during an assessment, security and privacy are during and after assessment administration is a greater concern.
Answers D: While a user's lack of knowledge and understanding of the technology could significantly impact the services provided, security and privacy are a greater concern.
177
When an examinee's profile on the MMPI-2 is valid, interpretation then focuses on their clinical scale scores. Although the test was originally developed to facilitate differential diagnosis, it has proven to be inadequate for this purpose, and the test is most commonly used to assess personality and behavior through __________.
Select one:
A.
factor analysis
B.
profile analysis
C.
interpretation
D.
free association
The correct answer is B.
The MMPI-2 is commonly used to assess personality and behavior through profile analysis. Several coding systems have been developed to facilitate profile analysis. Simple systems use the two highest scale scores to form a code while more complex systems use the highest scores on three or more scales.
Answer A: Factor analysis is a technique that is used to reduce a large number of variables into fewer numbers of factors. This technique extracts maximum common variance from all variables and puts them into a common score.
Answer C: The interpretation of an examinee's responses involves considering the number and ratio of responses falling into each category. For example, a large number of "whole" responses on the Rorschach Inkblot test suggests integrated, organized thinking.
Answer D: Free association refers to the expression of the content of consciousness without censorship as an aid in gaining access to unconscious processes.
178
Which item is not a requirement for determining test appropriateness?
Select one:
A.
Examiner qualifications
B.
Examinee characteristics
C.
Test edition
D.
Test characteristics
The correct answer is C.
Factors to consider when evaluating the appropriateness of a psychological test for a particular examinee or situation include the qualifications of the examiner and characteristics of the examinee and the test. While test edition should be considered, as test characteristics are updated with each new edition, this is not the BEST answer.
Answer A: Examiner qualifications are required considerations for determining test appropriateness.
Answer B: Examinee characteristics are required considerations for determining test appropriateness.
Answer D: Test characteristics are required considerations for determining test appropriateness.
179
The Tower of London is a variation of the _______.
Select one:
A.
Wisconsin Card Sorting Test
B.
Bender-Gestalt
C.
Tower of Hanoi puzzle
D.
Benton Visual Retention Test
The correct answer is C.
The Tower of London measures attention, memory, and executive functioning. It requires the examinee to move disks, one at a time, so that they end up in a particular goal configuration. Poor performance has been linked to frontal lobe damage, ADHD, autism, and depression. The Tower of London is a variation of the Tower of Hanoi puzzle which consists of three rods and a number of disks of different sizes, which can slide onto any rod. The puzzle starts with the disks in a neat stack in ascending order of size on one rod, the smallest at the top, thus making a conical shape. The objective of the puzzle is to move the entire stack to another rod, while obeying three simple rules.
Answer A: The Wisconsin Card Sorting Test is used to assess the ability to form abstract concepts and shift cognitive strategies in response to feedback. It requires the examinee to sort response cards using a sorting strategy that is not disclosed; and the examinee is given feedback by the examiner about whether their strategy is "right" or "wrong."
Answer B: The Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt Test, Second Edition is a brief measure of visual-motor integration and is used as a measure of visual-motor development and screening tool for neuropsychological impairment. Administration involves the copy phase in which the examinee is asked to copy the geometric figure designs of 16 cards and the recall phase in which the examinee is asked to draw as many of the designs as possible from memory.
Answer D: The Benton Visual Retention Test is used to assess visual memory, visual perception, and visual-motor skills for the purpose of identifying brain damage. The test consists of ten cards that contain one or more simple geometric figures which the examinee is required to reproduce from memory, and the examinee's score is based on the number of figures correctly reproduced and total number of errors.
180
Which type of assessment is NOT a type of dynamic assessment?
Select one:
A.
Testing the limits
B.
Thought sampling
C.
Test-teach-retest
D.
Graduated prompting
The correct answer is B.
Dynamic assessment involves an interactive approach and deliberate deviation from standardized testing procedures to obtain additional information about the examinee and/or determine if the examinee is likely to benefit from assistance or instruction. Examples include testing the limits, test-teach-retest, and graduated prompting. Thought sampling is a type of cognitive assessment.
Answer A: Testing the limits is a type of dynamic assessment which involves providing an examinee with additional cues, suggestions, or feedback. It is ordinarily done after standard administration of the test to preserve the applicability of the test's norms.
Answer C: Test-teach-retest is a type of dynamic assessment which involves following the initial assessment with an intervention designed to modify the examinee's performance and then re-assessing the examinee.
Answer D: Graduated prompting is a type of dynamic assessment which involves giving the examinee a series of verbal prompts that are graduated in terms of difficulty level.
181
Spearman argued that performance on any cognitive task depends on:
Select one:
A.
crystallized intelligence and fluid intelligence
B.
convergent or divergent thinking
C.
g plus one or more specific factors unique to the task
D.
three levels of intelligence
The correct answer is C.
Based on his observation that various measures of intelligence correlate to some degree with each other, Spearman (1927) proposed a general intellectual factor (g) and argued that performance on any cognitive task depends on g plus one or more specific factors(s) unique to the task.
Answer A: This response refers to Horn and Cattell's fluid and crystallized intelligence.
Answer B: This response refers to Guilford's convergent and divergent thinking.
Answer D: This response refers to Carroll's three-stratum theory.
