I/O Psychology - Domain Quiz

Question 1

A ______ is used in organizations to implement comparable worth.

a. job analysis
b. job evaluation
c. needs assessment
d. performance appraisal

Answer 1

Correct answer: B

Question 2

The major disadvantage of a Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scale is that it:

a. is highly susceptible to rater biases.
b. lacks adequate face validity
c. requires substantial time and effort to develop.
d. doesn’t provide adequate information for employee feedback.

Answer 2

Correct answer: C

A. It is NOT susceptible to rater bias.
B. An items measures what it looks like it’s supposed to be measuring. BARS has good face validity.
C. BARS development is a multi-step process.
D. It DOES provide employees specific information about their strengths and weaknesses.

Question 3

A supervisor’s ratings are affected by a “halo bias.” This means that the supervisor rates:
Select one:

a. all employees identical to the way she rates the first employee.
b. all employees on the basis of their physical attractiveness.
c. each employee the same on all dimensions of job performance.
d. each employee very high on all dimensions of job performance.

Answer 3

The halo bias is is one of several rater biases you want to be familiar with for the exam. These biases are described in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials.

Answer C is correct: The halo bias (effect) occurs when a rater’s rating of an individual on one dimension of performance influences how he or she rates the individual on other unrelated dimensions.

Answer A is incorrect: See explanation for Answer C.

Answer B is incorrect: Although physical attractiveness could be the characteristic that creates a halo bias, it’s not the only characteristic that could do so. Therefore, this is not the best answer.

Answer D is incorrect: See explanation for Answer C.

The correct answer is: each employee the same on all dimensions of job performance.

Question 4

“Criterion contamination” is a concern when:
Select one:

a. items on the measure of performance are dichotomously scored.
b. the performance measure will be scored by more than one rater.
c. rating categories are not mutually exclusive.
d. the measure of performance is subjectively scored.

Answer 4

Criterion contamination occurs when a rater’s knowledge of a ratee’s performance on a predictor biases his or her ratings of the ratee on the criterion.

Answer D is correct: Subjectively scored criterion measures are susceptible to biases, including criterion contamination. When criterion contamination occurs, the criterion may not be providing accurate information.

The correct answer is: the measure of performance is subjectively scored.

Question 5

Frame-of-reference training is used to:
Select one:

a. improve the ability of raters to assign accurate performance ratings to employees.
b. improve the ability of employers to make accurate selection decisions.
c. help employers make decisions about comparable worth.
d. help managers adapt their leadership style to the demands of the situation.

Answer 5

For the exam, you want to be familiar with the methods used to improve rater accuracy that are described in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials.

Answer A is correct: Frame-of-reference (FOR) training is a type of rater training that is used to increase rater accuracy by helping raters recognize what constitutes effective and ineffective job performance.

The correct answer is: improve the ability of raters to assign accurate performance ratings to employees.

Question 6

In the context of performance assessment, “critical incidents” are best described as:
Select one:

a. factors that contribute to rater biases.
b. behaviors that increase the risk for accidents and or or errors.
c. behaviors that clearly contribute to successful and unsuccessful job performance.
d. compensatory factors that are used to establish wages and salaries.

Answer 6

Critical incidents are descriptions of specific behaviors that are associated with good and poor job performance. The use of critical incidents in performance appraisals helps decrease rater biases.

Answer C is correct: As noted above, critical incidents are descriptions of specific job behaviors that define successful and unsuccessful job performance. When used in performance appraisal instruments, critical incidents are the “anchors” in a graphic rating scale or the statements included in a checklist.

Answer A is incorrect: See explanation for Answer C.

Answer B is incorrect: See explanation for Answer C.

Answer D is incorrect: The compensatory factors identified during the course of a job evaluation may include critical incidents but are not limited to them.

The correct answer is: behaviors that clearly contribute to successful and unsuccessful job performance.

Question 7

When using the Critical Incident Technique, critical incidents are ordinarily identified by:
Select one:

a. the supervisor who observes an employee while he or she works.
b. an employee who maintains a detailed job diary.
c. a job analyst who administers a structured interview to supervisors.
d. a supervisor who temporarily performs the job him or herself.

Answer 7

The Critical Incident Technique (CIT) is a method of performance appraisal.

Answer A is correct: As originally described, the CIT involves having the supervisor observe an employee and record specific behaviors associated with effective and ineffective job performance. These behaviors (critical incidents) are then compiled into a checklist that is used to evaluate the performance of employees performing the same job.

The correct answer is: the supervisor who observes an employee while he or she works.

Question 8

A realistic job preview is most important for:
Select one:

a. retaining employees.
b. maximizing transfer of training.
c. attracting talented job applicants.
d. reducing selection biases.

Answer 8

A realistic job preview involves providing job applicants with accurate information about the job and the organization.

Answer A is correct: Research on realistic job previews has confirmed that they help reduce turnover which, in turn, reduces costs related to selection and training.

The correct answer is: retaining employee

Question 9

Meta-analyses conducted in the past 10 to 20 years suggest that, across jobs and organizations, the best predictor of job performance is:
Select one:

a. biodata.
b. general mental ability tests.
c. interest tests.
d. structured interviews.

Answer 9

For the exam, you want to be familiar with the characteristics of the predictors listed in the answers to this question.

Answer B is correct: Although the research is far from consistent, the meta-analyses of the research suggest that general mental (cognitive) ability tests outperform most other predictors across jobs and organizations.

The correct answer is: general mental ability tests.

Question 10

Of the “Big Five” personality traits, which has been found to be most predictive of job performance across different jobs and job settings?
Select one:

a. openness to experience
b. emotional stability
c. agreeableness
d. conscientiousness

Answer 10

The “Big Five” personality traits are neuroticism, extraversion, openness to experience, agreeableness, and conscientiousness.

Answer D is correct: Of the Big Five personality traits, conscientiousness has been found to be most predictive of performance across different jobs, job settings, and criterion measures.

The correct answer is: conscientiousness

Question 11

One disadvantage of empirically derived Biographical Information Blanks (BIBs) is they may contain items that:
Select one:

a. lack face validity.
b. contribute to differential validity.
c. are difficult to administer and score.
d. are useful for skilled and semi-skilled jobs only.

Answer 11

BIBs are a type of empirically derived biodata form that consists of multiple-choice items that address information that has been linked to job performance.

Answer A is correct: A disadvantage of BIBs and other empirically derived forms is that their items often lack face validity – i.e., even though they address information that has been linked to job performance, they may not “look like” they are clearly linked to performance. As a result, applicants may feel that the form is asking for irrelevant information and that their privacy is being invaded.

Answer B is incorrect: BIBs have not been found to have differential validity (different validity coefficients for members of different groups).

Answer C is incorrect: Because BIBs contain multiple-choice items, they are easy to administer and score.

Answer D is incorrect: BIBs can be developed for many different types of jobs.

The correct answer is: lack face validity.

Question 12

The HR director where you work is reluctant to use the selection test you’ve developed because its validity coefficient is only .35. Your best argument for using this test is that:
Select one:

a. the selection ratio is 1:10.
b. the selection ratio is 1:50.
c. the base rate is .20.
d. the base rate is .95.

Answer 12

As discussed in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter, a predictor’s incremental validity (decision-making accuracy) is affected by its validity coefficient, the selection ratio, and the base rate.

Answer B is correct: A predictor with a low validity coefficient can improve decision-making accuracy when the selection ratio is low (e.g., 1:50) and the base rate is moderate (around .50).

The correct answer is: the selection ratio is 1:50.

Question 13

Use of a selection test produces a hiring rate of 55% for applicants from racial or ethnic minority groups and a hiring rate of 75% for applicants from the majority group. Based on these figures, you can use the 80% rule to determine which of the following?
Select one:

a. whether the test has differential validity
b. whether the test is producing too many false negatives
c. whether race or ethnicity is a “business necessity”
d. whether the test is having an adverse impact

Answer 13

The 80% rule is described in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials and, for the exam, you want to know what it is and how to use it.

Answer D is correct: The 80% rule is used to determine if use of a selection test or other employment procedure results in discrimination against members of a minority group (i.e., whether it is having an adverse impact).

The correct answer is: whether the test is having an adverse impact

Question 14

Which of the following techniques would be most useful for combining test scores when superior performance on one test can compensate for poor performance on another test?
Select one:

a. multiple cutoff
b. multiple regression
c. multiple hurdle
d. multidimensional scaling

Answer 14

For the exam, you want to be familiar with the three methods for using scores on multiple predictors – i.e., multiple cutoff, multiple regression, and multiple hurdle. Additional information about these methods is provided in Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials.

Answer B is correct: Multiple regression is a compensatory technique for combining test scores. When using this technique, a low score on one test can be offset (compensated for) by a high score on another tests.

Answer A is incorrect: Multiple cutoff is a noncompensatory technique.

Answer C is incorrect: Multiple hurdle is also a noncompensatory technique.

Answer D is incorrect: Multidimensional scaling is similar to factor analysis and is used to identify the similarities and differences underlying a set of variables.

The correct answer is: multiple regression

Question 15

An organizational psychologist will most likely apply the concept of “identical elements” originally proposed by Thorndike and Woodworth (1901) to which of the following?
Select one:

a. job redesign
b. employee selection
c. criterion development
d. employee training

Answer 15

According to Thorndike and Woodworth (1901), transfer of training is maximized when there are identical elements (similarities) in the learning and performance settings.

Answer D is correct: Research on Thorndike and Woodworth’s theory has supported the importance of providing identical elements for transfer of training. (Note that knowing that Thorndike conducted research in the area of learning may have helped you choose the correct response to this question even if you were unfamiliar with the notion of identical elements.)

The correct answer is: employee training

Question 16

A psychologist relying on Bandura’s social learning theory would most likely recommend which of the following training approaches?
Select one:

a. train-then-place
b. programmed instruction
c. job rotation
d. behavioral modeling

Answer 16

Knowing that Bandura’s social learning theory emphasizes observational learning would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.

Answer D is correct: Bandura proposed that people learn by watching others and, consequently, would agree that behavioral modeling is a useful training strategy.

The correct answer is: behavioral modeling

Question 17

As an organizational psychologist, you would conduct a needs analysis in order to:
Select one:

a. evaluate the organizational outcomes of a training program.
b. determine if employee training would resolve a company’s production problems.
c. determine if an employment procedure is having an adverse impact.
d. compare the incremental validity of two or more selection procedures.

Answer 17

A needs analysis (assessment) is conducted in organizations to identify training needs.

Answer B is correct: An initial goal of a needs analysis is to determine whether or not production problems are actually due to deficiencies on the part of workers and, therefore, whether or not training would be an effective solution to those problems.

The correct answer is: determine if employee training would resolve a company’s production problems.

Question 18

In an organization, a formative evaluation is conducted:
Select one:

a. prior to developing a training program to determine what it should include.
b. during the development of a training program to identify ways to improve it.
c. to evaluate the outcomes of an existing training program on employees’ job performance.
d. to determine whether a training program has had a substantial impact on organizational goals.

Answer 18

In the evaluation literature, a distinction is made between formative and summative evaluation.

Answer B is correct: As its name suggests, a formative evaluation is conducted while a training program or other intervention is being “formed” (developed) and is used to determine if it needs to be modified in order to meet its goals.

Answer A is incorrect: This sounds more like a needs analysis.

Answer C is incorrect: A summative evaluation is conducted after a program or intervention has been developed and delivered to evaluate its effectiveness.

Answer D is incorrect: This might be part of a summative evaluation.

The correct answer is: during the development of a training program to identify ways to improve it.

Question 19

Vestibule training is:
Select one:

a. useful when errors that might occur during on-the-job training would be too costly or dangerous.
b. useful for training newly hired employees who lack basic educational skills.
c. useful for determining which job best fits a job applicant’s abilities.
d. useful when employees are being considered for promotion into managerial-level positions.

Answer 19

Vestibule training is one of several specific types of training that you’re likely to be asked about on the licensing exam.

Answer A is correct: Vestibule training is an off-the-job technique that uses a physical simulation of the job environment and equipment and is useful when on-the-job training would be too costly or dangerous.

The correct answer is: useful when errors that might occur during on-the-job training would be too costly or dangerous.

Question 20

According to Dawis and Lofquist’s (1984) Theory of Work Adjustment, job satisfaction depends most on which of the following?
Select one:

a. the match between the worker’s self-concept and the roles and responsibilities required by the job.
b. the match between the worker’s stage of career development and the demands of the job.
c. the degree to which the characteristics of the job correspond to the worker’s needs and values.
d. the degree to which the supervisor matches his or her leadership style to the worker’s job maturity.

Answer 20

Dawis and Lofquist’s (1984) Theory of Work Adjustment is a person-environment fit theory of career development that provides a model for conceptualizing the interactions between a worker and his or her job.

Answer C is correct: According to this theory, a worker’s satisfaction is one of the factors that contribute to job tenure and other job outcomes, and it depends on the degree to which the job fulfills or matches the worker’s needs and values.

The correct answer is: the degree to which the characteristics of the job correspond to the worker’s needs and values.

Question 21

According to Donald Super, job satisfaction, stability, and success depend on the extent to which a job matches the individual’s:
Select one:

a. need structure.
b. knowledge and skills.
c. career concept.
d. self-concept.

Answer 21

For the exam, you want to be familiar with the key assumptions and predictions of Super’s theory, which are described in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials.

Answer D is correct: Super identified the self-concept as being the result of inherited aptitudes, physical makeup, and social learning experiences and proposed that job satisfaction, stability, and success depend on the extent to which the job matches the individual’s self-concept.

The correct answer is: self-concept.

Question 22

According to Holland’s RIASEC model, the social personality type is most dissimilar to which of the following types?
Select one:

a. conventional
b. reflective
c. realistic
d. enterprising

Answer 22

Holland’s RIASEC model distinguishes between six vocational personality types, and his hexagon depicts the relationship between the six types: Types that are located next to each other in the hexagon are most similar in terms of characteristics, while those opposite one another are most dissimilar.

Answer C is correct: The relationship between the six types (and their position in the hexagon) is indicated by the acronym RIASEC - realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, and conventional. The social type is opposite the realistic type in the hexagon, which indicates that it is most dissimilar to that type.

Answer A is incorrect: The conventional type is closer (and more similar) to the social type than is the realistic type.

Answer B is incorrect: Reflective is not one of the vocational personality types identified by Holland.

Answer D is incorrect: The enterprising type is adjacent to the social type in the hexagon, which indicates that the two types share some characteristics.

The correct answer is: realistic

Question 23

According to Holland, the optimal situation is for the job environment to match the person’s:
Select one:

a. stated (explicit) goals.
b. aptitude.
c. personality.
d. career concept.

Answer 23

Holland is a “popular” topic on the licensing exam and you’ll want to be familiar with the information on Holland’s career model presented in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials.

