I/O Psychology - Domain Quiz Flashcards
A ______ is used in organizations to implement comparable worth.
a. job analysis
b. job evaluation
c. needs assessment
d. performance appraisal
Correct answer: B
The major disadvantage of a Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scale is that it:
a. is highly susceptible to rater biases.
b. lacks adequate face validity
c. requires substantial time and effort to develop.
d. doesn’t provide adequate information for employee feedback.
Correct answer: C
A. It is NOT susceptible to rater bias.
B. An items measures what it looks like it’s supposed to be measuring. BARS has good face validity.
C. BARS development is a multi-step process.
D. It DOES provide employees specific information about their strengths and weaknesses.
A supervisor’s ratings are affected by a “halo bias.” This means that the supervisor rates:
Select one:
a. all employees identical to the way she rates the first employee.
b. all employees on the basis of their physical attractiveness.
c. each employee the same on all dimensions of job performance.
d. each employee very high on all dimensions of job performance.
The halo bias is is one of several rater biases you want to be familiar with for the exam. These biases are described in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
Answer C is correct: The halo bias (effect) occurs when a rater’s rating of an individual on one dimension of performance influences how he or she rates the individual on other unrelated dimensions.
Answer A is incorrect: See explanation for Answer C.
Answer B is incorrect: Although physical attractiveness could be the characteristic that creates a halo bias, it’s not the only characteristic that could do so. Therefore, this is not the best answer.
Answer D is incorrect: See explanation for Answer C.
The correct answer is: each employee the same on all dimensions of job performance.
“Criterion contamination” is a concern when:
Select one:
a. items on the measure of performance are dichotomously scored.
b. the performance measure will be scored by more than one rater.
c. rating categories are not mutually exclusive.
d. the measure of performance is subjectively scored.
Criterion contamination occurs when a rater’s knowledge of a ratee’s performance on a predictor biases his or her ratings of the ratee on the criterion.
Answer D is correct: Subjectively scored criterion measures are susceptible to biases, including criterion contamination. When criterion contamination occurs, the criterion may not be providing accurate information.
The correct answer is: the measure of performance is subjectively scored.
Frame-of-reference training is used to:
Select one:
a. improve the ability of raters to assign accurate performance ratings to employees.
b. improve the ability of employers to make accurate selection decisions.
c. help employers make decisions about comparable worth.
d. help managers adapt their leadership style to the demands of the situation.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the methods used to improve rater accuracy that are described in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
Answer A is correct: Frame-of-reference (FOR) training is a type of rater training that is used to increase rater accuracy by helping raters recognize what constitutes effective and ineffective job performance.
The correct answer is: improve the ability of raters to assign accurate performance ratings to employees.
In the context of performance assessment, “critical incidents” are best described as:
Select one:
a. factors that contribute to rater biases.
b. behaviors that increase the risk for accidents and or or errors.
c. behaviors that clearly contribute to successful and unsuccessful job performance.
d. compensatory factors that are used to establish wages and salaries.
Critical incidents are descriptions of specific behaviors that are associated with good and poor job performance. The use of critical incidents in performance appraisals helps decrease rater biases.
Answer C is correct: As noted above, critical incidents are descriptions of specific job behaviors that define successful and unsuccessful job performance. When used in performance appraisal instruments, critical incidents are the “anchors” in a graphic rating scale or the statements included in a checklist.
Answer A is incorrect: See explanation for Answer C.
Answer B is incorrect: See explanation for Answer C.
Answer D is incorrect: The compensatory factors identified during the course of a job evaluation may include critical incidents but are not limited to them.
The correct answer is: behaviors that clearly contribute to successful and unsuccessful job performance.
When using the Critical Incident Technique, critical incidents are ordinarily identified by:
Select one:
a. the supervisor who observes an employee while he or she works.
b. an employee who maintains a detailed job diary.
c. a job analyst who administers a structured interview to supervisors.
d. a supervisor who temporarily performs the job him or herself.
The Critical Incident Technique (CIT) is a method of performance appraisal.
Answer A is correct: As originally described, the CIT involves having the supervisor observe an employee and record specific behaviors associated with effective and ineffective job performance. These behaviors (critical incidents) are then compiled into a checklist that is used to evaluate the performance of employees performing the same job.
The correct answer is: the supervisor who observes an employee while he or she works.
A realistic job preview is most important for:
Select one:
a. retaining employees.
b. maximizing transfer of training.
c. attracting talented job applicants.
d. reducing selection biases.
A realistic job preview involves providing job applicants with accurate information about the job and the organization.
Answer A is correct: Research on realistic job previews has confirmed that they help reduce turnover which, in turn, reduces costs related to selection and training.
The correct answer is: retaining employee
Meta-analyses conducted in the past 10 to 20 years suggest that, across jobs and organizations, the best predictor of job performance is:
Select one:
a. biodata.
b. general mental ability tests.
c. interest tests.
d. structured interviews.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the characteristics of the predictors listed in the answers to this question.