182
The ____________ provides an explanation of IQ variance between siblings.
Select one:
A.
flynn effect
B.
the Seattle Longitudinal Study
C.
the role of heredity
D.
confluence model
The correct answer is D.
Studies have found that there is a relationship between family size, birth order, and IQ, with children's IQ scores decreasing from the child that is born first to the child that is born last. Zajonc's confluence model explains the firstborn child's advantage in terms of the changing intellectual environment in the family: In contrast to their younger siblings, firstborns do not initially have to share their parents' attention, are exposed to more adult language, and are more likely to act as "tutors" for their brothers and sisters.
Answer A: The Flynn effect refers to the observed rise in intelligence over time in standardized intelligence test scores.
Answer B: The Seattle Longitudinal Study resulted in the findings that, at any given time, younger people are better educated than older people and are more likely to have had experiences (e.g., better nutrition and health care) that tend to increase scores on intelligence tests.
Answer C: The impact of heredity on intelligence can be expressed in terms of a heritability estimate, which indicates the proportion of variability in intelligence that is due to inherited factors versus the environment.
183
What is one of the strongest predictors of the maintenance of cognitive functioning in later adulthood?
Select one:
A.
Environment
B.
Physical health
C.
Knowledge
D.
Specific information learned
The correct answer is B.
Physical health is one of the strongest predictors of the maintenance of cognitive functioning in later adulthood. One health factor that is particularly important is cardiovascular functioning, which has an impact on information processing speed and other cognitive functions.
Answer A: Impact of environment has been found to decrease with increasing age.
Answer C: What an individual knows at one time does not predict what they will be able to learn over time. However, an individual's ongoing learning process and practice can significantly impact their maintenance of cognitive abilities.
Answer D: Specific information learned does not have an impact on the maintenance of cognitive functioning in later adulthood. However, as previously stated, an individual's ongoing learning process and practice can impact maintenance of cognitive abilities.
184
Which of the following is not a Kaufman test?
Select one:
A.
KABC
B.
KAIT
C.
KBOT
D.
KBIT
The correct answer is C.
The Kaufman tests consist of the Kaufman Assessment Battery for Children, Second Edition (KABC-II), the Kaufman Brief Intelligence Test, Second Edition (KBIT-2), and the Kaufman Adolescent and Adult Intelligence Test (KAIT). The KBOT is not a Kaufman test.
Answer A: The KABC-II is a measure of cognitive ability for children ages 3:0 through 18:11 and was designed to be a culture-fair test by minimizing verbal instructions and responses.
Answer B: The KAIT is multi-subtest battery of cognitive ability that is appropriate for individuals ages 11:0 to 85+.
Answer D: The KBIT-2 is a brief screening test of verbal (crystallized) and nonverbal (fluid) ability and is appropriate for individuals ages 4:0 through 90+.
185
Which assessment was originally developed for children with cerebral palsy?
Select one:
A.
The Columbia Mental Maturity Scale-Third Edition
B.
The Haptic Intelligence Scale
C.
The Cognitive Abilities Test
D.
The Hiskey-Nebraska Test
The correct answer is A.
The Columbia Mental Maturity Scale-Third Edition (CMMS) is a test of general reasoning ability for children ages 3:6 through 9:11. A unique feature of the CMMS is that it does not require verbal responses or fine motor skills. Although the CMMS was originally developed for children with cerebral palsy, it is also useful for children with brain damage, intellectual disability, speech impairments, hearing loss, or limited English proficiency.
Answer B: The Haptic Intelligence Scale is for individuals ages 16:0 and older who are blind or partially sighted.
Answer C: The Cognitive Abilities Test (CogAT) measures an examinee's reasoning abilities in three areas that are linked to academic. The test is appropriate for students in grades K through 12, is used to predict school grades, and determines a student's eligibility for placement in a gifted/talented program. It was not specifically developed for children with cerebral palsy.
Answer D: The Hiskey-Nebraska Test is a measure of learning ability for children ages 3:0 to 17:6 who have hearing or language impairments.
186
Which possible confounding factor has not been found to potentially influence the two- or three-point profile of an African American examinee who has taken the MMPI-2?
Select one:
A.
Socioeconomic status
B.
Race
C.
Acculturation
D.
Education
The correct answer is B.
Most evidence for the validity of the MMPI and MMPI-2 comes from studies linking two- and three-point profiles to certain patterns of behavior. However, the validity of the individual scales has been questioned because many of the items in the scales overlap and, as a result, scores on a number of scales are highly correlated. There is concern with regard to multicultural assessment because, as a group, African American examinees tend to obtain higher or lower scores than White examinees on some scales (e.g., higher scores on the F Scale and Scales 4, 8, and 9), which could lead uninformed examiners to interpret that the group presents higher risk for deviant behavior. However, these outcomes likely are influenced by confounding factors such as socioeconomic status, education, acculturation, and overall historical experience of oppression in the United States. While race of the examinee can potentially provide information leading an examiner to accurately predict which scales will be elevated, it is not the examinee's race that influences the outcome. As scores are more consistent with the mean when confounding variables are controlled. There is some evidence that the MMPI-2 is appropriate for people from culturally diverse groups when possible confounding factors are taken into consideration.