Answer C is correct: According to Holland, job satisfaction and productivity are best when the characteristics of the job match the individual’s personality.

The correct answer is: personality.

Question 24

Tiedeman and O’Hara’s approach to career development:
Select one:

a. emphasizes the importance of a good personality or work environment match.
b. views career development as an aspect of ego identity development.
c. links career outcomes to Maslow’s need hierarchy theory.
d. uses the Life Career Rainbow to depict the interaction between life roles and life stages.

Answer 24

Tiedeman and O’Hara’s theory is one of the career development theories that you’re likely to encounter on the licensing exam.

Answer B is correct: Tiedeman and O’Hara link career identity development to Erikson’s stages of ego identity (personality) development.

Answer A is incorrect: Personality or work environment match is a key concept in Holland’s theory.

Answer C is incorrect: Tiedeman and O’Hara do not link career outcomes to Maslow’s theory.

Answer D is incorrect: Super uses the Life Career Rainbow to depict the interaction between life roles and life stages.

The correct answer is: views career development as an aspect of ego identity development.

Question 25

A colleague tells you that she is designing a study to determine the correlates of job satisfaction. Based on your knowledge of the existing research on this issue, you tell her that job satisfaction has the strongest correlation with: Select one: a. productivity. b. turnover. c. absenteeism. d. motivation.

Answer 25

For the exam, you want to be familiar with the outcomes associated with job satisfaction that are described in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials. Answer B is correct: The research has found that the largest correlation is for job satisfaction and turnover, with the average reported coefficient being -.40. In contrast, the average reported correlation between job satisfaction and performance is only .14. The correct answer is: turnover.

Question 26

A manager with a "Theory X" management philosophy would be most likely to say that her role as a manager: Select one: a. is to help employees identify and achieve their common goals and objectives. b. is to direct and control employees in order to achieve organizational goals. c. varies, depending on factors related to the organizational climate. d. varies, depending on the likelihood that employees will resist changes in policies and procedures.

Answer 26

For the exam, you want to be familiar with the distinction between McGregor's Theory X and Theory Y managers. Answer B is correct: As defined by McGregor, a Theory X manager believes that employees don't like to work and, therefore, must be closely supervised and provided with incentives for good performance. Additional information on Theory X and Theory Y managers is provided in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials. The correct answer is: is to direct and control employees in order to achieve organizational goals.

Question 27

For an advocate of expectancy theory, "instrumentality" refers to: Select one: a. the relationship between effort and performance. b. the desirability of outcomes. c. the relationship between performance and outcomes. d. social norms related to performance.

Answer 27

Expectancy theory links worker motivation to three factors -- expectancy, instrumentality, and valence. Answer C is correct: Instrumentality refers to the belief that successful performance will lead to positive outcomes (rewards). Answer A is incorrect: Expectancy refers to the relationship between effort and performance. Answer B is incorrect: Valence refers to the desirability of outcomes (rewards). Answer D is incorrect: Instrumentality does not refer to social norms related to performance. The correct answer is: the relationship between performance and outcomes.

Question 28

From the perspective of Herzberg's two-factor theory, the relationship between pay and motivation is best described by which of the following? Select one: a. Pay acts as a motivator only after safety needs have been met. b. Pay acts as a motivator only when intrinsic motivation is low. c. Pay acts as a motivator only for jobs that cannot be "enriched." d. Pay does not act as a motivator.

Answer 28

Herzberg's two-factor theory proposes that all people have two basic needs - hygiene needs and motivator needs. Additional information on two-factor theory (including a description of hygiene and motivator factors) is provided in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials. Answer D is correct: Herzberg's two-factor theory identifies pay as a hygiene factor. Like other hygiene factors, pay leads to dissatisfaction when it is perceived to be inadequate but produces a state of neutrality when it is adequate. To increase motivation (and satisfaction), motivator factors must be provided by the job. Answer A is incorrect: This isn't consistent with Herzberg"s theory. Answer B is incorrect: This isn't consistent with Herzberg's theory. Answer C is incorrect: Herzberg proposed that providing employees with "enriched" jobs (jobs that provide opportunities to satisfy motivator needs) is the best way to increase satisfaction and motivation. The correct answer is: Pay does not act as a motivator.

Question 29

Locke's goal-setting theory makes which of the following predictions about production goals? Select one: a. General goals produce higher levels of performance than specific goals. b. Participation in goal-setting is critical for all employees. c. Moderately difficult goals produce higher levels of performance than very difficult goals. d. Assigned goals are always less effective than self-set goals.

Answer 29

Goal-setting theory predicts that employees are motived to achieve production goals when they have consciously accepted them and when certain other conditions are met. Answer C is correct: Moderately difficult goals (i.e., those with about a 50% chance of being accomplished) produce the highest levels of performance. Answer A is incorrect: Specific goals produce higher levels of performance than general goals. Answer B is incorrect: Participation in goal-setting theory is not always necessary although it may be effective when employees are resistant to accepting assigned goals. Answer D is incorrect: Assigned goals are actually preferred by some workers (e.g., those with a low need for achievement). The correct answer is: Moderately difficult goals produce higher levels of performance than very difficult goals.

Question 30

Many of the employees working on the assembly line at a large auto manufacturing plant have very low levels of job motivation and satisfaction. Their new supervisor, who is familiar with Herzberg's work, is most likely to recommend that: Select one: a. each employee's prepotent needs be identified. b. each employee's level of "job maturity" be identified. c. all employees be given bonuses that are clearly linked to job performance. d. all employees be given more individual responsibility and autonomy.

Answer 30

Herzberg's two-factor theory distinguishes between hygiene (job context) factors and motivator (job content) factors and predicts that these factors have different effects on job motivation and satisfaction. Answer D is correct: According to Herzberg, only motivator factors increase motivation and satisfaction, and motivator factors include opportunities for responsibility, autonomy, advancement, recognition, and achievement. The correct answer is: all employees be given more individual responsibility and autonomy.

Question 31

Research on goal-setting theory has found that, when workers participate in setting their own performance goals, the goals tend to be __________ goals set by the supervisor alone. Select one: a. easier than b. similar to c. more difficult than d. qualitatively different from

Answer 31

For the exam, you want to be familiar with the predictions of goal-setting theory that are described in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials. Answer C is correct: Contrary to what might be expected, workers tend to set more difficult goals for themselves than their supervisors would set for them. The correct answer is: more difficult than

Question 32

According to Fiedler's contingency model, low-LPC leaders perform most effectively in: Select one: a. unfavorable situations. b. moderately favorable situations. c. highly unfavorable situations only. d. highly unfavorable or highly favorable situations.

Answer 32

Fiedler's contingency model distinguises between two type of leaders -- low-LPC and high-LPC. Answer D is correct: According to Fiedler, low-LPC (task-oriented) leaders are most effective in extreme situations -- i.e., in situations that are either very favorable or very unfavorable. In contrast, high-LPC (person-oriented) leaders are most effective in moderately favorable situations. Additional information on Fiedler's model is provided in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials. The correct answer is: highly unfavorable or highly favorable situations.

Question 33

According to Herbert Simon, decision-making in organizations is often affected by: Select one: a. bounded rationality. b. groupthink. c. idiosyncrasy. d. social loafing.

Answer 33

Simon (1979) distinguished between two types of individual decision-making -- rational-economic and bounded rationality. Knowing the names of these types would have enabled you to identify the correct answer to this question. Answer A is correct: According to Simon, decision-makers are sometimes less than totally rational due to limitations related to abilities, time, and resources. He referred to this type of decision-making as bounded rationality. The correct answer is: bounded rationality.

Question 34

A transformational leader is most likely to use which of the following to motivate employees? Select one: a. monetary rewards b. brainstorming c. framing d. norming

Answer 34

Transformational leaders are able to recognize the need for change, create a vision that guides that change, and accomplish the change effectively. Answer C is correct: Transformational leaders use framing to motivate employees, which involves describing an organization's goals and activities in ways that make them meaningful to employees. The correct answer is: framing

Question 35

Groupthink is least likely to occur when: Select one: a. dissent among group members is encouraged. b. groups are highly cohesive. c. group members are allowed to determine group goals. d. the group leader is highly directive.

Answer 35

Groupthink refers to the suspension of critical thinking that may occur in highly cohesive groups. Answer A is correct: Groupthink is most likely to occur when the group leader is directive and the group is highly cohesive. One way to alleviate groupthink is to appoint one or more members of the group to act as "devil's advocate" (i.e., to encourage dissent). The correct answer is: dissent among group members is encouraged.

Question 36

Hersey and Blanchard's situational leadership model proposes that the most effective leadership style: Select one: a. depends on the favorableness of the situation. b. depends on the maturity of the worker. c. is one that allows workers to participate in all levels of decision-making. d. is one that focuses on helping workers achieve their own personal goals by achieving organizational goals.

Answer 36

Hersey and Blanchard's (1974) situational leadership model identifies four different leadership styles and proposes that the optimal one depends on certain characteristics of the worker. Answer B is correct: According to Hersey and Blanchard, the most effective leader is one who matches his or her style to the worker's job maturity, which is determined by the worker's motivation and ability. Answer A is incorrect: Fiedler's contingency theory links the optimal leadership style to the favorableness of the situation. Answer C is incorrect: According to this model, participation in decision-making is effective only for workers who have low motivation but high levels of ability. Answer D is incorrect: A style that focuses on helping workers achieve their own goals by achieving organizational goals is identified as an effective approach by path-goal theory. The correct answer is: depends on the maturity of the worker.

Question 37

Heterogeneity of team members is: Select one: a. best when the task is simple. b. associated with greater creativity and better decision-making. c. associated with reduced quality and quantity of productivity on various types of tasks. d. effective only when the task is additive.

Answer 37

Research on the impact of team heterogeneity has provided mixed results and its effects seem to be related to several factors. Answer B is correct: Although group heterogeneity can create problems (e.g., lower cohesiveness), it has also been found to be associated with increased creativity and better decision-making. Answer A is incorrect: Homogeneity of team members seems to be better than heterogeneity for simple tasks. Answer C is incorrect: See explanation for Answer B. Answer D is incorrect: See explanation for Answer B. The correct answer is: associated with greater creativity and better decision-making.

Question 38

If you are using a decision tree to determine which leadership style to adopt (e.g., autocratic, consultative, or group), you are relying on the work of: Select one: a. Vroom, Yetton, and Jago. b. Hersey and Blanchard. c. House. d. Fiedler.

Answer 38

For the exam, you want to be familiar with the leadership models associated with all of the individuals listed in the answers to this question. These are described in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials. Answer A is correct: The Vroom-Yetton-Jago normative model provides leaders with a decision tree that helps them choose the best leadership style for the situation. Answer B is incorrect: Hersey and Blanchard's situational leadership model does not provide a decision tree. Answer C is incorrect: House's path-goal theory does not provide a decision tree. Answer D is incorrect: Fiedler's contingency model does not provide a decision tree. The correct answer is: Vroom, Yetton, and Jago.

Question 39

Social loafing is most likely to occur when: Select one: a. the group is small and the task is additive. b. the group is large and the task is compensatory. c. the group is large and the task is additive. d. the group is small and the task is disjunctive.

Answer 39

Social loafing occurs when a person exerts less effort as a group member than he or she would have exerted if working alone. Answer C is correct: Social loafing is most likely to occur when the group is large and the task is additive, probably because this situation allows the person to conceal his or her actual contribution to the group. The correct answer is: the group is large and the task is additive.

Question 40

To gain "idiosyncrasy credits," you would: Select one: a. create and communicate a vision for organizational change. b. acquire skills beyond those needed to perform your job. c. consistently conform to group norms. d. help subordinates link personal goals to organizational goals.

Answer 40

For the exam, you want to have idiosyncrasy credits linked to conformity to group norms. Answer C is correct: Idiosyncrasy credits allow a group member to occasionally deviate from group norms. Methods for accumulating idiosyncrasy credits include having a history of conforming to group norms, being the group leader, and making outstanding contributions to the group. The correct answer is: consistently conform to group norms.

Question 41

Social loafing is most likely to occur when: Select one: a. rewards are distributed on the basis of individual contributions to the group. b. the group's goals are ambiguous rather than specific. c. the group is highly cohesive. d. the group is very large

Answer 41

Social loafing occurs when a worker puts forth less effort as a team member than he or she would have put forth working alone. Answer D is correct: A person is most likely to "loaf" when the group is large, which makes his or her individual contribution to the group less obvious. Additional information on social loafing is provided in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials.a Answer A is incorrect: Providing individual rewards actually reduces social loafing. Answer B is incorrect: See explanation for Answer D. Answer C is incorrect: See explanation for Answer D. The correct answer is: the group is very large

Question 42

When hired to settle a dispute between members of an organization, a mediator: Select one: a. cannot offer specific solutions to the problem. b. has the authority to impose a solution to the problem. c. helps disputants identify alternative solutions to the problem. d. offers several alternative solutions that disputants must choose from.

Answer 42

Mediation is one of several methods for resolving conflict in an organization and involves having a neutral third party use various strategies to facilitate voluntary agreement between the disputants. Answer C is correct: Although a mediator can offer alternative solutions to the problem, he or she has no formal power and cannot impose a solution on the disputants. The correct answer is: helps disputants identify alternative solutions to the problem.

Question 43

The establishment of comparable worth depends on the use of: A. A valid needs analysis procedure B. A neutral job evaluation procedure C. An unbiased job analysis procedure D. An unbiased personnel selection procedure

Answer 43

Correct Answer: B A. A valid needs analysis procedure (this is about training) B. A neutral job evaluation procedure (eVALUation) C. An unbiased job analysis procedure D. An unbiased personnel selection procedure (hiring)

Question 44

The incorporation of critical incidents into the Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scale (BARS): A. Facilitates obtaining the information a supervisor needs to provide useful performance feedback to employees B. Reduces rater biases by requiring a supervisor to compare employees who are doing the same job on critical dimensions of performance C. Facilitates the rating process by allowing the supervisor to compare an employee’s performance to a predefined “ideal” standard of performance D. Reduces the usefulness of performance ratings by focusing only on ineffective or unsuccessful behaviours

Answer 44

Correct Answer: A. [ex., being a self-starter.] B. BARS is an absolute measure. This is not a comparison to other people. C. The BARS is not used to have an ideal standard of performance. D. This is critical-incident technique.

Question 45

The primary function of a realistic job preview is to: A. Increase the number of applicants for a job. B. Maximise the reliability of job selection procedures C. Reduce on the job conflicts between supervisor and employees D. Reduce employee dissatisfaction and turnover

Answer 45

Correct Answer: D

Question 46

When was she was hired by her company, PP was told that she’s be receiving raises and bonuses as long as her work continue to be satisfacotry. Two years later, the promises made to PP have not been fulfilled even though she has received good performance reviews from her supervisor. According to expectancy theroy, which of the following of PP’s beliefs will be most negatively Affecte by this situation a. valence b. self-efficacy c. expectancy d. instrumentality

Answer 46

Correct Answer: D

Question 47

Fiedler’s theory of leadership predicts that a task-oriented leader is most effective when: A. The situation is very favourable B. The situation is very unfavourable C. The situation is moderately favorable D. The situation is either very favorable or very unfavourable.