Answer B is correct: Although the research is far from consistent, the meta-analyses of the research suggest that general mental (cognitive) ability tests outperform most other predictors across jobs and organizations.
The correct answer is: general mental ability tests.
Of the “Big Five” personality traits, which has been found to be most predictive of job performance across different jobs and job settings?
Select one:
a. openness to experience
b. emotional stability
c. agreeableness
d. conscientiousness
The “Big Five” personality traits are neuroticism, extraversion, openness to experience, agreeableness, and conscientiousness.
Answer D is correct: Of the Big Five personality traits, conscientiousness has been found to be most predictive of performance across different jobs, job settings, and criterion measures.
The correct answer is: conscientiousness
One disadvantage of empirically derived Biographical Information Blanks (BIBs) is they may contain items that:
Select one:
a. lack face validity.
b. contribute to differential validity.
c. are difficult to administer and score.
d. are useful for skilled and semi-skilled jobs only.
BIBs are a type of empirically derived biodata form that consists of multiple-choice items that address information that has been linked to job performance.
Answer A is correct: A disadvantage of BIBs and other empirically derived forms is that their items often lack face validity – i.e., even though they address information that has been linked to job performance, they may not “look like” they are clearly linked to performance. As a result, applicants may feel that the form is asking for irrelevant information and that their privacy is being invaded.
Answer B is incorrect: BIBs have not been found to have differential validity (different validity coefficients for members of different groups).
Answer C is incorrect: Because BIBs contain multiple-choice items, they are easy to administer and score.
Answer D is incorrect: BIBs can be developed for many different types of jobs.
The correct answer is: lack face validity.
The HR director where you work is reluctant to use the selection test you’ve developed because its validity coefficient is only .35. Your best argument for using this test is that:
Select one:
a. the selection ratio is 1:10.
b. the selection ratio is 1:50.
c. the base rate is .20.
d. the base rate is .95.
As discussed in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter, a predictor’s incremental validity (decision-making accuracy) is affected by its validity coefficient, the selection ratio, and the base rate.
Answer B is correct: A predictor with a low validity coefficient can improve decision-making accuracy when the selection ratio is low (e.g., 1:50) and the base rate is moderate (around .50).
The correct answer is: the selection ratio is 1:50.
Use of a selection test produces a hiring rate of 55% for applicants from racial or ethnic minority groups and a hiring rate of 75% for applicants from the majority group. Based on these figures, you can use the 80% rule to determine which of the following?
Select one:
a. whether the test has differential validity
b. whether the test is producing too many false negatives
c. whether race or ethnicity is a “business necessity”
d. whether the test is having an adverse impact
The 80% rule is described in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials and, for the exam, you want to know what it is and how to use it.
Answer D is correct: The 80% rule is used to determine if use of a selection test or other employment procedure results in discrimination against members of a minority group (i.e., whether it is having an adverse impact).
The correct answer is: whether the test is having an adverse impact
Which of the following techniques would be most useful for combining test scores when superior performance on one test can compensate for poor performance on another test?
Select one:
a. multiple cutoff
b. multiple regression
c. multiple hurdle
d. multidimensional scaling
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the three methods for using scores on multiple predictors – i.e., multiple cutoff, multiple regression, and multiple hurdle. Additional information about these methods is provided in Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
Answer B is correct: Multiple regression is a compensatory technique for combining test scores. When using this technique, a low score on one test can be offset (compensated for) by a high score on another tests.
Answer A is incorrect: Multiple cutoff is a noncompensatory technique.
Answer C is incorrect: Multiple hurdle is also a noncompensatory technique.
Answer D is incorrect: Multidimensional scaling is similar to factor analysis and is used to identify the similarities and differences underlying a set of variables.
The correct answer is: multiple regression
An organizational psychologist will most likely apply the concept of “identical elements” originally proposed by Thorndike and Woodworth (1901) to which of the following?
Select one:
a. job redesign
b. employee selection
c. criterion development
d. employee training
According to Thorndike and Woodworth (1901), transfer of training is maximized when there are identical elements (similarities) in the learning and performance settings.
Answer D is correct: Research on Thorndike and Woodworth’s theory has supported the importance of providing identical elements for transfer of training. (Note that knowing that Thorndike conducted research in the area of learning may have helped you choose the correct response to this question even if you were unfamiliar with the notion of identical elements.)
The correct answer is: employee training
A psychologist relying on Bandura’s social learning theory would most likely recommend which of the following training approaches?
Select one:
a. train-then-place
b. programmed instruction
c. job rotation
d. behavioral modeling
Knowing that Bandura’s social learning theory emphasizes observational learning would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
Answer D is correct: Bandura proposed that people learn by watching others and, consequently, would agree that behavioral modeling is a useful training strategy.