Answers A, C, and D: Socioeconomic status, acculturation, and education have been identified as a possible confounding factors influencing MMPI-2 profiles of African American examinees.
187
Which item does not represent an interpretation category of the Rorschach?
Select one:
A.
Form quality
B.
Content
C.
Color
D.
Popularity/frequency of occurrence
The correct answer is C.
The Rorschach Inkblot Test grew out of Hermann Rorschach's belief that the way a person interprets an inkblot reveals something about their mental state. Scoring and interpretation of the measure is complex, and a number of scoring and interpretation systems are available. Most involve looking at categories including location, determinants, form quality, content, and popularity/frequency of occurrence. Color is a response type within the determinants category.
Answers A, B, and D: Most scoring and interpretation systems involve looking at categories including location, determinants, form quality, content, and popularity/frequency of occurrence.
188
The tendency to believe that one's own beliefs, values, and ideas are shared by the majority of people is known as the:
Select one:
A.
"cognitive distortion effect"
B.
"false consensus effect"
C.
"actor/observer effect"
D.
"illusory correlation"
The correct answer is B.
The belief that the majority of people share our own opinions and ideas is referred to as the "false consensus effect/bias."
Answers A, C, and D: The tendency to believe that most people share our own ideas and opinions is known as the "false consensus effect."
189
The "illusory correlation" is defined as:
Select one:
A.
the tendency to perceive no relationship between events when in fact a relationship exists.
B.
the tendency to believe that others have the same ideas and opinions as we do.
C.
the tendency to perceive a relationship between events when no such relationship exists.
D.
the tendency to attribute the behavior of others to dispositional factors (character, personality).
The correct answer is C.
The "illusory correlation" is a cognitive bias which is defined by the tendency to perceive a relationship between variables (people, events, behaviors) when no such relationship exists.
Answer A: This expresses the opposite of what the illusory correlation suggests.
Answer B: This is the false consensus bias.
Answer D: This is the fundamental attribution error/bias.
190
It is believed that stereotypes develop from this cognitive bias?
Select one:
A.
The "false-consensus bias"
B.
The "hindsight bias"
C.
The "self-serving bias"
D.
The "illusory correlation"
The correct answer is D.
Sterotypes have been said to develop from the cognitive bias known as the "illusory correlation." Variables (people, events, behaviors) are seen as related, even when no relationship exists.
Answers A, B, and C: These do not define the illusory correlation.
191
Leon Festinger's (1954) social comparison theory centers on the idea that there is a need among people to establish:
Select one:
A.
accurate self-evaluations
B.
enlightenment
C.
self-actualization
D.
social connection
The correct answer is A.
Festinger's (1954) social comparison theory centers on the ideas that people have a need to have accurate self-evaluations. We evaluate our beliefs and abilities by comparing them to others, thus enhancing certainty in these areas.
Answers B, C, and D: These answers do not reflect the essence of social comparison theory.
192
The fundamental attribution error/bias suggests that, with regard to the actions of others, one tends to explain behavior based on:
Select one:
A.
situational factors
B.
fate
C.
personality/dispositional factors
D.
chance
The correct answer is C.
The fundamental attribution error predicts that people tend to attribute the behavior of others based on internal/dispositional factors (personality, character).
Answers A, B, and D: These answers are external factors not related to personality/character.
193
Social judgment theory is a theory that describes:
Select one:
A.
intelligence
B.
attitude change
C.
how sterotypes form
D.
equity in relationships
The correct answer is B.
Sherif's (1961) social judgment theory relates to attitude change, and suggests that persuasion is dependent on the extent to which the persuasive message differs from the position or attitude of the person receiving the message.
Answers A, C, and D: Social judgment theory is a theory about attitude change.
194
The actor-observer effect is a cognitive bias which attempts to explain:
Select one:
A.
the behavior of movie stars
B.
one's own behavior, but not the behavior of others
C.
the behavior of others but not one's own behavior
D.
the attributions people make regarding their own behavior and the behavior of others
The correct answer is D.
The actor-observer effect is a cognitive bias associated with how people view their own behavior and the behavior of others. There is a tendency to attribute one's own behavior to external factors and the behavior of others to internal (dispositional) factors.
Answers A, B, and C: The actor-observer effect attempts to explain the attributions people make about their own behavior and the behavior of others.
195
The expectation that people will help, as opposed to hurt, others who have helped them is known as the:
Select one:
A.
the Good Samaritan phenomenon
B.
the moral high road
C.
norm of reciprocity
D.
the mutual exchange norm
The correct answer is C.
The norm of reciprocity dictates that we should help others who have helped us.
Answers A, B, D: These choices are not related to the norm of reciprocity.
196
Research has found that self-image remains relatively stable, due, in part, to the fact that we seek out and remember information that confirms our beliefs about ourselves. Which of the following makes this prediction:
Select one:
A.
constancy bias
B.
self-serving bias
C.
false consensus bias
D.
confirmation bias
The correct answer is D.
The "confirmation bias" describes the tendency to search for and recall information that confirms one's preconceptions.
Answer A: This is a made-up term.
Answer B: The "self-serving bias" is the tendency to take credit for our successes but blame external factors for our failures.
Answer C: The "false consensus bias" is the tendency to overestimate the degree to which the beliefs of others are similar to our own.