Answer 47

Correct answer: D

Question 48

The team leader tells Bowler A to “do his best” and Bowler B to try to break her previous records by six points. At the end of the game, Bowler A has a score of 158, which is four points lower than his previous record, and Bowler B has a score of 180, which is severn points higher than her previous record. This outcome is predicted by which the following theories? A. Path-goal theory B. Goal setting theory C. ERG theory D. Expectancy theory

Answer 48

Correct answer: B

Question 49

According to Hersey and Blanchard’s (1974) situational leadership model, the optimal leadership style depends on which of the following? A. The favorableness situation B. The complexity and difficulty level of the task C. The ability and motivation of employees D. The expertise and preferences of the leader

Answer 49

Correct answer: C A. Fiedler B. Communication Network (central vs. decentralised) C. Correct D. Distractor Answer

Question 50

A transformational leader uses “framing” to: A. Make organizational goals more meaningful to employees B. Ensure that workers are adequately rewarded for good performance C. Make sure new employees receive adequate training D. Ensure that employee performance evaluations are unbiased

Answer 50

Correct answer: A

Question 51

In the 1950’s, researchers at Ohio State University developed an influential theory of leadership that focused on a leader’s: A. Personality traits B. Behaviours C. Attitudes toward subordinates D. Power

Answer 51

Correct answer: B | 1950’s all about behaviours.

Question 52

According to H.A. Simon, rational-economic decision-making often fails in organizations as a result of: A. People’s basic irrationality B. A lack of time and information C. A lack of acceptable alternative to choose from D. A lack of commitment to the organization’s goals.

Answer 52

Correct answer: B | You don’t have a lot of time to find alternatives, so you’re going to go with what you DO have. “Satisfice”

Question 53

The best way to reduce the effects of groupthink on a group’s ability to make good decisions would be to: A. Actively encourage dissidence and criticism B. Have a group leader present his/her favoured decision at the start of the meeting C. Increase group cohesion and interdependecne. D. Reward group members for making “riskier” decisions

Answer 53

Correct answer: A B,C, D would INCREASE groupthink.

Question 54

Research suggest that social loafing is MOST likely to occur in which of the following conditions? A. Large group with low group cohesiveness B. Large group with high group cohesiveness C. Small group with low group cohesiveness D. Small group with high group cohesiveness

Answer 54

Correct answer: A | I don’t really identify with this group. Nobody’s going to notice if I don’t make a charitable donation.

Question 55

In contact to a centralized communication network, decentralized communication networks are associated with: A. Higher employee productivity for all types of tasks but lower employee satisfaction B. Lower employee productivity for all types of tasks but higher employee satisfaction C. Higher employee productivity for complex tasks and higher employee satisfaction D. Higher employee productivity for simple or routine tasks but lower employee satisfaction

Answer 55

Correct answer: C

Question 56

Lewin’s (1951) force-field model proposes that planned change in organizations involves which of the following stages? A. planning, acting, and evaluating B. envisioning, changing, and re-visioning C. unfreezing, changing, and refreezing D. collecting data, providing feedback, and implementing

Answer 56

Correct answer: C

Question 57

A meta-analysis of the research by Baltes et al. (1999) found that, in terms of job outcomes, the compressed workweek has the MOST positive impact on: A. Overall job satisfaction. B. Health outcomes C. Absenteeism and turnover D. Objective measures of job performance

Answer 57

Correct answer: A

Question 58

According to Schein (1992), organizational culture can be described in terms of three levels. The deepest level consists of basic underlying assumptions that can serve as: Select one: a. driving forces. b. implicit organizational norms. c. cognitive defense mechanisms. d. cognitive archetypes.

Answer 58

As described in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials, Schein (1992) distinguished between three levels of organizational culture -- observable artifacts, espoused values and beliefs, and basic underlying assumptions. Answer C is correct: According to Schein, underlying assumptions are taken-for-granted beliefs and emotions that can act as cognitive defense mechanisms. The correct answer is: cognitive defense mechanisms.

Question 59

A process consultant initially: Select one: a. observes workers as they interact. b. meets with individual disputants. c. develops an action plan. d. administers an employee survey.

Answer 59

For the exam, you want to be familiar with the key characteristics of several approaches to organizational change including process consultation. These approaches are described in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials. Answer A is correct: As its name implies, process consultation involves looking at "processes" -- i.e., at interactions between workers. The correct answer is: observes workers as they interact.

Question 60

A process consultant is most likely to focus on which of the following? Select one: a. communication, decision-making, and conflict b. technological change c. selection and other employment procedures d. worker motivation and satisfaction

Answer 60

Process consultation is a type of OD intervention that focuses on helping members of a work group understand the processes (behaviors) that are undermining their interactions with one another. Answer A is correct: Process consultants observe group members in action and help them identify and rectify problems related to communication patterns, decision-making, conflict resolutions, etc. The correct answer is: communication, decision-making, and conflict

Question 61

__________ assessments are used when organizational development is desired, and _________ assessments collect individual data. Select one: a. Self; personnel b. Personnel; self c. Goal; self d. Process; personnel

Answer 61

Answer A is correct: Self-assessments are utilized to direct organizational development, and are most effective when stakeholders are involved. Personnel assessments collect individual data, which may include records, biographical data, test results, and work samples. The correct answer is: Self; personnel

Question 62

Having employees meet in groups to discuss alternative ways of accomplishing change is an example of which of the following strategies? Select one: a. power-coercive b. rational-empirical c. normative-reeducative d. team-thrashabout

Answer 62

Chin and Benne (1976) identified three strategies for overcoming resistance to change. Answer C is correct: As its name implies, the normative-reeducative strategy is based on the assumption that peer pressure and sociocultural norms are potent forces of change. Answer A is incorrect: The power-coercive strategy involves using power and legitimate authority to overcome resistance to change. Answer B is incorrect: The rational-empirical strategy relies on providing employees with necessary information. Answer D is incorrect: "Team-thrashabout" is not one of the three strategies identified by Chin and Benne. The correct answer is: normative-reeducative

Question 63

Which of the following will have the greatest impact on employees' perceptions of interactional justice at work? Select one: a. Employees receive the organizational outcomes they believe they deserve. b. Employees participate in decisions related to organizational outcomes. c. Employees are treated with respect and consideration by supervisors. d. Employees are allowed to evaluate each others' performance.

Answer 63

Three types of organizational justice are described in the literature -- procedural, distributive, and interactional. Answer C is correct: Interactional justice refers to how people feel about the quality and content of person-to-person interactions, including interactions with supervisors. Answer A is incorrect: Receiving deserved organizational outcomes would contribute to a positive sense of distributive justice. Answer B is incorrect: Participating in decisions related to outcomes may contribute to a positive sense of procedural and distributive justice. Answer D is incorrect: Evaluating each other's performance may have an effect on perceptions of procedural justice. The correct answer is: Employees are treated with respect and consideration by supervisors.

Question 64

A psychologist conducting research on the effects of the graveyard shift is most likely to find that adverse consequences are lowest among workers who: Select one: a. are unmarried and living alone. b. are unhappily married. c. work the graveyard shift for only two out of every three weeks. d. voluntarily choose to work the graveyard shift.

Answer 64

Companies that operate 24 hours a day ordinarily divide the day into three shifts -- regular, swing, and graveyard. For the exam, you want to be familiar with the consequences associated with these shifts that are described in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials. Answer D is correct: The research has found that the negative outcomes associated with the graveyard shift are usually alleviated when the worker has voluntarily chosen that shift. The correct answer is: voluntarily choose to work the graveyard shift.

Question 65

Feelings of low personal accomplishment, cynicism, and emotional, physical, and mental exhaustion are symptoms of: Select one: a. work-family conflict. b. low organizational commitment. c. job burnout. d. overtraining.

Answer 65

The symptoms described in this question are characteristic of job burnout. Answer C is correct: Job burnout is caused by accumulated stress associated with overwork. Although its symptoms vary from person to person, most people experience the combination of symptoms listed in this question. The correct answer is: job burnout.

Question 66

In their meta-analysis of the research, Baltes et al. (1999) found that the compressed workweek is most associated with which of the following? Select one: a. improved employee attitudes b. improved job performance c. increased tardiness d. increased organizational commitment

Answer 66

The compressed workweek decreases the number of days worked in a given week by increasing the number of hours worked per day. Answer A is correct: Baltes et al. found that the compressed workweek has the greatest impact on employee attitudes and is associated with improved overall job satisfaction and satisfaction with the work schedule. The correct answer is: improved employee attitudes

Question 67

Research by Duxbury and Higgins (1991) on work-family conflict found that: Select one: a. men and women experience more conflicts due to work (versus family) expectations. b. men and women experience more conflicts due to family (versus work) expectations. c. men experience more conlicts due to work expectations, while women experience more conflicts due to family expectations. d. men experience more conflicts due to family expectations, while women experience more conflicts due to work expectations.

Answer 67

Work-family conflict occurs when career and family role demands are incompatible. Answer C is correct: Duxbury and Higgins (1991) found that work-family conflict is more stressful for women and that women experience more conflicts as the result of family expectations while men experience more conflicts as the result of work expectations. The correct answer is: men experience more conlicts due to work expectations, while women experience more conflicts due to family expectations.

Question 68

Which of the following individuals is at highest risk for a stress-related illness? Select one: a. the company vice president b. a file clerk who does the filing for several departments c. an assembly-line worker whose work is machine-paced d. an administrative assistant who has two bosses

Answer 68

Not surprisingly, the research has found that some jobs are consistently associated with higher levels of stress than other jobs are. Answer C is correct: The research has found that a lack of control over the pace of one's work is one of the greatest contributors to job-related stress. The correct answer is: an assembly-line worker whose work is machine-paced

Question 69

The function of a formative evaluation is best described as obtaining the information needed to: Select one: A. guide program development so as to produce the best version of the program as possible. B. determine whether the program has produced outcomes commensurate with the program's goals. C. initially formulate the goals and objectives of a new program. D. identify and define the causal links between observed relationships among a set of variables.

Answer 69

As its name implies, a formative evaluation is conducted while a program is being "formed." a. CORRECT The purpose of a formative evaluation is to obtain the information needed to modify a program as it is being developed in order to determine if modifications are needed to achieve the program's goals. b. Incorrect This better describes a summative evaluation. c. Incorrect This is not the function of a formative evaluation. d. Incorrect This does not describe the purpose of a formative evaluation. The correct answer is: guide program development so as to produce the best version of the program as possible.

Question 70

Which of the following is an early indicator of job burnout? Select one: A. a sudden drop in work effort. B. a sudden increase in work effort without an increase in productivity. C. a sudden increase in irritability. D. a sudden onset of intense anxiety with a temporary increase in productivity.

Answer 70

Job burnout is caused by accumulated stress associated with overwork. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT An early sign of job burnout is a sudden increase in work effort that is not accompanied by an increase in productivity. Other signs include a sense of low personal accomplishment, cynicism, and exhaustion. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: a sudden increase in work effort without an increase in productivity.

Question 71

To intervene effectively, a mediator should: Select one: A. encourage direct contact between disputants at the beginning of the mediation process. B. hold early discussions in an "open site" that is readily observed and influenced by interested parties. C. prioritize relevant issues so they can be settled sequentially in order from the most specific to the more general. D. introduce new ideas and alternatives for reaching an agreement to the disputants.

Answer 71

A mediator is a neutral third party whose primary task is to help disputants reach an agreement. a. Incorrect This is a good idea only when the conflict between disputants is mild. With more serious conflicts, the better course of action is to initially meet separately with each disputant to identify and clarify the relevant issues. b. Incorrect A closed site is preferable during the initial stages of mediation. An open site is best when an agreement between disputants is very close to being reached. c. Incorrect It is usually more effective to address multiple issues as a package rather than to negotiate issues separately. Also, when there are a large number of issues that must be resolved separately, it is better to progress from the more general to the more specific. d. CORRECT "Perhaps the most creative thing a mediator can do is to introduce new issues and alternatives, thereby broadening the disputants' horizons and providing them with ideas for achieving integrative agreements" (J. Z. Rubin et al., Social conflict: Escalation, stalemate, and settlement, New York, McGraw-Hill, Inc., 1994, p. 209). The correct answer is: introduce new ideas and alternatives for reaching an agreement to the disputants.

Question 72

If a "process consultant" is hired by a school district to help it resolve ongoing problems between school board members, the administrative staff, and the teachers, the consultant is most likely to: Select one: A. conduct formal interviews to pinpoint problem areas and then conduct training to rectify identified problems. B. help board members, staff, and teachers identify and modify the ways in which their behaviors are inconsistent with their goals. C. act as a mediator or arbitrator between the board members, staff, and teachers. D. conduct a survey to identify discrepancies between how board members, staff, and teachers view their roles and the school district's goals.

Answer 72

Not surprisingly, process consultants focus on organizational "processes." a. Incorrect Process consultation involves a less structured approach to identifying and resolving consultee problems than the approach described in this answer and focuses on helping employees identify and resolve their own work-related problems. b. CORRECT Process consultants focus on processes (interactions) between people and how these processes interfere with the achievement of their goals. c. Incorrect This is not the role that process consultants adopt. d. Incorrect Although process consultants are concerned about consultees' goals, the use of a survey is associated more with the technique known as "survey feedback." The correct answer is: help board members, staff, and teachers identify and modify the ways in which their behaviors are inconsistent with their goals.

Question 73

Members of self-management work teams (SMWTs): Select one: A. are led by an external change agent who provides coaching and suggestions as needed. B. are employees from different departments who have different levels of expertise. C. make suggestions that may or may not be accepted by management. D. make hiring, budget, and other decisions that were fomerly made by managers.

Answer 73

The name of these teams -- i.e., self-managed work teams -- should have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT SMWTs are made up of employess who work together as a unit, with leadership usually rotating from one member to another. Members of SMWTs make hiring, budget, and other decisions that were previously made by managers. The correct answer is: make hiring, budget, and other decisions that were fomerly made by managers.

Question 74

A meta-analysis of the research conducted by Baltes et al. (1999) found that, in terms of job outcomes, the compressed workweek has the least impact on: Select one: A. overall job satisfaction. B. satisfaction with work schedule. C. supervisor performance ratings. D. objective measures of job performance.

