STUDY MODE - Practice Exam 3

Question 1

Studies on effective treatments for Bulimia Nervosa have found that:
Select one:

A. cognitive behavioral therapy alone and treatment with an SSRI alone are about equally effective but, in most cases, combining the two treatments does not improve outcomes.
B. cognitive behavioral therapy alone and treatment with an SSRI alone are about equally effective and, in many cases, combining the two treatments improves outcomes.
C. treatment with an SSRI alone is superior to cognitive behavior therapy alone but, for some patients, combining the two treatments improves outcomes.
D. cognitive behavioral therapy alone is superior to treatment with an SSRI alone but, for some patients, combining the two treatments improves outcomes.

Answer 1

Of the treatments for Bulimia Nervosa, cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) has been most extensively studied and consistently found to be an effective approach.

a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT The studies have found that an SSRI alone is not as effective as CBT alone. However, an SSRI may be useful when administered in conjunction with CBT when CBT alone has not been sufficiently effective. See, e.g., A. J. Zhu and B. T. Walsh, Pharmacologic treatment for eating disorders, Canadian Journal of Psychiatry, 47, 227-234, 2002.

The correct answer is: cognitive behavioral therapy alone is superior to treatment with an SSRI alone but, for some patients, combining the two treatments improves outcomes.

Question 2

Following the death of her pet cat, Puff, six-year-old Jane constantly follows and clings to her mother and becomes extremely upset whenever her mother leaves the house. Jane says she can’t go to school because she has a stomachache or other physical ailment. The most likely diagnosis for Jane is:
Select one:

A. Adjustment Disorder.
B. Reactive Attachment Disorder.
C. Separation Anxiety Disorder.
D. Acute Stress Disorder.

Answer 2

The girl’s core symptom is anxiety related to separation.

a. Incorrect Adjustment Disorder is diagnosed when symptoms do not meet the criteria for another mental disorder, which is not the case in this situation.
b. Incorrect Reactive Attachment Disorder involves markedly disturbed and developmentally inappropriate social relatedness.
c. CORRECT The girl’s anxiety is tied to separation from an attachment figure (her mother), which is the primary characteristic of Separation Anxiety Disorder. This disorder is often triggered by a stressor such as the death of a relative or pet and is manifested as somatic symptoms and school phobia.
d. Incorrect The diagnosis of Acute Stress Disorder requires exposure to an extreme stressor and a specific pattern of symptoms - e.g., avoidance of reminders of the event, distressing memories of the event, derealization.

The correct answer is: Separation Anxiety Disorder.

Question 3

_______________ is the likely DSM diagnosis for a mother when her child’s persistent vomiting stops whenever the child is removed from the mother’s care for several days.
Select one:

A. Malingering
B. Factitious Disorder
C. Ganser syndrome
D. folie a deux

Answer 3

Answer B is correct: The major feature of Factitious Disorder is the intentional production or feigning of physical or psychological symptoms in oneself or another person. The information provided in the question suggests that the mother is inducing her child’s symptoms. (Note that, when symptoms are produced in another person, the diagnosis is Factitious Disorder Imposed on Another.)

Answer A: Malingering involves the intentional production, faking, or gross exaggeration of physical or psychological symptoms in oneself in order to obtain an external reward.

c. Incorrect Ganser Syndrome is not a DSM diagnostic category. A person with this disorder mimics behaviors he/she believes are typical of psychosis (e.g., providing obviously wrong answers to questions).

d. Incorrect Folie a deux is also known as shared psychotic disorder and involves the development of a delusion in a person who has a close personal relationship with another person who already has a delusion.
The correct answer is: Factitious Disorder

Question 4

The most commonly prescribed treatment for moderate to severe obstructive sleep apnea is:
Select one:

A. tracheostomy.
B. oral appliances.
C. adaptive servo-ventilation (ASV).
D. continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)

Answer 4

Sleep apnea involves brief, repeated interruptions in breathing during sleep that last for 10 seconds or more. The most common type is obstructive sleep apnea, which is caused by a relaxation of soft tissue at the back of the throat that blocks the passage of air in the nose and throat.

a. Incorrect Tracheostomy is a type of surgery that is sometimes used to alleviate severe forms of sleep apnea when other treatments have failed.
b. Incorrect Oral appliances (e.g., dental appliances that reposition the lower jaw and tongue) are generally less effective than CPAP and are sometimes used to treat mild cases of obstructive sleep apnea.
c. Incorrect ASV is an airflow device that is used to treat central and mixed sleep apnea.

d. CORRECT CPAP involves the use of a nasal mask that produces a continuous flow of air that forces the airways open. It is the most common treatment for moderate to severe obstructive sleep apnea.
The correct answer is: continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP).

Question 5

Regular use of morphine or other opioid can quickly result in the development of tolerance and dependence. When this occurs, abrupt cessation of the drug produces a withdrawal syndrome that is characterized by:
Select one:

A. blackouts and seizures.
B. flu-like symptoms.
C. rebound anxiety and rebound insomnia.
D. delirium tremens.

Answer 5

Morphine withdrawal closely resembles a moderately severe case of the flu.

a. Incorrect Blackouts and seizures are not characteristic of the withdrawal syndrome associated with morphine.
b. CORRECT Common withdrawal symptoms include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal and muscle cramps, runny nose and eyes, chills, and insomnia.
c. Incorrect Rebound anxiety and rebound insomnia are associated with withdrawal from a benzodiazepine. (“Rebound” occurs when the initial symptom - i.e., the symptom for which the drug was prescribed - returns in a more severe form when the drug is withdrawn.)
d. Incorrect Delirium tremens (confusion and visual hallucinations) are severe symptoms that may result from abrupt withdrawal from alcohol.

The correct answer is: flu-like symptoms.

Question 6

Research on characteristics associated with successful smoking cessation suggests that which of the following individuals is most likely to relapse following an attempt to stop smoking cigarettes?
Select one:

A. a 51 year old married man who started smoking at age 32
B. a 25 year old single man who started smoking at age 16
C. a 34 year old married woman who started smoking at age 25
D. a 42 year old divorced woman who started smoking at age 20

Answer 6

Answer B is correct: Researchers have identified a number of factors that predict successful smoking cessation.
Successful quitters are more likely to be male, age 35 or older, married or living with a partner, and have started smoking at a later age. Therefore, of the individuals described in the answers to this question, a 25-year-old man who is single and started smoking at age 16 is least likely to be a successful quitter.

The correct answer is: a 25 year old single man who started smoking at age 16

Question 7

For a DSM-5 diagnosis of Binge-Eating Disorder, an individual must have engaged in binge-eating, on average:
Select one:

A. once a week for at least one month.
B. once a week for at least three months.
C. twice a week for at least one month.
D. twice a week for at least three months.

Answer 7

Answer B is correct: For this diagnosis, the DSM-5 requires binges to have occurred, on average, once a week for a minimum of three months.

Answers A, C, and D: See explanation for answer B.

The correct answer is: once a week for at least three months.

Question 8

Recent research has shown that single-session Psychological Debriefing (PD):
Select one:

A. is as effective as, or in some cases more effective than, multiple-session PD for preventing PTSD.
B. is as effective as multiple-session PD for preventing PTSD only when the session is sufficiently long to elicit a cathartic reaction.
C. is effective for preventing PTSD only when it is administered within 24 hours following exposure to the traumatic event.
D. is not effective for preventing PTSD and may actually exacerbate PTSD symptoms.

Answer 8

Although single-session Psychological Debriefing (PD) is utilized as a prevention for PTSD, recent empirical research has not been supportive of its use.

a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. (Also note that there is some evidence that multiple-session PD may be ineffective as well.)
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT B. T. Litz et al., for example, conclude from their review of the research that there is sufficient empirical evidence to indicate that PD should not be provided to individuals immediately after a trauma. The studies they reviewed showed that one-session PD is not effective and, in some cases, actually increases the likelihood of PTSD symptoms. (Early intervention for trauma: Current status and future directions, Clinical Psychology: Science and Practice, 9, 112-134, 2002.)

The correct answer is: is not effective for preventing PTSD and may actually exacerbate PTSD symptoms.

Question 9

The symptoms of Borderline Personality Disorder are:
Select one:

A. usually most severe during the early adult years.
B. usually most severe during middle age.
C. usually most severe during older adulthood.
D. stable in terms of severity over the adult years

Answer 9

Borderline Personality Disorder is characterized by a pervasive pattern of instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, and affect and marked impulsivity.

a. CORRECT Longitudinal studies have confirmed that the symptoms of BPD are ordinarily most severe during the early adulthood years. See, e.g., J. Paris, Implications of long-term outcome research for the management of patients with Borderline Personality Disorder, Harvard Review of Psychiatry, 10(6), 315-323, 2002.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.

The correct answer is: usually most severe during the early adult years.

Question 10

Which of the following is not categorized as an Anxiety Disorder in the DSM-5?
Select one:

A. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
B. Separation Anxiety Disorder
C. Panic Disorder
D. Agoraphobia

Answer 10

Answer A is correct: Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder is included in the DSM-5 with Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders, which also includes Body Dysmorphic Disorder, Hoarding Disorder, Trichotillomania, and Excoriation Disorder.

Answers B, C, and D: The following diagnoses are categorized as Anxiety Disorders in the DSM-5: Separation Anxiety Disorder, Selective Mutism, Specific Phobia, Social Anxiety Disorder, Panic Disorder, Agoraphobia, and Generalized Anxiety Disorder.

The correct answer is: Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder

Question 11

A 31-year old male client presents with delusions and auditory hallucinations. His wife says that his symptoms developed soon after the sudden death of his mother nearly three weeks ago. The tentative diagnosis is:
Select one:

A. Schizophrenia.
B. Schizophreniform Disorder.
C. Brief Psychotic Disorder.
D. Schizoaffective Disorder.

Answer 11

Answer C is correct: The diagnosis of Brief Psychotic Disorder requires the presence of one or more of four characteristic symptoms with at least one symptom being delusions, hallucinations, or disorganized speech and with symptoms being present for at least one day but less than one month. Symptoms often develop after exposure to an overwhelming stressor but this is not required for the diagnosis.

Answer A: A diagnosis of Schizophrenia requires the presence of at least two active-phase symptoms for at least one month with at least one symptom being delusions, hallucinations, or disorganized speech plus continuous signs of the disorder for at least six months.

Answer B: Schizophreniform Disorder has symptoms that are similar to those of Schizophrenia but with a duration between one and six months.

Answer D: Schizoaffective Disorder is the appropriate diagnosis when the individual has a history of concurrent symptoms of Schizophrenia and a manic or major depressive episode with at least two weeks without prominent mood symptoms.

The correct answer is: Brief Psychotic Disorder.

Question 12

A delusion of the erotomanic type is illustrated by which of the following?
Select one:

A. A woman is convinced that her pastor at church is madly in love with her even though he has told her that he’s not.
B. A woman believes that every man she comes into contact with wants to have sexual relations with her.
C. A man is preoccupied with sexual fantasies about a co-worker who has shown no interest in him.
D. A man is concerned about reaching orgasm far too quickly even though his wife repeatedly reassures him that he doesn’t have this problem.

Answer 12

A delusion of the erotomanic type involves a false belief that another person, usually of higher status, is in love with the individual.

a. CORRECT Of the situations described, this one comes closest to an erotomanic delusion.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.

The correct answer is: A woman is convinced that her pastor at church is madly in love with her even though he has told her that he’s not.

Question 13

The wife of an alcoholic is told she is “co-dependent.” This means that she:
Select one:

A. also has a drinking problem.
B. overtly or covertly supports her husband’s drinking.
C. is happy only when her husband is not drinking.
D. exaggerates the impact and severity of her husband’s problem.

Answer 13

The term co-dependent was originally applied to people who are emotionally involved with alcoholics, but is now more widely used to refer to people who support any addiction of another person.

a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Definitions of co-dependence vary from author to author, but this description comes closest to most currently accepted definitions. Co-dependents overtly or covertly support, and thereby help maintain, the addiction of another person.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. (Note that, while there may be some truth to responses c and d in some cases, they do not describe co-dependence as accurately as response b.)
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.

The correct answer is: overtly or covertly supports her husband’s drinking.

Question 14

For some adolescents and adults, it may be difficult to distinguish ADHD from OCD due to an overlap in symptoms. ADHD may be difficult to distinguish from Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder because the individual with ADHD:
Select one:

A. may be preoccupied with multiple worries that interfere with his/her ability to concentrate and complete tasks.
B. may attempt to compensate for his/her attention deficits by developing repetitive routines.
C. tends to avoid performance situations that are likely to produce high levels of anxiety.
D. exhibits oppositional behavior and low frustruation tolerance, as manifested by excessive irritability or temper outbursts.

Answer 14

Eliminating answers that contain symptoms that are not characteristic of ADHD or OCD would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.

a. Incorrect Preoccupation with multiple worries is characteristic of Generalized Anxiety Disorder (not OCD). Also, for individuals with ADHD, problems with concentration are not due to excessive worrying.
b. CORRECT Some adolescents and adults with ADHD attempt to compensate for their organizational and attentional impairments by developing repetitive routines that may resemble obsessive-compulsive behaviors. See, e.g., A. L. Robin and R. A. Barkley, ADHD in adolescents, New York, Guilford Press, 1999.
c. Incorrect Children with ADHD do not usually experience performance-related anxiety.
d. Incorrect Oppositional behaviors and low frustration tolerance are associated features of ADHD but are not characteristic of OCD.

The correct answer is: may attempt to compensate for his/her attention deficits by developing repetitive routines.

Question 15

A DSM-5 diagnosis of Acute Stress Disorder requires a duration of symptoms of:
Select one:

A. two days to four weeks with an onset immediately after exposure to the trauma.
B. three days to one month with an onset within four weeks after exposure to the trauma.
C. two days to two months.
D. three days to one month.

Answer 15

Answer D is correct: For a diagnosis of Acute Stress Disorder, the DSM-5 requires that symptoms have a duration of three days to one month. It notes that symptoms typically begin immediately after exposure to the trauma but does not require that they do so.

The correct answer is: three days to one month.

Question 16

For individuals with Schizophrenia, the poorest prognosis is associated with which of the following?
Select one:

A. female gender, younger age at onset, and predominant negative symptoms
B. female gender, older age at onset, and predominant positive symptoms
C. male gender, younger age at onset, and predominant negative symptoms
D. male gender, older age at onset, and predominant positive symptoms

Answer 16

As noted in the Abnormal Psychology chapter of the written study materials, prognosis for Schizophrenia has been linked to a number of factors including gender, age, type of onset, predominant symptoms, the presence of a precipitating event, and family history.

a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT A better prognosis is associated with female gender, later age at onset, and positive symptoms (which are more responsive to drug treatment).
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.

The correct answer is: male gender, younger age at onset, and predominant negative symptoms

Question 17

Research on high expressed emotion has linked it to a ___________ for several psychiatric disorders including Schizophrenia, Bipolar Disorder, Major Depressive Disorder, and Eating Disorders.
Select one:

A. high risk for relapse
B. better response to pharmacotherapy
C. lower motivation for treatment
D. increased potential for misdiagnosis

Answer 17

High expressed emotion refers to the hostility, criticism, and emotional over-involvement that family members express toward a patient with a mental disorder and has been linked to negative outcomes for several psychiatric disorders.

a. CORRECT High expressed emotion was originally linked to a higher risk for relapse for patients with Schizophrenia and was subsequently linked to relapse and other negative outcomes for other psychiatric disorders as well. See, e.g., R. L. Butzlaff and J. M. Hooley, Expressed emotion and psychiatric relapse: A meta-analysis, Archives of General Psychiatry, 55, 547-552, 1998.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.

d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: high risk for relapse

Question 18

A number of investigators have attempted to identify the factors that reduce the likelihood that a woman will seek or remain in substance abuse treatment. Of the factors that have been studied, which of the following has most often been identified as a primary barrier to substance-abuse treatment for women?
Select one:

A. child and childcare concerns
B. sexual harassment from male counselors
C. denial of a substance abuse problem
D. a perception that treatment is ineffective

Answer 18

This is a difficult question since all of the factors listed in the answers have been identified as barriers to the treatment of women for substance abuse. However, only one of the factors is consistently cited by experts as a primary or most frequently mentioned barrier.

a. CORRECT The research has confirmed that women with substance abuse problems are more likely than men to be caring for dependent children; and factors related to children are frequently cited by women as barriers to substance abuse treatment: Many women are concerned about custody issues (i.e., that their children will be taken away from them); others are concerned about childcare while they receive treatment. With regard to the latter, a recent United Nations report on substance abuse treatment concludes that a “lack of childcare is probably the most consistent factor restricting women’s treatment access identified in the literature” [United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime, Substance abuse treatment and care for women: Case studies and lessons learned, New York, United Nations, 2004, p. 18].
b. Incorrect Although sexual harassment of women has been identified as a problem at some treatment centers, it is not the factor that has “most often” been identified as a barrier to treatment.
c. Incorrect Women are more likely to express shame and guilt about their substance abuse than to deny that they have an abuse problem.
d. Incorrect Concerns about treatment effectiveness may deter some women from seeking treatment for substance abuse problems, but this factor has not been identified as a primary barrier to treatment. In fact, there is evidence that women who have received treatment describe it as being effective [e.g., L. Nelson-Zlupko et al., Women in recovery: Their perceptions of treatment effectiveness, Journal of Substance Abuse Treatment, 13(1), 51-59, 1996].

The correct answer is: child and childcare concerns

Question 19

A 33-year old married woman with one biological child receives a diagnosis of Schizophrenia. Her husband has no symptoms or family history of the disorder. Which of her relatives is at greatest risk for receiving the same diagnosis?
Select one:

A. parent
B. biological sibling
C. adopted sibling
D. child

Answer 19

Research on the concordance rates for Schizophrenia have supported a genetic etiology of the disorder. See I. I. Gottesman, Schizophrenic genesis, New York, Philosophy Library, 1991.

a. Incorrect The concordance rate for a parent of an individual who receives a diagnosis of Schizophrenia is about 6%.
b. Incorrect The concordance rate for biological siblings is about 9%.
c. Incorrect The concordance rate for an adopted sibling would be about the same as the concordance rate for members of the general population - i.e., 1%.
d. CORRECT The concordance rate for a biological offspring of one schizophrenic parent is 13%.

The correct answer is: child

Question 20

A clinician notices that her client, age 28, experiences frequent periods in which she is very irritable, sensitive, anxious, and self-deprecating; but that, between these times, the client seems to be fairly well-adjusted and even-tempered. When the clinician asks the client about these mood changes, the client says she has always become very moody during the week before her menstrual period. The client’s symptoms are most suggestive of which of the following DSM-5 disorders?
Select one:

A. Dysmenorrhea
B. Cyclothymic Disorder
C. Premenstrual Syndrome
D. Premenstrual Dysphoric Syndrome

Answer 20

Answer D is correct: More information would be needed to assign a diagnosis of Premenstrual Dysphoric Syndrome. However, of the diagnoses listed in the answers, this one is most consistent with the information provided in the question.

Answer A: Dysmenorrhea is a medical condition that is characterized by physical pain during menstruation.

Answer B: While the client’s symptoms are cyclical, they do not meet the diagnostic criteria for Cyclothymic Disorder, which involves alternating periods of hypomanic and depressive symptoms.

Answer C: Premenstrual Syndrome is not a DSM-5 diagnosis.

The correct answer is: Premenstrual Dysphoric Syndrome

Question 21

The assessment of patients with Alzheimer’s disease is an ongoing process due to the degenerative nature of the disease and the consequent need to alter the nature of the treatment plan. During the 4th or 5th year of the disorder, an assessment is most likely to find which of the following?
Select one:

A. deficits in new learning with remote memory mildly to moderately impaired; anomia; sadness
B. severe impairments in recent and remote memory; fluent aphasia; indifference or irritability; restlessness
C. severe impairments in memory and executive functioning; motor rigidity; confusion and delusions
D. severely disturbed intellectual functioning; limb rigidity and flexion posture; apathy; seizures

Answer 21

As noted in the Abnormal Psychology chapter of the written study materials, the progression of Alzheimer’s disease can be described in terms of three stages.

a. Incorrect These symptoms are more common during the first two to three years (first stage).
b. CORRECT These are characteristic symptoms during the 3rd through 10th years (middle stage).
c. Incorrect These are symptoms of the third stage (8 to 12 years).
d. Incorrect These are third stage symptoms (in addition, seizures are not necessarily associated with this disorder).

The correct answer is: severe impairments in recent and remote memory; fluent aphasia; indifference or irritability; restlessness

Question 22

During your first session with Mr. and Mrs. Desvelo, Mr. Desvelo says his wife has insisted that he get “some help” with his sleep problems. Mrs. Desvelo states that she’s awakened by his frightening screams at least once a week, usually a few hours after they go to sleep, and that this is having a negative effect on her mood and their relationship. Mr. Desvelo has no history of trauma or substance abuse, and he says he recently had a physical and his health is good. In response to your questions, Mrs. Desvelo tells you that her husband sometimes wakes up when he screams and seems agitated but usually goes right back to sleep and doesn’t respond to her attempts to calm him; and Mr. Desvelo says that, in the morning, he has no memory of the episode and usually can’t recall having had any dreams. Mr. Desvelo’s symptoms are most suggestive of which of the following DSM-5 diagnoses?
Select one:

A. Nightmare Disorder
B. Sleep Terror Disorder
C. Rapid Eye Movement Sleep Behavior Disorder
D. Non-Rapid Eye Movement Sleep Arousal Disorder

Answer 22

Answer D is correct: A person with Non-Rapid Eye Movement Sleep Arousal Disorder, sleep terror type experiences sleep terror episodes that are usually accompanied by a panicky scream. The person shows signs of autonomic arousal, usually does not fully awaken, is unresponsive to the efforts of others to comfort him/her, rarely remembers any dreams he/she may have had, and has amnesia for the episode on awakening in the morning.

Answer A: A person with Nightmare Disorder awakens easily and completely and reports having had a vivid dream involving a threat to survival or security.

Answer B: Sleep Terror Disorder is not a DSM-5 diagnosis.

Answer C: Rapid Eye Movement Sleep Behavior Disorder involves episodes of arousal during REM sleep that are usually associated with vocalizations and/or complex motor behaviors that are consistent with the person’s dream. Upon awakening, the person is alert and oriented.

The correct answer is: Non-Rapid Eye Movement Sleep Arousal Disorder

Question 23

As defined in the DSM-5, the essential feature of Delirium is:
Select one:

A. impaired ability to transfer information from short- to long-term memory.
B. a disturbance in attention and awareness.
C. a disturbance in psychomotor behavior.
D. disorientation.

Answer 23

Answer B is correct: According to the DSM-5, the core features of Delirium are impaired awareness and a disturbance in attention (e.g., impaired ability to focus, sustain, and shift attention).

Answers A, C, and D: Although Delirium may involve impaired memory, a disturbance in psychomotor behavior, and/or disorientation, these symptoms are not essential features of the disorder.

The correct answer is: a disturbance in attention and awareness.

Question 24

Naasir N. states that he often can’t keep himself from falling asleep during the day and, as a result, has injured himself several times at work and recently started taking the bus to work because he’s afraid he’ll fall asleep while driving. He says that he often experiences weakness in his legs right before he falls asleep during the day and has vivid, sometimes frightening dreams just before he wakes up. Naasir says that he likes to have a few beers in the evening and on weekends but that this seems to increase his daytime sleepiness. He reports that he has very vivid dreams at night and usually wakes up several times each night but is able to quickly fall asleep again. Based on these symptoms, the most likely diagnosis for Naasir is:
Select one:

A. sleep apnea.
B. alcohol-induced sleep disorder.
C. primary hypersomnia.
D. narcolepsy.

Answer 24

Naasir is exhibiting sleep attacks with cataplexy (weakness in his legs) and hypnopompic hallucinations (vivid dreamlike hallucinations on awakening).

a. Incorrect Sleep apnea is a breathing-related sleep disorder that involves an episodic cessation of breathing that may or may not be due to an upper airway obstruction.
b. Incorrect Naasir’s daytime sleep attacks and cataplexy are not characteristic of alcohol-induced sleep disorder.
c. Incorrect Naasir’s symptoms are more characteristic of narcolepsy than of primary hypersomnia, which involves more persistent daytime sleepiness (rather than discrete sleep attacks), few or no dreams during daytime naps, an absence of cataplexy, and fewer disturbances in nocturnal sleep.
d. CORRECT Naasir’s daytime sleep attacks are characteristic of narcolepsy, which can be exacerbated by alcohol and is often accompanied by frequent awakening and vivid dreams at night.