197
In a research study, participants were given vague descriptions of themselves that were supposedly based on their handwriting analysis. Actually, all participants had received the same randomly derived description. When asked about the accuracy of the description, most participants agreed that it was "highly accurate." These results support the predictions of which of the following:
Select one:
A.
self-serving bias
B.
looking-glass self
C.
Barnum effect
D.
Zeigarnik effect
The correct answer is C.
The "Barnum effect" predicts that people tend to accept vague or general descriptions of themselves as accurate descriptions. It has been used to explain why people believe that astrological predictions or descriptions are accurate.
Answer A: The self-serving bias is the tendency to take credit for our successes but blame external events for our failures.
Answer B: The looking-glass self predicts that people learn about themselves by imagining how others perceive them.
Answer D: The Zeigarnik effect refers to the tendency to recall goals or tasks that have not been completed more readily (often automatically and in an intrusive way) than those that have been completed.
198
The results of a study by Diener et al. (1976) found that children who were trick-or-treating were more likely to steal candy from a bowl when the adult was unable to identify individual children and when the children were in a large group. This result is explained by which of the following:
Select one:
A.
psychological reactance
B.
inoculation
C.
deindividuation
D.
scapegoating
The correct answer is C.
"Deindividuation" is the increased tendency to act in antisocial ways when it is possible to do so anonymously.
Answer A: "Psychological reactance" occurs when a person responds to the request of another person by acting in a way that is opposite to what is being requested because the person feels his/her personal freedom is being threatened.
Answer B: "Inoculation" refers to providing a person with arguments and counterarguments prior to hearing a persuasive message in order to reduce the likelihood that the person will be influenced by that message.
Answer D: "Scapegoating" occurs when a person blames his/her problems or misfortunes on someone else.
199
If you want to determine the degree of association between variable X and variable Y after statistically removing the effects of a third variable (Z) from both X and Y, you would use_____.
Select one:
A.
zero-order correlation
B.
second-order correlation
C.
multiple correlation
D.
partial correlation
The correct answer is D.
You may have been able to identify the correct answer to this question even if you have never heard of partial correlation since it sounds like what it is. Partial correlation, a type of first-order correlation, is used to determine the degree of association between two variables when the effects of a third variable have been removed from both X and Y.
Answer A: A zero-order correlation is the correlation between two variables.
Answer B: In the context of correlation, "order" refers to the number of variables that are being controlled for. A first-order correlation controls for one other variable (which is what is described in this question), while a second-order correlation controls for two other variables.
Answer C: A multiple correlation coefficient is the correlation between three or more variables.
200
A "cover story" that causes research participants to think that the purpose of the study in which they're participating is something other than what it really is would be most helpful for controlling which of the following?
Select one:
A.
Hawthorne effect
B.
Rosenthal effect
C.
Demand characteristics
D.
Differential attrition
The correct answer is C.
In the situation described in this question, participants will not know the real purpose of the study. Demand characteristics are cues in the experimental setting that inadvertently convey information to participants about what behavior is expected. If participants do not know what the purpose of the study is, they will be less susceptible to the effects of any cues that happen to be present.
Answer A: The Hawthorne effect is the tendency for the research participants' performance to improve as the result of the attention they receive as research participants. In other words, it is knowing that they are in a study (not knowing the purpose of the study) that impacts performance.
Answer B: The Rosenthal effect (self-fulfilling prophecy) refers to the impact of a teacher's expectations about the students' performance on their actual performance.
Answer D: Differential attrition occurs when participants who drop out of one group differ in a systematic way from those who drop out of another group and this difference affects the study's results.
201
If your data analysis involves calculating an "effect size," you are conducting which of the following?
Select one:
A.
Meta-analysis
B.
Path analysis
C.
Factor analysis
D.
Discriminant analysis
The correct answer is A.
Only one of the statistical techniques listed in the answers involves calculating an effect size, which is a measure of the magnitude of the relationship between two variables (e.g., a treatment and an outcome). Meta-analysis is used to combine the results of multiple studies. For example, a meta-analysis might be conducted to combine the results of several different studies that investigated the effects of cognitive therapy on depression. Use of this technique involves calculating an effect size for each study and then calculating a mean effect size for all of the studies.
Answer B: Path analysis is used to test hypotheses about the causal relationships among three or more variables.
Answer C: Factor analysis is a statistical technique used to reduce a large number of variables into fewer numbers of factors.
Answer D: A discriminant analysis involves using scores on two or more predictors to predict an individual's membership in a criterion group (i.e., it is used when the criterion is measured on a nominal scale).
202
According to Albert Ellis, our emotional and behavioral reactions to an event are due to our beliefs about the event rather than to the event itself. In other words, our beliefs act as a _____.
Select one:
A.
moderator variable
B.
mediator variable
C.
latent variable
D.
suppressor variable
The correct answer is B.
A mediator variable accounts for or is responsible for the relationship between an independent variable and a dependent (outcome) variable. In other words, the independent variable affects the mediator variable which, in turn, affects the dependent variable. Ellis proposes that beliefs mediate (are responsible for) the impact of an event on our emotional and behavioral reactions to that event.