Answer 74

The compressed workweek decreases the number of days worked in a given work cycle by increasing the number of hours worked per day. For example, a compressed workweek might entail four ten-hour shifts rather than the usual five eight-hour shifts. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT In their meta-analysis of the research, Baltes and colleagues found that the compressed workweek had positive effects on supervisor ratings of employee performance, employee overall job satisfaction, and employee satisfaction with the work schedule. In contrast, the compressed workweek did not have a strong impact on objective measures of job performance or on absenteeism [B. B. Baltes et al., Flexible and compressed workweek schedules: A meta-analysis of their effects on work, Journal of Applied Psychology, 1999, 84(4), 496-513]. Note that these findings are not entirely consistent with earlier conclusions about the effects of the four-day (compressed) workweek. The correct answer is: objective measures of job performance.

Question 75

Research comparing heterogeneous and homogeneous work groups has found that, in general, heterogeneous groups: Select one: A. are more creative and better at decision-making. B. are more creative but less productive overall. C. make better decisions but are less productive overall. D. are more creative but worse at decision-making.

Answer 75

The impact of group heterogeneity versus homogeneity with regard to skills, personality, etc. depends on the outcome measure -- i.e., for some outcomes, heterogeneity is preferable but, for others, homogeneity is best. a. CORRECT Much of the research on group heterogeneity has focused on its effects on creativity and decision-making and has found a positive effect of heterogeneity on both measures. Additional information on this issue is provided in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: are more creative and better at decision-making.

Question 76

Research comparing male and female leaders indicates that, in terms of decision-making style: Select one: A. men and women do not differ in a consistent way. B. women tend to adopt a more democratic style. C. men tend to adopt a more participative style. D. women tend to adopt a more autocratic style.

Answer 76

While males and females do not differ substantially or consistently in terms of overall leadership style, there is evidence of consistent gender differences in decision-making style. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT The research has found that, with regard to decision-making style, female leaders tend to adopt a more democratic (participative) approach. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: women tend to adopt a more democratic style.

Question 77

In a study designed to evaluate the effects of rewards on productivity, employees in the experimental department receive their regular salary plus small bonuses that are contingent on their productivity, while employees in the control department receive their regular salary but no special incentives. The productivity levels of each department and the bonuses received by the experimental department are posted on a bulletin board in the company"s cafeteria. As expected, employees in the experimental department display an increase in productivity. However, an unexpected result is that employees in the control department do not maintain their performance at usual levels but, instead, exhibit a decrease in productivity. This latter result confirms the predictions of which of the following? Select one: A. ERG theory B. equity theory C. the John Henry effect D. social comparison theory

Answer 77

Of the theories listed, equity theory best explains the outcomes of the study described in this question. a. Incorrect Alderfer's ERG theory does not apply to the situation described in this question as well as equity theory does. b. CORRECT Equity theory is used to predict how workers will respond in situations they perceive as equitable or inequitable. According to this theory, employees who perceive their situation as inequitable will attempt to create equity by decreasing their inputs (e.g., effort and performance) or by increasing their outcomes (which employees in this situation cannot do). c. Incorrect The John Henry effect predicts that employees in the control department will try to outperform employees in the experimental department. d. Incorrect Social comparison theory doesn't apply to this situation. It predicts that we learn about our own abilities (or other characteristics) by comparing them to those of other people. The correct answer is: equity theory

Question 78

To alleviate the "leniency bias," you would use of which of the following? Select one: A. double-blind technique B. weighted BIB C. forced distribution D. Likert scale

Answer 78

The leniency bias is a type of rater bias that involves giving ratees high ratings on each dimension of performance regardless of their actual performance. a. Incorrect The double-blind technique is used in research and involves keeping participants and the experimenter uninformed of which group (e.g., experimental versus control) participants are in. b. Incorrect A weighted BIB is used to collect biographical information about a job applicant and would not be useful for alleviating a leniency bias. c. CORRECT Rater biases can be alleviated by using relative rating scales such as the forced distribution scale. Additional information on rater biases and methods for reducing them is provided in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials. d. Incorrect Likert scales are very susceptible to the leniency bias and other rater biases. The correct answer is: forced distribution

Question 79

A __________ leader has a clear vision for the future and communicates that vision to followers by acting as a role model, empowering followers, and inspiring followers to replace self-interest with the interests of the group. Select one: A. charismatic B. transactional C. transformational D. bureaucratic

Answer 79

The four leadership styles listed in the answers to this question are commonly identified in the literature and, for the exam, you want to be able to distinguish between them. a. Incorrect Charismatic leaders share several characteristics with transformational leaders but exert influence primarily through their own personal qualities (e.g., self-confidence and charisma). As defined by some experts, charismatic leaders have a "dark side" - e.g., they may expect unquestioning loyalty, devotion, and obedience from followers. b. Incorrect Transactional leaders foster worker motivation and productivity primarily by simplifying and structuring tasks and providing rewards for successful performance. c. CORRECT Transformational leaders motivate employees by recognizing the need for change, creating a vision that guides change, and transmitting that vision to employees. In contrast to charismatic leaders, they empower followers and activate their higher-order needs. d. Incorrect Bureaucratic leaders adhere strictly to established procedures and policies. The correct answer is: transformational

Question 80

Research on job satisfaction suggests that it: Select one: A. is a relatively stable trait and is minimally affected by job changes. B. is relatively stable within the same job but unstable when measured across different jobs. C. is unstable and varies over time both within the same job and across different jobs. D. may be stable or unstable within and across jobs depending on other characteristics of the worker.

Answer 80

The studies have found that job satisfaction is relatively stable over time and across jobs. a. CORRECT One explanation for the stability of job satisfaction is that it is strongly related to a tendency toward positive or negative affect, which is a stable characteristic: In other words, people with negative affect tend to be dissatisfied with work, while those with positive affect tend to be satisfied. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: is a relatively stable trait and is minimally affected by job changes.

Question 81

In terms of training program evaluation, Kirkpatrick (1976) contends that _______ criteria are the most important criteria to evaluate but are often the most difficult to develop and, therefore, the most infrequently used. Select one: A. learning B. behavioral C. reaction D. results

Answer 81

Kirkpatrick (1976) distinguishes between four levels of training program evaluation - reaction, learning, behavioral, and results. a. Incorrect Learning criteria measure how much trainees have learned. b. Incorrect Behavioral criteria assess participants' change in performance once they return to the job. c. Incorrect Reaction criteria assess participants' subjective reactions to the training program. Reaction criteria represent the first level in Kirkpatrick's model and provide the least useful information. d. CORRECT Results criteria are the fourth level in Kirkpatrick's model and assess the value of the training program in terms of the organization's goals. According to Kirkpatrick, the higher the level of evaluation, the more difficult and costly the evaluation process are but the more significant the information. The correct answer is: results

Question 82

Which of the following would be most useful for establishing comparable worth? Select one: A. job evaluation B. 80% rule C. needs assessment D. person (employee) analysis

Answer 82

For the exam, you want to be able to distinguish between the procedures listed in the answers to this question, and all four are described in the Industrial-Organizational chapter of the written study materials. a. CORRECT A job evaluation is conducted in organizations to determine the relative worth of jobs in order to set wages and salaries. Several methods of job evaluation are useful for establishing comparable worth, which refers to the principle that men and women should receive comparable compensation for work that requires similar skills, knowledge, responsibilities, etc. b. Incorrect The 80% rule is used to determine if a job selection technique is having an adverse impact. c. Incorrect A needs assessment is conducted to determine training needs. d. Incorrect A person analysis is part of a needs assessment and involves determining which employees require training and what knowledge, skills, and abilities they need to acquire to perform their jobs effectively. The correct answer is: job evaluation

Question 83

Dr. Ang, an organizational psychologist, is asked to evaluate the selection procedures used by Company X. After observing the personnel manager interviewing job applicants, Dr. Ang notes that applicants who are well-dressed are hired more often than those who are not as well dressed, regardless of their qualifications. This is an example of which of the following? Select one: A. halo effect B. Hawthorne effect C. behavioral contrast D. reactance

Answer 83

At first glance, it may appear that this question is asking about selection procedures, but it is actually addressing rater biases. For the exam, you'll want to be familiar with the common rater biases that are described in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials. a. CORRECT This is an example of the halo effect, a rater bias in which the rater allows an evaluation of a ratee on one dimension of behavior to influence his/her evaluations of the ratee on unrelated dimensions. In this case, the personnel manager's evaluation of the applicant's appearance is affecting his/her ratings of the applicant on other dimensions. b. Incorrect The Hawthorne effect is not a rater bias. The Hawthorne effect occurs when the behavior of research participants is altered because of the novelty of the research situation and the special attention they are receiving as research participants. c. Incorrect Behavioral contrast occurs when removal of reinforcement from one behavior produces a decrease in that behavior and an increase in another reinforced behavior. d. Incorrect Reactance occurs when a person does the opposite of what he/she is requested to do because the person feels his/her personal freedom is being threatened by the request. The correct answer is: halo effect

Question 84

The research indicates that, when Total Quality Management (TQM) fails to live up to its potential, this is most often because: Select one: A. the team leader lacks adequate leadership skills. B. there was too much reliance on team (versus individual) effort. C. employees were not sufficiently involved in decision-making. D. pay and other benefits were not adequately linked to team performance.

Answer 84

The primary goal of TQM is to continuously improve the quality of the organization's products and services. This is accomplished by evaluating customer satisfaction, maximizing employee involvement and empowerment, and making continuous improvements in organizational processes. a. Incorrect Although leader ability is always important, it has not been identified as a particular problem in TQM, which emphasizes the involvement of employees in decision-making processes. b. Incorrect Team work is considered a key feature of TQM; and the research has shown that, under the right circumstances, team work is associated with positive outcomes for the company. c. CORRECT Although TQM emphasizes team involvement in decision-making, decisions are too often made unilaterally by the supervisor. d. Incorrect This hasn"t been identified as a problem by the research on TQM. The correct answer is: employees were not sufficiently involved in decision-making.

Question 85

An important implication of Fiedler's contingency theory of leadership is that: Select one: A. the most effective leaders allow workers to participate in goal-setting. B. managers must alter their behaviors to fit the demands of the situation. C. an effective manager may become ineffective if the situation changes in certain ways. D. to be effective, managers must be aware that different factors act as "satisfiers" for different employees.

Answer 85

Fiedler's contingency theory of leadership proposes that a worker's performance depends on the interaction between the leader's leadership style (high LPC versus low LPC) and the favorableness of the situation, which refers to the extent to which the leader has influence, the tasks are structured, and the leader is in a position to reward employees for good performance. a. Incorrect This is not a prediction of Fiedler's contingency theory. b. Incorrect Fiedler believed that a leader's style is stable and cannot be changed even when the situation changes. c. CORRECT Fiedler believed that different leadership styles are more effective in different situations. Specifically, he believed that low LPC leaders are most effective in very favorable and unfavorable situations, while high LPC leaders are most effective in moderately favorable situations. Therefore, if the situation changes in terms of favorableness, an effective leader can actually become ineffective (and vice versa). Additional information on Fiedler's theory that you want to be familiar with for the exam (including a definition of low and high LPC leaders) is presented in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials. d. Incorrect This is not a prediction of Fiedler's contingency model of leadership. Fiedler was interested in the interaction between leadership style and the favorableness of the situation. The correct answer is: an effective manager may become ineffective if the situation changes in certain ways.

Question 86

According to Tuckman and Jensen (1977), group members begin to develop close relationships with one another, trust each other, and feel as though they are part of a cohesive, effective group during the __________ stage. Select one: A. norming B. forming C. performing D. storming

Answer 86

Tuckman and Jensen (1977) distinguish between five stages of group development - Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, and Adjourning. (FSNPA) a. CORRECT The norming stage is characterized by agreement, commitment, and unity. Members listen to and support each other during this stage and develop close relationships. The norming stage may become a "period of play" with the task becoming temporarily abandoned by workers. b. Incorrect During the forming stage, group members become acquainted and attempt to establish "ground rules" for the group. c. Incorrect During the performing stage, group members are focused on "getting the job done." d. Incorrect The storming stage is characterized by power struggles and conflict. The correct answer is: norming

Question 87

As defined by Edgar Schein (1992), ______________ can function as "cognitive defense mechanisms" in organizations. Select one: A. formal organizational hierarchies B. informal organizational policies and procedures C. beliefs about what constitutes good performance D. assumptions underlying the organization's culture

Answer 87

Knowing that Edgar Schein is interested in organizational culture would have helped you identify the correct response to this question. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect This is one of the beliefs that might contribute to an organization's culture, but it is not the only one. Therefore, answer d is a better response. d. CORRECT Schein (1992) proposed that the basic assumptions (the unconscious beliefs, attitudes, emotions, etc.) underlying an organization's culture can act as cognitive defense mechanisms for individuals and groups that can impede the ability to make changes in the organization. The correct answer is: assumptions underlying the organization's culture

Question 88

A personnel director conducts a study to evaluate the criterion-related validity of a new selection test. She finds that the slope of the regression line differs for males and females. This suggests that the test may: ``` Select one: A. be "unfair." B. have differential validity. C. be lacking in incremental validity. D. have inadequate convergent validity. ```

Answer 88

The slope of a regression line in a criterion-related validity study indicates the degree of correlation between the predictor and the criterion. a. Incorrect It is the predictor cutoff scores of the two groups that help determine whether there is unfairness, not the slope of the regression line. b. CORRECT If the slope of the regression line for two different groups differs, this suggests that there may be differential validity (different validity coefficients for different groups). Additional information on unfairness and differential validity is provided in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials. c. Incorrect Incremental validity refers to decision-making accuracy and, although it is affected by a predictor's validity, its magnitude is not determined by comparing the slopes of two different groups. d. Incorrect Convergent validity refers to the degree of correlation between two measures that assess the same trait using different techniques. The correct answer is: have differential validity.

Question 89

The establishment of comparable worth depends on the use of: a. a valid needs analysis procedure. b. a neutral job evaluation procedure. c. an unbiased job analysis procedure. d. an unbiased personnel selection procedure.

Answer 89

b. a neutral job evaluation procedure. According to the principle of comparable worth, men and women who perform jobs that require similar levels of education, training, and skills should receive similar compensation. A job evaluation is used to establish comparable worth and, to be useful for this purpose, it must be unbiased (gender-neutral).

Question 90

Frame-of-reference training is useful for: a. increasing organizational commitment. b. management development. c. increasing job productivity. d. improving rater accuracy.

Answer 90

d. improving rater accuracy Frame-of-reference training is used to improve rater accuracy by helping raters become better observers of behavior.

Question 91

The incorporation of critical incidents into the Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scale (BARS): a. facilitates obtaining the information a supervisor needs to provide useful performance feedback to employees. b. reduces rater biases by requiring a supervisor to compare employees who are doing the same job on critical dimensions of performance. c. facilitates the rating process by allowing the supervisor to compare an employee’s performance to a predefined “ideal” standard of performance. d. reduces the usefulness of performance ratings by focusing only on ineffective or unsuccessful behaviors.

