TEST MODE - Test 8 Flashcards
Elaborative rehearsal is most useful for:
Select one:
A.
encoding information in sensory memory.
B.
holding information in working memory for an extended period of time.
C.
transferring information from sensory memory to short-term memory.
D.
transferring information from short-term memory to long-term memory.
Elaborative rehearsal refers to making new information more meaningful by associating it with previously acquired information.
a. Incorrect Elaborative rehearsal is a method for improving long-term memory and not for encoding information in sensory memory, which is responsible for the temporary storage of incoming sensory signals.
b. Incorrect Rote repetition (e.g., repeating a phone number) is useful for maintaining information in working memory.
c. Incorrect Sensory input is transferred from sensory memory to short-term memory by focusing attention on that input.
d. CORRECT The research has confirmed that elaborative rehearsal is an effective way for ensuring that material is transferred from short-term memory to long-term memory.
The correct answer is: transferring information from short-term memory to long-term memory.
The use of shaping to establish a complex behavior depends on which of the following?
Select one:
A.
latent learning
B.
positive reinforcement
C.
higher-order conditioning
D.
successive discrimination
Shaping involves reinforcing successive approximations to the target (desired) behavior.
a. Incorrect Latent learning occurs without direct reinforcement.
b. CORRECT When using shaping to establish a new behavior, responses that come closer and closer to the desired behavior are successively reinforced.
c. Incorrect Higher-order conditioning is a type of classical (not operant) conditioning.
d. Incorrect Successive discrimination teaches the learner to respond differently to two or more stimuli that are presented successively.
The correct answer is: positive reinforcement
You are working in a community mental health center that employs two other psychologists, a social worker, and a psychiatrist. One Saturday, as you’re talking to your neighbor over the backyard fence, she tells you that the wife of one of your co-workers (one of the psychologists) is a close friend of hers and has told her that her husband (the psychologist) has started to physically abuse her. As an ethical psychologist, your best course of action would be to:
Select one:
A.
tell the neighbor to have your co-worker’s wife call your office to set up an appointment.
B.
call the wife of the co-worker yourself to confirm the charge before filing a complaint with the Ethics Committee.
C.
discuss the situation with the accused co-worker as soon as possible.
D.
report the matter to the director of the mental health center (the psychiatrist).
As a psychologist, one of your duties is to ensure that your colleagues are acting ethically in their professional roles. In this case, the man’s alleged behavior is related to his personal life. However, his personal problems may be interfering with his ability to provide services to his clients. Moreover, his behavior could have adverse consequences on the public trust in psychologists or in the profession of psychology.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Of the responses given, this one is most in line with “common sense” and with the spirit of the Ethics Code. Although the psychologist’s behavior does not involve a client, it is possible that his personal problems are having an indirect impact on his work. Of the responses given, this one is the best answer because it represents the most direct approach to resolving the problem.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: discuss the situation with the accused co-worker as soon as possible.
Research looking at the relationship between “expressed emotion” and Schizophrenia has found that:
Select one:
A.
negative expressed emotion is often an early sign of the disorder.
B.
expressed emotion is related more to the negative than the positive symptoms of the disorder.
C.
a high degree of negative expressed emotion by family members is associated with a high-risk for relapse for a person with this disorder.
D.
an extremely high or extremely low level of expressed emotion by family members is an environmental factor that increases the risk for the development of this disorder.
In the context of Schizophrenia, negative expressed emotion refers to excessive criticism or hostility or, at the other extreme, emotional overinvolvement and overprotectiveness.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT The research has consistently linked negative expressed emotion by family members to a high risk of relapse and rehospitalization for a family member with Schizophrenia.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: a high degree of negative expressed emotion by family members is associated with a high-risk for relapse for a person with this disorder.
During Piaget’s heteronomous stage, children’s moral judgments are based on:
Select one:
A.
the intentions behind the act.
B.
the seriousness of the consequences of the act.
C.
the status or authority of the actor.
D.
the events leading up to the act.
Piaget proposed a sequence of moral development involving three stages: premoral, moral realism, and moral relativism.
a. Incorrect This is more characteristic of moral relativism (which is also known as the autonomous stage).
b. CORRECT Rules and the consequences of violating a rule are the basis of moral judgment during the stage of moral realism (which is also called the heteronomous stage).