The correct answer is: behavioral modeling
As an organizational psychologist, you would conduct a needs analysis in order to:
Select one:
a. evaluate the organizational outcomes of a training program.
b. determine if employee training would resolve a company’s production problems.
c. determine if an employment procedure is having an adverse impact.
d. compare the incremental validity of two or more selection procedures.
A needs analysis (assessment) is conducted in organizations to identify training needs.
Answer B is correct: An initial goal of a needs analysis is to determine whether or not production problems are actually due to deficiencies on the part of workers and, therefore, whether or not training would be an effective solution to those problems.
The correct answer is: determine if employee training would resolve a company’s production problems.
In an organization, a formative evaluation is conducted:
Select one:
a. prior to developing a training program to determine what it should include.
b. during the development of a training program to identify ways to improve it.
c. to evaluate the outcomes of an existing training program on employees’ job performance.
d. to determine whether a training program has had a substantial impact on organizational goals.
In the evaluation literature, a distinction is made between formative and summative evaluation.
Answer B is correct: As its name suggests, a formative evaluation is conducted while a training program or other intervention is being “formed” (developed) and is used to determine if it needs to be modified in order to meet its goals.
Answer A is incorrect: This sounds more like a needs analysis.
Answer C is incorrect: A summative evaluation is conducted after a program or intervention has been developed and delivered to evaluate its effectiveness.
Answer D is incorrect: This might be part of a summative evaluation.
The correct answer is: during the development of a training program to identify ways to improve it.
Vestibule training is:
Select one:
a. useful when errors that might occur during on-the-job training would be too costly or dangerous.
b. useful for training newly hired employees who lack basic educational skills.
c. useful for determining which job best fits a job applicant’s abilities.
d. useful when employees are being considered for promotion into managerial-level positions.
Vestibule training is one of several specific types of training that you’re likely to be asked about on the licensing exam.
Answer A is correct: Vestibule training is an off-the-job technique that uses a physical simulation of the job environment and equipment and is useful when on-the-job training would be too costly or dangerous.
The correct answer is: useful when errors that might occur during on-the-job training would be too costly or dangerous.
According to Dawis and Lofquist’s (1984) Theory of Work Adjustment, job satisfaction depends most on which of the following?
Select one:
a. the match between the worker’s self-concept and the roles and responsibilities required by the job.
b. the match between the worker’s stage of career development and the demands of the job.
c. the degree to which the characteristics of the job correspond to the worker’s needs and values.
d. the degree to which the supervisor matches his or her leadership style to the worker’s job maturity.
Dawis and Lofquist’s (1984) Theory of Work Adjustment is a person-environment fit theory of career development that provides a model for conceptualizing the interactions between a worker and his or her job.
Answer C is correct: According to this theory, a worker’s satisfaction is one of the factors that contribute to job tenure and other job outcomes, and it depends on the degree to which the job fulfills or matches the worker’s needs and values.
The correct answer is: the degree to which the characteristics of the job correspond to the worker’s needs and values.
According to Donald Super, job satisfaction, stability, and success depend on the extent to which a job matches the individual’s:
Select one:
a. need structure.
b. knowledge and skills.
c. career concept.
d. self-concept.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the key assumptions and predictions of Super’s theory, which are described in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
Answer D is correct: Super identified the self-concept as being the result of inherited aptitudes, physical makeup, and social learning experiences and proposed that job satisfaction, stability, and success depend on the extent to which the job matches the individual’s self-concept.
The correct answer is: self-concept.
According to Holland’s RIASEC model, the social personality type is most dissimilar to which of the following types?
Select one:
a. conventional
b. reflective
c. realistic
d. enterprising
Holland’s RIASEC model distinguishes between six vocational personality types, and his hexagon depicts the relationship between the six types: Types that are located next to each other in the hexagon are most similar in terms of characteristics, while those opposite one another are most dissimilar.
Answer C is correct: The relationship between the six types (and their position in the hexagon) is indicated by the acronym RIASEC - realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, and conventional. The social type is opposite the realistic type in the hexagon, which indicates that it is most dissimilar to that type.
Answer A is incorrect: The conventional type is closer (and more similar) to the social type than is the realistic type.
Answer B is incorrect: Reflective is not one of the vocational personality types identified by Holland.
Answer D is incorrect: The enterprising type is adjacent to the social type in the hexagon, which indicates that the two types share some characteristics.
The correct answer is: realistic
According to Holland, the optimal situation is for the job environment to match the person’s:
Select one:
a. stated (explicit) goals.
b. aptitude.
c. personality.
d. career concept.
Holland is a “popular” topic on the licensing exam and you’ll want to be familiar with the information on Holland’s career model presented in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
Answer C is correct: According to Holland, job satisfaction and productivity are best when the characteristics of the job match the individual’s personality.
The correct answer is: personality.
Tiedeman and O’Hara’s approach to career development:
Select one:
a. emphasizes the importance of a good personality or work environment match.
b. views career development as an aspect of ego identity development.
c. links career outcomes to Maslow’s need hierarchy theory.
d. uses the Life Career Rainbow to depict the interaction between life roles and life stages.