Answer 91

a. facilitates obtaining the information a supervisor needs to provide useful performance feedback to employees. Critical incidents are descriptions of specific job behaviors that are associated with successful or unsuccessful job performance. Anchoring the points on a job performance rating scale with critical incidents ensures that the scale provides information that can be used to provide employees with feedback about their job performance. BARS is one type of rating scale that uses critical incidents.

Question 92

As defined by the EEOC, adverse impact is suggested when: a. validity coefficients for different groups differ. b. selection rates for different groups differ. c. criterion performance for different groups differ. d. predictor means for different groups differ.

Answer 92

b. selection rates for different groups differ As defined in the EEOC’s Uniform Guidelines, adverse impact is occurring when rates of selection or other employment practices are different for different groups of workers. Several techniques are used to determine if adverse impact is occurring, including the 80% rule and evaluating test bias (which involves comparing the slopes and Y-intercepts of the regression lines for the groups).

Question 93

In the context of training, “identical elements” is associated with: a. learning past the point of mastery. b. distributed practice. c. contingent reinforcement. d. transfer of training.

Answer 93

d. transfer of training “Identical elements” refers to providing similar conditions in the training and performance environments in order to maximize transfer to training.

Question 94

The primary function of a realistic job preview is to: a. increase the number of applicants for a job. b. maximize the reliability of job selection procedures. c. reduce on-the-job conflicts between supervisors and employees. d. reduce employee dissatisfaction and turnover.

Answer 94

d. reduce employee dissatisfaction and turnover. Realistic job previews consist of job descriptions, discussions with current employees, work samples, and/or other procedures or techniques. Two assumptions underlying the use of realistic job previews are that (a) turnover is related to unrealistic expectations about the job and (b) providing applicants with accurate information about what the job entails will reduce unrealistic expectations and thereby decrease dissatisfaction and turnover.

Question 95

Super’s theory of career development predicts that a worker is likely to be most satisfied when: a. the job fits his/her self-concept. b. the job is compatible with his/her ego identity. c. the job fulfills his/her most prepotent needs. d. the job offers opportunities for self-actualization.

Answer 95

a. the job fits his/her self-concept According to Super, the ideal circumstance is for the job to fit the individual’s self-concept, which is comprised of several elements including the individual’s interests, abilities, and values.

Question 96

From the perspective of Holland’s approach to career choice and career counseling, a highly differentiated person: a. resembles one personality type and no other type. b. has obtained a personality profile that is unusual or unique. c. has scored highly on two personality types that are on opposite sides of the personality/occupational hexagon. d. has vocational aspirations that are compatible with diverse RIASEC categories.

Answer 96

a. resembles one personality type and no other type According to Holland, a person is highly differentiated when he/she obtains a high score on only one personality dimension. He also believed that a personality-occupational match is most accurate for predicting outcomes for those who are highly differentiated.

Question 97

Which of the following is NOT one of the five needs identified in Abraham Maslow’s need-hierarchy theory? a. safety b. social c. existence d. esteem

Answer 97

c. existence From lower- to higher-order, Maslow’s five needs are physiological, safety, social (belongingness), esteem, and self-actualization. (Existence, relatedness, and growth are the three needs identified by Alderfer.)

Question 98

Which of the following is central to the predictions made by equity theory? a. social power b. social comparison c. social contagion d. social penetration theory

Answer 98

b. social comparison According to equity theory, worker motivation is related to the comparisons workers make between their own input/outcome ratio and those of other workers doing the same or a similar job.

Question 99

When she was hired by her company, Polly Persistence was told that she’d be receiving raises and bonuses as long as her work continues to be satisfactory. Two years later, the promises made to Polly have not been fulfilled even though she has received good performance reviews from her supervisor. According to expectancy theory, which of the following of Polly’s beliefs will be most negatively affected by this situation? a. valence b. self-efficacy c. expectancy d. instrumentality

Answer 99

d. instrumentality Expectancy theory proposes that motivation depends on three beliefs — expectancy, instrumentality, and valence. Instrumentality refers to the belief that one’s performance will lead to certain rewards.

Question 100

Fiedler’s theory of leadership predicts that a task-oriented leader is most effective when: a. the situation is very favorable. b. the situation is very unfavorable. c. the situation is moderately favorable. d. the situation is either very favorable or very unfavorable.

Answer 100

d. the situation is either very favorable or very unfavorable Fiedler distinguished between task-oriented (low LPC) and person-oriented (high LPC) leaders. He proposed that the former are most effective when the situation is extreme – either very favorable or very unfavorable in terms of the leader’s ability to control and influence subordinates.

Question 101

The team leader tells Bowler A to “do his best” and Bowler B to try to break her previous record by six points. At the end of game, Bowler A has a score of 158, which is four points lower than his previous record, and Bowler B has a score of 180, which is seven points higher than her previous record. This outcome is predicted by which of the following theories? a. path-goal theory b. goal setting theory c. ERG theory d. expectancy theory

Answer 101

b. goal setting theory One of goal setting theory’s predictions is that specific moderately difficult goals are more effective than easy or ambiguous (“do your best”) goals.

Question 102

According to Hersey and Blanchard’s (1974) situational leadership model, the optimal leadership style depends on which of the following? a. the “favorableness” situation b. the complexity and difficulty level of the task c. the ability and motivation of employees d. the expertise and preferences of the leader

Answer 102

c. the ability and motivation of the employees Hersey and Blanchard’s situational leadership model distinguishes between four leadership styles (telling, selling, participating, and delegating), with each style being characterized by a different combination of task- and relationship-orientation. According to this model, the best leadership style depends on the employee’s job maturity, which is determined by a combination of ability and willingness to accept responsibility.

Question 103

A transformational leader uses “framing” to: a. make organizational goals more meaningful to employees. b. ensure that workers are adequately rewarded for good performance. c. make sure new employees receive adequate training. d. ensure that employee performance evaluations are unbiased.

Answer 103

a. make organizational goals more meaningful to employees A key characteristic of transformational leaders is their ability to motivate employees by placing goals in a meaningful context.

Question 104

In the 1950s, researchers at Ohio State University developed an influential theory of leadership that focused on a leader’s: a. personality traits. b. behaviors. c. attitudes toward subordinates. d. power.

Answer 104

b. behaviors Results of the Ohio State leadership studies indicated that leaders can be described in terms of two behavioral dimensions – consideration and initiating structure.

Question 105

According to H. A. Simon, rational-economic decision-making often fails in organizations as the result of: a. people’s basic irrationality. b. a lack of time and information. c. a lack of acceptable alternatives to choose from. d. a lack of commitment to the organization’s goals.

Answer 105

b. a lack of time and information As the result of a lack of time and information, decision makers often do not consider all possible alternative solutions but, instead, pick the first solution that seems acceptable.

Question 106

The best way to reduce the effects of groupthink on a group’s ability to make good decisions would be to: a. actively encourage dissidence and criticism. b. have the group leader present his/her favored decision at the start of the meeting. c. increase group cohesion and interdependence. d. reward group members for making “riskier” decisions.

Answer 106

a. actively encourage dissidence and criticism Groupthink is most likely to occur in highly cohesive groups when members feel a need to achieve consensus and, therefore, disregard and discourage consideration of alternative actions. Actively encouraging dissent and criticism would help disrupt the pattern of communication that characterizes groupthink.

Question 107

Research suggests that social loafing is MOST likely to occur in which of the following conditions? a. large group with low group cohesiveness b. large group with high group cohesiveness c. small group with low group cohesiveness d. small group with high group cohesiveness

Answer 107

a. large group with low group cohesiveness In one study, R. C. Liden and his colleagues found that social loafing increased as (1) group size increased, (2) group cohesiveness decreased, (3) perception of task interdependence increased, (4) task visibility (belief that one’s supervisor is aware of one’s effort) decreased, and (5) perception of distributive justice (fair pay) decreased [Social loafing: A field investigation, Journal of Management, 30(2), 285-304, 2004].

Question 108

In contrast to a centralized communication network, decentralized communication networks are associated with: a. higher employee productivity for all types of tasks but lower employee satisfaction. b. lower employee productivity for all types of tasks but higher employee satisfaction. c. higher employee productivity for complex tasks and higher employee satisfaction. d. higher employee productivity for simple or routine tasks but lower employee satisfaction.

Answer 108

c. higher employee productivity for complex tasks and higher employee satisfaction The research on communication networks has found that centralized networks – for example, the “chain” and the “Y” – are most effective in terms of productivity for simple tasks, while decentralized networks – such as the “all-channel” – are better for complex tasks. In addition, while supervisors and managers are likely to be more satisfied with a centralized network, the employees (supervisees) tend to be more satisfied with a decentralized network.

Question 109

Lewin’s (1951) force-field model proposes that planned change in organizations involves which of the following stages? a. planning, acting, and evaluating b. envisioning, changing, and re-visioning c. unfreezing, changing, and refreezing d. collecting data, providing feedback, and implementing

Answer 109

c. unfreezing, changing, and refreezing Lewin’s model describes the process of planned change in terms of these three stages: Unfreezing occurs when the need for change is recognized and steps are taken to make members of the organization receptive to change; changing involves moving the organization in the new direction; and refreezing entails supporting the changes that have been made to help stabilize the organization at a new state of equilibrium.

Question 110

A meta-analysis of the research by Baltes et al. (1999) found that, in terms of job outcomes, the compressed workweek has the MOST positive impact on: a. overall job satisfaction. b. health outcomes. c. absenteeism and turnover. d. objective measures of job performance.

Answer 110

a. overall job satisfaction The research on the effects of the compressed workweek have produced inconsistent results, but the meta-analysis by Baltes et al. (1999) found that it has positive effects on overall job satisfaction, satisfaction with the work schedule, and supervisor ratings of performance but not on objective measures of job performance and absenteeism.

Question 111

A transactional leader can be expected to: Select one: A. rely on rewards and punishments to motivate employees. B. communicate high expectations for performance to employees. C. act as a role model for employees. D. be convinced of the moral rightness of his/her decisions.

Answer 111

Researchers interested in leadership in organizations distinguish between transformational and transactional leaders. a. CORRECT Transactional leaders prefer routine and stability and rely primarily on rewards and punishments to motivate employees. b. Incorrect This is not characteristic of transactional leaders. c. Incorrect This sounds like a transformational or charismatic leader. d. Incorrect This characteristic is most associated with charismatic leaders, who are similar to transformational leaders but rely more on their personal characteristics (charisma) to motivate employees. The correct answer is: rely on rewards and punishments to motivate employees.

Question 112

Social loafing is most likely to occur when a group member: Select one: A. believes he/she has more task-related expertise than other members do. B. did not voluntarily agree to participate in the group. C. knows that his/her contribution to the group task will not be recognized. D. is highly motivated to achieve the groups goals.

Answer 112

Social loafing is the tendency to exert less effort when working as a group member than when working alone. a. Incorrect This has not been identified as a predictor of social loafing. b. Incorrect This has not been linked to social loafing. c. CORRECT Social loafing is most likely to occur when group members believe that their contribution to the group product will not or cannot be evaluated. d. Incorrect This is the opposite of what is true. Social loafing is unlikely to occur when group members are motivated to achieve the group's goal. The correct answer is: knows that his/her contribution to the group task will not be recognized.

Question 113

The collection of data as part of an organizational development process ordinarily involves the use of one or more of four techniques. Of these, which is most useful in large organizations composed of many employees? ``` Select one: A. interviews B. questionnaires C. observations D. secondary (archival) sources ```

Answer 113

D. A. Nadler (Feedback and Organizational Development: Using Data-Based Methods, Reading, MA, Addison-Wesley, 1977) identifies four commonly used data collection methods in organizational development: interviews, questionnaires, observations, and secondary (archival) sources. A description of these methods is provided in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT Nadler recommends using multiple methods to ensure that the collected data is complete and unbiased. However, of the four techniques, questionnaires are most useful for collecting quantitative data from a large number of individuals. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: questionnaires

Question 114

Research by Mayo and his colleagues found that worker productivity increased no matter what changes were made in environmental conditions, apparently because of the attention that workers were receiving as research participants. This phenomenon is referred to as the: ``` Select one: A. Hawthorne effect. B. Zeigarnik effect. C. halo bias. D. confirmation bias. ```

Answer 114

Answer A is correct. For the exam, you want to be familiar with all of the phenomena listed in the answers to this question. Knowing that Mayo and his colleagues conducted their studies at the Hawthorne Plant of the Western Electric Company would have helped you identify this as the correct response. B - Incorrect. The Zeigarnik effect refers to the tendency to remember unfinished tasks better than finished ones. C - Incorrect. The halo bias (effect) occurs when a rater's rating of an employee on one dimension of performance affects how he/she rates the employee on other unrelated dimensions of performance. D - Incorrect. The confirmation bias is the tendency to search for or pay attention to information that verifies one's beliefs. The correct answer is: Hawthorne effect.

Question 115

The major advantage of using a forced-choice method as an employee performance appraisal technique is that: Select one: A. it is easy to develop and use. B. it provides specific information for employee feedback. C. it helps alleviate leniency and other biases. D. it provides an objective measure of job performance.

Answer 115

When using the forced-choice technique, the rater chooses the behavior from two or more behaviors that best describe the employee, with behaviors being paired or grouped so that they are similar in terms of social desirability. a. Incorrect In fact, a drawback of this technique is the difficulty of its development. b. Incorrect The forced-choice technique is considered more useful for obtaining an overall rating of performance than for obtaining the information needed to give employees feedback about their performance. c. CORRECT This technique was developed specifically to reduce rater biases, and there is some evidence that it accomplishes this goal. d. Incorrect The forced-choice technique is a subjective measure of job performance. The correct answer is: it helps alleviate leniency and other biases.

Question 116

From the perspective of Holland's approach to career choice and career counseling, a highly differentiated person: Select one: A. resembles only one personality/occupational type. B. has obtained a personality profile that is unique or atypical. C. has scored highly on two personality types that are on opposite sides of the personality/occupational hexagon. D. has vocational aspirations that correspond to several RIASEC categories.

Answer 116

Holland's theory distinguishes between six personality and occupational types - realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, and conventional ("RIASEC"). a. CORRECT According to Holland, a person is highly differentiated when he/she obtains a high score on only one personality dimension. He also believed that a personality-occupational match is most accurate for predicting outcomes for those who are highly differentiated. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: resembles only one personality/occupational type.

Question 117

According to House's (1971) path-goal theory, the optimal leadership style depends primarily on: Select one: A. certain characteristics of the worker and the work situation. B. the person-organization fit. C. the degree to which the leader is task- versus person-oriented. D. the favorableness of the situation for the leader.