The correct answer is: narcolepsy.

Question 25

For a diagnosis of ADHD, the DSM requires: Select one: A. a minimum of six characteristic symptoms for at least six months. B. a minimum of eight characteristic symptoms for at least four months. C. a minimum of six characteristic symptoms for at least four months. D. a minimum of eight characteristic symptoms for at least six months.

Answer 25

The exam does include some straightforward questions like this one. a. CORRECT A diagnosis of ADHD requires at least six symptoms of inattention and/or six symptoms of hyperactivity/impulsivity for at least six months, resulting in impairment in at least two settings. b. Incorrect See explanation above. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: a minimum of six characteristic symptoms for at least six months.

Question 26

Major Depressive Disorder has been linked to all of the following sleep disturbances except: Select one: A. reduced Stage 3 and Stage 4 sleep. B. increased slow-wave (non-REM) sleep. C. decreased REM latency. D. decreased sleep continuity.

Answer 26

Major Depressive Disorder is associated with several abnormalities in the sleep cycle. a. Incorrect Reduced Stage 3 and Stage 4 sleep is characteristic of depression. b. CORRECT Depression is associated with decreased (not increased) slow-wave sleep. c. Incorrect Decreased REM latency (earlier onset of REM sleep) is characteristic of depression. d. Incorrect Decreased sleep continuity is common in individuals with Major Depressive Disorder. The correct answer is: increased slow-wave (non-REM) sleep.

Question 27

The best conclusion about the etiology of Major Depressive Disorder is that: Select one: A. genetic factors play a more substantial role than environmental factors, with a dominant gene being the most likely causal agent. B. genetic factors play a more substantial role than environmental factors, with a recessive gene being the most likely causal agent. C. genetic factors play a substantial role in only a small number of cases of this disorder. D. genetic and environmental factors both play a substantial role in the development of this disorder.

Answer 27

Family, twin, and adoption studies have confirmed a genetic contribution to Major Depressive Disorder. However, these studies have shown that the heritability of this disorder is in the 31 to 42% range, which indicates that environmental factors also play an important role. See, e.g., P. F. Sullivan, M. C. Neale, and K. S. Kendler, Genetic epidemiology of major depression: Review and meta-analysis, American Journal of Psychiatry, 157, 1552-1562, 2000. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Based on their review of the research, Sullivan et al. conclude that Major Depressive Disorder is a complex and heterogeneous condition that results from a combination of genetic and environmental factors. They suggest that a genetic vulnerability to this disorder might be expressed only when the individual is also exposed to certain environmental events. The correct answer is: genetic and environmental factors both play a substantial role in the development of this disorder.

Question 28

Information on which of the following would be most useful for determining whether a client's impotence has a physiological or psychological etiology? Select one: A. the presence of nocturnal erections B. the experience of pain during intercourse C. the client's level of performance anxiety D. the presence of diabetes

Answer 28

Impotence may have a variety of causes, including psychological, medical, substance-induced, or a combination of factors. a. CORRECT While the results of an NPT (nocturnal penile tumescence) test are not always conclusive (some men with psychologically-based impotence do not have erections at night), of the responses listed, this is the best answer. b. Incorrect Information on pain during intercourse would not necessarily help distinguish between a physiological and psychological etiology. c. Incorrect Although performance anxiety underlies many sexual dysfunctions, it may also be present in medically and substance-induced sexual disorders and, therefore, would not be a useful diagnostic tool for distinguishing between physiologically and psychologically caused sexual dysfunctions. d. Incorrect Diabetes may be a cause of impotence, but its absence would not help determine if a man's impotence is due to physiological or psychological factors. The correct answer is: the presence of nocturnal erections

Question 29

For a DSM-5 diagnosis of Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder, the onset of symptoms must be prior to ___ years of age. Select one: A. 6 B. 10 C. 12 D. 18

Answer 29

Answer B is correct: The diagnosis of Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder cannot be assigned for the first time before an individual is six years old or after he/she is 18 years old, and the age of onset must be before age 10. Answers A, C, and D: See explanation for answer B. The correct answer is: 10

Question 30

The mother of a 35-year-old man says that, for the past five weeks, he has been acting very uncharacteristically. He seems perplexed and nervous much of the time, his tone of voice varies between flat and shrill, and his speech is sometimes like "word salad." The mother says that sometimes it seems like he is listening to voices or sounds that she cannot hear. Based on this information, the most likely diagnosis is: Select one: A. Schizophrenia. B. Schizoid Personality Disorder. C. Schizoaffective Disorder. D. Schizophreniform Disorder.

Answer 30

As noted in the Abnormal Psychology chapter of the written study maerials, Schizophrenia and other psychotic disorders share a number of characteristics. However, one distinguishing feature is the duration of symptoms. a. Incorrect A diagnosis of Schizophrenia requires a duration of symptoms for at least six months. b. Incorrect Schizoid Personality Disorder, like other personality disorders, is characterized by a persistent (long-term) pattern of dysfunctional behaviors. This man has had symptoms for only five weeks. c. Incorrect The name "Schizoaffective" tells you that this disorder combines symptoms of schizophrenia and the affective (mood) disorders. The symptoms given in this question do not suggest a mood disturbance. d. CORRECT Symptoms of Schizophreniform Disorder are similar to those associated with Schizophrenia but have a duration of less than six months. The correct answer is: Schizophreniform Disorder.