Tiedeman and O’Hara’s theory is one of the career development theories that you’re likely to encounter on the licensing exam.
Answer B is correct: Tiedeman and O’Hara link career identity development to Erikson’s stages of ego identity (personality) development.
Answer A is incorrect: Personality or work environment match is a key concept in Holland’s theory.
Answer C is incorrect: Tiedeman and O’Hara do not link career outcomes to Maslow’s theory.
Answer D is incorrect: Super uses the Life Career Rainbow to depict the interaction between life roles and life stages.
The correct answer is: views career development as an aspect of ego identity development.
A colleague tells you that she is designing a study to determine the correlates of job satisfaction. Based on your knowledge of the existing research on this issue, you tell her that job satisfaction has the strongest correlation with:
Select one:
a. productivity.
b. turnover.
c. absenteeism.
d. motivation.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the outcomes associated with job satisfaction that are described in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
Answer B is correct: The research has found that the largest correlation is for job satisfaction and turnover, with the average reported coefficient being -.40. In contrast, the average reported correlation between job satisfaction and performance is only .14.
The correct answer is: turnover.
A manager with a “Theory X” management philosophy would be most likely to say that her role as a manager:
Select one:
a. is to help employees identify and achieve their common goals and objectives.
b. is to direct and control employees in order to achieve organizational goals.
c. varies, depending on factors related to the organizational climate.
d. varies, depending on the likelihood that employees will resist changes in policies and procedures.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the distinction between McGregor’s Theory X and Theory Y managers.
Answer B is correct: As defined by McGregor, a Theory X manager believes that employees don’t like to work and, therefore, must be closely supervised and provided with incentives for good performance. Additional information on Theory X and Theory Y managers is provided in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
The correct answer is: is to direct and control employees in order to achieve organizational goals.
For an advocate of expectancy theory, “instrumentality” refers to:
Select one:
a. the relationship between effort and performance.
b. the desirability of outcomes.
c. the relationship between performance and outcomes.
d. social norms related to performance.
Expectancy theory links worker motivation to three factors – expectancy, instrumentality, and valence.
Answer C is correct: Instrumentality refers to the belief that successful performance will lead to positive outcomes (rewards).
Answer A is incorrect: Expectancy refers to the relationship between effort and performance.
Answer B is incorrect: Valence refers to the desirability of outcomes (rewards).
Answer D is incorrect: Instrumentality does not refer to social norms related to performance.
The correct answer is: the relationship between performance and outcomes.
From the perspective of Herzberg’s two-factor theory, the relationship between pay and motivation is best described by which of the following?
Select one:
a. Pay acts as a motivator only after safety needs have been met.
b. Pay acts as a motivator only when intrinsic motivation is low.
c. Pay acts as a motivator only for jobs that cannot be “enriched.”
d. Pay does not act as a motivator.
Herzberg’s two-factor theory proposes that all people have two basic needs - hygiene needs and motivator needs. Additional information on two-factor theory (including a description of hygiene and motivator factors) is provided in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
Answer D is correct: Herzberg’s two-factor theory identifies pay as a hygiene factor. Like other hygiene factors, pay leads to dissatisfaction when it is perceived to be inadequate but produces a state of neutrality when it is adequate. To increase motivation (and satisfaction), motivator factors must be provided by the job.
Answer A is incorrect: This isn’t consistent with Herzberg”s theory.
Answer B is incorrect: This isn’t consistent with Herzberg’s theory.
Answer C is incorrect: Herzberg proposed that providing employees with “enriched” jobs (jobs that provide opportunities to satisfy motivator needs) is the best way to increase satisfaction and motivation.
The correct answer is: Pay does not act as a motivator.
Locke’s goal-setting theory makes which of the following predictions about production goals?
Select one:
a. General goals produce higher levels of performance than specific goals.
b. Participation in goal-setting is critical for all employees.
c. Moderately difficult goals produce higher levels of performance than very difficult goals.
d. Assigned goals are always less effective than self-set goals.
Goal-setting theory predicts that employees are motived to achieve production goals when they have consciously accepted them and when certain other conditions are met.
Answer C is correct: Moderately difficult goals (i.e., those with about a 50% chance of being accomplished) produce the highest levels of performance.
Answer A is incorrect: Specific goals produce higher levels of performance than general goals.
Answer B is incorrect: Participation in goal-setting theory is not always necessary although it may be effective when employees are resistant to accepting assigned goals.
Answer D is incorrect: Assigned goals are actually preferred by some workers (e.g., those with a low need for achievement).
The correct answer is: Moderately difficult goals produce higher levels of performance than very difficult goals.