Answer 117

House's path-goal theory distinguishes between four leadership styles: directive, supportive, participative, and achievement-oriented. a. CORRECT According to path-goal theory, the optimal leadership style depends on certain characteristics of the worker (e.g., self-confidence and locus of control) and the work situation (e.g., degree of task challenge and ambiguity). b Incorrect Path-goal theory identifies worker and situational characteristics as determinants of the optimal leadership style but does not focus on the person-organization fit. c. Incorrect Path-goal theory does not identify the leader's orientation as a determinant of the optimal leadership style. d. Incorrect This sounds more like Fiedler's contingency model of leadership. The correct answer is: certain characteristics of the worker and the work situation.

Question 118

An examinee whose highest score on Holland's occupational themes is on the realistic scale would probably be least interested in pursuing a career as a: ``` Select one: A. farmer. B. bookkeeper. C. technical writer. D. social worker. ```

Answer 118

Holland distinguishes between six basic personality/work environment types: realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, and conventional ("RIASEC"). Additional information about the six occupational themes are provided in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials. a. Incorrect Agricultural work is consistent with the realistic type. b. Incorrect Bookkeeper is associated with the conventional type, which is similar to the realistic type. c. Incorrect Technical writer is associated with the investigative type, which is also similar to the realistic type. d. CORRECT Social work is an appropriate career for people who score highest on the social type, which is the most dissimilar from the realistic type. The correct answer is: social worker.

Question 119

As defined by McGregor (1960), Theory X managers: Select one: A. empower employees by encouraging them to set their own performance goals. B. are most effective when the task is complex and unstructured. C. believe that workers perform best when jobs are enriched. D. believe they must closely supervise employees.

Answer 119

McGregor (1960) distinguished between two types of managers - Theory X and Theory Y. a. Incorrect This sounds more like Theory Y managers who assume that workers are capable of (and prefer) self-control and self-direction. b. Incorrect This is not consistent with McGregor's description of Theory X managers. c. Incorrect This also sounds more like a Theory Y manager. d. CORRECT This is consistent with McGregor's description of Theory X managers. According to McGregor, these managers believe that workers have an inherent dislike of work, do not want responsibility, and perform best when they are closely supervised and controlled (e.g., through the use of rewards and punishments). The correct answer is: believe they must closely supervise employees.

Question 120

Use of the Taylor-Russell tables would indicate that the decision-making accuracy of a selection test that has a low to moderate validity coefficient is greatest when: Select one: A. the selection ratio is .90 and the base rate is .20. B. the selection ratio is .90 and the base rate is .50. C. the selection ratio is .10 and the base rate is .20. D. the selection ratio is .10 and the base rate is .50.

Answer 120

For the exam, you want to know what the base rate and selection ratio are as well as know how these factors contribute to a test's ability to improve decision-making accuracy. This information is presented in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT The Taylor-Russell Tables provide information on a test's decision-making accuracy for various combinations of base rates, selection ratios, and validity coefficients. The tables indicate that a test with a low or moderate validity coefficient can improve decision-making accuracy when the selection ratio is low (e.g., .10) and the base rate is moderate (near .50). The correct answer is: the selection ratio is .10 and the base rate is .50.

Question 121

Which of the following performance appraisal techniques would be most useful when a primary goal of appraisal is to provide employees with specific feedback that will help them improve their job performance? Select one: A. forced-choice B. forced-distribution C. BARS D. BIB

Answer 121

The performance appraisal techniques used in organizations differ not only in terms of the ways in which they are developed and executed but also in the amount and type of feedback they provide to employees. a. Incorrect The forced-choice technique requires the rater to pick the statements from several statements that are most and least descriptive of the employee. Although this technique helps reduce certain rater biases, it is less useful than BARS for providing employees with feedback about their job performance. b. Incorrect The forced-distribution technique requires the rater to assign a certain percentage of employees to one of several predetermined categories (e.g., highest 10%, next highest 20%, middle 40%, and so on). It does not generate the kind of information that is useful for feedback purposes. c. CORRECT BARS (behaviorally-anchored rating scale) is a graphic rating scale in which an employee's performance on several dimensions is rated in terms of specific behaviors. This format facilitates providing the employee with feedback about acceptable and unacceptable work-related behaviors. d. Incorrect A BIB (biographical information blank) is not a performance appraisal technique but, instead, a method for collecting biographical data from job applicants. The correct answer is: BARS

Question 122

Job applicants complain because the selection procedure used by a company does not appear to measure knowledge or skills that are relevant to the job. Based on this information, you can conclude that the selection procedure lacks _______ validity. Select one: A. face B. content C. external D. ecological

Answer 122

The only information you are given about the company's selection procedure is that job applicants don't think it "looks like" it is measuring job-related skills and knowledge. a. CORRECT Face validity is not an actual type of test validty but refers to the extent to which a test "looks valid" to examinees. b. Incorrect Content validity refers to the extent to which a test measures the content or behavior domain it was designed to measure. It is usually established by having subject matter experts use a systematic method for determining if test items are a thorough and accurate sample of the content or behavior domain. c. Incorrect External validity refers to the generalizability of research results. d. Incorrect Ecological validity refers to the extent to which the procedures, context, methods, etc. of a research study approximate the "real-life" situation that is being studied. The correct answer is: face

Question 123

Which step of the four-step organizational assessment includes creating questions that are important to the organization and address topics such as organizational performance and motivation? Select one: A. Step 1 B. Step 2 C. Step 3 D. Step 4

Answer 123

The correct answer is B. Step 1 of the four-step organizational assessment is to: Step *1 determine the purpose of the evaluation, the organizations time and budget, methodology, and how findings will be communicated. Step *2 is to create and include questions involving the organizations performance, capacity, motivation, and the environment. Step *3 involves collection of both qualitative and quantitative data from multiple sources, such as documentation, site visits, and interviews. Step *4 is analysis of the findings. The correct answer is: Step 2

Question 124

A company president is concerned about the low motivation and satisfaction of her employees and, as a result, institutes a wage and bonus (financial) incentive program for all employees. Six months later, the president finds that her efforts have not increased the employees' job motivation or satisfaction. This result is best predicted by which of the following theories? Select one: A. ERG theory B. expectancy theory C. equity theory D. two-factor theory

Answer 124

For the exam, you want to be familiar with the basic assumptions and predictions of the major theories of motivation, which are described in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials. a. Incorrect ERG theory predicts that people have three basic needs - EXISTENCE, RELATEDNESS, and GROWTH. From the perspective of ERG theory, opportunities for increased compensation may help satisfy an individual's needs and thereby lead to increased satisfaction and motivation. b. Incorrect Expectancy theory predicts that valued outcomes lead to increased satisfaction and motivation. There is no information provided in the question suggesting that the wage and incentive program is not valued by employees, so this is not the best response. c. Incorrect Equity theory predicts that motivation is related to the comparisons we make between our input/outcome ratio and the input/outcome ratios of workers performing similar jobs. There is no information given in this questions suggesting that this type of comparison is responsible for the employees' lack of response to the wage and incentive program. d. CORRECT According to two-factor theory, lower-level needs such as physiological and safety needs have little effect on job satisfaction or motivation when they are fulfilled but produce dissatisfaction when they are unfulfilled. In contrast, higher-level needs have little effect on satisfaction and motivation when they are unfulfilled but increase satisfaction and motivation when they are fulfilled. Two-factor theory would, therefore, predict that financial incentives, which address lower-level needs, would not increase motivation and satisfaction. The correct answer is: two-factor theory

Question 125

According to Krumboltz (1996), a person's career path is determined primarily by: Select one: A. basic needs and drives. B. ego identity development. C. perceptions of the match between his/her abilities and the requirements of the job. D. learning that occurs as the result of interactions with other people.

Answer 125

Krumboltz proposes that career decisions are based on what the individual has learned. a. Incorrect Roe (1972) focuses on the impact of basic needs on career development. b. Incorrect Ego identity development is a focus of Tiedeman and O'Hara's (1963) theory of career development. c. Incorrect This does not accurately describe Krumboltz's theory of career decision making. d. CORRECT Krumboltz's social learning theory of career decision-making proposes that career decisions are based primarily on what we have learned, especially from our interactions with others. The correct answer is: learning that occurs as the result of interactions with other people.

Question 126

The bounded rationality (administrative) model predicts that decision-makers "satisfice" rather than "optimize" due to: Select one: A. their tendency to make conservative decisions. B. peer pressure. C. limited time and resources. D. insufficient response-contingent reinforcement.

Answer 126

Herbert Simon (1979) identified two models of individual decision-making: the rational-economic model and the bounded rational (administrative) model. These models are described in the Industrial-Organizational chapter of the written study materials and, for the exam, you want to be familiar with their characteristics. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT According to Simon, limited time and resources require decision-makers to be less than totally rational. Specifically, rather than considering all alternatives before making a decision, they consider alternatives only until they encounter one that meets minimum requirements of acceptability. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: limited time and resources.

Question 127

When using _______________, a leader uses a decision tree to identify the most effective leadership style for a specific situation. Select one: A. Fiedlers contingency model B. Hersey and Blanchards situational leadership model C. Vroom, Yetton, and Jagos normative model D. Lewins force-field model

Answer 127

A decision tree is associated with only one of the models listed in the answers. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT The Vroom-Yetton-Jago normative (decision-making) model includes a decision tree that poses eight questions related to the situation. The leader's answers to these questions indicate the optimal leadership style. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: Vroom, Yetton, and Jagos normative model

Question 128

Which of the following selection techniques is the most accurate predictor of job performance across different jobs and job settings? Select one: A. situational interviews B. general mental ability tests C. interest tests D. work sample tests

Answer 128

The validity of the various selection procedures used in organizations varies somewhat, depending on the specific job. However, this question is asking which procedure is most valid across different jobs and job settings. a. Incorrect Interviews tend to have fairly low validity; and situational (future-oriented) interviews are less valid than behavioral (past-oriented) interviews. b. CORRECT Based on their meta-analysis of published validity studies, Schmidt and Hunter (1998) conclude that general mental (cognitive) ability tests have the highest criterion-related validity coefficients across different jobs, job settings, and criterion measures. c. Incorrect Interest tests are good predictors of job choice, satisfaction, and persistence but are not good predictors of job performance. d. Incorrect Work sample tests are valid for some jobs but are unavailable for many jobs. In addition, they are useful only for hiring experienced applicants. The correct answer is: general mental ability tests

Question 129

In organizations, person-organization (P-O) fit is achieved primarily through: Select one: A. career/vocational counseling. B. organizational development. C. training and evaluation. D. selection and socialization.

Answer 129

The person-organization fit refers to the match between the employee's values, needs, preferences, etc. and the culture of the organization. A good P-O fit has been linked to several benefits including enhanced satisfaction, motivation, and organizational commitment and reduced stress and turnover. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Selection and socialization have been identified as the primary opportunities for ensuring a good person-organization fit (e.g., Chatman, 1991): Selection helps identify individuals whose characteristics match the characteristics of the organization, while socialization (e.g., behavioral modeling by and feedback from the supervisor, participation in work-related social events) helps employees acquire the skills, knowledge, and attitudes that are compatible with the organization's culture. The correct answer is: selection and socialization.

Question 130

Female applicants consistently obtain lower scores on a selection test than do male applicants. However, when they are hired, females perform as well on the job as do males. This situation illustrates which of the following? Select one: A. differential validity B. differential selection C. adverse impact D. unfairness

Answer 130

For the exam, you want to be familiar with the difference between unfairness and differential validity, which are two causes of adverse impact. The illustrations provided in the Industrial-Organization Psychology chapter may be useful if you're having trouble understanding this difference. a. Incorrect Differential validity occurs when a predictor has different validity coefficients for members of different groups. No information is given about the validity coefficients for males and females, so you cannot conclude that the selection test has differential validity. b. Incorrect Differential selection is a threat to the internal validity of a research study and is not relevant to this situation. c. Incorrect The situation described in the question could lead to adverse impact if females are not hired because of their low scores on the predictor. However, the question does not state that the hiring rate for females is lower than the rate for males, so this is not the best response. d. CORRECT The situation described in the question illustrates the EEOC's definition of unfairness: "When members of one race, sex, or ethnic group characteristically obtain lower scores on a selection procedure than members of another group, and the differences in scores are not reflected in differences in a measure of job performance, use of the selection procedure may unfairly deny opportunities to members of the group that obtains the lower scores" (Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures, Section 14.B.8.a). The correct answer is: unfairness

Question 131

The Leaderless Group Discussion is used in organizations to: Select one: A. train and evaluate managerial-level employees. B. mediate conflicts between managers and subordinates. C. improve communication between members of newly formed teams. D. diagnose the cause of communication problems in established work groups.

Answer 131

The Leaderless Group Discussion is a simulation technique that presents four to eight participants with problems that they must solve in a prespecified period of time. a. CORRECT When using this technique, each participant has an opportunity to assume the leader role. This allows each participant to demonstrate his/her leadership (managerial) skills. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: train and evaluate managerial-level employees.

Question 132

An organizational psychologist would use the Position Analysis Questionnaire to: Select one: A. obtain the information needed to complete a job analysis. B. identify employees who are good candidates for managerial positions. C. determine the causes of conflict between supervisors and supervisees. D. evaluate employee performance.

Answer 132

The Position Analysis Questionnaire (PAQ) is a method for obtaining quantitative information about job requirements. a. CORRECT The PAQ is a worker-oriented job analysis questionnaire that is used to obtain information about the attributes needed to perform a job. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: obtain the information needed to complete a job analysis.

Question 133

A problem with the "critical incident technique" is that: Select one: A. it focuses too much on task requirements as opposed to employee attributes. B. it does not provide a very good picture of what is typically required for effective job performance. C. it is susceptible to biases such as the tendency to overestimate what the employee actually accomplishes. D. its items are too general and often do not apply to specific jobs or tasks.

Answer 133

The "critical incident technique" is a method of job analysis, and its results are often used to develop performance appraisal measures. a. Incorrect One criticism of the critical incident technique is that it often focuses too much on employee traits rather than on the characteristics or requirements of the job. b. CORRECT The critical incidents identified using the critical incident technique are behaviors that are crucial to job performance (i.e., extreme behaviors) and often do not reflect what people typically do. c. Incorrect This doesn't really make sense in the context of the critical incident technique. d. Incorrect By definition, critical incidents are specific job behaviors, so this response is incorrect. The correct answer is: it does not provide a very good picture of what is typically required for effective job performance.

Question 134

An implication of Bandura's social cognitive theory is that, to maximize worker motivation, a job should be designed so that: Select one: A. rewards are matched to the employees prepotent needs. B. the job maximizes team (versus individual) responsibility. C. job roles and responsibilities match the employees self-concept. D. the job maximizes opportunities for self-regulation.