Question 31

``` Irvin Yalom (1985) described the group therapist's role primarily as which of the following? Select one: ``` A. a "blank screen" B. a neutral observer C. a coach D. a participant/model

Answer 31

Yalom views the therapist as both a "technical expert" and an "active participant/model." a. Incorrect See explanation above. b. Incorrect See explanation above. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. CORRECT Yalom advocates responsible self-disclosure by the therapist, for example, because it facilitates the therapist's participation in the group and allows the therapist to act as a model of desirable behavior. The correct answer is: a participant/model

Question 32

A therapist who has adopted an etic perspective: Select one: A. believes that mental disorders may be manifested differently by people from different cultural groups. B. believes that mental disorders are manifested in similar ways by all people, regardless of their cultural group. C. adopts a psychodynamic model to describe the causes of mental disorders. D. adopts a behavioral model to describe the causes of mental disorders.

Answer 32

The terms "etic" and "emic" were originally used by linguists and anthropologists but were subsequently adopted by mental health professionals interested in cross-cultural counseling. a. Incorrect This describes an emic ("culturally specific") view of mental disorders. b. CORRECT A therapist adopting an etic ("culturally universal") view considers mental disorders to be universal and, therefore, essentially the same in terms of symptoms among individuals from different cultures. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: believes that mental disorders are manifested in similar ways by all people, regardless of their cultural group.

Question 33

During a therapy session, Dad, who is normally soft-spoken and mild-mannered, becomes very agitated and starts yelling. The oldest daughter becomes upset and says, "Please stop, you're scaring Johnny" (the 6-year old son). Dad stops yelling and becomes calm again. This is an example of: Select one: A. positive feedback. B. scapegoating. C. family homeostasis. D. the double-bind.

Answer 33

In this situation, the daughter's reaction to her father's uncharacteristic behavior serves to return the situation to its usual state. a. Incorrect Positive feedback serves to change or disrupt the family's status quo. b. Incorrect A scapegoat is the family member who is blamed for the family's problems. c. CORRECT Homeostasis refers to the tendency of systems (including family systems) to maintain the status quo. In this situation, the daughter's reaction is acting as negative feedback, which causes the father to act more characteristically. d. Incorrect Double-bind communication involves a mixed (contradictory) message and has been implicated in the development of schizophrenia. The correct answer is: family homeostasis.

Question 34

In an attempt to live up to mainstream standards of beauty, a member of a racial minority alters her appearance in order to "look White." This is best described as an example of: Select one: A. racial stereotypes. B. racial stigmatization. C. internalized racism. D. interpersonal racism.

Answer 34

Several types of racism are distinguished in the literature. Two of these are internalized racism and interpersonal racism (answers c and d). Others include cultural, structural, and institutional racism. See, e.g., P. Figueroa, Education and the social construction of "race," London, Routledge, 1991. a. Incorrect Racial stereotypes are overgeneralized beliefs about individuals based on their race. b. Incorrect Racial stigmatization refers the process of stigmatizing (shaming, disgracing) individuals on the basis of their race. c. CORRECT Internalized racism refers to the internalization of negative beliefs, attitudes, and stereotypes related to race. It is also known as individual racism and, when it involves acceptance of negative views by a member of the stigmatized group, it is also referred to as internalized oppression and may be expressed as rejecting one's own culture and attempting to act or look like members of the dominant culture. d. Incorrect Interpersonal racism refers to the expression of racism between individuals and is manifested, for example, by social exclusion, unfair treatment, and harassment. The correct answer is: internalized racism.

Question 35

From the perspective of traditional psychoanalysis, transference is: Select one: A. an impediment to therapy progress. B. a form of resistance. C. a form of catharsis. D. an ego defense mechanism.

Answer 35

Transference is considered a key component of psychoanalysis, and the interpretation of a client's transference helps guide him/her toward insight. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT From the perspective of psychoanalysis, at the core of transference is resistance, or an unwillingness to relinquish one's fantasy that one's infantile wishes will be gratified. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: a form of resistance.

Question 36

After several sessions with her therapist, a client starts acting toward the therapist as though he were the client's father. Assuming that the therapist is a practitioner of Gestalt therapy, he is most likely to respond to this transference by: Select one: A. ignoring it. B. temporarily assuming the role of the client's father. C. helping the client see the difference between her transference and reality. D. helping the client understand how her past relationship with her father is affecting her current relationships with men.

Answer 36

Gestalt therapy, unlike psychanalytic psychotherapy, focuses on the here-and-now rather than on the past. Thus, a Gestalt therapist is not likely to encourage a client's transference which brings an outside (and often past) relationship into the current therapeutic situation. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT In Gestalt therapy, when a client exhibits transference, the therapist helps the client "come to his senses" by enabling him to "see and experience in vivid concrete detail the discrepancies between transference fantasies and reality ... to cut for a moment through the filtering fog of fantasy which he maintains around himself and experience the reality of the person who sits across from him" (J. Fagan and I. Shepherd, Gestalt therapy now, Palo Alto: Science and Behavior Books, 1970, pp. 123-4). d. Incorrect See explanation for response "c". The correct answer is: helping the client see the difference between her transference and reality.

Question 37

A systemic family therapist uses "circular questioning" in order to: Select one: A. obtain unbiased information from family members. B. help family members recognize differences in their perceptions. C. refocus the attention of family members to the here-and-now. D. obtain information about the family's transactional patterns and style.

Answer 37

The goal of many of the techniques used by systemic family therapists is to provide family members with the information they need to identify solutions to their problems. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT As defined by systemic family therapists, circular questions are used to help family members identify similarities and differences in their perceptions about events and relationships. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: help family members recognize differences in their perceptions.

Question 38

The stages of change (transtheoretical) model identifies two factors as the primary predictors of successful transition from one stage to the next. These are: Select one: A. perceived self-efficacy and decisional balance. B. locus of control and level of commitment. C. motivation and persuasibility. D. outcome expectancies and outcome value

Answer 38

The stages of change model identifies several factors that impact a person's willingness to alter a problematic behavior. a. CORRECT These are the two factors that are identified by the stages of change model as predictors of movement from one stage to the next. Perception of self-efficacy refers to the belief that one is capable of taking the steps needed to change, while decisional balance refers to the balance between the perceived pros and cons of changing. The cons of changing outweigh the pros during the precontemplation and contemplation stages; the cons and pros are about equal during the preparation stage; and the pros outweigh the cons during the action and maintenance stages. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: perceived self-efficacy and decisional balance.

Question 39

The research has found that the more widely that lesbians disclose their sexual orientation to others, the more likely they will: Select one: A. experience an increase in anxiety. B. engage in greater anonymous socializing. C. report higher levels of self-esteem. D. report less support from family members.

Answer 39

Disclosure of sexual orientation by lesbians ("coming out") was investigated by K. M. Jordan and R. H. Deluty who found that it was associated with a number of positive outcomes [Coming out for lesbian women: Its relation to anxiety, positive affectivity, self-esteem, and social support, Journal of Homosexuality, 35(2), 41-63, 1998]. a. Incorrect This is the opposite of what is true. Jordan and Deluty found that disclosure was associated with a lower level of anxiety. b. Incorrect This is also the opposite of what Jordan and Deluty found - i.e., their results indicated that the more widely lesbians disclosed their sexual orientation to others, the less likely they were to engage in anonymous socializing (e.g., going to gay and lesbian bars to spend time with people they did not know). c. CORRECT The results of the Jordan and Deluty study indicated that the more widely lesbian women disclosed their sexual orientation, the lower their anxiety, the greater their positive affectivity, and the higher their self-esteem. d. Incorrect This is also the opposite of what is true. Jordan and Deluty found that disclosure to family members was associated with greater family support. The correct answer is: report higher levels of self-esteem.

Question 40

A primary goal of Minuchin's structural family therapy is to: Select one: A. increase differentiation in family members by identifying and restructuring family triangles. B. replace rigid and diffuse boundaries with clear boundaries. C. balance separation and togetherness. D. align boundaries with family systems and subsystems.

Answer 40

You may have been able to narrow the responses given for this question by knowing that "boundaries" are a key target in Minuchin's approach. a. Incorrect For the exam, you want to have the term "differentiation" associated with Bowen. b. CORRECT From the perspective of structural family therapy, family dysfunction can be traced to boundaries that are overly rigid or diffuse. ("Clear" boundaries are appropriate and functional boundaries.) c. Incorrect Although alterations in boundaries may have this effect, this response does not describe Minuchin's approach as well as response b does. d. Incorrect "Aligning boundaries" does not describe Minuchin's approach as well as response b does. The correct answer is: replace rigid and diffuse boundaries with clear boundaries.

Question 41

A structural family therapist's interventions when working with a triangulated family will be designed to: Select one: a. foster insight in order to establish more appropriate hierarchies and boundaries. b. create stress in order to unbalance the family's homeostasis. c. dilute the tension between family members in order to reduce triangulation. d. alter the family's implicit and explicit rules in order to increase differentiation.

Answer 41

Your answer is incorrect. As its name suggests, structural family therapy is concerned with restructuring the family. a. Incorrect - See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT - Before the family's structure can be altered, its homeostatic state must be unbalanced so that family members are more susceptible to change. This is accomplished by interjecting some type of stress into the family. c. Incorrect - See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect - See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: create stress in order to unbalance the family's homeostasis.

Question 42

A number of studies have found that African American patients are less likely than White patients to complete advance directives. This research also indicates that this is due to: Select one: A. a low level of trust in the health care system. B. techniques that help the therapist communicate empathy C. reliance on family members to make end-of-life decisions. D. the belief that advance directives violate cultural or religious values.

Answer 42

Several studies have found a relationship between race/ethnicity and end-of-life decisions. See, e.g., J. Kwak and W. E. Haley, Current research findings on end-of-life decision making among racially or ethnically diverse groups, The Gerontologist, 45(5), 634-641, 2005. a. CORRECT- African American patients are less likely than White patients to complete advance directives, and this seems to be due primarily to lack of knowledge and/or mistrust in the healthcare system, with the latter being attributable to previous personal experiences and awareness of past abuses by healthcare providers (e.g., the Tuskegee syphilis study). b. Incorrect- Concerns about "bringing bad luck" may account for the unwillingness of some Chinese adults to complete advance directives. c. Incorrect- Reliance on family members to make end-of-life decisions has not been identified as a reason why African American patients are reluctant to complete advance directives. d. Incorrect- There is some evidence that Native Americans may reject advance directives because they violate cultural values and beliefs (e.g., they are counter to the preference for avoiding negative thoughts and actions). The correct answer is: a low level of trust in the health care system.

Question 43

"Culturally encapsulated" therapists: Select one: A. have become immersed in another culture at the expense of their own culture. B. exhibit an overt type of racism while denying that they are prejudiced against members of other cultures. C. define the reality of their clients according to their own cultural assumptions. D. maximize cultural differences by consistently distinguishing between "us" and "them."

Answer 43

The term "cultural encapsulation" was introduced by C. Gilbert Wrenn in 1962 in his discussion of the limited perspective of counselors (The culturally encapsulated counselor, Harvard Educational Review, 32(4), 444-449, 1962). a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Although different authors use this term somewhat differently, this comes closest to the definition provided by Wrenn, who viewed counselors as existing in a "cocoon of pretended reality" that reflects encapsulation within their own culture. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: define the reality of their clients according to their own cultural assumptions.

Question 44

The concept of triangulation is central to general systems theory and can be found in the work of Bowen, Minuchin, Satir, and others. Although these theorists differ somewhat in their definition of triangulation, in general, it is said to be occurring when: Select one: A. to reduce tension between them, a two-person system draws in a third party. B. to reduce tension between them, the members of a two-person system focus their attention on a third party. C. to avoid dealing with the conflict between them, a two-person system forms an alliance against a third person. D. to reduce conflict, two members of a three-person system assume a submissive role when interacting with the third dominant member.

Answer 44

Different theorists have somewhat different definitions for the term "triangulation." The best answer to this question, therefore, is the one that is most general. a. CORRECT This is the best response of those given. As a general term, triangulation refers to the formation of a three-person system by two people in order to reduce the stress and conflict between them. b. Incorrect Minuchin described three types of triangles - stable coalition, triangulation, and detouring. This response describes detouring. c. Incorrect This is a type of triangle but is too specific to be the correct answer to this question. d. Incorrect This isn't an accurate definition of triangulation. The correct answer is: to reduce tension between them, a two-person system draws in a third party.

Question 45

The traditional explanation for the beneficial effects of acupuncture is that it promotes healing by: Select one: A. restoring the flow of energy in the body. B. creating a state of mental calmness. C. altering the balance between cell growth and cell death. D. restoring balance between the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems.

Answer 45

The use of acupuncture is based on the assumption that blockages or imbalances in the flow of qi (vital life energy) within the body produce illness. a. CORRECT The traditional explanation for acupuncture is that the insertion of fine metallic needles into specific areas of the body unblocks the flow of qi. b. Incorrect This describes the effects of meditation and other relaxation techniques. c. Incorrect This is one of the explanations for the effects of magnetic therapy. d. Incorrect This has not been identified as an explanation for the effects of acupuncture. The correct answer is: restoring the flow of energy in the body.

Question 46

A strategic family therapist is most likely to use which of the following therapeutic techniques in dealing with a husband and wife who complain that they are constantly arguing with each other? Select one: A. obtain a detailed family history from each partner B. ask the couple to identify the benefits they obtain from arguing C. tell the couple to argue for at least two hours each evening D. work individually with the partner who is most "differentiated"

Answer 46

Strategic family therapy is most associated with Jay Haley, who was strongly influenced by the communication school of family therapy and by the work of Milton Erickson. a. Incorrect Haley focuses more on the present, especially communication patterns occurring in the present. b. Incorrect This is not characteristic of strategic family therapy. c. CORRECT Haley relies heavily on paradoxical techniques (like the one described in this response), which are also employed by communication family therapists and Milton Erickson. d. Incorrect This sounds more like Bowenian family therapy. The correct answer is: tell the couple to argue for at least two hours each evening

Question 47

A young man who hates his mother consistently lavishes her with praise and gifts. A Freudian would interpret this behavior as a manifestation of which of the following defense mechanisms? Select one: A. sublimation B. displacement C. psychological reactance D. reaction formation

Answer 47

Psychoanalysts distinguish between a number of defense mechanisms. In most cases, their names can help you remember what they involve. a. Incorrect Sublimation occurs when energy connected to an unacceptable impulse is redirected into socially acceptable actions. b. Incorrect Displacement occurs when a dangerous or threatening impulse is redirected toward a safer source or object. c. Incorrect Psychological reactance is not a defense mechanism. It was originally described by Brehm (1966) and occurs when people act in direct contradiction to a rule or request because they feel their personal freedom is being threatened. d. CORRECT Reaction formation involves converting dangerous feelings or impulses into their opposite. The correct answer is: reaction formation

Question 48

Open-ended questions, affirmations, reflective listening, and summary statements are considered the principle skills or strategies of: Select one: A. solution-focused therapy. B. reality therapy. C. motivational interviewing. D. interpersonal therapy.

Answer 48

The acronym OARS is used to identify the principle skills of motivational interviewing and stands for open-ended questions, affirmations, reflective listening, and summary statements. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Although the four strategies identified in this question would probably be useful for most types of therapy, they have been explicitly identified as the principle strategies of motivational interviewing. These techniques are considered useful for increasing a client's motivation. For example, "What things about your use of alcohol would you like to change?" is an open-ended question that would enhance the client's motivation by helping him clarify his thoughts and feelings about drinking. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: motivational interviewing.

Question 49

A practitioner of motivational interviewing would most likely emphasize use of which of the following in therapy? Select one: A. paradoxical techniques that foster resistance B. techniques that help the therapist communicate empathy C. confrontational techniques that address the client’s excuses and irresponsibilities D. techniques that help the client identify “problem exceptions”

Answer 49

The primary goal of motivational interviewing is to help clients resolve their ambivalence about change. To do so, it relies primarily on a client-centered approach. a. Incorrect Paradoxical techniques designed to foster resistance are often used by practitioners of family therapy (especially strategic family therapists) but are not commonly used by practitioners of motivational interviewing. b. CORRECT Empathy is a key element of motivational interviewing. Methods used by the therapist to communicate empathy include simple reflection, double-sided reflection, amplified reflection, and summary statements. c. Incorrect Confrontational techniques that address a client's excuses and irresponsibilities are used by reality therapists. d. Incorrect Techniques that help the client identify exceptions to his/her problems are used by solution-focused therapists. The correct answer is: techniques that help the therapist communicate empathy

Question 50

Traditional American Indian social organization and decision-making is best described as: Select one: A. linear. B. bilateral. C. nuclear. D. collateral.

Answer 50

Among American Indians, the family and social network includes both biological and nonbiological members. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT As a group, American Indians place greater emphasis on the family and the tribe than on the self and this is reflected in their social organization and decision-making process, which have been described as "consensual collateral." The correct answer is: collateral.

Question 51

The notion that there are three major life tasks - friendship, occupation, and love - is MOST consistent with the philosophy of: Select one: A. Perls. B. Berne. C. Rogers. D. Adler.

Answer 51

The three tasks listed in the question (friendship, occupation, and love) all involve social interactions. Of the individuals listed, one is most associated with an emphasis on social factors (i.e., social interest). a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Adler believed that people are motivated primarily by an innate social interest and that the goal in life is to act in ways that fulfill social responsibilities. The correct answer is: Adler.

Question 52

_____________________ is a client-centered counseling approach that facilitates behavior change by helping clients explore and resolve their ambivalence about change. Select one: A. Solution-focused therapy B. Motivational interviewing C. Reality therapy D. Transactional analysis

Answer 52

Of the therapies listed in the answers, only one is based on a client-centered approach and specifically targets a client's ambivalence. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT The description in this question is consistent with the description of motivational interviewing provided by its founders, S. Rollnick and W. Miller. According to these investigators, ambivalence is "the principal obstacle to be overcome in triggering change" (What is motivational interviewing?, Behavioral and Cognitive Psychotherapy, 23, 325-334, 1995). c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: Motivational interviewing

Question 53

Research evaluating the effectiveness of various forms of psychotherapy for older adults has found that: Select one: A. older adults respond less well than younger adults to most forms of psychotherapy. B. older adults respond much better than younger adults to most forms of psychotherapy. C. older adults respond to a comparable degree as younger adults to most forms of therapy, although older adults may respond more slowly. D. older adults respond to a comparable degree as younger adults to most forms of therapy, although older adults may respond more quickly.

Answer 53

Studies comparing the effectiveness of various psychotherapeutic techniques for older and younger adults have generally revealed few significant differences. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT This is the conclusion reached by the American Psychological Association in its Guidelines for Psychological Practice with Older Adults [American Psychologist, 59(4), 236-260, 2004]. This document also notes, however, that tailoring an intervention to the specific needs of an older client may increase its effectiveness. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: older adults respond to a comparable degree as younger adults to most forms of therapy, although older adults may respond more slowly.

Question 54

Which of the following was responsible for the genesis of Gerald Caplan's development of mental health consultation? Select one: A. recognition that traditional psychoanalysis was not helpful for many of his clients B. recognition that an internal consultant was needed in many organizations to address employees' mental health problems C. recognition that the mental health of many more individuals can be improved through indirect services D. recognition that preventive efforts do not target the appropriate populations

Answer 54

Caplan discusses the origins of his mental health consultation in his article, Caplanian mental health consultation: Historical background and current status [Consulting Psychology Journal, 46(4), 2-12, 1994]. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Caplan's consultation approach grew out of his experiences at residential institutions in Israel in 1949. He quickly recognized that it was not feasible to provide direct services to patients due to their large number and, consequently, developed an indirect approach (consultation) that increased his ability to ensure that patients received adequate treatment. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: recognition that the mental health of many more individuals can be improved through indirect services

Question 55

According to Troiden (1988), homosexual identity development involves which of the following stages? Select one: A. confusion, comparison, acceptance, synthesis B. feeling different, confusion, assumption, integration C. dissonance, immersion, introspection, integrated awareness D. dissonance, acceptance, assumption, integration

Answer 55

There are several models of gay/lesbian identity development. This question is asking about Troiden's model. a. Incorrect These are four of the six stages of gay/lesbian identity development proposed by Cass (1979): confusion, comparison, tolerance, acceptance, pride, and synthesis. b. CORRECT These are the four stages proposed by Troiden. For additional information about these stages, see the Clinical Psychology chapter of the written study materials. c. Incorrect These are four of the stages in Atkinson, Morten, and Sue's racial/cultural identity development model. d. Incorrect This response combines stages from the models proposed by Cass and Troiden. The correct answer is: feeling different, confusion, assumption, integration

Question 56

It is important when choosing a treatment approach for a client belonging to a particular ethnic or other minority group to remember that individuals belonging to the same group exhibit diverse characteristics. However, research does suggest that, overall, Asian and Asian American clients prefer: Select one: A. a directive, structured counseling approach. B. an unstructured, insight-oriented counseling approach. C. a client-centered counseling approach. D. a self-directed counseling approach.

Answer 56

Research on Asian and Asian American individuals (see, e.g., Higginbotham, 1977; Sue and Sue, 1983) suggests that they under-utilize mental health services for several reasons. One reason is a dislike of ambiguous, unstructured counseling processes. a. CORRECT Asian and Asian American clients tend to prefer more direct counseling services such as academic and vocational counseling over psychiatric services. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: a directive, structured counseling approach.

Question 57

While attending a psychology conference, a colleague reports that he has developed a new assessment evaluation for suicide risk. You believe that this test may help you in your clinical practice. However, you learn that this test is labeled, "For Research Purposes Only," at this time. Given this information, what is the appropriate course of action? Select one: A. You would not use the new test. B. You learn as much as possible about this new test, and then use it if it seems appropriate to do so. C. You can use the new test if you obtain the appropriate consent from a client before using the new test. D. You can use the new test if it is used in conjunction with other data.

Answer 57

Since tests should only be used in the context in which they have been validated, it would not be appropriate to use a test labeled, "For Research Purposes Only," in the clinical setting. a. CORRECT You would not use the new test because this test should only be used "For Research Purposes Only." b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: You would not use the new test.

Question 58

When a therapist is a trainee and his or her supervisor has legal responsibility for treatment being provided by the therapist, the therapist must: Select one: A. obtain a waiver of confidentiality from a client prior to discussing the case with his/her supervisor. B. let a client know that he/she is a student intern and that a supervisor will be reviewing the case. C. let a client know that he/she is a student intern and provide the client with the supervisor's name. D. let a client know that he/she is a student intern and introduce the client to the supervisor.

Answer 58

This issue is covered by Standard 4.01 of the Ethics Code. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Standard 4.01 requires that clients be informed whenever a therapist's work will be supervised and, moreover, that the client be given the supervisor's name when "the supervisor has legal responsibility for the case." d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: let a client know that he/she is a student intern and provide the client with the supervisor's name.

Question 59

The APA's (2002)Ethical Principles of Psychologists and Code of Conduct states that when conducting a psychological assessment of a client, an informed consent: Select one: A. is required in all situations. B. is required in all situations and must be in written format and signed by the client. C. is required except in certain circumstances. D. is required except in certain circumstances and, when required, must be in written format and signed by the client.

Answer 59

Informed consent in assessment is addressed in several standards of the Ethics Code, including Standard 9.03. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT In most situations an informed consent is necessary when conducting psychological assessments. However, the Ethics Code lists three exceptions to this requirement: (1) when the test is mandated by law or government regulation; (2) when informed consent is implied because testing is routine; and (3) when the purpose of testing is to evaluate competence. Note also that Standard 3.10(d) requires that informed consents be "documented" but does not require them to be in written format and signed. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: is required except in certain circumstances.

Question 60

In its statement on Legal Liability Related to Confidentiality and the Prevention of HIV Transmission, the American Psychological Association (1991) recommends that: Select one: A. psychologists be legally required to protect the partners of patients with HIV/AIDS. B. psychologists be legally required to protect the partners of patients with HIV/AIDS as long as psychologists are also protected from civil and criminal liability for doing so. C. psychologists be legally required to protect the partners of patients with HIV/AIDS but only after they obtain the patients permission to do so. D. psychologists not be legally required to protect the partners of patients with HIV/AIDS.

Answer 60

The APA's position on partner notification is consistent with its emphasis on maintaining client confidentiality. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT The APA's (1991) position is that "a legal duty to protect third parties from HIV infection should not be imposed." However, in its statement, the APA also recommends that, if such legislation is passed, it should permit disclosure only when (1) the psychologist knows of an identifiable third party who is at significant risk for infection; (2) knows that the third party is unaware of the risk; (3) has urged the client to notify the patient but the client has refused to do so; and (4) the psychologist is legally protected from civil or criminal liability for doing so. The correct answer is: psychologists not be legally required to protect the partners of patients with HIV/AIDS.

Question 61

After speaking at a workshop at a large university, Dr. A., a renowned expert on eating disorders, is approached by a woman who asks him about her daughter who she believes is beginning to exhibit symptoms of anorexia nervosa. Dr. A. gives the woman the phone numbers of three therapists in the area who have experience with this disorder. Six months later, Dr. A. finds out that the woman is planning to file a malpractice suit against him: During that time, her daughter received treatment from one of the therapists on Dr. A.'s list but became much worse and is currently hospitalized. The woman feels that Dr. A. is responsible for not adequately warning her of the potential course of her daughter's disorder. In terms of malpractice: Select one: A. Dr. A. is guilty because he had a "duty to warn" the woman about possible complications of anorexia nervosa. B. Dr. A. is guilty because he apparently did not give the woman adequate referrals. C. Dr. A. is not guilty because he gave the woman the names of several therapists. D. Dr. A. is not guilty because he didn't have a professional relationship with the woman or her daughter.

Answer 61

Legally, the following elements must be present before a malpractice suit is possible: (1) the psychologist must have a professional relationship with the individual with a resulting duty to him/her; (2) there must be some negligence or dereliction of that duty by the psychologist; and (3) some harm must have come to the individual as a result of the psychologist's negligence or dereliction. a. Incorrect A "duty to warn" is not relevant to this situation. A psychologist has a duty to warn a client's potential victim when the client expresses his/her intention to harm a specific person. b. Incorrect There is not sufficient information to conclude that Dr. A.'s referrals were inadequate, and, even if they were, this would not constitute malpractice. c. Incorrect Although this is a good idea, it is not relevant to malpractice. d. CORRECT Dr. A. clearly does not have a professional relationship with the woman or her daughter and, therefore, is not guilty of malpractice. The correct answer is: Dr. A. is not guilty because he didn't have a professional relationship with the woman or her daughter.

Question 62

A slightly overweight psychological assistant wants to lose 15 pounds. The psychologist who employs her is a well-known authority on the use of behavioral techniques for weight reduction. Therefore, the assistant asks the psychologist if he will accept her as a client. The assistant is willing and able to pay the full fee for the treatment program. If the psychologist agrees to accept his assistant as a client, he will have: Select one: A. acted ethically since this situation is not covered by the Ethics Code. B. acted ethically since the assistant is going to pay for the treatment. C. acted ethically since the psychologist did not solicit the assistant as a client. D. acted unethically because his dual roles as therapist and employer may create a conflict.

Answer 62

Standard 3.05(a) of APA's Ethics Code states that a psychologist "refrains from entering into a multiple relationship if the multiple relationship could reasonably be expected to impair the psychologist's objectivity, competence, or effectiveness in performing his or her functions as a psychologist, or otherwise risks exploitation or harm to the person with whom the professional relationship exists." a. Incorrect This situation clearly constitutes a multiple relationship, which is prohibited by the Ethics Code. b. Incorrect Regardless of whether or not the assistant pays for treatment, the situation would constitute a multiple relationship. c. Incorrect Solicitation, or lack thereof, has no bearing on the inappropriateness of establishing a multiple relationship. d. CORRECT Accepting an assistant, or any other employee, as a client would represent a multiple relationship, as defined above. Such relationships should be avoided when possible. The correct answer is: acted unethically because his dual roles as therapist and employer may create a conflict.

Question 63