Many of the employees working on the assembly line at a large auto manufacturing plant have very low levels of job motivation and satisfaction. Their new supervisor, who is familiar with Herzberg’s work, is most likely to recommend that:
Select one:
a. each employee’s prepotent needs be identified.
b. each employee’s level of “job maturity” be identified.
c. all employees be given bonuses that are clearly linked to job performance.
d. all employees be given more individual responsibility and autonomy.
Herzberg’s two-factor theory distinguishes between hygiene (job context) factors and motivator (job content) factors and predicts that these factors have different effects on job motivation and satisfaction.
Answer D is correct: According to Herzberg, only motivator factors increase motivation and satisfaction, and motivator factors include opportunities for responsibility, autonomy, advancement, recognition, and achievement.
The correct answer is: all employees be given more individual responsibility and autonomy.
Research on goal-setting theory has found that, when workers participate in setting their own performance goals, the goals tend to be __________ goals set by the supervisor alone.
Select one:
a. easier than
b. similar to
c. more difficult than
d. qualitatively different from
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the predictions of goal-setting theory that are described in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
Answer C is correct: Contrary to what might be expected, workers tend to set more difficult goals for themselves than their supervisors would set for them.
The correct answer is: more difficult than
According to Fiedler’s contingency model, low-LPC leaders perform most effectively in:
Select one:
a. unfavorable situations.
b. moderately favorable situations.
c. highly unfavorable situations only.
d. highly unfavorable or highly favorable situations.
Fiedler’s contingency model distinguises between two type of leaders – low-LPC and high-LPC.
Answer D is correct: According to Fiedler, low-LPC (task-oriented) leaders are most effective in extreme situations – i.e., in situations that are either very favorable or very unfavorable. In contrast, high-LPC (person-oriented) leaders are most effective in moderately favorable situations. Additional information on Fiedler’s model is provided in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
The correct answer is: highly unfavorable or highly favorable situations.
According to Herbert Simon, decision-making in organizations is often affected by:
Select one:
a. bounded rationality.
b. groupthink.
c. idiosyncrasy.
d. social loafing.
Simon (1979) distinguished between two types of individual decision-making – rational-economic and bounded rationality. Knowing the names of these types would have enabled you to identify the correct answer to this question.
Answer A is correct: According to Simon, decision-makers are sometimes less than totally rational due to limitations related to abilities, time, and resources. He referred to this type of decision-making as bounded rationality.
The correct answer is: bounded rationality.
A transformational leader is most likely to use which of the following to motivate employees?
Select one:
a. monetary rewards
b. brainstorming
c. framing
d. norming
Transformational leaders are able to recognize the need for change, create a vision that guides that change, and accomplish the change effectively.
Answer C is correct: Transformational leaders use framing to motivate employees, which involves describing an organization’s goals and activities in ways that make them meaningful to employees.
The correct answer is: framing
Groupthink is least likely to occur when:
Select one:
a. dissent among group members is encouraged.
b. groups are highly cohesive.
c. group members are allowed to determine group goals.
d. the group leader is highly directive.
Groupthink refers to the suspension of critical thinking that may occur in highly cohesive groups.
Answer A is correct: Groupthink is most likely to occur when the group leader is directive and the group is highly cohesive. One way to alleviate groupthink is to appoint one or more members of the group to act as “devil’s advocate” (i.e., to encourage dissent).
The correct answer is: dissent among group members is encouraged.
Hersey and Blanchard’s situational leadership model proposes that the most effective leadership style:
Select one:
a. depends on the favorableness of the situation.
b. depends on the maturity of the worker.
c. is one that allows workers to participate in all levels of decision-making.
d. is one that focuses on helping workers achieve their own personal goals by achieving organizational goals.
Hersey and Blanchard’s (1974) situational leadership model identifies four different leadership styles and proposes that the optimal one depends on certain characteristics of the worker.
Answer B is correct: According to Hersey and Blanchard, the most effective leader is one who matches his or her style to the worker’s job maturity, which is determined by the worker’s motivation and ability.
Answer A is incorrect: Fiedler’s contingency theory links the optimal leadership style to the favorableness of the situation.
Answer C is incorrect: According to this model, participation in decision-making is effective only for workers who have low motivation but high levels of ability.
Answer D is incorrect: A style that focuses on helping workers achieve their own goals by achieving organizational goals is identified as an effective approach by path-goal theory.
The correct answer is: depends on the maturity of the worker.
Heterogeneity of team members is:
Select one:
a. best when the task is simple.
b. associated with greater creativity and better decision-making.
c. associated with reduced quality and quantity of productivity on various types of tasks.
d. effective only when the task is additive.
Research on the impact of team heterogeneity has provided mixed results and its effects seem to be related to several factors.
Answer B is correct: Although group heterogeneity can create problems (e.g., lower cohesiveness), it has also been found to be associated with increased creativity and better decision-making.
Answer A is incorrect: Homogeneity of team members seems to be better than heterogeneity for simple tasks.
Answer C is incorrect: See explanation for Answer B.
Answer D is incorrect: See explanation for Answer B.