Answer 134

The most recent version of Bandura's (1997) social learning theory - social cognitive theory - emphasizes the impact of self-regulation on behavior. a. Incorrect This sounds like Maslow's need hierarchy theory. b. Incorrect Bandura's theory focuses more on individual behavior than on team behavior. c. Incorrect This sounds more like Super's theory of career development. d. CORRECT Bandura's social cognitive theory distinguishes between four processes that contribute to self-regulation: goal-setting, self-observation, self-evaluation, and self-reaction. According to this theory, self-regulation (the exercise of influence over one's own behavior) is a primary determinant of motivation. The correct answer is: the job maximizes opportunities for self-regulation.

Question 135

In the context of Porter and Lawler's (1968) expectancy theory, instrumentality refers to an employee's: Select one: A. belief that successful performance will lead to certain rewards. B. belief that high effort will lead to successful performance. C. commitment to work-related goals. D. willingness to accept responsibility.

Answer 135

Expectancy theory predicts that employee motivation is a function of three factors: expectancy, instrumentality, and valence. Additional information on these factors and how they impact motivation is presented in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials. a. CORRECT In the context of expectancy theory, instrumentality refers to an employee's beliefs about the link between performance and outcomes. b. Incorrect This describes an employee's expectancy beliefs. c. Incorrect This does not describe instrumentality. d. Incorrect This does not describe instrumentality. The correct answer is: belief that successful performance will lead to certain rewards.

Question 136

Studying new information beyond the point of mastery is referred to as: Select one: A. overlearning. B. overtraining. C. elaborative rehearsal. D. maintenance rehearsal.

Answer 136

For the exam, you want to be familiar with all of the phenomena listed in the answers to this question. a. CORRECT Overlearning is what it sounds like -- i.e., studying or reviewing material past the point of mastery. b. Incorrect Overtraining is a term used in sports psychology and refers to physical and psychological stress resulting from excessive athletic training. c. Incorrect Elaborative rehearsal involves relating new information to existing information and is useful for ensuring that information is stored in long-term memory. d. Incorrect Maintenance rehearsal involves simply repeating information with little or no processing. The correct answer is: overlearning.

Question 137

To promote recycling in a community, you attempt to establish a collaboration between educators, community leaders, and interested community members. This approach is best described as: Select one: A. normative-reeducative. B. rational-empirical. C. power-coercive. D. reciprocal-deterministic.

Answer 137

This question is referring to Chin and Benne's (1976) distinction between three strategies for planned change: normative-reeducative, rational-empirical, and power-coercive. a. CORRECT A key characteristic of the normative-reeducative strategy is its focus on COLLABORATION between individuals representing different disciplines and interests in order to use norms and peer pressure to foster change. b. Incorrect The rational-empirical strategy utilizes INFORMATION as the primary change agent. c. Incorrect The power-coercive strategy utilizes the POWER and AUTHORITY of LEADERS to facilitate change. d. Incorrect This is not one of the three change strategies identified by Chin and Benne. The correct answer is: normative-reeducative.

Question 138

Job satisfaction is an accurate predictor of: Select one: A. both job performance and health. B. job performance but not health. C. health but not job performance. D. neither job performance nor health.

Answer 138

For the exam, you want to be familiar with factors that do and do not correlate with job satisfaction, which are described in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT The research has found that job satisfaction is a good predictor of longevity and mental and physical health. However, the studies have consistently found low correlations between job satisfaction and performance. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: health but not job performance.

Question 139

One problem with job enrichment is that: Select one: A. it has not been shown to have beneficial effects on job satisfaction. B. simply increasing the variety of job tasks does not enhance motivation. C. its effects vary from individual to individual. D. it has negative effects on self-esteem, especially for lower-status workers.

Answer 139

Job enrichment involves redesigning a job so that it provides workers with opportunities to satisfy their motivator needs - e.g., opportunities for autonomy, responsibility, recognition, and advancement. a. Incorrect Job enrichment is associated with job satisfaction, at least for some workers. b. Incorrect Job enrichment does not involve "simply increasing the variety of job tasks." c. CORRECT The research suggests that there are individual differences with regard to the acceptance and effectiveness of job enrichment. For example, young, well-educated employees are likely to respond favorably to job enrichment, while employees preferring stability and security to responsibility are likely to respond unfavorably. d. Incorrect Job enrichment has not been linked to low self-esteem. The correct answer is: its effects vary from individual to individual.

Question 140

A supervisor is asked to appraise the performance of the eight employees she supervises. When rating the first employee, the supervisor rates him as average on all dimensions of job performance. She subsequently rates the seven other employees within the average range of the rating scale on all dimensions of job performance. This supervisor appears to be demonstrating which of the following? Select one: A. halo effect B. Hawthorne effect C. social desirability bias D. central tendency bias

Answer 140

This supervisor's ratings seem to be tainted by a rater bias, which is a risk whenever a subjective rating scale is used. Common rater biases are described in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials. a. Incorrect The halo effect occurs when a rater's rating of an employee on one dimension of job performance affects his/her ratings of the employee on unrelated dimensions. b. Incorrect The Hawthorne effect is not a rater bias but, instead, refers to the tendency for research participants to behave differently just because they are participating in a research project. c. Incorrect Social desirability is the tendency for research participants or test takers to act or respond in a manner that they believe to be most socially acceptable. d. CORRECT The central tendency bias occurs when a rater uses the middle (average) range of a rating scale regardless of the actual performance of the ratees. Of course, in this situation, all of the supervisor's employees may have been working at an average level but, of the alternatives given, central tendency bias is the best choice. The correct answer is: central tendency bias

Question 141

Which of the following will have the greatest impact on employees' perceptions of distributive justice at work? Select one: A. Employees receive the pay and benefits they believe they deserve. B. Employees participate in making decisions that affect their jobs. C. Employees believe hiring and promotion decisions are fair. D. Employees feel they are treated with respect and consideration by managers.

Answer 141

Researchers interested in organizational justice distinguish between three types - DISTRIBUTIVE, PROCEDURAL, and INTERACTIONAL. For the exam, you want to be familiar with the nature of each type of justice as well as with the outcomes of research on these types of justice, which are described in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials. a. CORRECT Distributive justice refers to the fairness of the outcomes of organizational policies and procedures. b. Incorrect This sounds more like PROCEDURAL justice, which refers to the fairness of the ways in which procedures and policies are implemented. c. Incorrect This also sounds like PROCEDURAL justice. d. Incorrect INTERACTIONAL justice refers to how employees perceive the quality and content of their interactions with managers and other employees. The correct answer is: Employees receive the pay and benefits they believe they deserve.

Question 142

Criterion ___________ refers to the degree to which a supervisor's evaluation of an employee's job performance is biased by the supervisor's knowledge of the employee's score on the selection test used to hire the employee. Select one: A. deficiency B. contamination C. relevance D. partiality

Answer 142

In this situation, the supervisor's knowledge of the employee's selection test score is "contaminating" his/her rating of the employee on a criterion (job performance) measure. a. Incorrect Criterion deficiency refers to the degree to which a criterion measure does not measure all aspects of the "ultimate" criterion. The information provided in the question does not indicate that the measure of job performance is deficient in terms of being a thorough measure of performance. It only indicates that the measure is susceptible to criterion contamination. b. CORRECT The situation described in this question illustrates criterion contamination. c. Incorrect Criterion relevance refers to the extent to which a criterion measure evaluates the "ultimate" criterion. d. Incorrect Criterion partiality is a "made up" term. The correct answer is: contamination

Question 143

As a job redesign strategy, "job enrichment" is: Select one: A. appropriate for managerial-level employees only. B. appropriate for white-collar workers only. C. appropriate for blue-collar workers only. D. appropriate for a wide range of lower- and higher-level jobs.

Answer 143

Job enrichment is based on Herzberg's two-factor theory and involves redesigning a job so that it provides workers with opportunities to satisfy their motivator needs - e.g., opportunities for responsibility, recognition, and advancement. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Job enrichment has been found to be effective for a variety of jobs. Early applications of this technique applied it to a diverse range of jobs including clerks, service representatives, laboratory technicians, and production workers. The correct answer is: appropriate for a wide range of lower- and higher-level jobs.

Question 144

The best way to mitigate the effects of groupthink on a group's ability to make decisions and solve problems would be to: Select one: A. encourage dissidence and criticism. B. have the group leader present his/her favored solution at the start of the meeting. C. increase group cohesion and interdependence. D. encourage the group to make "riskier" decisions.

Answer 144

Janis (1972) coined the term "groupthink" to describe the suspension of critical thinking that occurs in highly cohesive groups. Groupthink is associated with illusions of invulnerability and superior morality, strong pressure toward uniformity, and insulation from outside input. a. CORRECT Groupthink occurs most often in highly cohesive groups when members feel a need to achieve consensus and, therefore, disregard and discourage consideration of alternative actions. Actively encouraging dissent and criticism would help disrupt the pattern of communication and problem-solving that characterizes groupthink. b. Incorrect This course of action would tend to increase groupthink. c. Incorrect High group cohesiveness is a cause of groupthink. d. Incorrect Groups have a tendency to make decisions that are more risky than the decisions made by individuals working alone. Thus, this course of action would not reduce groupthink. The correct answer is: encourage dissidence and criticism.

Question 145

If a supervisor includes the supervisee in the goal-setting process, what will most likely the resulting goals be: Select one: A. less difficult than the goals the supervisor would have set alone. B. more difficult than the goals the supervisor would have set alone. C. similar in difficulty level to the goals the supervisor would have set alone. D. less realistic than the goals the supervisor would have set alone.

Answer 145

Answer B is correct. Although studies have shown that participation in goal-setting is generally less important than the acceptance of goals, there is evidence that, in some circumstances, participation is associated with benefits. There is evidence that, when workers participate in setting their own goals, the goals are more difficult than those the supervisor would have set alone. The correct answer is: more difficult than the goals the supervisor would have set alone.

Question 146

Group polarization refers to the tendency of: Select one: A. large groups to be more cohesive than small groups are. B. small groups to be more cohesive than large groups are. C. groups to make more extreme decisions than individuals make. D. groups make more centrist (moderate) decisions than individuals make.

Answer 146

Research on group decision-making has confirmed that it is associated with several liabilities including group polarization. a. Incorrect This answer does not describe group polarization. b. Incorrect This answer does not describe group polarization. c. CORRECT The research has shown that, after participating in a group discussion, group members are likely to advocate more extreme positions than they would have advocated if they had not participated in the discussion. This phenomenon is referred to as group polarization. d. Incorrect This does not describe group polarization. The correct answer is: groups to make more extreme decisions than individuals make.

Question 147

An employee perceives a discrepancy between his input/outcome ratio and the input/outcome ratio of a fellow employee who is performing the same job. This situation is: Select one: A. equally likely to affect the employee's performance whether he perceives a state of underpayment or overpayment. B. more likely to have an effect on the employee's performance if he perceives that he is being underpaid. C. more likely to have an effect on the employee's performance if he perceives that he is being overpaid. D. likely to affect the employee's interpretation of the situation but not his actual performance.

Answer 147

This question is asking about EQUITY THEORY, which predicts that motivation and performance are related to perceptions about one's own input/outcome ratio and the input/outcome ratios of comparable others. a. Incorrect Although under- and overpayment may affect an employee's performance, not surprisingly, underpayment tends to have a greater impact. b. CORRECT Underpayment is more likely to cause a substantial change in performance, especially a long-term change. c. Incorrect This is the opposite of what the research has found. d. Incorrect A sense of inequity does, in fact, alter performance. The correct answer is: more likely to have an effect on the employee's performance if he perceives that he is being underpaid.

Question 148

Of the "Big Five" personality traits, ____________ is most predictive of job performance across different types of jobs and job settings. Select one: A. openness to experience B. conscientiousness C. agreeableness D. extraversion

Answer 148

Empirical research has identified five basic personality traits (the "Big Five"): neuroticism, extraversion, openness to experience, agreeableness, and conscientiousness. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT Conscientiousness refers to the individual's level of responsibility, dependability, persistence, self-control, and achievement motivation. Perhaps not surprisingly, of the Big Five traits, conscientiousness has been found to the best predictor of job performance across different jobs, job settings, and criterion measures. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: conscientiousness

Question 149

In the context of training, "identical elements" is associated with: Select one: A. overlearning. B. overtraining. C. elaborative rehearsal. D. transfer of training.

Answer 149

Identical elements refers to the similarity between the learning and performance environments. a. Incorrect Overlearning involves practicing past the point of mastery and is not relevant to identical elements. b. Incorrect The term overtraining is used in sports psychology and refers to the physical and psychological stress resulting from excessive athletic training. c. Incorrect Elaborative rehearsal involves making new information meaningful by relating it to previously acquired information. It is not relevant to identical elements. d. CORRECT Providing identical elements refers to matching the training environment to the job environment and is useful for maximizing transfer of training. The correct answer is: transfer of training.

Question 150

A group member accumulates "idiosyncrasy credits" by: Select one: A. acting in unexpected or spontaneous ways during group meetings. B. challenging the group leaders authority. C. acting as the self-appointed mind guard in group meetings. D. consistently adhering to group norms.

Answer 150

According to Hollander (1960), idiosyncrasy credits allow group members to occasionally violate group norms without experiencing negative consequences. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT A group member accumulates idiosyncrasy credits by gaining prestige, status, and respect; and one way for doing so is to consistently adhere to group norms. The correct answer is: consistently adhering to group norms.

Question 151

Dr. Adolfo is hired as a consultant by the owner of a company who says she is having problems with employee productivity. As an advocate of goal-setting theory, Dr. Adolfo will most likely tell the owner that, to maximize the productivity of her employees, she should: Select one: A. let employees with low need for achievement set their own goals, but assign goals to those with high need for achievement. B. let employees set their own goals when feedback about goal achievement is unavailable, but assign goals to employees when they will be provided with regular feedback. C. assign goals to employees that are within the capabilities of the least proficient employees. D. assign moderately difficult goals to employees and provide them with regular feedback about their attainment of those goals.

Answer 151

Research on goal-setting theory has shown that several factors affect the willingness and ability of employees to achieve work-related goals. For example, in most circumstances, the acceptance of goals is more important than participation in setting goals. a. Incorrect Participation in goal-setting is more effective for workers who have a high need for achievement. b. Incorrect Feedback about the achievement of goals is important regardless of whether goals are set by the employees themselves or are assigned to employees by the supervisor. c. Incorrect Moderately difficult goals (not goals "within the capabilities of the least proficient workers") have been found to be most effective. d. CORRECT Studies have found that moderately difficult goals plus feedback about progress toward those goals results in the greatest productivity. The correct answer is: assign moderately difficult goals to employees and provide them with regular feedback about their attainment of those goals.

Question 152

In terms of Hofstede's (1980) five cultural dimensions, the United States scores at the top of the scale on: Select one: A. individualism. B. individualism and power distance. C. power distance and masculinity. D. uncertainty avoidance.