Dr. Kairos receives a phone call from the father of a 7-year old girl whom he has been seeing in therapy for several months. The father wants Dr. Kairos to call the child's school and provide the school psychologist with the results of her recent evaluation of the child's cognitive functioning. The school psychologist is going to meet with the principal within the hour to discuss the possibility of placing the girl in a special education class. Dr. Kairos should: Select one: A. explain that she cannot provide the information without a signed release of information from the father. B. agree to provide the information only if she believes the school psychologist is qualified to interpret it. C. agree to provide the information and document the father's permission to release it to the school psychologist by placing a note in the girl's file. D. agree to provide the information but follow up the phone conversation with a written report to the school psychologist.

Answer 63

The Ethics Code states that consent to reveal confidential information must be obtained, but it does not require that the consent be in writing. However, it would be in the best interests of everyone to document the father's consent. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Given the "emergency" nature of the situation, this is the best course of action. It is also one that is supported by M. Vasquez in Implications of the 1992 Ethics Code for the practice of individual psychotherapy, Professional Psychology: Research and Practice, 25(4), 321-328, 1994. She states that a "psychologist should document the consent [to disclose confidential information] either through a form signed by the client or in a progress note" (p. 326). d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: agree to provide the information and document the father's permission to release it to the school psychologist by placing a note in the girl's file.

Question 64

According to the APA's Guidelines for Providers of Psychological Services to Ethnic, Linguistic, and Culturally Diverse Populations, when the linguistic skills of a psychologist do not match the client's language, the psychologist: Select one: A. must make a referral. B. may ask the client to bring an interpreter. C. should retain the services of a translator who has the appropriate cultural/linguistic knowledge and professional training. D. should make a referral or, if not feasible, should retain an appropriate translator.

Answer 64

Paragraph 6 of the Guidelines addresses this situation. a. Incorrect This isn't a completely accurate description of the requirements of the Guidelines. b. Incorrect This is not recommended in the Guidelines. c. Incorrect This is partially correct. d. CORRECT When language is a problem, a referral is the best course of action. When this is not feasible (there is no one to refer the client to), a psychologist can retain the services of an appropriate translator. The correct answer is: should make a referral or, if not feasible, should retain an appropriate translator.

Question 65

A woman calls you asking for information about her son who is a current client of yours. You have been seeing the son in individual therapy since he was 17. He is now 18-1/2 and has just started college. This mother is paying for her son's therapy. You should: Select one: A. provide the woman with the information she has requested about her son. B. provide the woman only with information that is relevant to the purpose of her request. C. provide the woman only with that part of the record that pertains to her son before he turned 18. D. provide the woman with information only with the permission of her son.

Answer 65

In most jurisdictions, the age of majority is 18. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Since the son has reached the age of majority, his mother's right to access to his records has ceased, and his permission is required to provide her with any information from his records. The correct answer is: provide the woman with information only with the permission of her son.

Question 66

Quality assurance is least concerned with: Select one: A. cost-effectiveness of services. B. availability of services. C. client satisfaction with services. D. the outcomes of services.

Answer 66

Although quality assurance means different things to different people, in general, it refers to the quality of services. a. CORRECT Cost effectiveness is the target of utilization review rather than quality assurance (although, in the long-run, improved quality may also reduce costs). Responses b, c, and d all describe factors that contribute to the quality of services. b. Incorrect See explanation above. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: cost-effectiveness of services.

Question 67

The owner of a small electronics firm hires you to administer standardized cognitive ability tests to job applicants and asks you to teach her how to administer and score the tests herself. You should: Select one: A. agree to do so only if you are able to provide the owner with adequate training. B. agree to do so only if you will be able to supervise the owner. C. agree to do so only if the owner signs a confidentiality agreement. D. not agree to do so.

Answer 67

Standard 9.07 of the Ethics Code applies to this situation. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Standard 9.07 states that "psychologists do not promote the use of psychological assessment techniques by unqualified persons." This response is most consistent with this requirement. The correct answer is: not agree to do so.

Question 68

Regarding the care and use of animals in research, the APA's Ethics Code addresses all the following EXCEPT: Select one: A. individuals under the supervision of psychologists. B. the termination of an animal subject's life. C. security measures used to protect the laboratory. D. compliance with state and federal laws.

Answer 68

Standard 8.09 focuses on the "humane care and use of animals in research." a. Incorrect Supervision is addressed in 8.09(b): "Psychologists trained in research methods and experienced in the care of laboratory animals supervise all procedures involving animals and are responsible for ensuring appropriate consideration of their comfort, health, and humane treatment." b. Incorrect Termination of animals is addressed in 8.09(g): "When it is appropriate that the animal's life be terminated, it is done rapidly, with an effort to minimize pain, and in accordance with accepted procedures." c. CORRECT The security of the laboratory is not explicitly discussed in the ethical standards. d. Incorrect Standard 8.09(a) requires psychologists who use animals in research to comply with federal, state, and local laws and regulations. The correct answer is: security measures used to protect the laboratory.

Question 69

A psychologist has just started working at a mental health clinic. Several of the clients who are referred to him belong to an ethnic minority group that he has not worked with before. He should: Select one: A. inform the clients of his limited experience and discuss their options with them. B. consult with a senior member of the clinic. C. read relevant research on the needs of members of this group. D. refer the clients to a more qualified therapist.

Answer 69

There is nothing in the question that says the minority clients have problems that are unfamiliar to the therapist, that their well-being will be jeopardized by seeing this therapist, or that there is any other reason why a referral would be the best course of action. a. Incorrect Of the responses given, this is not the best one. In certain situations, admitting a lack of expertise is appropriate, but as a general strategy for a particular kind of client, it would not be a good policy. b. CORRECT This is always a good course of action in any situation involving uncertainty about one's competence. c. Incorrect This would be insufficient. d. Incorrect This is not really a wrong answer but is not suggested by the conditions of the question. You'd want to consider this course of action in situations where it would be clearly in the best interests of the clients to do so. The correct answer is: consult with a senior member of the clinic.

Question 70

You are asked by the court to evaluate a 70-year old woman to help determine her competence. She is apparently disoriented and confused and has substantial memory loss. You have recently taken a weekend workshop on the use of a new computerized assessment technique for people with symptoms like those exhibited by this woman, and you feel this method of assessment would be especially valid in this situation. Further, you had taken the workshop specifically because you want to expand your practice by being qualified to conduct competency-related evaluations for the court. Your best course of action would be to: Select one: A. use the program to assess the woman. B. use the program to assess the woman but, when testifying in court, discuss the potential limitations of your conclusions. C. use the program to assess the woman but confirm your conclusions before testifying by consulting with the developer of the assessment technique. D. refer the woman to someone who is more familiar with this type of evaluation.

Answer 70

During the course of their careers, psychologists ordinarily add new skills and techniques. Special precautions must be taken, however, when first applying these skills and techniques to clients. a. Incorrect The information given in the question suggests that you do not have sufficient experience with the new technique to accept the responsibility of using it to evaluate a woman for the purpose of a court decision regarding her competence. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. Even though it is important to report possible limitations of one's conclusions or recommendations, this would not be adequate in this situation. c. Incorrect When using a new technique, supervision is a good idea. However, because the results of the assessment will be used to make an important decision about this woman, consultation would not be adequate in this case. d. CORRECT Of the responses given, this is the best answer. Until you've had experience using the technique, it would be best not to use it to evaluate a woman as part of a competency proceeding. The correct answer is: refer the woman to someone who is more familiar with this type of evaluation.

Question 71

You are asked to conduct a court-ordered evaluation of a defendant in a criminal case. In terms of an informed consent, you: Select one: A. must obtain informed consent from the defendant prior to the evaluation. B. must obtain informed consent from the defendant or his attorney prior to the evaluation. C. do not have to obtain informed consent but must notify the defendant of the purposes and intended uses of the evaluation. D. do not have to provide information to the defendant about the evaluation unless he or his attorney request that you do so.

Answer 71

This situation is covered by the APA's Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychology (APA, 2012). a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Although an informed consent is not required when an evaluation is court-ordered, it is necessary to inform the defendant of the purpose of the evaluation and of the limits on confidentiality. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: do not have to obtain informed consent but must notify the defendant of the purposes and intended uses of the evaluation.

Question 72

Dr. Cooper is appointed by the court to evaluate a 42-year old man who is the defendant in a court proceeding. With regard to privilege, Dr. Cooper should be aware that: Select one: A. the defendant is the holder of the privilege and must sign a waiver of confidentiality before any information is given to the court. B. Dr. Cooper is the holder of the privilege in this situation and it is his responsibility to determine what information to release to the court. C. privilege is waived in this situation but Dr. Cooper should inform the defendant of the limits on confidentiality. D. privilege is waived in this situation and Dr. Cooper can decide if it is appropriate to inform the defendant of the limits on confidentiality.

Answer 72

There are many reasons why a court might appoint a psychologist to evaluate a party in a court case. In these situations, privilege is waived, and the individual must be informed of the limits of confidentiality. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Obviously, the evaluation would serve no useful purpose if the court did not have the right to access the information obtained during the course of the evaluation. Consequently, this is one of the exceptions to the privilege requirement. A psychologist should, however, always inform the individual of the limits of confidentiality in this situation. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: privilege is waived in this situation but Dr. Cooper should inform the defendant of the limits on confidentiality.

Question 73

Dr. Cal Amity is asked to provide crisis intervention services to individuals who were affected by a tornado that destroyed many homes in a nearby community. Dr. Amity has not had experience providing assistance to people who have been traumatized by a natural disaster, but there is no one else in the area who has experience and is available to see these individuals. As an ethical psychologist, Dr. Amity should: Select one: A. provide services only if he is supervised by another professional who has adequate training. B. provide services to these individuals but stop when the crisis has ended or other services become available. C. provide services to these individuals but use only interventions that he has experience using. D. refuse to provide the services.

Answer 73

This situation is addressed by Standard 2.02 of the APA's Ethics Code. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT Standard 2.02 states that, in emergency situations, a psychologist may provide services to individuals for whom other mental health services are not available and for which the psychologist does not have necessary training in order to ensure that the individuals receive necessary services. However, the psychologist must discontinue providing services when the emergency has ended or when appropriate services become available. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: provide services to these individuals but stop when the crisis has ended or other services become available.

Question 74

During the third therapy session, a client reveals to you that he has been seeing another psychologist for the past six months. The client claims that this therapist doesn't seem to be "doing any good," and that he feels you'll be better able to help him. As an ethical psychologist, you should: Select one: A. call the psychologist and inform her of the situation but only with the client's consent. B. tell the client you will continue therapy with him but discuss the implications of the situation. C. tell the client you cannot continue therapy with him unless he terminates therapy with the other psychologist. D. continue seeing the client but suggest that it would be best if he terminates therapy with the other psychologist.

Answer 74

Standard 10.04 of the Ethics Code states that, "In deciding whether to offer or provide services to those already receiving mental health services elsewhere, psychologists carefully consider the treatment issues and the potential client's/patient's welfare." a. Incorrect You need not contact the other psychologist, irrespective of the client's consent, unless you have reason to suspect that she has acted unethically (which is not suggested in this question). b. CORRECT This is most consistent with the requirements of the Ethics Code. The best thing to do in this situation would be to discuss the implications of continuing therapy with the client while he is seeing another therapist. In addition, you should encourage the client to discuss this matter with the other therapist. c. Incorrect It may become necessary to do this if, after a period of time, the client is continuing to see you and the other therapist and you are both providing him with essentially the same services, but it is probably not the best first course of action. d. Incorrect Telling the client that it would be best for him to stop therapy with the other therapist is not required by the Ethics Code. It does not take the best interests of the client (or other therapist) into consideration. The correct answer is: tell the client you will continue therapy with him but discuss the implications of the situation.

Question 75

You receive a letter from the Ethics Committee asking for information about a former client who has filed a complaint against her current therapist. You stopped seeing the client over seven years ago. You should: Select one: A. not comply with the Committee's request initially and claim privilege on behalf of your client. B. cooperate with the Committee's request by sending them the information you believe is relevant to the case. C. cooperate with the Committee's request by sending them the information you believe is relevant to the case after confirming that the client has signed a release. D. inform the Committee that the information you have about the client is obsolete and that you're ethically obligated not to forward it to them.

Answer 75

This situation is addressed by Standard 1.06 of the APA's Ethics Code. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT When contacted by the Ethics Committee, a psychologist must cooperate fully. However, as noted in Standard 1.06, a psychologist is also obligated to "address any confidentiality issues." (If you believe the information is obsolete, you should make a note of that when you forward the information to the Committee.) d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: cooperate with the Committee's request by sending them the information you believe is relevant to the case after confirming that the client has signed a release.

Question 76

Mental health professionals are sometimes called upon to assist the court in assessing a person's potential for violent behavior. In general, the predictions made by psychologists and psychiatrists yield an abundance of: Select one: A. false negatives. B. false positives. C. true negatives. D. true positives.

Answer 76

According to several authorities, mental health professionals tend to overpredict the potential for violence; i.e., they tend to predict that a person will be violent when, in fact, he/she will not. a. Incorrect False negatives are individuals who are predicted to be nonviolent but who actually are violent. b. CORRECT As noted above, mental health professionals tend to overpredict violence. Individuals who are identified as violent but, in reality, are not violent are referred to as "false positives." c. Incorrect True negatives are individuals who are predicted to be nonviolent and actually are not. d. Incorrect True positives are individuals are predicted to be violent and are. The correct answer is: false positives.

Question 77

A client has missed the last three appointments and has not paid for the past five. You receive a letter from a state in-patient facility requesting information about the client who is now a patient there because of a suicide attempt. The request includes a valid release of information. According to the Ethics Code, you are acting ethically in this situation if you: Select one: A. notify the client that you will release the information only after an acceptable arrangement has been made for his unpaid bill. B. agree to release only a summary of your records until an acceptable arrangement has been made for his unpaid bill. C. provide the hospital with the information it has requested. D. use your own discretion as to the best course of action.

Answer 77

Feedback This issue is addressed in Standard 6.03 of the APA's Ethics Code, which states that "psychologists may not withhold records under their control that are requested and needed for a client's/patient's emergency treatment solely because payment has not been received." a. Incorrect See explanation above. b. Incorrect See explanation above. c. CORRECT Since the client is currently a patient at the facility for a suicide attempt, you can assume that the records are needed for "emergency treatment" and that the ethical course of action is to provide the records as requested. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: provide the hospital with the information it has requested.

Question 78

A client who terminated therapy with Dr. Demit several months ago calls to request an appointment because he has become very depressed and is feeling suicidal. In the past few months, Dr. Demit has been reducing her practice because she is getting ready to retire. The best course of action in this situation is for Dr. Demit to: Select one: A. see the man until the crisis has passed and then provide him with appropriate referrals. B. explain to the man that she is about to retire and refer him to a colleague. C. provide the man with several referrals and ask him to let her know if none of them works out. D. provide the man with several referrals and tell him she is willing to consult with the new therapist.

Answer 78

Although this situation is not explicitly covered by the Ethics Code, Standard 3.04 states that psychologists "take reasonable steps to avoid harming their clients/patients ...." a. CORRECT The best way to protect this client from harm would be to see him until the crisis has passed. After that, it would be acceptable to provide him with referrals. b. Incorrect See explanation above. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: see the man until the crisis has passed and then provide him with appropriate referrals.

Question 79

You receive a phone call from a person who you were intimately (including sexually) involved with for a short period of time. Your relationship ended in a mutually agreeable way and now this person wants to start therapy with you. In terms of the requirements of the Ethics Code: Select one: A. it would be ethical to begin therapy as long as at least two years have passed since the end of the relationship. B. it would be ethical to begin therapy as long as it is clear that there is no risk for harm or exploitation. C. it would be ethical to begin therapy as long as you discuss the potential for conflicts at the outset and the risk for harm to the client is minimal. D. it would not be ethical to begin therapy.

Answer 79

This issue is clearly addressed in the Ethics Code. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Standard 10.07 states "Psychologists do not accept as therapy clients/patients persons with whom they have engaged in sexual intimacies." The correct answer is: it would not be ethical to begin therapy.

Question 80

The provisions of APA's General Guidelines for Providers of Psychological Services require that "Professional Psychologists" have: Select one: A. a masters or doctoral degree in psychology. B. a masters or doctoral degree in psychology plus appropriate professional experience. C. a doctoral degree in psychology from a regionally accredited university or professional school. D. an appropriate license or certificate in psychology.

Answer 80

As noted in the chapter on ethics and professional issues in the written study materials, the APA's General Guidelines requires Professional Psychologists to have a doctoral degree in psychology from a regionally accredited university or professional school. a. Incorrect See explanation above. b. Incorrect See explanation above. c. CORRECT This is a correct description of the requirements of the General Guidelines. d. Incorrect Licensure is not mandated by APA's General Guidelines or Specialty Guidelines. The correct answer is: a doctoral degree in psychology from a regionally accredited university or professional school.

Question 81

The term "insanity" is: Select one: A. a legal term. B. a psychiatric term. C. a psychological term that refers to psychotic disorders. D. a term used only by nonprofessionals.

Answer 81

In the past, the term "insanity" was used by psychiatrists and psychologists to denote a severe mental disorder, but it is now used only as a legal term only. a. CORRECT An "insane" person is an individual who has been judged in a court of law to be so psychologically deranged that he or she cannot be held responsible for criminal behavior. b. Incorrect This is no longer true. c. Incorrect This is no longer true. d. Incorrect Although the term "insanity" is often used by nonprofessionals, it is also a legal term. The correct answer is: a legal term.

Question 82

With regard to ethical guidelines, exposing animal subjects in a research study to stress or pain: Select one: A. is prohibited under any circumstances. B. is prohibited except in the "most unusual circumstances." C. is permitted when the stress or pain is minimized and applied in a humane way. D. is permitted when alternative procedures are unavailable and the stress or pain is justified by the prospective value of the study's results.

Answer 82

This issue is addressed in Standard 8.09(g) of the APA's Ethics Code and Principle II.46 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect Although minimizing stress and pain and applying stress or pain in a humane way would be important, this would be not be sufficient if alternative procedures are available and/or if causing stress or pain is not justified by the prospective value of the study's results. Therefore, this is not the best answer of those given. d. CORRECT Of the answers given, this one is most consistent with the provisions of the APA's Ethics Code and the Canadian Code of Ethics. The correct answer is: is permitted when alternative procedures are unavailable and the stress or pain is justified by the prospective value of the study's results.

Question 83

A psychologist should be aware that client records: Select one: A. are protected by law and can never be disclosed without the client's consent. B. are the property of the psychologist and cannot be disclosed without his/her consent. C. are the joint property of the psychologist and client and cannot be disclosed without the consent of both. D. are not always free from disclosure, regardless of the wishes of the client or the psychologist.

Answer 83

The physical record is ordinarily the property of the psychologist (or organization where the psychologist works), while the information contained in the record is the property of the client. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT - There are situations that require a psychologist to disclose certain information contained in a client's record (e.g., in cases of known or suspected child abuse), even without the client's consent. Therefore, this answer is most consistent with ethical guidelines and legal requirements. The correct answer is: are not always free from disclosure, regardless of the wishes of the client or the psychologist.

Question 84

A psychologist is hired to perform a court-ordered evaluation of a defendant in a criminal case. The psychologist discusses the purpose of the evaluation with the defendant who then says he does not want to cooperate. According to the Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychology (APA, 2012), the psychologist should: Select one: A. remind the defendant that he has no choice since the evaluation is court-ordered. B. refuse to conduct the evaluation unless he obtains an informed consent from the defendant. C. refuse to conduct the evaluation unless he obtains an informed consent from either the defendant or the defendant's attorney. D. postpone the evaluation and advise the defendant to contact his attorney.

Answer 84

The best course of action is addressed in Paragraph 6.03.02 of the Specialty Guidelines. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT When an evaluation is court-ordered, it is not necessary to obtain an informed consent. However, the subject of the evaluation should be informed of its purpose. If he/she does not want to be evaluated, the psychologist "may consider a variety of options including postponing the examination, advising the examinee to contact his or her attorney, and notifying the retaining party about the examinee's unwillingness to proceed." The correct answer is: postpone the evaluation and advise the defendant to contact his attorney.

Question 85

Dr. Fran Flummox is asked by the plaintiff's attorney to serve as an expert witness on behalf of the plaintiff in a malpractice suit. The attorney asks Dr. Flummox if she would be willing to waive her usual fee and accept a proportion of the anticipated settlement instead. As an ethical psychologist, Dr. Flummox: Select one: A. may agree to do so because accepting a contingent fee is acceptable in this situation. B. should agree to do so only if the contingent fee will represent the fair market value of her services. C. should agree to do so only if she determines that accepting the contingent fee is in the best interests of the plaintiff. D. should refuse to do so because psychologists should avoid accepting contingent fees in this situation.

Answer 85

This issue is addressed in Paragraph 5.02 of the APA's Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychology. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Of the responses given, this one is most consistent with the requirements of Paragraph 5.02, which states: "Forensic practitioners seek to avoid undue influence that might result from financial compensation or other gains. Because of the threat to impartiality presented by the acceptance of contingent fees and associated legal prohibitions, forensic practitioners strive to avoid providing professional services on the basis of contingent fees." The correct answer is: should refuse to do so because psychologists should avoid accepting contingent fees in this situation.

Question 86

Research comparing younger and older workers has found that: Select one: A. younger workers tend to be more satisfied than older workers are. B. younger workers have more realistic expectations about their jobs than older workers do. C. younger workers are more concerned about pay and job security than older workers are. D. younger workers expect more personal fulfillment from their jobs than older workers do.

Answer 86

Research has generally shown that job satisfaction tends to increase with age, especially among White employees. a. Incorrect This is the opposite of what is true. b. Incorrect This is the opposite of what is true. c. Incorrect This is not what has been found by the research. d. CORRECT The lower satisfaction of younger employees has been attributed to their greater expectations for personal fulfillment from their jobs. The correct answer is: younger workers expect more personal fulfillment from their jobs than older workers do.

Question 87

As described by Krumboltz (1996), career counseling involves: Select one: A. assessing the individual's self-concept and then identifying careers that match his/her self-concept. B. helping the individual transition from the anticipation/preoccupation phase to the implementation phase of career development. C. instilling an attitude of self-development in the individual so that he/she can adapt to changing work requirements in the future. D. helping the individual successfully accomplish the tasks of his/her current stage of career development.

Answer 87

Krumboltz's approach to career counseling is based on social learning theory. a. Incorrect This sounds more like Super's theory. b. Incorrect This sounds more like the theory of Tiedeman and O'Hara. c. CORRECT In contrast to many other career development theories, Krumboltz's theory does not focus on matching individual characteristics to the characteristics of the job or organization. Instead, he argues that the purpose of career counseling is to help the individual develop attitudes and skills that will enable him/her to adapt to changing work requirements. d. Incorrect This sounds more like Super's theory. The correct answer is: instilling an attitude of self-development in the individual so that he/she can adapt to changing work requirements in the future.

Question 88

Regarding self-assessments that are utilized to promote organizational development, what is key when implementing the findings? Select one: A. Stakeholders of the organization are included in the discovery process. B. Lower level management of the organization is included in the discovery process. C. Only the CEO and executive officers should be included in the discovery process. D. Only management should be included in the discovery process.

Answer 88

The correct answer is A. Self-Assessments are appropriate when the objective is organizational development. Implementation of findings is most successful when stakeholders of the organization are included in the discovery process. Answers B, C and D are incorrect as stakeholders of the company include those in all levels of management as well as those who are not in management too. The correct answer is: Stakeholders of the organization are included in the discovery process.

Question 89

To use the Taylor-Russell tables to evaluate a new selection test, you need information about which of the following? Select one: A. predictor cutoff, criterion cutoff, and hit rate B. base rate, hit rate, and selection ratio C. base rate, selection ratio, and validity coefficient D. base rate, hit rate, and predictor cutoff

Answer 89

The Taylor-Russell tables are used to estimate a predictor's "positive hit rate." a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT To find an estimated hit rate using these tables, it is necessary to have three pieces of information: the base rate, the selection ratio, and the predictor's validity coefficient. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: base rate, selection ratio, and validity coefficient

Question 90

Fiedler and Garcia's (1987) cognitive resource theory predicts that the relationship between leader intelligence and leader effectiveness is moderated by: Select one: A. the leader's stress level. B. the leader's self-efficacy beliefs. C. the employees' motivation. D. the employees' experience.

Answer 90

F. E. Fiedler and J. E. Garcia's cognitive resource theory (CRT) attempts to explain the low correlations that have been found between leader intelligence and leader performance (New approaches to leadership: Cognitive resources and organizational performance, New York, Wiley, 1987). a. CORRECT According to CRT, the impact of a leader's experience and intelligence on the leader's performance is moderated by the leader's level of stress. It predicts that (1) a leader's intellectual ability correlates positively with performance in low-stress situations but negatively in high-stress situations and (2) a leader's experience correlates negatively with performance in low-stress situations but positively in high-stress situations. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: the leader's stress level.

Question 91

The establishment of comparable worth depends on the use of: Select one: A. a neutral job evaluation procedure. B. a valid needs analysis procedure. C. an unbiased job analysis procedure. D. an unbiased personnel selection procedure.

Answer 91

According to the principle of comparable worth, men and women who perform jobs that require similar levels of education, training, and skills should receive similar compensation. a. CORRECT Knowing that a job evaluation is used to establish comparable worth would have helped you identify this as the correct answer. For a job evaluation procedure to be useful for this purpose, it must be unbiased (gender-neutral). However, there is evidence that the job evaluation procedures used to establish comparable worth are themselves gender-biased. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: a neutral job evaluation procedure.

Question 92

In the development of a job performance measure, the "ultimate" criterion is: Select one: A. a measure of performance that has a perfect (or near perfect) correlation with the predictor. B. a measure of performance that is unaffected by measurement error. C. a measure of performance that is theoretical and cannot actually be measured. D. the actual measure of the empirically identified conceptual criterion.

Answer 92

There are several terms related to "criteria" that you want to be familiar with for the exam. These are described in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT An ultimate (conceptual) criterion is a construct that cannot be measured directly but, instead, is measured indirectly (e.g., "effective employee" would be the ultimate criterion, while "dollar amount of sales during a three-month period" would be the actual criterion). d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: a measure of performance that is theoretical and cannot actually be measured.

Question 93

Research comparing day, swing, and night shifts has found that: Select one: A. the night shift clearly has the most detrimental impact on both the social life and health of workers. B. the night shift has the most detrimental impact on health and may or may not be similar to the swing shift in terms of it negative effects on the social life of workers. C. the night shift has the most detrimental impact on the social life of workers but is no different than day and swing shifts in terms of health problems. D. the night shift has the most detrimental impact on health but is no different than day or swing shifts in terms of the social life of workers.

Answer 93

Research on the effects of shift work has found that most of the problems experienced by workers are related to a loss of sleep. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT The night shift has been consistently linked to the most health problems, but the literature is inconsistent with regard to its effects on social life: Some studies suggest the effects on social life are worse for the swing shift, while others suggest they're worse for the night shift or are similar for the two shifts. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: the night shift has the most detrimental impact on health and may or may not be similar to the swing shift in terms of it negative effects on the social life of workers.

Question 94