Answer A: A moderator variable is a variable that affects the strength of the relationship between two other variables. For example, if the size of the correlation between a predictor and criterion differs for older and younger adults, age is a moderator variable.
Answer C: A latent variable is a theoretical variable that is believed to underlie a measured or observed variable.
Answer D: A suppressor variable reduces or conceals the relationship between two variables. Statistically removing the effects of a suppressor variable increases the correlation between the two variables.
203
Cluster analysis would be most useful for _____.
Select one:
A.
developing a classification scheme for individuals with various combinations of depressive symptoms
B.
testing causal hypotheses about the factors that underlie the development of depression
C.
identifying the optimal combination of tests to use to predict an individual's risk for developing major depressive disorder
D.
systematically recording behavioral data while observing individuals with depressive symptoms
The correct answer is A.
Cluster analysis is used to "cluster" or categorize individuals and can be either exploratory or confirmatory. In the first case, the goal is to identify clusters of people or other variables; in the latter, the goal is to confirm a pre-existing classification scheme. Of the situations described in the answers, this one is best suited for cluster analysis, which is useful for confirming or developing a classification scheme.
Answer B: Structural equation modeling is a multivariate technique used to test causal hypotheses about the relationships among a set of factors.
Answer C: Cluster analysis would not be useful for this purpose.
Answer D: This is a data collection method used to record behavioral observations, whereas, cluster analysis is a type of statistical analysis and is not used to record behavioral observations.
204
You are conducting a multiple regression analysis and find that one of your predictors has a negative regression coefficient. This means that _____.
Select one:
A.
you should eliminate that predictor from the regression equation
B.
the predictor has an inverse relationship with the criterion
C.
the predictor is uncorrelated with the other predictors included in the analysis
D.
you have made a mistake in your data entry or calculations
The correct answer is B.
The size and sign of a predictor's regression coefficient are related to the nature of the correlation between the predictor and criterion. A negative sign means that there is an inverse (negative) correlation between the predictor and the criterion.
Answer A: A negative sign does not mean there is anything wrong with the predictor. A negative sign simply means there is an inverse correlation.
Answer C: No correlation is indicated by a correlation coefficient of 0, which indicates there isn't a relationship between the predictor and criterion.
Answer D: A negative regression coefficient is a possibility and is not necessarily indicative of a data entry or calculation error.
205
An extraneous variable is irrelevant to the study's research hypothesis but confounds the study's results because it has a systematic effect on the dependent variable. As a result, it is uncertain whether the independent variable caused any observed differences in the dependent variable. This has the largest impact on the study's _____.
Select one:
A.
external validity
B.
generalizability
C.
random error rate
D.
internal validity
The correct answer is D.
Internal validity allows the researcher to determine if there is a causal relationship between the independent and dependent variable.
Answer A: External validity is present when the results of a study can be generalized to other people, settings, and conditions.
Answer B: Generalizability is part of external validity and is the degree to which a researcher can generalize the results of a study to other people, settings, and conditions.
Answer C: Random error rate is the degree to which the effects of random (unpredictable) fluctuations in subjects, conditions, and procedures occurs. Extraneous variables represent systematic error.
206
When a researcher conducts a series of significance tests, the term experiment-wise error rate refers to_____.
Select one:
A.
the decreased probability that one or more of the significance tests results in a Type-I error
B.
the increased probability that one or more of the significance tests results in a Type-I error
C.
the decreased probability that one or more of the significance tests results in a Type-II error
D.
the increased probability that one or more of the significance tests results in a Type-II error
The correct answer is B.
When a researcher conducts a series of significance tests, the error rate increases with each test. This cumulative effect across the study is known as the experiment-wise error rate. When the experiment-wise error rate increases, there is an increased probability that one or more of the significance tests in the study will result in a Type I error.
Answer A: The probability of making a Type I error increases with more significance tests, not decreases.
Answer C: The experiment-wise error rate refers specifically to the probability of making a Type I error, which increases with the addition of each significance test.
Answer D: The experiment-wise error rate refers specifically to the probability of making a Type I error.
207
A shortcoming of nonparametric tests is that they _____.
Select one:
A.
are less likely to detect a false null hypothesis than a parametric test
B.
are heavily influenced by homogeneous samples than a parametric test
C.
are set with a lower alpha than a parametric test
D.
have stronger assumptions regarding homoscedasticity
The correct answer is A.
Because nonparametric tests involve less precise data (i.e., nominal or ordinal data or data that violate assumptions of normality), they are less powerful. As a result, you're less likely to detect a false null hypothesis with a nonparametric test than a parametric test.
Answer B: This is not a shortcoming of nonparametric tests. Nonparametric tests, such as the chi-square, are used to detect homogeneity so a researcher can make a decision on whether to use a parametric or nonparametric statistical test to analyze the data collected.
Answer C: Although a researcher is less likely to detect a false null hypothesis with a nonparametric test, setting the test with a lower alpha is not required.
Answer D: Assumptions of homoscedasticity are central to linear regression models. Nonparametric tests do not have stronger assumptions of homoscedasticity, but they are able to detect homoscedasticity.
208
When a study includes two independent groups and the data on the dependent variable are reported in terms of ranks, the appropriate test would be the_____.
Select one:
A.
Mann-Whitney U test
B.