The correct answer is: associated with greater creativity and better decision-making.
If you are using a decision tree to determine which leadership style to adopt (e.g., autocratic, consultative, or group), you are relying on the work of:
Select one:
a. Vroom, Yetton, and Jago.
b. Hersey and Blanchard.
c. House.
d. Fiedler.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the leadership models associated with all of the individuals listed in the answers to this question. These are described in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
Answer A is correct: The Vroom-Yetton-Jago normative model provides leaders with a decision tree that helps them choose the best leadership style for the situation.
Answer B is incorrect: Hersey and Blanchard’s situational leadership model does not provide a decision tree.
Answer C is incorrect: House’s path-goal theory does not provide a decision tree.
Answer D is incorrect: Fiedler’s contingency model does not provide a decision tree.
The correct answer is: Vroom, Yetton, and Jago.
Social loafing is most likely to occur when:
Select one:
a. the group is small and the task is additive.
b. the group is large and the task is compensatory.
c. the group is large and the task is additive.
d. the group is small and the task is disjunctive.
Social loafing occurs when a person exerts less effort as a group member than he or she would have exerted if working alone.
Answer C is correct: Social loafing is most likely to occur when the group is large and the task is additive, probably because this situation allows the person to conceal his or her actual contribution to the group.
The correct answer is: the group is large and the task is additive.
To gain “idiosyncrasy credits,” you would:
Select one:
a. create and communicate a vision for organizational change.
b. acquire skills beyond those needed to perform your job.
c. consistently conform to group norms.
d. help subordinates link personal goals to organizational goals.
For the exam, you want to have idiosyncrasy credits linked to conformity to group norms.
Answer C is correct: Idiosyncrasy credits allow a group member to occasionally deviate from group norms. Methods for accumulating idiosyncrasy credits include having a history of conforming to group norms, being the group leader, and making outstanding contributions to the group.
The correct answer is: consistently conform to group norms.
Social loafing is most likely to occur when:
Select one:
a. rewards are distributed on the basis of individual contributions to the group.
b. the group’s goals are ambiguous rather than specific.
c. the group is highly cohesive.
d. the group is very large
Social loafing occurs when a worker puts forth less effort as a team member than he or she would have put forth working alone.
Answer D is correct: A person is most likely to “loaf” when the group is large, which makes his or her individual contribution to the group less obvious. Additional information on social loafing is provided in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials.a
Answer A is incorrect: Providing individual rewards actually reduces social loafing.
Answer B is incorrect: See explanation for Answer D.
Answer C is incorrect: See explanation for Answer D.
The correct answer is: the group is very large
When hired to settle a dispute between members of an organization, a mediator:
Select one:
a. cannot offer specific solutions to the problem.
b. has the authority to impose a solution to the problem.
c. helps disputants identify alternative solutions to the problem.
d. offers several alternative solutions that disputants must choose from.
Mediation is one of several methods for resolving conflict in an organization and involves having a neutral third party use various strategies to facilitate voluntary agreement between the disputants.
Answer C is correct: Although a mediator can offer alternative solutions to the problem, he or she has no formal power and cannot impose a solution on the disputants.
The correct answer is: helps disputants identify alternative solutions to the problem.
The establishment of comparable worth depends on the use of:
A. A valid needs analysis procedure
B. A neutral job evaluation procedure
C. An unbiased job analysis procedure
D. An unbiased personnel selection procedure
Correct Answer: B
A. A valid needs analysis procedure (this is about training)
B. A neutral job evaluation procedure (eVALUation)
C. An unbiased job analysis procedure
D. An unbiased personnel selection procedure (hiring)
The incorporation of critical incidents into the Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scale (BARS):
A. Facilitates obtaining the information a supervisor needs to provide useful performance feedback to employees
B. Reduces rater biases by requiring a supervisor to compare employees who are doing the same job on critical dimensions of performance
C. Facilitates the rating process by allowing the supervisor to compare an employee’s performance to a predefined “ideal” standard of performance
D. Reduces the usefulness of performance ratings by focusing only on ineffective or unsuccessful behaviours
Correct Answer: A. [ex., being a self-starter.]
B. BARS is an absolute measure. This is not a comparison to other people.
C. The BARS is not used to have an ideal standard of performance.
D. This is critical-incident technique.
The primary function of a realistic job preview is to:
A. Increase the number of applicants for a job.
B. Maximise the reliability of job selection procedures
C. Reduce on the job conflicts between supervisor and employees
D. Reduce employee dissatisfaction and turnover
Correct Answer: D
When was she was hired by her company, PP was told that she’s be receiving raises and bonuses as long as her work continue to be satisfacotry. Two years later, the promises made to PP have not been fulfilled even though she has received good performance reviews from her supervisor. According to expectancy theroy, which of the following of PP’s beliefs will be most negatively
Affecte by this situation
a. valence
b. self-efficacy
c. expectancy
d. instrumentality
Correct Answer: D
Fiedler’s theory of leadership predicts that a task-oriented leader is most effective when:
A. The situation is very favourable
B. The situation is very unfavourable
C. The situation is moderately favorable
D. The situation is either very favorable or very unfavourable.
Correct answer: D
The team leader tells Bowler A to “do his best” and Bowler B to try to break her previous records by six points. At the end of the game, Bowler A has a score of 158, which is four points lower than his previous record, and Bowler B has a score of 180, which is severn points higher than her previous record. This outcome is predicted by which the following theories?