A large law firm is facing a difficult and involved case. The senior partner asks a group of four lawyers to verbalize all ideas that come into their minds about the case, no matter how absurd the ideas may be. He then asks four other lawyers to do the same thing separately (individually) rather than as a group. The senior partner can expect that: Select one: A. the individual lawyers will come up with the best ideas. B. the group of lawyers will come up with the best ideas. C. the ideas of the individual lawyers and the group of lawyers will be equally productive. D. the ideas of the group of lawyers will be more productive if those ideas are evaluated as they are presented.

Answer 94

The senior partner in this question is using the technique known as "brainstorming," which is used to help generate new and creative solutions to difficult problems. With brainstorming, individuals are encouraged to verbalize all ideas, no matter how absurd they seem; no person's ideas can be evaluated by others until the brainstorming session is over; and the elaboration of the ideas of others is encouraged. a. CORRECT Research on brainstorming generally indicates that individuals brainstorming alone are more productive than the same number of individuals brainstorming as a group. Group effectiveness does improve, however, when group members receive training in brainstorming. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect In brainstorming, the evaluation of ideas as they are presented, rather than afterwards, would hinder the spontaneous, uninhibited production of ideas and thereby defeat the purpose of the technique. The correct answer is: the individual lawyers will come up with the best ideas.

Question 95

Which of the following best describes the impact of pay on motivation from the perspective of equity theory? Select one: A. Pay is important only to the extent that it helps satisfy the employee's most prepotent need. B. An employee's perception about the fairness of pay is more important than the absolute amount of pay. C. An employee's perception regarding the link between performance and pay influences the impact of pay on motivation. D. Pay is an insignificant contributor to an employee's level of motivation.

Answer 95

Equity theory predicts that motivation and performance are related to a comparison of one's own input/outcome ratio to the ratio of workers performing a similar job. a. Incorrect Prepotent needs are not addressed by equity theory. b. CORRECT The employee's perceptions about input and outcomes (e.g., pay) are most important. c. Incorrect This sounds more like expectancy theory. d. Incorrect Equity theory does not predict that pay is insignificant. The correct answer is: An employee's perception about the fairness of pay is more important than the absolute amount of pay.

Question 96

A transactional leader is LEAST likely to agree with which of the following statements: Select one: A. employee behavior is goal directed and employees will act rationally to achieve their goals. B. contingent rewards are effective for motivating good performance. C. the best idea for a boss is to adopt a laissez-faire leadership style. D. each employee will function best if he/she is viewed as an individual and is given personal attention.

Answer 96

Current literature on leadership in organizations often distinguishes between transactional and transformational leaders. a. Incorrect This is characteristic of transactional leaders. b. Incorrect Transactional leaders use rewards and punishments to control and modify the behaviors of their subordinates. c. Incorrect This is also consistent with the transactional leadership style. d. CORRECT This is more consistent with the managerial philosophy of transformational leaders. Additional information on transactional and transformational leaders is provided in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials. The correct answer is: each employee will function best if he/she is viewed as an individual and is given personal attention.

Question 97

Research evaluating the predictive validity of structured interviews as hiring tools in organizations suggests that: Select one: A. structured interviews are the most valid predictors of performance across different jobs. B. when used alone, structured interviews are no more valid as predictors of performance than unstructured interviews. C. the validity of structured interviews as predictors of performance is increased when the interview includes both structured and unstructured items. D. the validity of structured interviews as predictors of performance is increased when the interview is used in combination with a measure of general mental ability.

Answer 97

The predictive validity of interviews and other selection techniques is summarized in Schmidt and Hunter's (1998) meta-analysis of the research. a. Incorrect The Schmidt and Hunter meta-analysis found that measures of general mental ability are the most valid predictors across different jobs. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT L. Schmidt and J. E. Hunter report corrected validity coefficients of .51 and .38 for structured and unstructured interviews, respectively. They also report that the predictive validity of interviews is increased when an interview is combined with another selection procedure, especially a general mental ability test [The validity and utility of selection measures in personnel psychology: Practical and theoretical implications of 85 years of research findings, Psychological Bulletin, 124(2), 262-274, 1998]. The correct answer is: the validity of structured interviews as predictors of performance is increased when the interview is used in combination with a measure of general mental ability.

Question 98

Ensuring that employment decisions and practices are free from bias, that errors are quickly corrected, and that stakeholders are involved in important decision-making contributes to which of the following types of organizational justice? Select one: A. interactional B. procedural C. distributive D. retributive

Answer 98

Individuals interested in fairness in organizations distinguish between three types of justice -- procedural, distributive, and interactional. a. Incorrect Interactional justice refers to how people feel about the quality and content of interpersonal interactions. b. CORRECT Procedural justice refers to the fairness of the ways in which procedures and policies are implemented. c. Incorrect Distributive justice refers to the fairness of the outcomes of organizational procedures and policies. d. Incorrect Retributive justice refers to rectifying a wrongdoing in a way that is proportionate to the wrongdoing. The correct answer is: procedural

Question 99

When using the Critical Incident Technique (CIT), a supervisor: Select one: A. identifies an employees typical (average) job behaviors. B. identifies an employees effective and ineffective job behaviors. C. determines if an employee has achieved his/her performance goals. D. determines if an employees performance matches a predefined standard of performance.

Answer 99

The Critical Incident Technique (CIT) is a performance appraisal technique that is used to provide employees with feedback about their job performance. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT As originally described, CIT involves having the supervisor observe an employee during a designated period and record the employee's behaviors that represent satisfactory or unsatisfactory performance. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: identifies an employees effective and ineffective job behaviors.

Question 100

Fiedler's LPC theory of leadership proposes that: Select one: A. leaders can alter their leadership style to fit the demands of the situation. B. the most effective leaders are person- (versus task-) oriented. C. to be most effective, a leader should match his/her leadership style to the characteristics of the employee. D. to be most effective, a leader's personality should match the demands of the situation.

Answer 100

Fiedler's theory categorizes leaders in terms of how they rate their "least preferred coworker" and describes the situation (work environment) in terms of the favorableness for the leader to lead. a. Incorrect Fiedler believed that leaders cannot change their leadership style. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Fiedler's LPC scale categorizes leaders as "high LPC" (person-oriented) or "low LPC" (task-oriented). His theory proposes that high LPC leaders are most effective when the situation is moderately favorable, while low LPC leaders are best when the situation is highly favorable or unfavorable. See the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter for additional information about Fiedler's theory. The correct answer is: to be most effective, a leader's personality should match the demands of the situation.

Question 101

In the context of training programs, utility analysis would be used to: Select one: A. identify organizational needs with regard to training. B. identify the effective components of a training program. C. assess the satisfaction of participants with the training program. D. assess the return-on-investment of the training program.

Answer 101

The term "utility analysis" is sometimes used interchangeably with the term "cost-benefit analysis," and its meaning varies somewhat, depending on the field or context in which it is being used. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT In organizations, utility analysis relies on accounting procedures to evaluate the costs and benefits of training programs, selection procedures, and other personnel interventions. With regard to training, this might involve considering the costs of developing and implementing the training program, estimates of the productivity of trained versus untrained employees, and the length of time that training is expected to affect employee productivity. See, e.g., W. F. Cascio, Using utility analysis to assess training outcomes, in I. L. Goldstein (Ed.), Training and Development in Organizations, San Francisco, Jossey-Bass, 1989. The correct answer is: assess the return-on-investment of the training program.

Question 102

Expectancy theory predicts that work motivation depends on three beliefs. These include all of the following except: Select one: A. valence. B. instrumentality. C. expectancy. D. consideration.

Answer 102

Expectancy theory is based on the assumption that motivation is a cognitive process involving three beliefs: expectancy, instrumentality, and valence. a. Incorrect Valence refers to the value the worker places on the outcomes of performance. b. Incorrect Instrumentality refers to the worker's beliefs regarding the likelihood that successful job performance will lead to certain outcomes. c. Incorrect Expectancy refers to the worker's beliefs about the likelihood that effort will lead to successful performance. d. CORRECT Consideration is NOT one of the beliefs identified by expectancy theory. The correct answer is: consideration.

Question 103

In an organization, an assessment center is most likely to include which of the following? Select one: A. a measure of psychomotor ability B. a lie detector C. a "vestibule" D. an "in-basket test"

Answer 103

An assessment center is a comprehensive technique used most often for the selection, promotion, or placement of managerial-level employees. a. Incorrect Since assessment centers are used for the promotion of managerial-level employees, they are not likely to include psychomotor tests. b. Incorrect This is not commonly found in an assessment center. c. Incorrect A vestibule is a facsimile of a real environment. Vestibules are used for training purposes and are most commonly associated with production-type jobs (e.g., a vestibule might be a facsimile of an actual assembly line). d. CORRECT Assessment centers incorporate a variety of techniques including situational tests such as the in-basket test. The correct answer is: an "in-basket test"

Question 104

According to Fielder's contingency model of leadership, a low LPC leader focuses on: Select one: A. completing tasks. B. maintaining good relationships. C. providing satisficing factors. D. providing hygiene factors.

Answer 104

According to Fiedler, leaders who describe their least preferred coworker in unfavorable terms are considered task-oriented. They focus on successful completion of the task. However, a high LPC leader describes the least preferred coworker in more pleasant terms and are considered relationship-oriented. A high LPC leader would focus on maintaining good interpersonal relationships. a. CORRECT See explanation above. b. Incorrect See explanation above. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: completing tasks.

Question 105

One criticism of BARS is that: Select one: A. it requires raters to indicate the kinds of behaviors they would expect of ratees rather than the behaviors that they have actually observed. B. it requires raters to recall the frequency of critical behaviors over an extended period of time in the past. C. there is too much ambiguity with regard to the performance dimensions being measured. D. it overemphasizes the subjective features of job performance

Answer 105

Behaviorally anchored rating scales (BARS) present raters with specific behavioral statements related to different levels of job performance. a. CORRECT A characteristic of BARS is that the behavioral anchors are usually worded in terms of what could be expected rather than what actually occurred. b. Incorrect This better describes the problem with behavioral observation scales (BOS). c. Incorrect The anchors are very specific, so this isn't a problem. d. Incorrect This isn't a problem associated with BARS. The correct answer is: it requires raters to indicate the kinds of behaviors they would expect of ratees rather than the behaviors that they have actually observed.

Question 106

According to Tiedeman and O'Hara (1963), career development involves two phases - anticipation and preoccupation - which each consist of several stages. During these stages, the individual: Select one: A. attempts to achieve a balance between integration and differentiation. B. compares his/her own abilities and performance to an external standard to help decide future goals. C. makes choices that are based primarily on his/her level of self-awareness. D. makes choices based on his/her needs, which are determined primarily by family and other environmental factors.

Answer 106

According to Tiedeman and O'Hara (1963), career development involves building a vocational identity that combines a career with one's individuality. a. CORRECT These investigators propose that achieving a balanced vocational identity involves both becoming part of a career field (integration) and retaining one's uniqueness (differentiation). b. Incorrect This sounds more like the cognitive-behavioral theory of J. Krumboltz. c. Incorrect This sounds more like the theory of E. Ginzberg. d. Incorrect The role of needs in vocational development is emphasized by A. Roe. The correct answer is: attempts to achieve a balance between integration and differentiation.

Question 107

Research on equity theory suggests that: Select one: A. underpayment should be avoided but overpayment should be encouraged. B. underpayment and overpayment should both be avoided. C. negative valence should be avoided but positive valence should be encouraged. D. negative valence and positive valence should both be avoided.

Answer 107

As long as you remembered that equity theory is associated with the effects of over-and underpayment, you would have been able to narrow the responses down to responses a and b. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT Although overpayment can produce an increase in productivity, the increase is only temporary. In addition, overpayment sets up an inequitable situation that can have adverse effects on the performance of others. c. Incorrect Valence is associated with expectancy theory. d. Incorrect See explanations above. The correct answer is: underpayment and overpayment should both be avoided.

Question 108

According to the "80% rule," adverse impact occurs when: Select one: A. for every 50 Whites that apply, 10 are hired, and for every 50 African-Americans that apply, 9 are hired. B. for every 50 Whites that apply, 6 are hired, and for every 50 African-Americans that apply, 3 are hired. C. for every 50 Whites that apply, 4 are hired, and for every 100 African-Americans that apply, 8 are hired. D. for every 100 Whites that apply, 9 are hired, and for every 50 African-Americans that apply, 5 are hired.

Answer 108

The "80% rule" is one method that is used to determine whether a selection test is having an adverse impact. When using this rule, the hiring rate for minority group members is divided by the hiring rate for non-minority group members. If the result is less than 80%, adverse impact is considered to exist. a. Incorrect In this situation, 20% of White applicants (10/50) are being hired and 18% (9/50) of African-American applicants are being hired; 18%/20% is equal to 90%, which is greater than 80%. b. CORRECT In this situation, 12% of White applicants (6/50) are being hired and 6% (3/50) of African-American applicants are being hired. This means that the proportion of hired African-Americans is 50% of the proportion of hired Whites (6%/12%). Adverse impact is occurring since the proportion of African-Americans hired is less than 80% of the proportion of Whites who are hired. c. Incorrect In this situation, 8% (4/50) of Whites are being hired and 8% (8/100) of African-Americans are being hired; i.e., the proportion of African-Americans is equal to the proportion of Whites, and adverse impact is, therefore, not occurring. d. Incorrect In this situation, 9% (9/100) of Whites are being hired and 10% (5/50) of African-Americans are being hired. Adverse impact is clearly not occurring. The correct answer is: for every 50 Whites that apply, 6 are hired, and for every 50 African-Americans that apply, 3 are hired.

Question 109

Kirkpatrick (1983) identifies four levels of rigor in the evaluation of training programs. According to his model, which of the following represents the highest level of evaluation? Select one: A. reaction criteria B. results criteria C. behavioral criteria D. learning criteria

Answer 109

Several experts have addressed the issue of training program evaluation and place the various methods in a hierarchical order. One of these hierarchies is offered Kirkpatrick (1983), who distinguishes between four levels: reaction criteria, learning criteria, behavioral criteria, and, at the top, results criteria. a. Incorrect Trainees' impressions of and reactions to the training program are considered the "lowest" level of rigor. b. CORRECT Measures indicating the contribution of training to the organization's objectives are at the top of Kirkpatrick's hierarchy. These measures include cost and turnover reductions, increases in overall productivity, and increases in profits. c. Incorrect Behavioral criteria are second to the top and include measures of an individual trainee's on-the-job performance. (Note that some experts consider measures of transfer-of-training to be the "highest" level of evaluation.) d. Incorrect Learning criteria are the second level and include written exams and performance tests given at the end of training. The correct answer is: results criteria

Question 110

Research investigating the effects of normal aging on memory has found that: Select one: A. semantic memory is affected more than episodic and procedural memory. B. episodic memory is affected more than semantic and procedural memory. C. procedural memory is affected more than episodic and semantic memory. D. normal aging has a similar impact on semantic, episodic, and procedural memory.

Answer 110

Of the various aspects of long-term memory, memory of autobiographical information is affected most by normal aging. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT Episodic (autobiographical) memories show more decline with increasing age than either semantic (fact) memories or procedural (skill) memories. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: episodic memory is affected more than semantic and procedural memory.

Question 111

Surveys of heterosexual men and women have found that, with regard to sexual satisfaction in mid- to late-adulthood: Select one: A. men report being more physically and emotionally satisfied with their current sexual relationships than women do. B. women report being more physically and emotionally satisfied with their current sexual relationships than men do. C. men and women report nearly identical levels of physical and emotional satisfaction with their current sexual relationships. D. men report being more physically satisfied but women report being more emotionally satisfied with their current sexual relationships.

Answer 111

A consistent finding of the research is that, in mid- and late-adulthood, men report higher levels of sexual satisfaction. a. CORRECT This answer is consistent with the results of a number of studies, including a large-scale international study of the sexual attitudes and behaviors of men and women ages 40 through 80 conducted by Lauman et al. Their study found that, in all geographic regions, men reported higher levels of physical and emotional sexual satisfaction than did women. [E. O. Lauman et al., A cross-national study of subjective sexual well-being among older women and men: Findings from the global study of sexual attitudes and behavior, Archives of Sexual Behavior, 35(2), 143-159, 2006.] b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: men report being more physically and emotionally satisfied with their current sexual relationships than women do.

Question 112

According to Piaget, a child cannot gain a true understanding of addition and subtraction until he/she is ___ years of age. Select one: A. 3 B. 5 C. 7 D. 11

Answer 112

Piaget proposed that it is not until the concrete operational stage that children are capable of mental operations, which are logical rules for transforming and manipulating information. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT The concrete operational stage is characteristic of children ages 7 through 11. Piaget believed that children younger than age 7 could be taught to memorize simple math facts (e.g., 2 plus 2 equals 4) but that children must be in the concrete operational stage before they are able to truly understand addition and subtraction. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: 7

Question 113

As conceptualized in Bronfenbrenner's (1995) ecological systems theory, the exosystem includes which of the following? Select one: A. elements in the child's environment that change as the result of the passage of time B. elements in the most remote layer of the child's environment that influence interactions in all other layers C. elements in the larger social system that the child does not have direct contact with but that affect his/her immediate environment D. elements in the child's immediate environment that he/she has direct contact with

Answer 113

Bronfenbrenner's (1995) ecological systems theory views individual development as occurring within a complex system of relationships that are impacted by multiple levels in the environment. The theory distinguishes between five levels: ``` Microsystem Mesosystem Exosystem Macrosystem, and Chronosystem ``` a. Incorrect The chronosystem is the temporal dimension in Bronfenbrenner's model. It refers to changes over time that impact the individual's development. b. Incorrect The macrosystem is the outermost layer and is comprised of overarching environmental influences such as cultural beliefs and practices, economic conditions, and political ideologies. c. CORRECT The exosystem consists of elements in the broader social environment that affect the child's immediate environment. It includes the extended family, the parents' workplace, the school board, community agencies, local industry, and the mass media. d. Incorrect The microsystem is the child's immediate environment and includes face-to-face relationships within the home, school, and neighborhood (e.g., the child's relationships with parents, siblings, peers, and teachers). The correct answer is: elements in the larger social system that the child does not have direct contact with but that affect his/her immediate environment

Question 114

Kagan's (1966) research on cognitive style found that, in general, students who have a reflective style and take time to consider a question posed by a teacher before answering it: Select one: A. usually have a lower IQ and lower levels of achievement than children who answer questions quickly. B. usually have lower self-efficacy beliefs than children who answer questions quickly. C. are less likely to answer questions correctly than are children who answer quickly. D. are more likely to answer questions correctly than are children who answer quickly.

Answer 114

Kagan distinguished between two cognitive styles - reflective and impulsive - and found that they were related to academic performance. See, e.g., J. Kagan, Reflection-impulsivity: The generality and dynamics of conceptual tempo, Journal of Abnormal Psychology, 71, 17-24, 1966. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Kagan and others have found that children who have a reflective style are more likely to answer questions correctly and to experience more success on school-related tasks than are children who have an impulsive style. Kagan also referred to these styles as "cognitive tempo", and he found that they're not necessarily associated with intellectual ability. The correct answer is: are more likely to answer questions correctly than are children who answer quickly.

Question 115

As described by Mildred Parten (1932), children's social play includes all of the following types of play except: Select one: A. onlooker. B. associative. C. parallel. D. cooperative.

Answer 115

Parten divided the different types of play that children engage in into two basic types: nonsocial and social. a. CORRECT Nonsocial play includes unoccupied, onlooker, and solitary play, while social play includes parallel, associative, and cooperative play. b. Incorrect See explanation for answer a. c. Incorrect See explanation for answer a. d. Incorrect See explanation for answer a. The correct answer is: onlooker.

Question 116

Research on the development of depth perception in infants has shown that sensitivity to depth cues emerges in which of the following sequences (from first to last)? Select one: A. binocular, pictorial, kinetic B. kinetic, pictorial, binocular C. binocular, kinetic, pictorial D. kinetic, binocular, pictorial

Answer 116

The studies have confirmed that sensitivity to depth cues develops in a predictable sequence. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Babies are sensitive to kinetic cues (movement of objects closer to their eyes) as early as three weeks of age. Between 2 and 3 months of age, they begin to make use of binocular cues to judge the distance of objects. Finally, by about 7 months of age, babies perceive pictorial depth cues. The correct answer is: kinetic, binocular, pictorial

Question 117

Which of the following is generally considered to be most important in the early development of attachment between an infant and his or her caretaker? Select one: A. pleasant tactile stimulation of the infant by the caretaker B. satiation of the infant's hunger by the caretaker C. provision of a structured, nonchanging environment by the caretaker D. provision of consistent auditory stimulation by the caretaker's voice

Answer 117

Familiarity with Harlow and Harlow's (1969) research would have helped you answer this question. In their studies, infant monkeys were reared in isolation or with one of two types (wire mesh or cloth) of surrogate mothers. Results indicated that tactile contact is the crucial element in the development of attachment: Infant monkeys consistently preferred cloth mothers to wire mothers even when food was given via the wire mother. a. CORRECT This response is consistent with the Harlow and Harlow research and other primate and nonprimate research. b. Incorrect While the need to satiate an infant's hunger is crucial, Harlow and Harlow found that young monkeys consistently preferred the cloth mother, regardless of which mother provided food. c. Incorrect The provision of a structured environment does not appear to be crucial to an infant's development of attachment. d. Incorrect Consistent auditory stimulation is not the most crucial factor in the early development of attachment. The correct answer is: pleasant tactile stimulation of the infant by the caretaker

Question 118

Lisa Baumgartner's longitudinal research (2001) identified a six-phase process for incorporating a diagnosis of HIV/AIDS into one's identity. The final phase in this process is: Select one: A. post-immersion turning point. B. stabilization. C. immersion. D. integration.

Answer 118

Baumgartner's six phases are: Diagnosis Post-diagnosis turning point Immersion Post-immersion turning point Integration Disclosure (which is not a final stage but occurs throughout the other five stages) (L. M. Baumgartner, The incorporation of HIV/AIDS into identity over time: Transformational tales continued, 2001 AERC Proceedings, retrieved June 12, 2006, from www.edst.educ.ubc.ca/aerc/2001/2001baumgartner.htm.) a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Baumgartner describes the incorporation of an HIV/AIDS diagnosis as a transformational learning process. Her research found that the final phase of this process involves incorporating the HIV/AIDS diagnosis into one's identity and balancing one's HIV/AIDS status with other life activities, commitments, etc. The correct answer is: integration.

Question 119

The goodness-of-fit model proposed by Thomas and Chess implies that: Select one: A. adjustment in children is related to the degree of congruence between a child's basic temperament and his/her parents' caregiving. B. life satisfaction is related to the degree of congruence between a person's basic personality and his/her chosen lifestyle. C. adjustment to marriage is maximized when partners have similar values and goals. D. cognitive development is maximized when environmental demands are consistent with the child's biological maturation.

Answer 119

Thomas and Chess have conducted extensive research on temperament and its consequences. a. CORRECT Thomas and Chess found that incongruence between a child's basic temperament and his/her parents' caregiving behaviors causes or contributes to maladjustment. Their prevention and intervention programs attempt to increase the compatibility of the behaviors of parents and their children. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: adjustment in children is related to the degree of congruence between a child's basic temperament and his/her parents' caregiving.

Question 120

Work by Perry and colleagues (1986) suggests that highly aggressive children: Select one: A. were exposed prenatally to high levels of androgens. B. are less sensitive to physical discomfort than less aggressive children. C. exhibited a disoriented/disengaged attachment pattern as young children. D. show little remorse after hurting another child.

Answer 120

Perry and colleagues recognize the role of parenting practices in the development of aggression in children. However, much of their research has looked at the cognitive characteristics of aggressive children. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Research by Perry et al. found that highly aggressive children tend to show little regret or remorse following their aggressive acts. The correct answer is: show little remorse after hurting another child.

Question 121

Based on their longitudinal study of at-risk children residing on the Hawaiian Island of Kauai, Werner and Smith (1992) concluded that the most important protective factor is: Select one: A. a consistent trusting relationship with a parent, grandparent, or other person. B. a higher-than-average IQ. C. a lack of serious pathology in first-degree relatives. D. non-exposure to drugs or malnutrition during prenatal development.

Answer 121

E. Werner and R. Smith found that resilient high-risk children have several characteristics that distinguish them from their less-resilient peers (Overcoming the odds: High risk children from birth to adulthood, Ithaca, NY: Cornell University Press, 1991). a. CORRECT Werner and Smith's research indicated that resilient children have a "cluster of protective factors" but that one element in the cluster of all children was a consistent relationship with a parent, grandparent, older sibling, etc. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: a consistent trusting relationship with a parent, grandparent, or other person.

Question 122

Research investigating the impact of parenting style on the academic achievement of children and adolescents suggests that the effects are: Select one: A. modified by the offspring's temperament. B. modified by the family's ethnicity/culture. C. modified by level of parental education. D. not affected by temperament, ethnicity/culture, or parental education.

Answer 122

A number of studies have linked authoritative parenting with the most positive outcomes for children and adolescents. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT This is some evidence that the benefits of authoritative parenting are modified by family ethnicity or culture. For example, L. Sternberg et al. report that the authoritative style is beneficial for the school success of white and Hispanic students but that, for Asian- and African-Americans, this style does not predict school achievement [Ethnic differences in adolescent achievement: An ecological perspective, American Psychologist, 47(6), 723-729, 1992]. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: modified by the family's ethnicity/culture.

Question 123

Results of the National Survey of Family Growth (2002) indicate that 33% of all marriages end in separation or divorce within 10 years and that the rates of divorce are highest for women who: Select one: A. marry at a younger age and have a lower level of education. B. marry at an older age and have a lower level of education. C. marry at a younger age and have a higher level of education. D. marry at an older age and have a higher level of education.

Answer 123

Data on divorce rates from the National Survey of Family Growth (National Center for Health Statistics, 2002) show that risk for divorce is associated with several demographic characteristics. a. CORRECT Data from this survey indicate that rates of divorce are highest for women who marry at a young age, have a lower level of education, live in poorer (low income) neighborhoods, had a child before marriage or within seven months of marriage, and cohabitated before marriage. b. Incorrect See explanation above. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: marry at a younger age and have a lower level of education.

Question 124

As defined by Piaget, a child is exhibiting "horizontal decalage" when he/she: Select one: A. reasons from one particular event to another particular event. B. can perform a task with assistance but not alone. C. gradually makes finer and finer distinctions between stimuli over time. D. manifests inconsistency in exhibiting a particular type of ability.

Answer 124

Piaget used the term horizontal decalage to describe the gradual development that occurs within a stage -- e.g., the gradual mastery of operations during the concrete operational stage. a. Incorrect This describes transductive reasoning. b. Incorrect This describes Vygotsky's zone of proximal development. c. Incorrect This describes E. Gibson's theory regarding perceptual development in infants. d. CORRECT Of the responses given, only this one describes Piaget's notion of horizontal decalage. The correct answer is: manifests inconsistency in exhibiting a particular type of ability.

Question 125

The offspring of women who drink during pregnancy are most likely to have structural abnormalities in various organs including the central nervous system, heart, eyes, legs and arms, and external genitalia when the mother consumes alcohol during the ________ of her pregnancy. Select one: A. first trimester B. second trimester C. third trimester D. second or third trimester

Answer 125

Although the results of research on the effects of alcohol consumption by a pregnant women on her offspring are not entirely consistent, it is possible to make some generalizations. a. CORRECT Structural (physical) abnormalities are most likely to occur when a pregnant woman consumes alcohol during the first trimester. Alcohol consumption in the second and third trimesters is associated more with behavioral and psychological deficits. See, e.g., R. J. Haterman, Fetal alcohol syndrome, in Neurodevelopmental disorders: Diagnosis and treatment, New York, Oxford University Press, 1999. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: first trimester

Question 126

According to Kohlberg, moral development is directly related to: Select one: A. changes in cognitive skills. B. changes in cognitive skills and social perspective-taking. C. changes in cognitive skills and socioemotional status. D. changes in identity status.

Answer 126

Kohlberg focused on the relationship between cognitive development and moral development, and he viewed social perspective-taking as an aspect of cognitive development that influences moral judgments. a. Incorrect This is only partially correct. b. CORRECT As noted above, Kohlberg included social perspective-taking in his theory of moral development. For example, a shift from Stage 2 to Stage 3 reflects a shift from a concrete individualistic perspective to a perspective of the individual in relationships with other people. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: changes in cognitive skills and social perspective-taking.

Question 127

A young girl volunteers to clean her room and do other chores around the house because she wants her mother's approval and affection. According to Kohlberg, this child is in which of the following stages of moral development? Select one: A. instrumental B. conventional C. post-conventional D. preconventional

Answer 127

Kohlberg's theory of moral development distinguishes between three levels -- preconventional, conventional, and post-conventional. Information about Kolberg's theory is provided in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT Seeking the approval and affection of others is characteristic of the "good boy-good girl" orientation, which is the first stage in Kohlberg's conventional level of moral development. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: conventional