Wilcoxon Matched-Pairs Signed-Ranks test
C.
t-test for correlated samples
D.
matched pair ANOVA
The correct answer is A.
A Mann-Whitney U test is appropriate when a study includes two independent groups and data on the dependent variable are reported in terms of ranks.
Answer B: A Wilcoxon Matched-Pairs Signed-Ranks test is used when a study includes two correlated (matched) groups and the different scores on the DV for pairs of subjects are converted to ranks.
Answer C: A t-test for correlated samples is used when the two means to be compared have come from correlated groups.
Answer D: A matched pair ANOVA is not real statistical test.
209
What test is most appropriate when a researcher plans a study using a within-subjects design in which the different levels of the IV or combinations of the levels of two or more IVs are sequentially administered to each subject?
Select one:
A.
Mixed (Split-Plot) ANOVA
B.
Multivariate Analysis of Variance (MANOVA)
C.
Repeated Measures ANOVA
D.
Randomized Block ANOVA
The correct answer is C.
A repeated measures ANOVA is used in a within-subjects design where a researcher administers different levels of the IV or some combination of levels for two or more IVs to each subject. In other words, each subject is exposed to multiple levels of the IV in a sequential fashion.
Answer A: The mixed or split-plot ANOVA is an appropriate test when a researcher uses a mixed design where at least one IV is a between-groups variable and one IV is a within-subjects variable.
Answer B: A MANOVA is used when a study includes one or more IVs and two or more DVs that are each measured on an interval or ratio scale.
Answer D: A randomized block ANOVA is used when a researcher wants to control an extraneous variable by statistically analyzing its effects on the dependent variable.
210
According to the Central Limit Theorem, the mean of the sampling distribution of the mean _____.
Select one:
A.
is less than the population mean
B.
is greater than the population mean
C.
is equal to the population mean
D.
approaches the population mean
The correct answer is C.
One of the three predictions of the Central Limit Theorem is that the mean of the sampling distribution of mean is equal to the population mean. It will be important to know the three predictions of the Central Limit Theorem found in the Statistics and Research Design written materials.
Answer A: The mean of the sampling distribution of mean is equal to the population mean, not less.
Answer B: The mean of the sampling distribution of mean is equal to the population mean, not greater.
Answer D: The mean will be equal to the population mean and not approach the population mean. The mean of the sampling distribution of the mean will approach a normal shape as the sample size increases, regardless of the shape of the population distribution of scores.
211
One restriction when using path analysis is that_____.
Select one:
A.
all paths between variables must depict a non-causal flow unless they are statistically significant
B.
all paths between variables must involve only a one-way causal flow
C.
all paths between variables must be a bi-directional causal flow
D.
all paths between variables must be statistically significant and depict a multi-directional causal flow
The correct answer is B.
One restriction when using path analysis is that all paths between variables must be recursive (i.e., they must involve only a one-way causal flow). Of the response options this is the only option that addresses a one way, causal link.
Answer A: With path analysis, all paths between variables must be involve only a one-way causal flow.
Answer C: With path analysis, all paths between variables must be involve only a one-way causal flow.
Answer D: With path analysis, all paths between variables must be involve only a one-way causal flow.
212
Believing that your students' grades are dependent on the number of hours per week spent studying, you collect the students' letter grades and the number of hours each student studies in a week. What statistical test would you use to compare the means?
Select one:
A.
One-sample t-test
B.
One-sample chi-square test
C.
ANOVA
D.
Wilcoxon Signed Rank test
The correct answer is D.
The Wilcoxon Signed Rank test is a nonparametric test used to compare the mean of two sets of data, or the mean value of one set of data to a hypothesized mean, where the data are ranked.
Answer A: The one sample or single sample t-test is a parametric test used to compare an obtained sample mean to a known or hypothesized population mean.
Answer B: A one sample chi-square test is a nonparametric goodness of fit test and evaluates if a categorical variable follows a hypothesized population distribution.
Answer C: ANOVAs are used with variables on a ratio or interval scale, whereas the variables listed in the question are measured on an ordinal scale.
213
A researcher is comparing the various effects of three levels (doses) of an experimental anti-psychotic drug and four types of therapy on cognitive ability. A sample of 10 participants is obtained, which are randomly assigned to one of ten groups. After 90 days, the researcher administers a test of cognitive ability to all participants. Because this study has two independent variables (anti-psychotic drug and therapy) and one dependent variable that is measured on an interval scale, a factorial ANOVA was used to analyze the data. The results will allow the researcher to determine_____.
Select one:
A.
the shared variability between groups
B.
the main effect of treatments on cognitive ability
C.
the interaction between the anti-psychotic drug and type of therapy, and a measure of their shared variability
D.
the main effects of the anti-psychotic drug dose, the main effect of type of therapy, and/or the interaction between anti-psychotic drug dose and type of therapy
The correct answer is D.
Factorial ANOVAs are used to determine whether there are significant main effects and/or interaction effects.
Answer A: Shared variability reflects a correlational technique and is not determined through running a factorial ANOVA.
Answer B: While a factorial ANOVA would address whether or not a main effect for therapy exists, this is not the only effect that a factorial ANOVA addresses.
Answer C: While a factorial ANOVA would address whether or not an interaction effect exists, it would also provide evidence for whether a main effect exists, and does not address shared variability.