Answer 152

Hofstede's five cultural dimensions are power distance, uncertainty avoidance, individualism, masculinity, and long-term orientation. a. CORRECT Even if you're unfamiliar with Hofstede's research, you probably could have guessed that the United States scores high on individualism. b. Incorrect Although the U.S. is high on individualism, it is low on power distance. c. Incorrect The U.S. is low on power distance and moderate to high on masculinity. d. Incorrect The U.S. is low to moderate on uncertainty avoidance. The correct answer is: individualism.

Question 153

According to Maslow (1954), once a person's physiological needs are satisfied, his or her ________ needs become the primary source of motivation. Select one: A. belongingness B. esteem C. growth D. safety

Answer 153

Maslow's need hierarchy theory proposes that humans have five basic needs ``` Physiological Safety Belongingness Esteem Self-Actualization ``` (PSBES-A) and that these needs emerge in a hierarchical order, with unsatisfied lower-level needs being prepotent. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Maslow's theory predicts that once an individual's physiological needs are satisfied, his/her safety needs become prepotent - i.e., they become the primary motivators. The correct answer is: safety

Question 154

In terms of EEOC guidelines, a substantially different rate of selection or promotion that results in disadvantage to people of a particular gender, race, or ethnicity is evidence of: Select one: A. test bias. B. adverse impact. C. criterion deficiency. D. situational specificity.

Answer 154

The language in this question is nearly identical to that found in the EEOC's Uniform Guidelines. a. Incorrect Test bias is a possible cause of adverse impact but is not the best answer to this question. b. CORRECT As defined by the EEOC, adverse impact is suggested when there is a difference between groups in terms of rates of selection, promotion, etc. c. Incorrect Criterion deficiency refers to the extent to which a criterion measure does not assess all of the aspects of the ultimate (accurate and complete) criterion. d. Incorrect Situational specificity is occurring when validity information is specific to a particular circumstance and does not generalize to other circumstances. The correct answer is: adverse impact.

Question 155

Research indicates that the nature of communication networks can affect worker satisfaction, group performance, and leadership effectiveness. For instance, when tasks are complex and unstructured: Select one: A. a centralized communication network is associated with better group performance. B. a centralized communication network is associated with better group performance only when the group leader is authoritarian. C. a decentralized communication network is associated with better group performance. D. a decentralized communication network is associated with better group performance only when the group leader is authoritarian.

Answer 155

Researchers interested in work-related communication distinguish between two types of communication networks - centralized and decentralized. The characteristics and outcomes associated with these networks are described in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT The research indicates that decentralized networks, in which no one individual has greater access to information, are best for complex, unstructured tasks that have a number of different solutions. Centralized networks, on the other hand, are better for simple, structured tasks. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: a decentralized communication network is associated with better group performance.

Question 156

A measure of __________ would be most useful for determining the likelihood that employees will remain on the job for a long period of time. Select one: A. job satisfaction B. job productivity C. intelligence D. motivation

Answer 156

As described in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials, job satisfaction has been linked to a number of consequences, including turnover rates. a. CORRECT The correlation between satisfaction and turnover is one of the strongest reported in the literature, with lower levels of satisfaction being associated with higher levels of turnover. The other measures listed in the answers have not been found to correlate highly with turnover. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: job satisfaction

Question 157

Holmes and Rahe's (1967) Social Readjustment Rating Scale identifies which of the following life changes as the most stressful? Select one: A. losing one's job B. sexual difficulties C. death of a spouse D. imprisonment

Answer 157

Holmes and Rahe (1967) developed the Social Readjustment Rating Scale (SRRS) as a method for evaluating a person's current level of stress. a. Incorrect Losing one's job is the 7th most stressful event on the SRRS. b. Incorrect Sexual difficulties is the 9th most stressful event. c. CORRECT Death of a spouse is the most stressful event included in the SRRS. d. Incorrect Imprisonment is the third most stressful event. The correct answer is: death of a spouse

Question 158

When a predictor has a validity coefficient of .40 and the base rate is 60%, the predictor will be maximally useful for decision-making when the selection ratio is: Select one: A. 1:2 B. 1:20 C. 2:10 D. 15:10

Answer 158

Answer B is correct: The usefulness of a selection test for making hiring decisions is affected by three factors: its validity coefficient, the selection ratio, and the base rate. These factors are described in the section on incremental validity in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials. A predictor's decision-making accuracy (incremental validity) is maximized when the base rate is close to 50% and the selection ratio is as low as possible. A selection ratio of 1:20 (5%) means that there are twenty applicants for every one job opening, and, of the selection ratios given, it is the lowest. (A low selection ratio is preferable because it provides the employer with a larger pool of applicants to choose from and thereby maximizes the usefulness of the selection test.) The correct answer is: 1:20

Question 159

Research comparing day, swing, and night shifts has found that: Select one: A. the night shift is associated with the highest accident rates and has the most detrimental impact on social relations. B. the night shift is associated with the highest accident rates, but the swing shift has the most detrimental impact on social relations. C. the swing shift is associated with the highest accident rates, but the night shift has the most detrimental impact on social relations. D. the swing shift is associated with the highest accident rates and has the most detrimental impact on social relations.

Answer 159

Answer B is correct. The outcomes associated with different work shifts are summarized in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials. Studies comparing the impact of the various work shifts have not produced entirely consistent results. However, it does appear that the night shift is associated with the highest accident rates and lowest performance, apparently as the result of sleep deprivation. In contrast, the swing shift has the most negative impact on family and other social relationships. The correct answer is: the night shift is associated with the highest accident rates, but the swing shift has the most detrimental impact on social relations.

Question 160

What are the three approaches to Program Evaluation? Select one: A. Structured-Based, Outcome-Based, and Grant-Based B. Organizational-Based, Goal-Based, and Challenged-Based C. Process-Based, Outcomes-Based, Goals-Based D. Didactic-Based, Outcomes-Based, Goals-Based

Answer 160

The correct answer is C. GOALS-BASED measures the extent to which the program is achieving its objectives; PROCESS-BASED evaluates the effectiveness of systems and structures that guide a programs success; and OUTCOMES-BASED evaluates the benefits received by client participation in a program. Answer A, B and D are incorrect as structured-based, organizational-based and didactic-based are not relevant methods of program evaluation. The correct answer is: Process-Based, Outcomes-Based, Goals-Based

Question 161

When performing a(n) ________ task, group members select a solution offered by one of the group members as the group's solution. Select one: A. compensatory B. disjunctive C. conjunctive D. additive

Answer 161

A distinction is made between four types of group tasks - compensatory, disjunctive, conjunctive, and additive. a. Incorrect In a COMPENSATORY task, the group's performance is the average of the effort or performance of the individual members. b. CORRECT For DISJUNCTIVE tasks, the group selects a solution (ideally the optimal solution) from those proposed by individual group members. c. Incorrect On CONJUNCTIVE tasks, group members act in unison, which means that the group product is limited by the performance of the weakest member. d. Incorrect When working on an ADDITIVE task, the group product is the sum of the contributions of each member. The correct answer is: disjunctive

Question 162

According to Super's career development theory, job satisfaction is directly related to: Select one: A. the degree of similarity between the individuals ego identity and career identity. B. the degree of satisfaction that the person has with his/her life in general. C. the degree to which the person is able to implement his/her self-concept at work. D. the degree to which the job fulfills the person's most prepotent needs.

Answer 162

Knowing that the "self-concept" is a key concept in Super's theory would have enabled you to identify the correct answer to this question. a. Incorrect Ego identity is a focus of Tiedeman and O'Hara's theory of career development. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT According to Super, the self-concept consists of the values, abilities, personality traits, needs, and interests that we believe we possess. Self-concept influences career choice, and the degree of match between the self-concept and the job affects the individual's job satisfaction, stability, and success. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: the degree to which the person is able to implement his/her self-concept at work.

Question 163

Frame-of-reference training is used to: Select one: A. increase the use of effective rehearsal strategies in older adults. B. improve the diagnostic accuracy of clinical psychologists. C. improve a raters accuracy when evaluating a ratees performance. D. train and evaluate managerial-level employees.

Answer 163

Frame-of-reference (FOR) training is a type of rater training. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT The goal of FOR training is to improve raters' accuracy when completing performance appraisals by helping them identify and focus on the most important job performance dimensions and distinguish behaviors that are indicative of good, average, and poor performance within each dimension. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: improve a raters accuracy when evaluating a ratees performance.

Question 164

As defined by Brousseau and Driver (1994), "career concept" refers to a person's: Select one: A. work-related personality characteristics. B. work-related roles and responsibilities. C. career identity. D. career decisions and motives.

Answer 164

Career concept is a key concept in K. R. Brousseau and M. J. Driver's model of career development (Enhancing informed choice: A career-concepts approach to career advisement, Selections, Spring, 24-31, 1994). a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT As defined by Brousseau and Driver, career concept refers to an individual's career decisions and motives, which vary in terms of three dimensions - frequency of job change; direction of change; and type of change in job content. Status on these dimensions produces four career concepts: steady state, linear, spiral, and transitory. The correct answer is: career decisions and motives.

Question 165

Job rotation, job enrichment, and job enlargement: Select one: A. maximize responsibility and autonomy. B. help alleviate alienation and boredom. C. increase organizational commitment. D. improve the quality but not the quantity of work.

Answer 165

Job rotation, job enrichment, and job enlargement are methods of job redesign. a. Incorrect This is true of job enrichment but not job enlargement, and may or may not be true of job rotation depending on what jobs are involved. (Job rotation involves rotating periodically through several different jobs.) b. CORRECT By increasing the variety of tasks (which all three methods of job redesign do), worker alienation and boredom are likely to be reduced. c. Incorrect This has not been shown to be an outcome of all three of these methods of job redesign. d. Incorrect This does not accurately describe the outcomes associated with all three of these types of job redesign. The correct answer is: help alleviate alienation and boredom.

Question 166

According to Hersey and Blanchard's situational leadership model, a leader should use a "participative" style for subordinates who have: Select one: A. low ability and low motivation. B. low ability and high motivation. C. high ability and low motivation. D. high ability and high motivation.

Answer 166

Hersey and Blanchard's situational leadership model proposes that a leader is most effective when his/her leadership style matches the subordinate's ability and motivation (willingness to accept responsibility), and they distinguish between four styles -- telling, selling, participating, and delegating [TSPD]. a. Incorrect A TELLING style is most effective for employees low in both ability and motivation. b. Incorrect A SELLING style is most effective for employees who are low in ability and high in motivation. c. CORRECT According to Hersey and Blanchard, a PARTICIPATIVE leadership style is most effective when subordinates have high levels of ability and low levels of motivation. d. Incorrect A DELEGATING style is most effective for employees who are high in both ability and motivation. The correct answer is: high ability and low motivation.

Question 167

In organizations, peer evaluations: Select one: A. agree more with self-evaluations than with supervisor evaluations. B. are useful for predicting an employees subsequent promotions. C. have been found to be consistently more lenient than self-evaluations. D. are preferred by employees to supervisor evaluations.

Answer 167

Peer evaluations are not often used in organizations, but the research indicates that they can provide accurate and useful information. a. Incorrect The research suggests that peer and supervisor ratings agree more with each other than they do with self-ratings. b. CORRECT Peer evaluations have been found valid for certain purposes and appear to be particularly accurate in predicting training success and subsequent promotions. c. Incorrect This has not been a finding of the research. d. Incorrect This has not been demonstrated by the research. The correct answer is: are useful for predicting an employees subsequent promotions.

Question 168

Trainability tests are: Select one: A. paper-and-pencil tests that assess the aptitudes required for a particular job. B. paper-and-pencil tests that assess motivation and other job-related attitudes. C. work samples that incorporate a structured period of learning and evaluation. D. multimodal assessment techniques used to determine what training current workers require.

Answer 168

As their name implies, trainability tests are used to determine if individuals will benefit from training. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Trainability tests are similar to work samples except they are given to people who currently do not have sufficient skills or knowledge to perform the job. They are used to determine if a job applicant is likely to benefit from training. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: work samples that incorporate a structured period of learning and evaluation.

Question 169

One problem with Biographical Information Blanks (BIBs) is that they: Select one: A. have been found to have limited criterion-related validity. B. are susceptible to rater biases. C. contain some items that are difficult to score. D. contain some items that lack face validity.

Answer 169

Biographical Information Blanks (BIBs) are empirically developed biodata forms that contain multiple-choice questions that assess various aspects of the applicant's background including work history, family history, health, and attitudes. a. Incorrect Because they are empirically developed, BIBs usually have good criterion-related validity. b. Incorrect Rater biases are not an issue for BIBs. c. Incorrect Because the items use a multiple-choice format, they are easy to score. d. CORRECT A disadvantage of BIBs and other empirically derived biodata forms is that some items may not seem to be related to actual job performance to job applicants - i.e., the items lack face validity. As a result, applicants may resist answering items because they perceive them to be an invasion of privacy. The correct answer is: contain some items that lack face validity.

Question 170

According to the Yerkes-Dodson law: Select one: A. higher levels of arousal are associated with higher levels of learning and performance. B. moderate levels of arousal are associated with the highest levels of learning and performance. C. higher levels of satisfaction are associated with higher levels of job performance. D. moderate levels of satisfaction are associated with the highest levels of job performance.

Answer 170

The Yerkes-Dodson law pertains to the relationship between arousal and learning or performance. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT The Yerkes-Dodson law predicts an inverted U-shaped relationship between arousal and learning or performance, with moderate levels of arousal being associated with the highest levels of learning or performance. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: moderate levels of arousal are associated with the highest levels of learning and performance.

Question 171

When using survey feedback as an organizational development technique, the focus of the survey is on: Select one: A. overt and covert hierarchies within the organization. B. employees attitudes toward and perceptions of the organization. C. managers beliefs about organizational goals and objectives. D. customers attitudes toward the organization and its services or products.

Answer 171

Survey feedback entails three steps: data collection, feedback meetings, and action plans. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT The survey feedback process involves administering a survey to employees at all levels to assess their attitudes toward and perceptions of the organization and to evaluate the organizational climate. The results of the survey are discussed with employees and provide the basis for identifying specific problems and actions plans for resolving those problems. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: employees attitudes toward and perceptions of the organization.

Question 172

Alderfer's (1972) ERG theory is best viewed as a modification of and alternative to: Select one: A. Maslow's need hierarchy theory. B. Herzberg's two-factor theory. C. Vroom's expectancy theory. D. Bandura's social cognitive theory.

Answer 172

ERG theory proposes that we have three basic needs: EXISTENCE, RELATEDNESS, and GROWTH. a. CORRECT Alderfer modified Maslow's need hierarchy theory so that it better corresponds to research showing that humans have three (rather than five) distinct needs and that more than one need can act as a motivator at any point in time. b. Incorrect See explanation above. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: Maslow's need hierarchy theory.