Question 128

For Bowlby, an "internal working model" derives from: Select one: A. an innate, biologically-based predisposition. B. early interpersonal interaction patterns. C. early problem-solving experiences. D. the self-concept.

Answer 128

Knowing that John Bowlby is a leading figure in the field of attachment would have helped you pick the correct answer to this question. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT According to Bowlby, as the result of early attachment experiences, children develop an internal (mental) working model of relationships, which influences their future relationships. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: early interpersonal interaction patterns.

Question 129

Rutter (1979) identified several high-risk factors ("Rutter's indicators") for the development of psychopathology in children. These factors include: Select one: A. physical disabilities, small family size, and paternal psychiatric disorder. B. low IQ, large family size, and chronic physical illness. C. parental marital discord, high socioeconomic status, and parental psychiatric disorder. D. parental marital discord, large family size, and paternal criminality.

Answer 129

Rutter found that the presence of a single high-risk factor did not predict increased rates of psychopathology for young children. However, the combination of two or more risk factors increased the rate dramatically. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Rutter's indicators for psychopathology are low SES, large family size, paternal criminality, parental marital discord, maternal psychiatric disorder, and being placed in foster care. The correct answer is: parental marital discord, large family size, and paternal criminality.

Question 130

Chomsky's position on language acquisition is best described as: Select one: A. psychodynamic. B. nativist. C. behaviorist. D. interactionist.

Answer 130

Chomsky proposes that humans are born with an innate capacity to acquire language. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT According to Chomsky, the capacity for language acquisition is due to an innate language acquisition device. His theory is classified as nativist. c. Incorrect A behaviorist position would propose that language acquisition is due to environmental factors. d. Incorrect Interactionist theories stress the role of the social context on language acquisition. The correct answer is: nativist.

Question 131

Bronfenbrenner's (2004) ecological model describes the ________ as consisting of cultural values, beliefs, and customs. Select one: A. mesosystem B. exosystem C. macrosystem D. mezzosystem

Answer 131

Bronfenbrenner's (2004) ecological model describes development as involving interactions between the individual and his/her environment, and it distinguishes between five environmental systems or levels: ``` Microsystem Mesosystem Exosystem Macrosystem, and Chronosystem. ``` a. Incorrect The mesosystem consists of the connections or interactions between elements of the microsystem - e.g., between the home, school, and neighborhood. b. Incorrect The exosystem includes the parents' workplace, the school board, community agencies, and local industries. c. CORRECT The macrosystem consists of overarching environmental influences and includes cultural values and practices, economic conditions, laws, and political ideologies. d. Incorrect The mezzosystem is not one of the systems included in Bronfenbrenner's model. The correct answer is: macrosystem

Question 132

In their reformulation of the learned helplessness model of depression, Abramson, Metalsky, and Alloy (1989): Select one: A. de-emphasize the role of punishment and emphasize the role of reinforcement. B. de-emphasize the role of helplessness and emphasize the role of attributions. C. de-emphasize the role of attributions and emphasize the role of hopelessness. D. de-emphasize the role of subjective feelings and emphasize the role of actual stressful events.

Answer 132

The learned helplessness model of depression has undergone several revisions including the one by Abramson, Metalsky, and Alloy(1989). a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT According to Abramson et al., one type of depression is due primarily to feelings of hopelessness. For this type of depression, attributions are relevant only to the degree that they contribute to feelings of hopelessness. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: de-emphasize the role of attributions and emphasize the role of hopelessness.

Question 133

Research on maternal employment has found that it is associated with: Select one: ``` A. lower school grades for both boys and girls. B. lower school grades for middle- and upper middle-class boys. C. lower school grades for lower-class boys. D. lower school grades for middle-class boys and girls. ```

Answer 133

The research suggests that the effects of maternal employment on academic achievement are affected by socioeconomic status. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT Middle- and upper middle-class boys are most negatively affected by maternal employment, at least in terms of school grades and other measures of academic achievement. This is particularly true when mothers work full-time throughout the boy's life. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: lower school grades for middle- and upper middle-class boys.

Question 134

Albert Bandura's initial Bobo doll experiment found that: Select one: A. boys (but not girls) imitate an aggressive model. B. boys and girls imitate an aggressive model only when the model has been reinforced for acting aggressively. C. boys and girls imitate an aggressive model only when they are told they will receive a reward for doing so. D. boys and girls imitate an aggressive model even when there is no reinforcement for them or for the model for doing so.

Answer 134

Bandura and his colleagues conducted a series of Bobo doll experiments to identify factors that affect the impact of observational learning on aggression. In his initial study, he compared the effects of model gender on the aggressive behaviors of boys and girls and found that both were more likely to act aggressively when the model was of the same gender (although the effect of gender was stronger for boys). a. Incorrect Boys and girls both imitated the aggressive behaviors of the model, although they differed with regard to the performance of specific types of aggression - i.e., girls were more likely to imitate verbal aggression, while boys were more likely to imitate physical aggression. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Although boys in Bandura's study performed more aggressive acts than did girls after viewing a model act aggressively toward the Bobo doll, boys and girls both imitated the model to some extent. In his initial studies, the participants and the model were not reinforced for acting aggressively. The correct answer is: boys and girls imitate an aggressive model even when there is no reinforcement for them or for the model for doing so.

Question 135

All of the following are categorized as operant methods for reducing or eliminating undesirable behaviors except: Select one: A. extinction. B. response cost. C. negative reinforcement. D. differential reinforcement.

Answer 135

All of the techniques listed in the responses - except one - are used to decrease or eliminate a behavior. a. Incorrect Extinction is used to eliminate a previously reinforced behavior. b. Incorrect Response cost is a type of negative punishment and is used to decrease behavior. c. CORRECT Negative reinforcement is used to increase a behavior. It involves removing a stimulus following the behavior in order to increase that behavior. d. Incorrect Differential reinforcement is used to simultaneously eliminate an undesirable behavior and establish alternative (desirable) behaviors. The correct answer is: negative reinforcement.

Question 136

The duration of sensory memory is: Select one: A. milliseconds to seconds. B. several seconds to several minutes. C. days to years. D. essentially infinite.

Answer 136

Sensory memory is the aspect of memory that initially receives incoming signals from the senses. Although the capacity of sensory memory is very large, its duration of is very brief. a. CORRECT The duration of sensory memory corresponds approximately to the time that a stimulus is initially perceived, which ranges from a fraction of a second to a few seconds. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: milliseconds to seconds.

Question 137

Children normally begin to talk somewhere around their first birthday. Studies investigating the nature of a child's language development have shown that a large proportion of a child's first words refer to: Select one: A. objects that the child wants. B. objects that the child can hold. C. objects that are static and invariable. D. objects that move or change.

Answer 137

Studies have found that the child's first words e.g., shoe, car, ball most often represent objects that have a dynamic quality (Nelson, 1973). a. Incorrect Although some of the child's first words refer to objects he/she wants, they are not restricted to these objects. b. Incorrect Although the child's first words refer to objects that are familiar, they are not restricted to objects that the child can hold. c. Incorrect This is the opposite of what is true. The child's first words usually do not refer to objects that are static and unmoving. d. CORRECT As noted above, the child's first words most commonly refer to objects that change or move. The correct answer is: objects that move or change.

Question 138

As described by Bandura (1968), inhibition and disinhibition are two of the possible effects of: Select one: A. vicarious learning. B. instrumental learning. C. insight learning. D. overlearning.

Answer 138

Even if you're unfamiliar with Bandura's use of the terms inhibition and disinhibition, you may have been able to identify the correct answer to this question if you know that he found that people can acquire a behavior just by watching someone else perform it. a. CORRECT Bandura proposed that vicarious learning (also known as modeling and observational learning) has several effects including the acquisition of a new response and the inhibition or disinhibition of an existing response. b. Incorrect Instrumental learning (conditioning) occurs when an individual's behavior changes because the behavior is followed by reinforcement or punishment. It is also known as operant conditioning. c. Incorrect Kohler's research confirmed that learning can be the result of insight (an "aha" experience). d. Incorrect Overlearning refers to practicing or studying past the point of mastery. The correct answer is: vicarious learning.

Question 139

A teenage girl who has a scar on her forehead feels like people are always looking at her and talking about her scar. This is an example of which of the following? Select one: A. psychological reactance B. imaginary audience C. identity foreclosure D. personal fable

Answer 139

Elkind (1984) proposed that adolescent egocentrism is manifested in several ways including the personal fable and the imaginary audience. a. Incorrect Reactance occurs when an individual does the opposite of what he/she has been asked to do. b. CORRECT Adolescents often feel like they are "on stage" - i.e., that everyone is looking at them. c. Incorrect This is a stage of identity development and is not relevant to the problem described in the question. d. Incorrect The personal fable is the belief that one is unique and invulnerable. The correct answer is: imaginary audience

Question 140

According to the "levels of processing" theory, the best way to remember a list of ten unrelated words is to: Select one: A. memorize the words in pairs. B. chunk words that start with the same letter. C. repeat the words past the point of mastery. D. make a sentence using the words.

Answer 140

The levels of processing model predicts that, the deeper the level of processing, the better the learning and memory. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Processing that involves maximizing the meaning of the material is the deepest level of processing. Of the responses, this one represents the greatest depth of processing. The correct answer is: make a sentence using the words.

Question 141

A researcher investigating implicit memory will most likely use which of the following tasks? Select one: A. free recall B. paired-associate C. word-stem completion D. verbal recognition

Answer 141

Implicit memory refers to memory that is effortless or automatic. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Of the tasks listed, this one is the only one used to assess implicit memory (the others are used to evaluate explicit memory). A researcher using a word-stem completion task presents the subject with the first few letters of a word and (e.g., SCH- _ _ _) asks him/her to complete a word that begins with those letters. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: word-stem completion

Question 142

Bandura's (1977) notion of "reciprocal determinism" applies to interactions between which of the following? Select one: A. a person's thoughts, feelings, and actions B. a person's behavior, personal factors, and environment C. the therapist, therapy client, and therapy outcomes D. the person's attention, retention, and production

Answer 142

Bandura's notion of reciprocal determinism is a key concept in his social learning theory. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT Reciprocal determinism predicts that there is a reciprocal (interactive) relationship between a person's behavior, his/her personal factors (cognition, affect, and biological events), and his/her environment. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: a person's behavior, personal factors, and environment

Question 143

Probably the best way to memorize pairs of unrelated words is to: Select one: A. create an acronym. B. repeat the word pairs over and over again. C. create a visual image that links each word pair. D. use the clustering technique.

Answer 143

This is another question that you might have been able to answer correctly on the basis of your own personal experience. a. Incorrect This is not a good technique for remembering a list of unrelated words. b. Incorrect Repetition alone is not usually a sufficient memorization strategy. c. CORRECT Of the methods listed, forming a visual image that links the two words would be the most useful. In general, visual imagery is considered the best memorization technique. d. Incorrect Clustering is another name for chunking and is used to reduce a large amount of information to a smaller number of "chunks." It wouldn't be particularly helpful for memorizing word pairs. The correct answer is: create a visual image that links each word pair.

Question 144

Lawrence Kohlberg describes reasoning in his sixth (last) stage of moral development as involving consideration of universal ethical principles. In contrast, the last stage in Carol Gilligan's model of moral development emphasizes: Select one: A. avoiding harm to oneself and to others. B. sacrificing ones own desires to those of others. C. a desire to uphold social contracts. D. the ability to take the perspective of others.

Answer 144

Gilligan's theory of moral development distinguishes between three levels. a. CORRECT Gilligan's model describes moral development as progressing from care for self, care for others, to care for everyone including self. This response describes Gilligan's Level 3. b. Incorrect This describes Gilligan's Level 2. c. Incorrect This does not describe any of Gilligan's levels of moral development, but does describe Kohlberg's fifth stage. d. Incorrect This does not describe any of Gilligan's levels of moral development. The correct answer is: avoiding harm to oneself and to others.

Question 145

__________ biofeedback has been found to be useful for treating migraine headache, essential hypertension, Raynaud's disease, and certain types of pain including intermittent claudication associated with diabetes. Select one: A. Thermal B. Respiratory C. Brain wave activity D. Muscle tension

Answer 145

Knowing that thermal biofeedback is an effective treatment for Raynaud's disease would have helped you identify the correct answer even if you're not familiar with its effectiveness for the other conditions listed in this question. a. CORRECT Thermal (peripheral skin-temperature) biofeedback provides information on blood flow and is a useful treatment for a number of circulatory disorders including those listed in this question. b. Incorrect Respiratory biofeedback is used as a treatment for asthma and other conditions that involve problems related to breathing. c. Incorrect Electroencephalograph (EEG) biofeedback provides information on brain wave activity and is used to treat insomnia, epilepsy, and several other neurological disorders. d. Incorrect Electromyography (EMG) biofeedback provides feedback on muscle tension and is used to treat tension headaches, bruxism, back and neck pain, and incontinence. The correct answer is: Thermal

Question 146

Tolman's demonstration of latent learning suggests that: Select one: A. a student studying algebra in September may not learn algebra until he begins to study geometry. B. a student studying algebra will come to a sudden and whole understanding of it. C. a student will not learn algebra unless the proper incentive for learning is provided. D. a student might appear to know little about algebra until he takes an algebra test.

Answer 146

Tolman demonstrated latent learning in his experiments with rats and mazes. Some rats were allowed to freely explore mazes for ten days, but did not display any proficiency in solving the maze until reinforcement was offered for doing so. This phenomenon suggests that, reinforcement is more of a factor in the performance than the learning of a response. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect A Gestalt learning theorist might say this. c. Incorrect A person who views learning as a function of operant conditioning (e.g., positive reinforcement) might say this. d. CORRECT In this case, the student has learned algebra but is not displaying that knowledge until reinforcement (a good grade) is provided for doing so. Therefore, this observation would be congruent with Tolman's demonstration of latent learning. The correct answer is: a student might appear to know little about algebra until he takes an algebra test.

Question 147

Numerous studies have found that social support is a causal contributor to physical and psychological health. Further, research on the "buffering hypothesis" indicates that the critical factor in determining if a person's health will be adversely affected by stress is whether: Select one: A. the person has a sufficient number of social supports. B. the person perceives available supports to be adequate. C. the person has previously received support in the past. D. the person's support system is actually adequate.

Answer 147

Research on the "buffering hypothesis" has focused on the individual's perceived (versus actual) support system. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT Most measures of support in the research on the buffering hypothesis have assessed perceived availability of adequate support, and this seems to be the crucial factor in determining whether social support reduces the negative effects of stress. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: the person perceives available supports to be adequate.

Question 148

A memory in sensory memory: Select one: A. has been converted to an iconic form. B. has been converted to an echoic form. C. is coded in the form of the original stimulus. D. is coded semantically.

Answer 148

Sensory memory performs initial encoding of incoming signals and stores sensory information for a very brief period. a. Incorrect Iconic refers to visual. Only visual sensory memories are in iconic form. b. Incorrect Echoic refers to auditory. Only auditory sensory memories are in echoic form. c. CORRECT It is currently believed that memories in sensory memory retain or represent the original form of the sensation. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: is coded in the form of the original stimulus.

Question 149

While treating a client for snake phobia, a therapist handles the snake and then guides the client through a series of steps until she is able to handle the snake herself. This technique is referred to as: Select one: A. symbolic modeling. B. participant modeling. C. in-vivo desensitization. D. overcorrection.

Answer 149

Bandura compared live modeling with participant modeling, symbolic modeling, and desensitization as treatments for snake and other phobias. a. Incorrect Symbolic modeling would involve watching a filmed model handling a snake and is not the procedure described in the question. b. CORRECT Studies on observational learning (modeling) have shown that it is most effective when live modeling is combined with having the individual perform the behavior with assistance from the model. This is referred to as participant modeling. c. Incorrect In-vivo desensitization would probably involve a gradual handling of the snake. However, it would not necessarily involve handling (modeling) by the therapist. d. Incorrect Overcorrection, an operant technique, is used to decrease an undesirable behavior. It involves requiring the individual to correct the consequences of the undesirable behavior and/or to practice alternative desirable behaviors. The correct answer is: participant modeling.

Question 150

In terms of age at which it occurs, Erikson's autonomy versus shame and doubt stage is comparable to Freud's ______ stage. Select one: A. anal B. oral C. genital D. phallic

Answer 150

Erikson's autonomy versus shame and doubt stage occurs from one to three years of age. a. CORRECT Freud's anal stage of psychosexual development occurs between the ages of one and three. b. Incorrect The oral stage extends from birth to one year. c. Incorrect The genital stage is characteristic of adolescence. d. Incorrect The phallic stage extends from three to six years. The correct answer is: anal

Question 151

Without rehearsal, information is held in short-term memory for a brief period of time. According to interference theory this is due to which of the following? Select one: A. a limited capacity B. insufficient consolidation C. inadequate memory cues D. the decay of memory traces over time

Answer 151

Trace decay theory and interference theory are the primary theories of forgetting in short-term memory. a. CORRECT With regard to short-term memory, interference refers to the displacement of items in memory by more recently perceived information and is attributable to the limited capacity of short-term memory. Note that this type of interference is sometimes referred to as "interference through displacement." b. Incorrect With regard to memory, the term consolidation is usually used to describe the process by which short-term memories are converted to long-term memories and is not used to explain why information is held in short-term memory for only a brief period of time. c. Incorrect Inadequate memory cues have been identified as a cause of the inability to retrieve information from long-term memory. d. Incorrect Trace decay theory has been used to explain loss of both short- and long-term memories and refers to the gradual fading of memories over time. The correct answer is: a limited capacity

Question 152

Operant extinction would NOT be the treatment-of-choice when: Select one: A. an alternative behavior cannot be identified. B. the behavior has been reinforced on a continuous schedule. C. a temporary increase in the behavior cannot be tolerated. D. the baseline levels of the behavior cannot be established.

Answer 152

Extinction is accomplished by withholding all reinforcement from a behavior that was previously reinforced. a. Incorrect It would be helpful to be simultaneously reinforcing an alternative behavior, but the absence of an alternative behavior would not rule out extinction. b. Incorrect Behaviors that have been reinforced on a continuous schedule are easier to extinguish than those that have been reinforced on an intermittent schedule. c. CORRECT Extinction often produces an initial "extinction burst" (temporary increase in the target behavior). d. Incorrect It would be useful to have a baseline reading to determine the effects of the extinction procedure, but the absence of a baseline measurement would not rule out this procedure. The correct answer is: a temporary increase in the behavior cannot be tolerated.

Question 153

Lewinsohn (1974) originally focused on which of the following as a treatment for depression? Select one: A. attribution re-training B. self-instructional training C. increasing activity levels D. improving problem-solving and coping skills

Answer 153

Knowing that Lewinsohn's model of depression is a behavioral one may have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Lewinsohn's behavioral model attributes depression to a low rate of response-contingent reinforcement. Therefore, the original focus of his therapy was on increasing opportunities for reinforcement by increasing activity levels. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: increasing activity levels

Question 154

Echoic is to iconic as: Select one: A. procedural is to declarative. B. temporary is to permanent. C. external is to internal. D. auditory is to visual.

Answer 154

The terms echoic and iconic are used to describe sensory memories. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Echoic (echo) memory is memory for sounds, while iconic (icon) memory is memory for visual stimuli and takes the form of mental pictures. The correct answer is: auditory is to visual.

Question 155

The method of loci and other mnemonics are most useful for: Select one: A. information that is not inherently meaningful. B. information that is easily translatable into visual images. C. information that exceeds normal storage capacity. D. information that is easily translatable into a narrative.

Answer 155

Mnemonic devices are memory techniques that involve encoding information in ways that make it easier to retrieve the information later. a. CORRECT If information is already meaningful, it is usually unnecessary to use a mnemonic. b. Incorrect Although the method of loci requires visual images, other mnemonics do not. c. Incorrect This is not true about mnemonics. d. Incorrect Although some mnemonics involve narrative coding, this is not true about all mnemonics. The correct answer is: information that is not inherently meaningful.

Question 156

Which of the following is most useful for explaining the phenomenon known as the "serial position effect"? Select one: A. the levels of processing model of memory B. the multi-store (three-box) model of memory C. the distinction between implicit and explicit memory D. the concept of overlearning

Answer 156

The serial position effect refers to the finding that people who are asked to recall a list of words immediately after remembering them tend to recall the words at the beginning and end of the list better than words in the middle of the list. a. Incorrect The levels of processing model predicts that memory is maximized when information is encoded semantically. b. CORRECT The most widely accepted explanation for the serial position effect is that words in the beginning of the list have been transferred to long-term memory, while those at the end of the list are still in short-term memory. Therefore, the multi-store model, which proposes three distinct memory systems - sensory register, short-term memory, and long-term memory - is most useful for explaining the serial position effect. c. Incorrect Implicit and explicit memory have not been used to explain the serial position effect. d. Incorrect Overlearning refers to rehearsing or studying past the point of mastery and is not relevant to the serial position effect. The correct answer is: the multi-store (three-box) model of memory

Question 157

Skinner found that __________ can lead to "superstitious" behaviors. Select one: A. higher-order conditioning B. two-factor learning C. noncontingent reinforcement D. noncontingent punishment

Answer 157

Skinner concluded that unusual behaviors may be the result of accidental, noncontingent reinforcement. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT When Skinner delivered reinforcement on a random schedule, he found that the behaviors the pigeons were engaged in just prior to being reinforced were often repeated. He referred to these as superstitious behaviors. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: noncontingent reinforcement

Question 158

Restitution and positive practice are components of which of the following interventions? Select one: A. overcorrection B. differential reinforcement C. negative practice D. implosive therapy

Answer 158

For the exam, you want to be familiar with the four interventions listed in the answers to this question. These are described in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials. a. CORRECT Overcorrection is usually classified as a form of punishment and involves applying a penalty following an undesirable behavior in order to reduce or eliminate that behavior. It consists of two phases -- restitution and positive practice. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: overcorrection

Question 159

In a research study, participants are divided into two groups. Members of the first group are first given a list of three-letter nonsense syllables to remember, are then given a new list of three-letter nonsense syllables to remember, and are subsequently asked to recall the first list. Members of the second group are given the same initial list of syllables but, instead of being given the second list, are asked to count backwards by threes (377, 374, 371, etc.) before being asked to recall the list of words. Apparently, the purpose of this study is to investigate the effects of: Select one: A. retroactive interference. B. proactive interference. C. overlearning. D. cue-dependent forgetting.

Answer 159

For the exam, you want to be able to distinguish retroactive and proactive interference. These are described in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials. a. CORRECT Comparing the performance of the participants in the two groups will provide information on retroactive interference, which occurs when recently learned information interferes with the ability to recall previously learned information. (Subjects in the second group are asked to count backwards in order to keep them from rehearsing the list.) b. Incorrect Proactive interference occurs when prior learning interferes with the learning or recall of subsequent (new) learning. c. Incorrect Overlearning refers to practicing information past the point of mastery. d. Incorrect Cue-dependent forgetting occurs when cues needed to recall information are inadequate. The correct answer is: retroactive interference.

Question 160

The most common side effects of the benzodiazepines are: Select one: A. unsteadiness, insomnia, and agitation. B. drowsiness, dizziness, and sedation. C. sleeplessness, light-headedness, and headache. D. confusion, agitation, and hallucinations.

Answer 160

The benzodiazepines are anti-anxiety drugs that are used to treat anxiety, agitation, insomnia, and other disorders. a. Incorrect These side effects are less common than those listed in response b. b. CORRECT These are common side effects of the benzodiazepines. c. Incorrect These are not side effects of the benzodiazepines. d. Incorrect These side effects may occur but are rare. The correct answer is: drowsiness, dizziness, and sedation.

Question 161

As defined by the ___________, action potentials are always the same in terms of magnitude regardless of the magnitude of the stimulation. Select one: A. all-or-none principle B. law of effect C. principle of equipotentiality D. Yerkes-Dodson law

Answer 161

An action potential occurs within a neuron when an electrical signal is sent through the axon and triggers the release of a neurotransmitter from the axon terminal. a. CORRECT The action potential (nerve impulse) is an "all-or-none" event, which means that it either occurs or does not occur. In other words, an action potential occurs when stimulation exceeds a given threshold, and stimulation at or above that threshold produces an action potential of the same magnitude. This characteristic of the action potential is described by the all-or-none principle. b. Incorrect The law of effect was proposed by Thorndike and predicts that behaviors that are followed by "satisfying consequences" are more likely to recur. c. Incorrect The principle of equipotentiality was proposed by Lashley and predicts that, if certain parts of the cortex are damaged, other parts may assume the functions of the damaged parts. d. Incorrect The Yerkes-Dodson law predicts that learning and performance are optimal at moderate (versus high or low) levels of arousal. The correct answer is: all-or-none principle

Question 162

Our peripheral vision is mediated by the: Select one: A. anterior occipital lobe. B. posterior occipital lobe. C. anterior temporal lobe. D. posterior temporal lobe.

Answer 162

Knowing that vision is mediated by the occipital lobe would have helped you narrow the choices to responses a and b. a. CORRECT Peripheral vision is mediated by the anterior occipital lobe, while central vision is mediated by the posterior occipital lobe. b. Incorrect See explanation above. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: anterior occipital lobe.

Question 163

You are picnicking in Yellowstone National Park and are approached by a large bear who seems to be interested in your cold cuts. You notice that the bear is two feet taller than you, has long teeth, and is drooling. You decide to run away as fast as you possibly can. Which of the following glands produces the substance that will help you successfully evade the bear? Select one: A. pituitary B. adrenal C. thyroid D. pancreas

Answer 163

The glands of the endocrine system produce chemical substances known as hormones. These are released into the circulatory system, which carries the hormones to their target organs. Hormones have several different purposes and exert their effects in several different ways. a. Incorrect The pituitary, known as the "master gland," releases several hormones, many of which regulate and stimulate the production of hormones by other glands. b. CORRECT The adrenal gland produces a variety of hormones, including epinephrine and norepinephrine, which are involved in mobilizing the body's reactions in times of stress. c. Incorrect The thyroid gland produces thyroxin, which regulates general metabolism. d. Incorrect The pancreas produces insulin, which is involved in the metabolism of sugar. The correct answer is: adrenal

Question 164

As the result of brain damage, a 37-year-old woman has difficulty regulating the rate, rhythm, pitch, and loudness of her speech. This is referred to as: Select one: A. dysarthria. B. dysosmia. C. dyspraxia. D. dysprosody.

Answer 164

Damage to certain areas in the brain can disrupt the pattern and flow of speech. a. Incorrect Dysarthria involves problems in articulation. b. Incorrect Dysosmia is a disorder in the sense of smell. c. Incorrect Dyspraxia is characterized by severe impairments in writing, drawing, and other tasks requiring fine motor skills. d. CORRECT Prosody refers to the pattern of stress and intonation in speech. Dysprosody is a characteristic of Broca's aphasia and other nonfluent aphasias. Although dysprosody has traditionally been linked to right hemisphere damage, its presence in Broca's aphasia suggests that prosody is also governed, to some degree, by the left hemisphere. The correct answer is: dysprosody.

Question 165

The symptoms of numbness, weakness, tremor, and ataxia that characterize multiple sclerosis are due to: Select one: A. lesions in the basal ganglia. B. demyelination. C. degeneration of ACh receptors. D. cerebellar atrophy.

Answer 165

Multiple sclerosis is due to a loss of myelin on nerve fibers in the brain and spinal cord. a. Incorrect Loss of cells in the basal ganglia underlies Parkinson's disease and Huntington's chorea. b. CORRECT As noted above, demyelination is the cause of the symptoms of multiple sclerosis. c. Incorrect A loss of ACh receptors is the cause of myasthenia gravis. d. Incorrect Cerebellar atrophy is associated with several disorders including ataxia. The correct answer is: demyelination.

Question 166

Opioid peptides that block the release of substance P and thereby reduce pain are referred to as: Select one: A. hypnotics. B. endorphins. C. pheromones. D. catecholamines.

Answer 166

Opiate receptors and substance P receptors are concentrated in the same areas of the brain. Opiate receptors play an important role in inhibiting the pain-producing effects of substance P. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT The opioid peptides (which bind to opiate receptor sites) are also known as endorphins (endogeneous morphines). The endorphins produce analgesia, most likely by blocking the release of substance P. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: endorphins.

Question 167

Sedation (drowsiness) is most likely to be a side effect of which of the following antidepressants? Select one: A. Prozac B. Wellbutrin C. Zoloft D. Pamelor

Answer 167

In general, the tricyclic antidepressants are more sedating than the SSRIs and certain other newer antidepressants. a. Incorrect Prozac (fluoxetine) is an SSRI and is less likely than Pamelor to produce sedation. b. Incorrect Wellbutrin (bupropion) is an NDRI and is less likely than Pamelor to produce sedation. c. Incorrect Zoloft (sertraline) is an SSRI and is less likely than Pamelor to produce sedation. d. CORRECT Pamelor (nortriptyline) is a tricyclic antidepressant and, of the antidepressants listed in the answers, is most likely to produce sedation. The correct answer is: Pamelor

Question 168

Hydrocephalus is due to abnormalities in which of the following? ``` Select one: A. brain stem B. ventricles C. cerebral arteries D. tegmentum ```

Answer 168