A. Path-goal theory
B. Goal setting theory
C. ERG theory
D. Expectancy theory
Correct answer: B
According to Hersey and Blanchard’s (1974) situational leadership model, the optimal leadership style depends on which of the following?
A. The favorableness situation
B. The complexity and difficulty level of the task
C. The ability and motivation of employees
D. The expertise and preferences of the leader
Correct answer: C
A. Fiedler
B. Communication Network (central vs. decentralised)
C. Correct
D. Distractor Answer
A transformational leader uses “framing” to:
A. Make organizational goals more meaningful to employees
B. Ensure that workers are adequately rewarded for good performance
C. Make sure new employees receive adequate training
D. Ensure that employee performance evaluations are unbiased
Correct answer: A
In the 1950’s, researchers at Ohio State University developed an influential theory of leadership that focused on a leader’s:
A. Personality traits
B. Behaviours
C. Attitudes toward subordinates
D. Power
Correct answer: B
1950’s all about behaviours.
According to H.A. Simon, rational-economic decision-making often fails in organizations as a result of:
A. People’s basic irrationality
B. A lack of time and information
C. A lack of acceptable alternative to choose from
D. A lack of commitment to the organization’s goals.
Correct answer: B
You don’t have a lot of time to find alternatives, so you’re going to go with what you DO have.
“Satisfice”
The best way to reduce the effects of groupthink on a group’s ability to make good decisions would be to:
A. Actively encourage dissidence and criticism
B. Have a group leader present his/her favoured decision at the start of the meeting
C. Increase group cohesion and interdependecne.
D. Reward group members for making “riskier” decisions
Correct answer: A
B,C, D would INCREASE groupthink.
Research suggest that social loafing is MOST likely to occur in which of the following conditions?
A. Large group with low group cohesiveness
B. Large group with high group cohesiveness
C. Small group with low group cohesiveness
D. Small group with high group cohesiveness
Correct answer: A
I don’t really identify with this group. Nobody’s going to notice if I don’t make a charitable donation.
In contact to a centralized communication network, decentralized communication networks are associated with:
A. Higher employee productivity for all types of tasks but lower employee satisfaction
B. Lower employee productivity for all types of tasks but higher employee satisfaction
C. Higher employee productivity for complex tasks and higher employee satisfaction
D. Higher employee productivity for simple or routine tasks but lower employee satisfaction
Correct answer: C
Lewin’s (1951) force-field model proposes that planned change in organizations involves which of the following stages?
A. planning, acting, and evaluating
B. envisioning, changing, and re-visioning
C. unfreezing, changing, and refreezing
D. collecting data, providing feedback, and implementing
Correct answer: C
A meta-analysis of the research by Baltes et al. (1999) found that, in terms of job outcomes, the compressed workweek has the MOST positive impact on:
A. Overall job satisfaction.
B. Health outcomes
C. Absenteeism and turnover
D. Objective measures of job performance
Correct answer: A
According to Schein (1992), organizational culture can be described in terms of three levels. The deepest level consists of basic underlying assumptions that can serve as:
Select one:
a. driving forces.
b. implicit organizational norms.
c. cognitive defense mechanisms.
d. cognitive archetypes.
As described in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials, Schein (1992) distinguished between three levels of organizational culture – observable artifacts, espoused values and beliefs, and basic underlying assumptions.
Answer C is correct: According to Schein, underlying assumptions are taken-for-granted beliefs and emotions that can act as cognitive defense mechanisms.
The correct answer is: cognitive defense mechanisms.
A process consultant initially:
Select one:
a. observes workers as they interact.
b. meets with individual disputants.
c. develops an action plan.
d. administers an employee survey.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the key characteristics of several approaches to organizational change including process consultation. These approaches are described in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
Answer A is correct: As its name implies, process consultation involves looking at “processes” – i.e., at interactions between workers.
The correct answer is: observes workers as they interact.
A process consultant is most likely to focus on which of the following?
Select one:
a. communication, decision-making, and conflict
b. technological change
c. selection and other employment procedures
d. worker motivation and satisfaction
Process consultation is a type of OD intervention that focuses on helping members of a work group understand the processes (behaviors) that are undermining their interactions with one another.
Answer A is correct: Process consultants observe group members in action and help them identify and rectify problems related to communication patterns, decision-making, conflict resolutions, etc.