214
To calculate a predictor's sensitivity, you would:
Select one:
A.
divide the number of true positives by the number of true and false positives.
B.
divide the number of true negatives by the number of true and false negatives.
C.
divide the number of true positives by the number of true positives plus false negatives.
D.
divide the number of true negatives by the number of true negatives plus false positives.
The correct answer is C.
Sensitivity refers to the percent of cases in the validation sample that have the attribute being assessed and were accurately classified as having the attribute by the predictor. Answer C is the formula for calculating sensitivity.
Answer A: This is the formula for the positive predictive value.
Answer B: This is the formula for the negative predictive value.
Answer D: This describes the formula for calculating specificity.
215
The correction for attenuation formula is useful for estimating the magnitude of a criterion measure's validity coefficient if:
Select one:
A.
all sources of systemic error are controlled
B.
criterion contamination is eliminated
C.
measurement error is removed from the predictor and criterion
D.
the range of criterion scores is unrestricted
The correct answer is C.
The correction for attenuation formula is used to estimate a test's validity coefficient when the reliability coefficient for the predictor and/or criterion has been increased to 1.0. Increasing the reliability coefficient to 1.0 means that measurement error has been entirely removed.
Answers A, B, and D: The correction for attenuation formula is useful for estimating the magnitude of a criterion measure's validity coefficient if measurement error is removed from the predictor and criterion.
216
A test developer would use Lord's chi-square in order to:
Select one:
A.
compare the standard error of measurement for two different tests or test items
B.
predict the number of people who are likely to answer a test item correctly
C.
determine whether factors in a factor analysis are orthogonal or oblique
D.
evaluate the differential item functioning of an item included in a test
The correct answer is D.
In the context of item response theory, differential item functioning (DIF) is another name for item bias and is occurring when one group responds differently to an item than another group, even though both groups have similar levels of the latent trait (attribute) measured by the test. Lord's chi-square is one of several statistical techniques used to evaluate DIF.
Answers A, B, and C: A test developer would use Lord's chi-square in order to evaluate the differential item functioning of an item included in a test.
217
Which of the following would most likely maximize the magnitude of a test's reliability coefficient?
Select one:
A.
Increase the length of the test and increase the homogenity of the examinees with regard to the attribute measured by the test
B.
Decrease the length of the test and increase the homogenity of the examinees with regard to the attribute measured by the test
C.
Increase the length of the test and increase the heterogeneity of the examinees with regard to the attribute measured by the test
D.
Decrease the length of the test and increase the heterogeneity of the examinees with regard to the attribute measured by the test
The correct answer is C.
Longer tests tend to be more reliable (assuming that the added items are similar in terms of quality and content to the original items). In addition, the reliability coefficient (like all correlation coefficients) is larger when the range of scores is unrestricted, which occurs when examinees are heterogeneous with regard to the attribute being measured by the test.
Answers A, B, and D: Increasing the length of a test and increasing the heterogeneity of the examinees with regard to the attribute measured by a test will most likely maximize the magnitude of a test's reliability coefficient.
218
A psychologist is attempting to set the optimal cutoff score for a new screening test designed to identify people at risk for drug abuse. Using the data she collected when evaluating the test's criterion-related validity, she finds that lowering the cutoff score on the screening test:
Select one:
A.
increases the number of true positives and true negatives
B.
decreases the number of true positives and true negatives
C.
increases the number of true and false positives
D.
decreases the number of true and false positives
The correct answer is C.
Lowering the predictor (screening device) cutoff score increases the number of positives and decreases the number of negatives. Positives are individuals who are identified by a predictor as having the attribute being assessed - in this case, the people who are at risk for drug abuse.
Answers A, B, and D: Lowering the predictor cutoff score increases the number of true and false positives.
219
When an examinee obtains a score of 110 on a test that has a standard error of measurement of 4, there is a 2 in 3 chance that his true score falls between:
Select one:
A.
108 and 112
B.
106 and 114
C.
104 and 116
D.
102 and 118
The correct answer is B.
This question is asking about confidence intervals but does so in an unexpected way. To identify the correct answer to this question, you would have to recognize that 2 in 3 is equivalent to a 2/3 chance, which is close to a 68% chance. A 68% confidence interval is calculated by adding and subtracting one standard error to and from the obtained score - which, in this case, gives you a confidence interval of 106 to 114.
Answers A, C, and D: A 68% confidence interval is calculated by adding and subtracting one standard error to and from the obtained score (110) - which, in this case, gives you a confidence interval of 106 to 114.
220
In principal components analysis, an eigenvalue is:
Select one:
A.
a lower-limit estimate of a test's reliability
B.
the correlation between a test and a component
C.
the total variability in a test that is explained by the identified components
D.
the total variability explained by an orthogonal component
The correct answer is D.
Principal components analysis is used to identify a set of variables (components) that explains the total variability in a set of test scores. In principal components analysis, each component has an eigenvalue, which indicates the total amount of variability explained by that component.
Answer A: This does not describe an eigenvalue.
Answer B: This describes a factor loading.
Answer C: This describes a communality.
221
A factor analysis indicates that Test A has a factor loading of .80 for Factor 1 and a factor loading of .10 for Factor 2. Assuming an orthogonal rotation, the communality for Test A is:
Select one:
A.