Hydrocephalus ("water head") involves an accumulation of fluid in the head. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT Hydrocephalus is caused by an accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid in the ventricles of the brain. In infants, it causes separation of the cranial sutures and usually results in an intellectual disability. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: ventricles

Question 169

Research conducted in the 1930s found that ablation of the anterior temporal lobes in male rhesus monkeys produced a variety of symptoms including hypersexuality, placidity, oral tendencies, and psychic blindness. This condition is known as: Select one: A. Kluver-Bucy syndrome. B. Gerstmann's syndrome. C. Gerschwind syndrome. D. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome.

Answer 169

The research described in this question was conducted by Kluver and Bucy. a. CORRECT This constellation of symptoms caused by lesions in the anterior temporal lobes is referred to as Kluver-Bucy syndrome. b. Incorrect See explanation above. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: Kluver-Bucy syndrome.

Question 170

Why is it necessary to carefully monitor a heroin addict who is being administered methadone while going through withdrawal? Select one: A. To maintain a constant therapeutic level within the bloodstream B. To make certain that overdosing does not occur ending in the patients death C. To ensure that the patient is receiving the maximum dosage level at all times D. To minimize any drop in therapeutic drug level as long as it fell within acceptable parameters

Answer 170

The correct answer is A. While administering a drug such as methadone to a drug addict that is going through withdrawal, it is important to measure specific drugs at designated intervals to maintain a constant concentration in a patient's bloodstream, thereby optimizing individual dosage regimens. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect as the key to therapeutic drug monitoring is maintaining a constant therapeutic drug level in the bloodstream at the appropriate intervals. The goal is not ensuring maximum dosage, or specifically watching only for overdosing the patient, or making certain any drop in drug levels are within acceptable parameters. The correct answer is: To maintain a constant therapeutic level within the bloodstream

Question 171

A handwriting disability that is characterized by difficulties in learning to write, and writing that is accurate but painstakingly slow or of poor quality is referred to as: Select one: A. anosognosia. B. dysgraphia. C. agnosia. D. dyslexia.

Answer 171

For the exam, you want to be familiar with all of the terms listed in the answers to this question. a. Incorrect Anosognosia is an inability to recognize one's own neurological symptoms or other disorder. b. CORRECT The term dysgraphia to used to describe an inability to write that is not due to motor impairment. c. Incorrect Agnosia is the inability to recognize familiar objects or sounds. d. Incorrect Dyslexia is defined differently by different experts but usually refers to a reading disorder that has a neurological basis. Although dyslexia can cause problems related to handwriting, it is not limited to this impairment. Consequently, this is not the best answer of those given. The correct answer is: dysgraphia.

Question 172

________ refers to an inability to recall the names of familiar objects. Select one: A. Anomia B. Alexia C. Agnosia D. Apraxia

Answer 172

For the exam, you want to be familiar with the definition for each of the terms listed in the answers to this question. a. CORRECT Anomia is a neurological disorder that involves an inability to recall the names of familiar objects, attributes, or actions. b. Incorrect Alexia refers to an impairment in reading that is due to brain injury. c. Incorrect Agnosia is an inability to recognize familiar objects (visual agnosia) or sounds (auditory agnosia). d. Incorrect Apraxia is an inability to perform complex or skilled movements that is not due to paralysis, sensory impairment, or a lack of comprehension. The correct answer is: Anomia

Question 173

Which of the following neurotransmitters has been implicated in both long-term potentiation and the "excitotoxcity" that is believed to underlie several neurodegenerative disorders? Select one: A. serotonin B. acetylcholine C. norepinephrine D. glutamate

Answer 173

For the exam, you want to be familiar with the major functions and effects of the neurotransmitters listed in the answers to this question. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Glutamate acts as an excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain and spinal cord. It's known to play a role in learning and memory, including long-term potentiation (LTP) which is a brain mechanism that's believed to be responsible for the formation of long-term memories. There's also evidence that excessive glutamate receptor activity ("excitotoxicity") contributes to stroke-related brain damage, Huntington's disease, Alzheimer's disease, and other neurodegenerative disorders. The correct answer is: glutamate

Question 174

___________ is a sexually transmitted disease that is caused by a virus and involves blisters on or near the genitals, painful urination, a burning or tingling sensation, and, in some cases, headache, fatigue, chills, fever, and other flu-like symptoms. Select one: A. Genital herpes B. Candidiasis C. Trichomoniasis D. Genital warts

Answer 174

Many sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) have similar symptoms. However, only one of the STDs listed in the answers is caused by a virus and has the symptoms listed in the question. a. CORRECT Genital herpes is caused by a herpes virus (most often HSV-2) and involves the symptoms described in the question. b. Incorrect Genital candidiasis is due to a yeast infection (not a virus). It is more common in women and men; and, in women, its symptoms include itching and burning; vulvovaginal pain, irritation, and inflammation; and a thick vaginal discharge. c. Incorrect Trichomoniasis is a parasitic infection that occurs in both men and women, often along with other STDs. In women, its symptoms include a yellow-green or gray vaginal discharge, vulvovaginal itching and discomfort, painful and frequent urination, and discomfort during sexual intercourse. Men are usually asymptomatic but may have a pale white discharge from the penis and painful or difficult urination. d. Incorrect Genital warts are caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV). The warts are red, pink, white, or grey and soft, flat, and irregularly shaped. When irritated, they may become painful; as they increase in size, they may bleed, itch, and produce a discharge. The correct answer is: Genital herpes

Question 175

As reported by the Centers for Disease Control (CDC), the largest number of reported cases of chlamydia and gonorrhea is for: Select one: A. males ages 15 to 19. B. males ages 20 to 24. C. females ages 15 to 19. D. females ages 20 to 24.

Answer 175

The 2008 national survey data is the CDC's most recently published data on rates of sexually transmitted diseases. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT The largest number of reported cases of these two sexually transmitted diseases is for females ages 15 to 19, followed by females ages 20 to 24. The CDC notes that the higher rates for females (versus males) may be due to several factors, including biological differences that place females at greater risk for sexually transmitted diseases and the fact that females are more likely to seek medical testing. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: females ages 15 to 19.

Question 176

Left-right confusion is most likely to be caused by a lesion in the: Select one: A. corpus callosum. B. basal forebrain. C. left parietal region. D. right occipital region.

Answer 176

Left-right confusion (disorientation) is one of the symptoms of Gerstmann's syndrome, which also includes acalculia, agraphia, and finger agnosia. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Left-right confusion is ordinarily caused by lesions in the left angular gyrus, which is located near the boundary between the parietal and temporal lobes. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: left parietal region.

Question 177

Participants in a research study are asked to tap with a finger to keep time with a metronome. After several taps, the metronome is turned off and participants are asked to continue with the same beat. Participants with damage to which of the following areas of the brain will have the most difficulty with this task? Select one: A. cerebellum B. suprachiasmatic nucleus C. cortex D. hippocampus

Answer 177

Knowing that the cerebellum is involved in the timing and coordination of movements would have enabled you to identify the correct answer to this question. a. CORRECT This question describes a study conducted by Keele and Ivry who propose that an underlying impairment in cerebellar damage is a loss of timing. In their study, patients with cerebellar damage had more trouble on this task than patients with damage to the cortex or basal ganglia, leading these authors to conclude that the cerebellum is involved in the timing of movements [S. W. Keele and R. Ivry, Does the cerebellum provide a common computation for diverse tasks? A timing hypothesis, Annals of the New York Academy of Sciences, 608, 1991]. b. Incorrect See explanation above. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: cerebellum

Question 178

When the symptoms of Bipolar Disorder have not responded to lithium or valproate/divalproex, the next drug to try would most likely be: Select one: A. resperidone. B. carbamazepine. C. phenelzine. D. alprazolam.

Answer 178

Answer B is correct. The drug treatment of choice for Bipolar Disorder is currently lithium and/or anti-seizure medication. Carbamazepine (Tegretol) is an anti-seizure drug that has been found to be a useful treatment for patients with Bipolar Disorder who have not responded satisfactorily to other treatments or who cannot tolerate those treatments. a. Resperidone is an atypical antipsychotic drug. c. Phenelzine is an MAOI and is used to treat depression. d. Alprazolam is an anti-anxiety drug. The correct answer is: carbamazepine.

Question 179

The occurrence of amphetamine-induced psychosis supports the link between _______ and Schizophrenia. Select one: A. dopamine B. acetylcholine C. GABA D. glutamate

Answer 179

Amphetamines exert their effects by increasing levels of dopamine. a. CORRECT Amphetamine psychosis and Schizophrenia share a number of symptoms. Because amphetamines are known to exert their effects on dopamine pathways, this similarity confirms that dopamine also plays a role in Schizophrenia. b. Incorrect See explanation above. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: dopamine

Question 180

The beneficial effects of a phenothiazine would most likely be apparent first for which of the following symptoms? Select one: A. hallucinations B. social withdrawal C. anergia D. thought disorder

Answer 180

To answer this question, you need to know that phenothiazines are "typical" antipsychotic drugs, which are better at alleviating the positive (versus the negative) symptoms of Schizophrenia. a. CORRECT The positive symptoms include delusions, hallucinations, and agitation. b. Incorrect Social withdrawal is a negative symptom. c. Incorrect Anergia is a negative symptom and refers to reduced activity. d. Incorrect Since the term thought disorder includes both positive and negative symptoms, this is not the best response. The correct answer is: hallucinations

Question 181

Research on visual imagery has linked it to which of the following structures of the brain? Select one: A. putamen B. hippocampus C. reticular formation D. basal ganglia

Answer 181

Research by G. Kreiman, C. Koch, and I. Fried (Imagery neurons in the human brain, Nature, 408, 357-361, 2000) has linked visual imagery to medial temporal lobe structures. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT The medial temporal lobe includes the hippocampus, amygdala, entorhinal cortex, and the parahippocampal gyrus. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: hippocampus

Question 182

The patient known as H.M. underwent a bilateral medial temporal lobectomy as a treatment for severe epilepsy. Following the surgery, he exhibited which of the following? Select one: A. severe expressive aphasia. B. severe expressive and receptive aphasia. C. extensive loss of remote long-term memories. D. an inability to form new memories.

Answer 182

After the surgery, H.M. exhibited a number of memory impairments. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT While H.M.'s short-term and remote long-term memory were intact, he was unable to form new long-term memories and had trouble retrieving information from recent long-term memory. The correct answer is: an inability to form new memories.

Question 183

According to Hans Selye, the body's reaction to sustained stress can be described in terms of three phases: These phases, in order, are: Select one: A. arousal, readiness, fight or flight. B. alarm, resistance, fight or flight. C. arousal, readiness, exhaustion. D. alarm, resistance, exhaustion.

Answer 183

Selye referred to the body's physiological reaction to prolonged stress as the general adaptation syndrome (GAS). For the exam, you want to be familiar with the order of the stages and events that occur during each stage. This information is provided in the Physiological Psychology and Psychopharmacology chapter of the written study materials. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT These are the three stages described by Selye and the order in which they occur. The correct answer is: alarm, resistance, exhaustion.

Question 184

The neurotransmitter glutamate is believed to be responsible for: Select one: A. the effects of alcohol on cognitive abilities. B. the increased sociability that sometimes accompanies alcohol use. C. alcohol cravings in alcohol abusers. D. dietary changes associated with chronic alcohol use.

Answer 184

Glutamate plays a role in learning and memory and, more specifically, in long-term potentiation which is believed to mediate the formation of long-term memories. a. CORRECT Alcohol alters glutamate levels in the brain, which can cause memory impairment and may play a role in alcohol-related blackouts. b. Incorrect GABA is an inhibitory neurotransmitter; and alcohol enhances GABA activity which may contribute to the increased sociability associated with alcohol consumption. c. Incorrect Serotonin is believed to be involved in alcohol craving. d. Incorrect Dietary changes have not been linked to glutamate. The correct answer is: the effects of alcohol on cognitive abilities.

Question 185

When using empirical criterion keying to construct a structured personality test, items included in the test are those that: Select one: A. have high correlations with some items but low correlations with other items. B. have been identified by subject matter experts as measuring the traits identified by a specific personality theory. C. have been found to accurately distinguish between people who do and do not possess the traits measured by a scale or subtest. D. have been systematically evaluated and chosen on the basis of a set of predetermined rules.

Answer 185

Several methods are used to construct structured personality tests. a. Incorrect This response refers to the factor-analytic method of test construction. b. Incorrect This response describes the theoretical method of test construction. c. CORRECT The word "criterion" in empirical criterion keying refers to criterion groups, which are people who do and do not possess the trait being measured. Items that discriminate between the groups are included in the test's scales or subtests. d. Incorrect This response is vague and could apply to empirical criterion keying as well as to the theoretical and factor-analytic methods. Therefore, it's not the best answer. The correct answer is: have been found to accurately distinguish between people who do and do not possess the traits measured by a scale or subtest.

Question 186

The ___ scale of the MMPI-2 consists of 64 items that were answered in the deviant (scored) direction by less than 10% of the standardization sample. A high score on this scale suggests carelessness in responding, malingering, or an attempt to look bad. Select one: A. L B. F C. K D. D

Answer 186

The MMPI-2 includes several validity scales that measure an examinee's response sets and test-taking attitudes. a. Incorrect A high score on the L (Lie) Scale indicates an attempt to present oneself in a favorable light. b. CORRECT This is an accurate description of the F (Frequency) Scale. c. Incorrect A high score on the K (Correction) Scale score indicates defensiveness, denial, or a desire to "fake good." d. Incorrect D is the Depression Scale of the MMPI-2. The correct answer is: F

Question 187

With regard to IQ, the average reported correlation coefficient for identical (monozygotic) twins reared together is .85, while the coefficient for a parent and biological child when the child is reared by the parent is approximately: Select one: A. .68. B. .40. C. .25. D. .18.

Answer 187

The contribution of heredity to IQ is demonstrated by studies showing that, the greater the genetic similarity between individuals, the higher the correlation coefficient for their IQs. See, e.g., B. Devlin, M. Daniels, and K. Roeder, The heritability of IQ, Nature, 388, 468-471, 1997. a. Incorrect A correlation coefficient of .68 is closest to the reported correlations for identical twins reared apart. b. CORRECT Based on their review of the research, Devlin et al. report a range of correlation coefficients for a parent and biological child (reared together) of .39 to .43. c. Incorrect A correlation coefficient of .25 is closest to the reported correlations for biological siblings reared apart. d. Incorrect A correlation coefficient of .18 is closest to the reported correlations for an adoptive parent and child. The correct answer is: .40.

Question 188

The Flynn effect refers to: Select one: A. the tendency for high and low IQ scores to regress to the mean on retesting. B. the impact of examiner race on the IQ scores of minority children. C. the increase in average IQ over the last century. D. the genetic contribution to IQ scores.

Answer 188

Many of the questions on the exam will be straightforward like this one and, as long as you're familiar with the topic being asked about, you'll be able to quickly identify the correct answer. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Flynn (1987, 1998) found a gradual increase in IQ in the United States and other industrialized countries during the 20th century. In his recent writings, he has attributed this effect to the replacement of more concrete, experience-based thinking with abstract scientific thinking. See the Psychological Assessment chapter for an update on recent research on the Flynn effect. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: the increase in average IQ over the last century.

Question 189

The Mini Mental State Exam (MMSE) is most useful as a: Select one: A. screening device for Mental Retardation in children and adolescents. B. screening device for Dementia in older adults. C. tool for assessing reality testing in patients with a Psychotic Disorder. D. tool for assessing level of consciousness in patients with Delirium.

Answer 189

The MMSE is a screening test that assesses six aspects of cognitive functioning: orientation, registration, attention and calculation, delayed recall, visual construction, and language. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT The MMSE is a screening tool for cognitive functioning and is especially useful for older adults. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: screening device for Dementia in older adults.

Question 190

The use of anatomically correct dolls with children who are believed to have been sexually abused: Select one: A. is contraindicated because the dolls elicit sexualized play from both abused and non-abused children and, therefore, do not help identify children who have actually been abused. B. is contraindicated because the dolls increase sexualized responses to both non-leading and leading questions from non-abused children who may, therefore, be misdiagnosed as abused. C. is considered effective for helping children recover otherwise repressed memories of abuse that could not be elicited in other ways. D. is considered effective for helping children who have been sexually abused but whose embarrassment or limited verbal skills limit their ability to describe what happened to them.

Answer 190

A controversy related to the assessment of children in cases of known or suspected sexual abuse is whether or not anatomically correct dolls should be used. a. Incorrect Although the research is not entirely consistent, most studies show that anatomically correct dolls are more likely to elicit sexualized play from children who were abused. b. Incorrect Anatomically correct dolls do not seem to increase sexualized responses from non-abused children. c. Incorrect There is no consistent evidence that the dolls are useful for helping children recall repressed memories. d. CORRECT This is the best answer of those given. Most experts agree that the best use of anatomically correct dolls is to help children demonstrate their experiences. This is particularly important for children with limited verbal skills or who are embarrassed to describe what happened to them. The correct answer is: is considered effective for helping children who have been sexually abused but whose embarrassment or limited verbal skills limit their ability to describe what happened to them.

Question 191

A T score of 65 or higher on the MMPI-2 clinical scales is most suggestive of: Select one: A. a high level of psychological symptoms being reported. B. an uncooperative attitude. C. an attempt to "fake bad." D. an examinee's lack of insight into his/her inner psychological state.

Answer 191

This question doesn't mention a specific MMPI-2 clinical scale, which makes it difficult to answer. Your approach in picking an answer should be to consider only the more general responses. a. CORRECT This is the most general answer of those given and is the best response. On the MMPI-2, a T-score of 65 or above suggests some kind of deviance. b. Incorrect This is suggested by a high score on the K Scale, which is one of the test's validity scales. c. Incorrect This is suggested by a high score on the F Scale, which is another validity scale. d. Incorrect This is not a conclusion that you can reach from the information given in the question. The correct answer is: a high level of psychological symptoms being reported.

Question 192

Which of the following is NOT considered to be a culture-fair test of intellectual ability? Select one: A. Leiter-3 B. KABC-II C. Ravens Progressive Matrices D. Woodcock-Johnson III

Answer 192

Note that this question is asking which test is NOT considered to be a culture-fair test. a. Incorrect The Leiter-3 assesses cognitive abilities and is considered to be culture fair because it does not require verbal instructions or responses and because an examinee's performance does not depend on his/her educational, social, or family experiences. b. Incorrect The KABC-II is considered to be culture fair because verbal instructions and responses are minimal and cultural content has been removed from most items. c. Incorrect Raven's Progressive Matrices is a nonverbal measure of intelligence and is considered culture fair because performance on the test is relatively independent of specific educational and cultural learning. d. CORRECT The Woodcock-Johnson III consists of a measure of cognitive abilities (WJ III COG) and a measure of language and academic achievement (WJ III ACH). It is not considered to be a culture-fair test. The correct answer is: Woodcock-Johnson III

Question 193

Which of the following tests would be most useful for assessing the intelligence of a 12-year-old child with limited English language proficiency? Select one: A. Raven's Standard Progressive Matrices B. Slosson Intelligence Test C. Bayley Scales D. Cognitive Abilities Test

Answer 193

For the exam, you want to be familiar with all of the tests listed in the answers to this question. Additional information about them is provided in the Psychological Assessment chapter of the written study materials. a. CORRECT Raven's Standard Progressive Matrices can be administered without the use of language, and it doesn't require language to respond to test items. It is appropriate for individuals age six and older. b. Incorrect The Slosson Intelligence Test is a screening test of intelligence and is not appropriate for individuals with limited language proficiency. c. Incorrect The Bayley Scales are used to assess infant development. d. Incorrect The Cognitive Abilities Test (CogAT) is measure of reasoning ability that is often used to determine a student's eligibility for placement in a gifted/talented program. The correct answer is: Raven's Standard Progressive Matrices

Question 194

Singh and Young (1995) found that, when men were asked to rate women in terms of attractiveness, health, and desirability as a romantic partner, they gave the highest ratings to females with: Select one: A. large breasts and narrow hips. B. large breasts and broad hips. C. small breasts and narrow hips. D. small breasts and broad hips.

Answer 194

If you're not familiar with Singh and Young's research, you may have been able to identify the correct answer to this question by considering the women who appear in advertising and men's magazines. a. CORRECT D. Singh and R. K. Young found that large breasts, narrow hips and low waist-to-hip ratio were consistently rated by men as more attractive, healthy, and desirable for a romantic relationship [Body weight, waist-to-hip ratio, breasts, and hips: Role in judgments of female attractiveness and desirability for relationships, Ethology and Sociobiology, 16(6), 483-507, 1995]. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: large breasts and narrow hips.

Question 195

According to Kelman (1961), __________ occurs when a person changes his/her behavior as the result of social influence in order to obtain reinforcement or avoid punishment. Select one: A. conformity B. compliance C. internalization D. exernalization

Answer 195

Kelman (1961) proposed that social influence can have one of three effects on a person's behavior: Compliance Identification Internalization a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT According to Kelman, compliance occurs when a person adopts an induced behavior, not because he/she has actually been persuaded, but because he/she wants to gain a reward or avoid punishment. Additional information about Kelman's work is provided in the Social Psychology chapter of the written study materials. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: compliance

Question 196

Research on attraction suggests that we are most likely to join a group when members are: Select one: A. similar in terms of attitudes and ability. B. dissimilar in terms of attitudes and ability. C. similar in terms of attitude but diverse in terms of ability. D. diverse in terms of attitude but similar in terms of ability.

Answer 196

A consistent finding of the research is that attraction to others is most often related to similarity -- i.e., "I'll like you, if you're like me." a. CORRECT The studies have shown that people tend to be attracted to others who are similar in terms of personality, attitudes, ability, and a number of other characteristics. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: similar in terms of attitudes and ability.

Question 197

Research on the attitudes of heterosexuals toward gays and lesbians has found that all of the following are predictive of higher levels of sexual prejudice except: Select one: A. high levels of authoritarianism. B. male (versus female) gender. C. fundamentalist religious views. D. younger (versus older) age.

Answer 197

As noted in the Social Psychology chapter of the written study materials, sexual prejudice has been linked to a number of factors. a. Incorrect Authoritarianism has been linked to sexual prejudice. b. Incorrect Heterosexual males exhibit higher levels of sexual prejudice than do heterosexual females, especially toward gays (versus lesbians). c. Incorrect Fundamentalist religious views are associated with higher levels of sexual prejudice. d. CORRECT Older age has been linked to higher levels of sexual prejudice. The correct answer is: younger (versus older) age.

Question 198

The availability heuristic is the tendency to estimate the frequency or likelihood of an event on the basis of: Select one: A. the resemblance of the event to a "typical" case. B. information about the event that is most readily retrieved from memory. C. the ability to mentally simulate the occurrence of the event. D. the magnitude of the "starting point."

Answer 198

Kahnemann and Tversky (1984) identified four heuristics (mental shortcuts) that people use to quickly form impressions, make decisions, or derive estimates about the likelihood that a certain event will occur. a. Incorrect The representativeness heuristic involves making judgments on the basis of the typical case. You are relying on this heuristic when you learn that someone you just met is a lawyer and use what you know about lawyers to draw conclusions about his or her characteristics. b. CORRECT The availability heuristic involves using information that most readily comes to mind or is most salient to make a decision, judgment, or estimate. As an example, you'll predict that an event is more likely to occur if you are able to recall many examples of its occurrence in the past than if you are able to recall only one example. c. Incorrect The simulation heuristic involves using mental simulations of an event to determine if an event will happen -- i.e., if you can imagine it will happen, you're more likely to predict that it will happen. d. Incorrect The anchoring and adjustment heuristic involves using an initial value as the basis for making a judgment. For instance, if the seller of an item says that he usually sells it for $10.00, your offer for the item will be closer to $10.00 than it would have been if the seller said he usually sells it for $7.00. The correct answer is: information about the event that is most readily retrieved from memory.

Question 199

When Rosenhan's (1973) "pseudopatients" were admitted to a mental hospital: Select one: A. they were quickly recognized as being "normal" by both staff members and other patients. B. they were not recognized as being "normal" by either staff members or other patients. C. they were recognized as being "normal" only when they stopped feigning symptoms. D. they were more often recognized as being "normal" by other patients than by staff members.

Answer 199

Rosenhan and seven assistants had themselves admitted to different mental health facilities by complaining of "hearing voices." Once admitted, they stopped feigning symptoms and "acted normal." a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Nearly one-third of the patients recognized the pseudopatients as sane. However, staff members diagnosed all but one pseudopatient as schizophrenic. For additional information on this study, see the Social Psychology chapter of the written study materials. The correct answer is: they were more often recognized as being "normal" by other patients than by staff members.

Question 200

Social psychologists define __________ as knowledge about particular situations and how events in those situations ordinarily unfold. Select one: A. prototype B. script C. heuristic D. propositional network

Answer 200

Social psychologists use a number of terms to describe social knowledge. a. Incorrect A prototype refers to a set of features commonly associated with members of a particular category. b. CORRECT A script is also known as an "event schema" and refers to knowledge about the sequence of events or actions in a particular situation (e.g., how to order food in a restaurant). c. Incorrect Heuristics are "mental shortcuts" that simplify problem-solving. d. Incorrect Propositional networks are sets of information about items of declarative knowledge. The correct answer is: script

Question 201

After playing the role of a child abuser in a feature film, a well-known and formerly well-liked actor begins receiving a lot of "hate mail." The writers of these letters are exhibiting which of the following? Select one: A. psychological reactance B. the fundamental attribution error C. the availability bias D. defensive attribution

Answer 201

In this situation, the actor's role as a child abuser is apparently being viewed as a reflection of the actor's actual tendencies. a. Incorrect Psychological reactance is the tendency to do the opposite of what you are asked to do, especially when the request seems to be threatening your personal freedom. b. CORRECT There is a natural tendency to make dispositional (versus situational) attributions about a person's behavior, which is what seems to be happening in this case; i.e., the writers of the hate mail are assuming that the actor played the role of a child abuser because he is a child abuser, not because he got paid to play the role. c. Incorrect The availability bias refers to the tendency to estimate the likelihood of an event happening based on the instances that come quickly or easily to mind. d. Incorrect A defensive attribution is an attribution of causality that is made specifically to relieve one's anxiety. The correct answer is: the fundamental attribution error

Question 202

According to Sherif's social judgment theory, a person's "latitude of acceptance" is greatest when: Select one: A. the person has high ego-involvement with the target issue. B. the person has low ego-involvement with the target issue. C. the person has high enjoyment of critical thinking. D. the person has low enjoyment of critical thinking.

Answer 202

Sherif's social judgment theory predicts that a person's susceptibility to persuasion can be described in terms of three "zones"--latitude of acceptance, latitude of non-commitment, and latitude of rejection. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT The likelihood that a person will be persuaded by an argument that is the opposite of his/her position is maximized when the position advocated by the argument is within the person's latitude of acceptance. The size of the latitude of acceptance is affected by several factors including the person's ego-involvement with the issue addressed by the argument--low ego-involvement is associated with a larger latitude of acceptance. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: the person has low ego-involvement with the target issue.

Question 203

Social psychology theory predicts which of the following with regard to a client's attraction to his or her therapist? Select one: A. The client will be unable to communicate effectively when he/she is attracted to the therapist. B. If the therapist is aware of the attraction, he or she will be less effective. C. The client will be more resistant to therapy when he/she is attracted to the therapist. D. The client will be more susceptible to the therapist's attempts at influence when he/she is attracted to the therapist.

Answer 203

Research on interpersonal attraction suggests that a client who is attracted to his or her therapist will be more susceptible to the therapist's attempts at influence. a. Incorrect Attraction is more likely to facilitate communication. b. Incorrect This has not been found by research on interpersonal attraction. c. Incorrect This is the opposite of what is true. d. CORRECT Research on interpersonal attraction has indicated that people tend to be more highly influenced by people they are attracted to. The correct answer is: The client will be more susceptible to the therapist's attempts at influence when he/she is attracted to the therapist.

Question 204

If the relationship between level of anxiety (the independent variable) and number of words recalled (the dependent variable) is nonlinear, which of the following would be most useful for statistically evaluating the relationship between the two variables? Select one: A. ANCOVA B. MANOVA C. trend analysis D. factorial analysis

Answer 204

Answer C is correct: In this situation, there is a quantitative independent variable, and the relationship between the independent and dependent variables is nonlinear. Trend analysis is useful for determining the nature of the relationship between a quantitative IV and a DV and indicates if there is a significant linear, quadratic, cubic, or quartic trend. Answer A: The ANCOVA is used to statistically remove the effects of an extraneous variable. Answer B: The MANOVA is used to assess the effects of one or more IVs on two or more DVs.

Question 205

Which of the following would NOT be useful for determining whether it is more appropriate to use a parametric or a nonparametric statistical test to analyze the data you collect in a research study? Select one: A. knowing that the distribution of scores for the dependent variable is negatively skewed B. knowing that the scores to be analyzed have equal intervals between adjacent units and an absolute zero point C. knowing that the subjects have not been randomly selected from the population D. knowing that the purpose of the analysis is to determine if an observed frequency distribution differs from an hypothesized distribution

Answer 205

Use of both parametric and non-parametric tests is based on the assumption that the sample has been randomly selected from the population. The use of parametric tests also requires that several other assumptions be met. a. Incorrect This suggests that a nonparametric test is appropriate. b. Incorrect This suggests that a parametric test can be used. c. CORRECT This violates the assumption for both tests and, therefore, is not useful for determining whether to use a parametric or nonparametric test. Neither test should be used. d. Incorrect This indicates that a nonparametric test should be used (specifically the chi-square test). The correct answer is: knowing that the subjects have not been randomly selected from the population

Question 206