The correct answer is: communication, decision-making, and conflict
__________ assessments are used when organizational development is desired, and _________ assessments collect individual data.
Select one:
a. Self; personnel
b. Personnel; self
c. Goal; self
d. Process; personnel
Answer A is correct: Self-assessments are utilized to direct organizational development, and are most effective when stakeholders are involved. Personnel assessments collect individual data, which may include records, biographical data, test results, and work samples.
The correct answer is: Self; personnel
Having employees meet in groups to discuss alternative ways of accomplishing change is an example of which of the following strategies?
Select one:
a. power-coercive
b. rational-empirical
c. normative-reeducative
d. team-thrashabout
Chin and Benne (1976) identified three strategies for overcoming resistance to change.
Answer C is correct: As its name implies, the normative-reeducative strategy is based on the assumption that peer pressure and sociocultural norms are potent forces of change.
Answer A is incorrect: The power-coercive strategy involves using power and legitimate authority to overcome resistance to change.
Answer B is incorrect: The rational-empirical strategy relies on providing employees with necessary information.
Answer D is incorrect: “Team-thrashabout” is not one of the three strategies identified by Chin and Benne.
The correct answer is: normative-reeducative
Which of the following will have the greatest impact on employees’ perceptions of interactional justice at work?
Select one:
a. Employees receive the organizational outcomes they believe they deserve.
b. Employees participate in decisions related to organizational outcomes.
c. Employees are treated with respect and consideration by supervisors.
d. Employees are allowed to evaluate each others’ performance.
Three types of organizational justice are described in the literature – procedural, distributive, and interactional.
Answer C is correct: Interactional justice refers to how people feel about the quality and content of person-to-person interactions, including interactions with supervisors.
Answer A is incorrect: Receiving deserved organizational outcomes would contribute to a positive sense of distributive justice.
Answer B is incorrect: Participating in decisions related to outcomes may contribute to a positive sense of procedural and distributive justice.
Answer D is incorrect: Evaluating each other’s performance may have an effect on perceptions of procedural justice.
The correct answer is: Employees are treated with respect and consideration by supervisors.
A psychologist conducting research on the effects of the graveyard shift is most likely to find that adverse consequences are lowest among workers who:
Select one:
a. are unmarried and living alone.
b. are unhappily married.
c. work the graveyard shift for only two out of every three weeks.
d. voluntarily choose to work the graveyard shift.
Companies that operate 24 hours a day ordinarily divide the day into three shifts – regular, swing, and graveyard. For the exam, you want to be familiar with the consequences associated with these shifts that are described in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
Answer D is correct: The research has found that the negative outcomes associated with the graveyard shift are usually alleviated when the worker has voluntarily chosen that shift.
The correct answer is: voluntarily choose to work the graveyard shift.
Feelings of low personal accomplishment, cynicism, and emotional, physical, and mental exhaustion are symptoms of:
Select one:
a. work-family conflict.
b. low organizational commitment.
c. job burnout.
d. overtraining.
The symptoms described in this question are characteristic of job burnout.
Answer C is correct: Job burnout is caused by accumulated stress associated with overwork. Although its symptoms vary from person to person, most people experience the combination of symptoms listed in this question.
The correct answer is: job burnout.
In their meta-analysis of the research, Baltes et al. (1999) found that the compressed workweek is most associated with which of the following?
Select one:
a. improved employee attitudes
b. improved job performance
c. increased tardiness
d. increased organizational commitment
The compressed workweek decreases the number of days worked in a given week by increasing the number of hours worked per day.
Answer A is correct: Baltes et al. found that the compressed workweek has the greatest impact on employee attitudes and is associated with improved overall job satisfaction and satisfaction with the work schedule.
The correct answer is: improved employee attitudes
Research by Duxbury and Higgins (1991) on work-family conflict found that:
Select one:
a. men and women experience more conflicts due to work (versus family) expectations.
b. men and women experience more conflicts due to family (versus work) expectations.
c. men experience more conlicts due to work expectations, while women experience more conflicts due to family expectations.
d. men experience more conflicts due to family expectations, while women experience more conflicts due to work expectations.
Work-family conflict occurs when career and family role demands are incompatible.
Answer C is correct: Duxbury and Higgins (1991) found that work-family conflict is more stressful for women and that women experience more conflicts as the result of family expectations while men experience more conflicts as the result of work expectations.
The correct answer is: men experience more conlicts due to work expectations, while women experience more conflicts due to family expectations.
Which of the following individuals is at highest risk for a stress-related illness?
Select one:
a. the company vice president
b. a file clerk who does the filing for several departments
c. an assembly-line worker whose work is machine-paced
d. an administrative assistant who has two bosses
Not surprisingly, the research has found that some jobs are consistently associated with higher levels of stress than other jobs are.
Answer C is correct: The research has found that a lack of control over the pace of one’s work is one of the greatest contributors to job-related stress.
The correct answer is: an assembly-line worker whose work is machine-paced