1.0
B.
.90
C.
.70
D.
.65
he correct answer is D.
When factors are orthogonal (uncorrelated), the factor loadings can be squared and summed to calculate the communality. 0.80 squared plus 0.10 squared equals 0.64, plus .01, or .65. The communality for Test A is .65, which means that 65% of variability in Test A scores is explained by Factors 1 and 2.
Answers A, B, and C: These responses are incorrect - the communality for Test A is .65, which means that 65% of variability in Test A scores is explained by Factors 1 and 2.
222
When developing an achievement test, it is important to keep in mind that an average difficulty index of ____ will help ensure that scores on the test are normally distributed and that discrimination between examinees with high and low ability will be maximized.
Select one:
A.
"1.0"
B.
"0.50"
C.
"0.10"
D.
"0"
The correct answer is B.
The item difficulty index ranges from 0 (which occurs when no one answers the item correctly) to 1.0 (which occurs when everyone answers the item correctly). An item difficulty level of .50 indicates an item of moderate difficulty because 50% of examinees in the sample answer the item correctly. For most tests, an average item difficulty of .50 is preferred because it helps scores on the test to be normally distributed and to discriminate between examinees with high and low ability.
Answer A: An item's difficulty index of 1.0 means that 100% of examinees answer the item correctly. This means that the scores on the test will not be normally distributed and there will not be a discrimination between learners with high and low ability.
Answer B: An item difficulty level of .10 indicates a difficult item, because only 10% of examinees answer the item correctly. This also means that the scores on the test will not be normally distributed and there will not be a discrimination between learners with high and low ability.
Answer D: An item difficulty level of 0 means that no examinees answer this item correct, and would therefore lead to scores that are not distributed normally and would not discriminate among examinees' ability level.
223
An assumption underlying item response theory is that the standard error of measurement:
Select one:
A.
is larger for shorter tests than for longer tests
B.
is larger for examinees with average ability
C.
is larger for examinees with very high or very low ability
D.
is not affected by the test length or the ability level of the examinees
The correct answer is C.
Item response theory (IRT) differs from classical test theory in terms of several assumptions. Classical test theory is based on the assumption that the standard error of measurement is a constant that applies to all examinees, regardless of their level of ability. In contrast, IRT is based on the assumption that the standard error of measurement (SEM) increases at the extremes of a distribution - i.e., the SEM is larger for individuals with very high or low ability than for those with average ability. See R. J. Gregory, Psychological testing: History, principles, and applications, Boston, Pearson Education Group, 2004.
Answers A, B, and D: An assumption underlying item response theory is that the standard error of measurement is larger for examinees with very high or very low ability.
224
A criterion has a mean of 100 and a standard deviation of 9. Based on this information, you can conclude that the criterion's standard error of estimate is between:
Select one:
A.
9 and 100
B.
0 and 81
C.
0 and 9
D.
0 and 3
The correct answer is C.
The standard error of estimate is calculated by multiplying the standard deviation of the criterion scores times the square root of 1 minus the validity coefficient squared. The standard error of estimate equals 0 when the validity coefficient is equal to 1 (its maximum value) and equals the standard deviation when the validity coefficient is equal to 0 (its minimum value). Therefore, the standard error ranges in value from 0 to the size of the standard deviation (which, in this case, is 9).
Answers A, B, and D: Based on the information provided, you can conclude that the criterion's standard error of estimate is between 0 and 9.
225
Assuming that each score is from a normal distribution of scores, which of the following accurately lists the scores in order of magnitude from lowest to highest?
Select one:
A.
T = 40; z = 0; PR = 82; WAIS-IV IQ = 126
B.
PR = 16; T = 30; z = 1.5; WAIS-IV IQ = 116
C.
z = -2; T = 25; WAIS-IV IQ = 115; PR = 75
D.
PR = 50; T = 50; WAIS-IV IQ = 132; z = 1.5
The correct answer is A.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the relationship between norm-referenced scores in a normal distribution. A T-score of 40 is one standard deviation below the mean, a z-score of 0 is equal to the mean, a percentile rank (PR) of 82 is slightly below one standard deviation above the mean, and a WAIS-IV score of 126 is slightly below two standard deviations above the mean.
Answer B: A PR of 16 is approximately one standard deviation below the mean, a T-score of 30 is approximately two standard deviations below the mean, a z-score of 1.5 is approximately one and a half standard deviations above the mean, and a WAIS-IV score of 116 is approximately one standard deviation above the mean. Given that the scores are not listed in order of magnitude from lowest to highest, this answer is incorrect.
Answer C: A z-score of -2 is approximately two standard deviations below the mean, a T-score of 25 is approximately two and a half standard deviations below the mean, a WAIS-IV score of 115 is approximately one standard deviation above the mean, and a PR of 75 is slightly below one standard deviation above the mean. Given that the scores are not listed in order of magnitude from lowest to highest, this answer is incorrect.
Answer D: A PR of 50 is equal to the mean, a T-score of 50 is equal to the mean, a WAIS-IV score of 132 is slightly above two standard deviations above the mean, and a z-score of 1.5 is approximately and a half standard deviations above the mean. Given that the scores are not listed in order of magnitude from lowest to highest, this answer is incorrect.