``` For her math class assignment, a high school student decides to compare the average number of hours that students in her school view TV each day to the national average. To analyze the data she collects, the student will use which of the following statistical tests? Select one: ``` A. single-sample t-test B. independent samples t-test C. single-sample chi-square test D. multiple-sample chi-square test

Answer 206

The data analysis for the study described in this question will involve comparing the mean number of TV viewing hours for the high school students to the national mean. a. CORRECT The t-test is used to compare two means, and when one of the means is a sample mean and the other is a known population mean, the appropriate t-test is the single-sample t-test. b. Incorrect The independent samples t-test is the appropriate t-test for comparing means obtained from two independent samples. c. Incorrect The single-sample chi-square test is used to compare the number (frequency) of cases in each category when a study includes a single variable. d. Incorrect The multiple-sample chi-square test is used to compare the number (frequency) of cases in each category when a study includes two or more variables. The correct answer is: single-sample t-test

Question 207

Which of the following research designs would be useful for controlling the effects of a potential confounding organismic variable on the results of a research study when participants' scores on that variable are known at the beginning of the study? Select one: A. counterbalanced B. randomized block C. Solomon four-group D. nonequivalent groups

Answer 207

For the licensing exam, you want to be familiar with the four research designs listed in the answers to this question. a. Incorrect A counterbalanced design is used to control carryover (order) effects and involves administering different levels of an independent variable to different participants or groups of participants in a different order. b. CORRECT The randomized block design is used to control the effects of a (confounding) extraneous variable by ensuring that groups are equivalent with regard to that variable prior to the beginning of the study. It involves "blocking" (grouping) participants in terms of their status on that variable and then randomly assigning participants in each block to one of the treatment groups. When using this method, the extraneous variable is treated as another independent variable and the data are analyzed using the randomized block ANOVA. c. Incorrect The Solomon four-group design is a special type of factorial design that is used to control (evaluate) the effects of pretesting on post-test scores. d. Incorrect The nonequivalent groups design is a quasi-experimental research design that is used when intact groups must be used (i.e., when participants cannot be randomly assigned to different treatment groups). There is no information provided in the question that suggests that participants with different levels of the extraneous variable could not be randomly assigned to treatment groups, so this is not the best answer of those given. The correct answer is: randomized block

Question 208

When the homogeneity of variance assumption for the analysis of variance is violated, the results of your statistical analysis are least likely to be invalid when: Select one: A. the groups contain the same number of participants. B. the DV is measured on an interval or ratio scale. C. alpha is increased from .01 to .05. D. a between-groups design has been used.

Answer 208

The use of an analysis of variance (or other parametric test) requires that certain assumptions be met. An important assumption is that there is homogeneity of variances among the treatment groups. a. CORRECT Equal-sized groups help compensate for a violation of the assumption of homogeneity of variances. b. Incorrect To use an analysis of variance at all, the DV has to be measured on an interval or ratio scale, so this wouldn't help compensate for heterogeneity of variances. c. Incorrect Decreasing alpha is preferable when the homogeneity assumption has been violated. d. Incorrect It is in between-groups research that this is a problem -- i.e., heterogeneity is a problem when the different groups have different variances. The correct answer is: the groups contain the same number of participants.

Question 209

The owner of several used-car lots wants to determine the effectiveness of sales training for his salespeople. He randomly assigns one of his lots to Training Program #1, another to Training Program #2, and a third to a no-treatment condition. It turns out that one of the training group lots is in a low-income neighborhood, while the other two lots are in a middle-income neighborhood. The owner will compare the gross sales of the three lots during a randomly-chosen week in the middle of the summer after the training programs have been completed. The effects of the location of the car lots: Select one: A. is a source of unreliability. B. is a source of reactivity. C. is a threat to internal validity. D. is a threat to statistical validity.

Answer 209

The income-level of the neighborhoods where the car lots are located will affect the study's results in a way that will make it difficult to determine if any differences between the lots are due to the intervention or to income level. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Internal validity refers to the ability to determine whether an observed difference between groups is due to the independent variable or to error. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: is a threat to internal validity.

Question 210

The Solomon four-group design is used to evaluate the effects of pretesting on a research study's: Select one: A. internal validity only. B. external validity only. C. internal and external validity. D. statistical conclusion validity.

Answer 210

When using the Solomon four-group design, the pretest is treated as an independent variable so that its effects on a study's internal and external validity can be evaluated (i.e., so that it can be determined if taking a pretest affects subjects' performance on the posttest and/or affects how subjects react to the treatment). a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT When using this design, subjects are randomly assigned to one of four groups: Group #1 takes the pretest, is exposed to the treatment, and takes the posttest; Group #2 takes the pretest, is not exposed to the treatment, and takes the posttest; Group #3 is exposed to the treatment and takes the posttest; and Group #4 takes the posttest only. d. Incorrect Statistical conclusion validity refers to the validity of conclusions made about the relationship between variables based on the results of the statistical analysis. Statistical conclusion validity is threatened, for example, if an assumption for the statistical test was violated. The correct answer is: internal and external validity.

Question 211

When using an ABAB research design, causality is suggested when: Select one: A. the target behavior changes only when the treatment is applied to each baseline. B. the target behavior reverts to original baseline levels when the treatment is withdrawn. C. the target behavior is not altered by the second baseline manipulation. D. the target behavior changes in the treated conditions only.

Answer 211

Answer B is correct: An ABAB single-subject design involves four phases: baseline, treatment, baseline, treatment. The advantage of having a second baseline (A) phase is that it helps determine whether an observed change in the DV during the treatment phase was in fact due to the IV. If the DV returns to its original baseline level, the researcher can be more certain that the observed effect is actually the result of the IV (rather than a confounding factor). Answer A: This sounds more like the multiple baseline design. Answer C: This doesn't really make any sense. Answer D: You want the behavior to change during the treatment phase(s), and the second baseline phase provides the opportunity to make sure it is actually the treatment that is causing the change. The correct answer is: the target behavior reverts to original baseline levels when the treatment is withdrawn.

Question 212

A research study includes three independent variables and four dependent variables. All of the dependent variables are measured on an interval or ratio scale. To control the "experimentwise error rate," it would be best to use which of the following statistical tests to analyze the data collected in this study? Select one: A. split-plot ANOVA B. MANOVA C. three-way ANOVA D. four-way ANOVA

Answer 212

The experimentwise error rate refers to the probability of making a Type I error when multiple statistical tests are conducted. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT When using the MANOVA (multivariate analysis of variance), the effects of the independent variables on all four of the dependent variables will be statistically analyzed while the probability of making a Type I error is held at the rate stated by the researcher. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: MANOVA

Question 213

A researcher wants to investigate the effects of a brief treatment for a group of 10 therapy clients before and after the treatment is applied. She will measure symptom severity three times at regular intervals before administering the treatment to the clients and then three times at regular intervals after the clients complete the 10 sessions. The researcher is using which of the following research designs? Select one: A. multiple baseline B. ABAB C. interrupted time-series design D. nonequivalent control group

Answer 213

In this situation, the researcher is measuring the effects of the treatment over time for a single-group of participants. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Cook and Campbell (1979) refer to this type of design as an interrupted time series design. It is a single-group design in which the DV is measured at regular intervals before and after the treatment is applied. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: interrupted time-series design

Question 214

A researcher conducts a study to compare three different strategies for increasing students' understanding of statistics. After administering each strategy to a different group of students, she realizes that students with the highest level of math aptitude were accidentally assigned to Strategy #1. Consequently, to compare the statistics knowledge test scores obtained by participants in the three groups, the researcher should use which of the following statistical techniques? Select one: A. analysis of covariance (ANCOVA) B. randomized block ANOVA C. multivariate analysis of variance (MANOVA) D. split-plot ANOVA

Answer 214

In the situation described in this question, initial level of math aptitude is a possible confounding (extraneous) variable since it is likely to have an impact on the final test scores. a. CORRECT The analysis of covariance (ANCOVA) is used to statistically remove the effects of an extraneous variable. Using it to analyze the data collected in this study would enable the researcher to statistically remove the confounding effects of math aptitude so that the effects of the three strategies on test scores can be compared. b. Incorrect A randomized block ANOVA is also used to control the effects of an extraneous variable, but it requires that participants be "blocked" (grouped) in terms of that variable and participants in each block be randomly assigned to one of the interventions. When using this technique the confounding variable is treated as another independent variable. c. Incorrect The MANOVA is used to analyze the effects of one or more independent variables on two or more dependent variables that are each measured on an interval or ratio scale. d. Incorrect The split-plot (mixed) ANOVA is the appropriate technique when at least one independent variable is a between-groups variable and another independent variable is a within-subjects variable. The correct answer is: analysis of covariance (ANCOVA)

Question 215

The best way to maximize a research study's external validity is to: Select one: A. use a parametric (versus nonparametric) statistical test. B. set alpha at .01 rather than .05. C. select participants who are homogeneous with regard to the target characteristic. D. randomly select research participants from the target population.

Answer 215

External validity refers to the generalizability of the results of a research study. a. Incorrect A parametric test increases statistical power, but it doesn't increase the generalizability of the research results. b. Incorrect A smaller alpha will reduce the probability of making a Type I error, but it will not increase the generalizability of the study's results. c. Incorrect Narrowing the range of participants in terms of the target characteristic would limit the generalizability of the results. For example, if the target characteristic is self-esteem and the study includes only people with average self-esteem, it would not be possible to generalize the study's results to people with high and low self-esteem. d. CORRECT The best way to maximize the generalizability of a study's results is to randomly select participants from the population so that the sample of participants is representative of the population in terms of all relevant characteristics. The correct answer is: randomly select research participants from the target population.

Question 216

A student receives a T score of 64 on a problem-solving test, a T score of 45 on a verbal reasoning test, and a T score of 32 on a test of quantitative reasoning. Each test's standard error of measurement is equal to 3. Based on this information, you can conclude that: Select one: A. the student is much better at problem-solving than at verbal reasoning and quantitative reasoning. B. the student has failed the quantitative reasoning test. C. the student scored above the mean on the problem-solving test. D. the student did twice as well on the problem-solving test as on the quantitative reasoning test.

Answer 216

T scores are norm-referenced scores, which means that they provide information only on a person's standing in the norm group. a. Incorrect It is only possible to conclude that, compared to other people, the student is best in problem-solving. It is not possible to make comparisons across the different tests. b. Incorrect To determine whether the student has failed the test, a cutoff score would have to be established. c. CORRECT The T score distribution has a mean of 50 and a standard deviation of 10. Consequently, it is possible to conclude that the student's raw score on the problem-solving test is above the mean. d. Incorrect T scores cannot be compared in this way since they do not represent a ratio scale of measurement. The correct answer is: the student scored above the mean on the problem-solving test.

Question 217

A job applicant who scores below the cutoff on a selection test and is, therefore, not hired, but who would have actually obtained a satisfactory job performance rating if she had been hired, is best described as a: Select one: A. true positive. B. true negative. C. false positive. D. false negative.

Answer 217

The exam frequently includes a question that requires the ability to distinguish between false positives, false negatives, etc. Keep in mind that it is one's score on the PREDICTOR that determines if one is a "positive" or a "negative," and one's score on the CRITERION that determines if the classification as a positive or negative is "true" or "false." a. Incorrect A true positive is someone who has been identified by the predictor as having the target characteristic and, in fact, does have the characteristic. b. Incorrect A true negative is someone who has been identified by the predictor as not having the target characteristic and, in fact, doesn't have the characteristic. c. Incorrect A false positive has been identified by the predictor as having the target characteristic but actually does not have the characteristic. d. CORRECT A false negative is a person who has been classified by the predictor as a negative (i.e., doesn't have the target characteristic) but who actually does have the characteristic. The correct answer is: false negative.

Question 218

Which of the following would be most useful when a test administrator wants to use test scores to determine how much a person has learned during the course of a six-week training program? Select one: A. expectancy tables B. stanine scores C. percentile ranks D. percentage scores

Answer 218

When the goal of testing is to determine the amount of content an individual has mastered, criterion-referenced (or content-referenced) scores are most useful. a. Incorrect Although an expectancy table is a method of criterion-referenced interpretation, it is used when scores on one measure (the predictor) are used to predict performance on another measure (the criterion). b. Incorrect Stanine scores are a type of norm-referenced score, which indicate an individual's standing relative to other examinees. c. Incorrect Percentile ranks are also a type of norm-referenced score. d. CORRECT A percentage score indicates the percentage of test content that the examinee has mastered. Assuming that the test content is a good sample of what is taught in the training program, a percentage score would be useful in this situation. The correct answer is: percentage scores

Question 219

When a test's reliability coefficient is equal to 0, the standard error of measurement for the test is: Select one: A. equal to 0. B. always less than 1. C. equal to the tests standard deviation. D. equal to the tests mean.

Answer 219

A test's standard error of measurement is calculated by multiplying the standard deviation of the test by the square root of one minus the test's reliability coefficient. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. (The standard error of measurement is equal to 0 when the reliability coefficient is equal to 1 - i.e., there is no error in measurement.) b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT The formula for the standard error of measurement indicates that, when the reliability coefficient is 0, the standard error of measurement equals the test's standard deviation times the square root of one minus zero, which equals the standard deviation of the test. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: equal to the tests standard deviation.

Question 220

A measure of test anxiety is administered to a sample of 50 psychologists who are studying for the licensing exam, and a split-half reliability coefficient of .80 is calculated from their scores. The test is then administered to another group of 50 psychologists who are more heterogeneous with regard to level of test anxiety. The split-half reliability coefficient for the second group is most likely to be: Select one: A. between .77 and .83. B. between .74 and .86. C. larger than .80. D. less than .80.

Answer 220

The magnitude of a test's reliability coefficient (and any other correlation coefficient) is affected by several factors including the variability of scores. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT The greater the variability (range) of scores, the higher the reliability coefficient. In the situation described in the question, the second sample was more heterogeneous with regard to test anxiety, which means their distribution of scores would have wider variability. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: larger than .80.

Question 221

A test developer uses a multitrait-multimethod matrix to organize the data she has collected in a validation study of her newly developed self-report measure of self-esteem. The matrix indicates that the correlation between her self-report measure of self-esteem and an established (previously validated) teacher rating of self-esteem is .91. This correlation coefficient suggests that the self-report measure of self-esteem has: Select one: A. high reliability. B. low incremental validity. C. adequate convergent validity. D. adequate discriminant validity.

Answer 221

The multitrait-multimethod matrix organizes information about a test's convergent validity and discriminant (divergent) validity which, in turn, provide information about a test's construct validity. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT The correlation between the newly developed test (the test that is being validated) and a measure of the same or a related trait provides information about the test's convergent validity. When that correlation is relatively large (and a correlation of .91 is considered a large correlation), this suggests that the test has an adequate level of convergent validity. d. Incorrect A low correlation with a test that measures a different trait would provide evidence of discriminant validity. The correct answer is: adequate convergent validity.

Question 222

Scores on a predictor that will be used to estimate job performance rating range from 0 to 200. If the predictor's cutoff score is raised from 130 to 150, this will have which of the following effects? Select one: A. increase the number of true positives B. increase the number of true positives and true negatives C. decrease the number of false positives D. decrease the number of false positives and false negatives

Answer 222

Drawing a scatterplot (like the one in the Test Construction materials) would have helped you recognize the correct answer to this question. a. Incorrect Raising the predictor cutoff decreases the number of true and false positives. b. Incorrect Raising the predictor cutoff decreases the number of true positives and increases the number of true negatives. c. CORRECT All positives (true and false) are decreased and all negatives (true and false) are increased by raising the predictor cutoff. d. Incorrect The number of false negatives increases. The correct answer is: decrease the number of false positives

Question 223

You would use which of the following to estimate what a predictor's criterion-related validity coefficient would be if the predictor and/or criterion had a reliability coefficient of 1.0? Select one: A. Spearman-Brown prophecy formula B. correction for attenuation formula C. coefficient of concordance D. Kuder-Richardson Formula 20

Answer 223

For the exam, you want to be familiar with all of the formulas listed in the answers to this question. They are described in the Test Construction chapter of the written study materials. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT The correction for attenuation formula is used for the purpose described in this question. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: correction for attenuation formula

Question 224

An item characteristic curve (ICC) indicates: Select one: A. the relationship between the likelihood that an examinee will endorse the item and the examinee's level on the attribute measured by the test. B. the expected number of scale items answered correctly as a function of the attribute(s) measured by the scale. C. the expected range within which an examinee's obtained score is likely to fall given the effects of measurement error. D. the degree to which the item is actually measuring the attribute purportedly measured by the test.

Answer 224

As its name suggests, an item characteristic curve (ICC) provides information about an item's characteristics. Additional information about the ICC is provided in the Test Construction chapter of the written study materials. a. CORRECT This accurately describes the ICC. b. Incorrect See explanation above. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: the relationship between the likelihood that an examinee will endorse the item and the examinee's level on the attribute measured by the test.

Question 225

Test-retest reliability would be the most appropriate method of determining the reliability of a test if the test is designed to assess which of the following? Select one: A. general intelligence B. mood C. state anxiety D. reading level

Answer 225

A test-retest reliability coefficient is obtained by correlating scores on a test with scores on the same test when the same set of examinees retakes it. A test-retest reliability coefficient is most appropriately used with traits that are stable over time. Otherwise, any variance in scores between administrations of the test may reflect the natural change in the trait rather than the test's lack of reliability. a. CORRECT Of the traits listed, general intelligence is probably least likely to change significantly over time. Thus, scores on intelligence tests should not change over time and a reliable (accurate and consistent) intelligence test will yield similar scores even when administered at different times. b. Incorrect Mood is not a stable trait. Since a reliable measure of mood can conceivably yield different scores at different times, the test-retest reliability coefficient will likely underestimate the true reliability of a mood assessment measure. c. Incorrect See explanations for responses a and b. d. Incorrect See explanations for responses a and b. The correct answer is: general intelligence