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: the seriousness of the consequences of the act.
Statistical regression threatens a study’s internal validity when:
Select one:
A.
individuals are included in a study because of their extremely high (or low) scores on a pretest.
B.
individuals are included in a study because of their moderate (mid-range) scores on a pretest.
C.
the measure of the dependent variable is modified during the course of a study.
D.
ratings on the measure of the dependent variable are affected by “criterion contamination.”
Answer A is correct. Statistical regression is the tendency of extreme scores to “regress” (move) toward the mean on retesting.
Statistical regression is a threat to a study’s internal validity whenever participants are selected on the basis of their extreme scores on the pretest. In this situation, it may not be possible to determine if a change in post-test scores is due to the effects of the independent variable or to statistical regression.
The correct answer is: individuals are included in a study because of their extremely high (or low) scores on a pretest.
The aspect of implicit memory that is referred to as procedural memory is mediated primarily by the:
Select one:
A.
hippocampus.
B.
thalamus.
C.
medulla.
D.
striatum.
Implicit memories are retrieved or recalled without conscious awareness. Several types of implicit memories are distinguished including procedural memories (memories for skills and procedures) and associative memories (memories that result from classical conditioning). Implicit memory has been linked to several areas of the brain including the striatum, amygdala, and cerebellum.
a. Incorrect The hippocampus is involved in the processing and consolidation of explicit memories.
b. Incorrect The thalamus also play a role in explicit memory.
c. Incorrect The medulla coordinates swallowing, coughing, and sneezing and regulates a number of vital functions including breathing, heartbeat, and blood pressure.
d. CORRECT The striatum (also referred to as the corpus striatum) is part of the basal ganglia and consists of the caudate nucleus and putamen. It plays an important role in procedural memory.
The correct answer is: striatum.
A colleague of yours has just attended a seminar on Culture and Ethics where several experts argued that it is inappropriate for psychologists to attempt to obtain a signed written informed consent from members of certain cultural groups prior to their participation in therapy. As an ethical psychologist, you tell your colleague that it:
Select one:
A.
is always necessary to obtain a signed written consent from therapy clients regardless of their ethnic/cultural background.
B.
is always necessary to obtain either a signed written consent or a signed waiver of consent from all therapy clients regardless of their ethnic/cultural background.
C.
is acceptable to document an informed consent from therapy clients in an alternative way only when those clients are illiterate.
D.
may be acceptable to document an informed consent from therapy clients in an alternative way, especially when a signed consent would be inappropriate for the client.
An ongoing discussion in the literature is related to the need to consider modifying the informed consent process for members of ethnic/cultural groups who may find written consents objectionable or may want to include family members in the consent process. See, e.g., L. O. Gostin, Informed consent, cultural sensitivity, and respect for persons, Journal of the American Medical Association, 274(10), 844-845, 1995.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Standard 3.10(c) of the APA’s Ethics Code and Standard I.22 of the Canadian Code of Ethics apply to this situation: Standard 3.10(c) states that “Psychologists appropriately document written or oral consent, permission, and assent”; and Standard I.22 states that psychologists “accept and document oral consent, in situations in which signed consent forms are not acceptable culturally or in which there are other good reasons for not using them.” (Note, however, that legal requirements or institutional regulations may differ, and psychologists should check applicable laws and regulations before deciding to forego a written consent.)
The correct answer is: may be acceptable to document an informed consent from therapy clients in an alternative way, especially when a signed consent would be inappropriate for the client.
Research on Baddeley’s (2000) multi-component model of working memory suggests that the ____________ plays an essential role in mental arithmetic and is responsible for accessing and executing computational algorithms and heuristics.
Select one:
A.
sensory register
B.
central executive
C.
phonological loop
D.
visuo-spatial sketchpad
A. D. Baddeley’s multi-component model of working memory describes working memory as being comprised of a central executive that controls and regulates three specialized “slave” systems - the phonological loop, the visuo-spatial sketchpad, and the episodic buffer (The episodic buffer: A new component of working memory, Trends in Cognitive Science, 4, 417-423, 2000).
a. Incorrect Sensory register is not one of the systems of working memory described by Baddeley.
b. CORRECT The central executive serves a number of supervisory functions including focusing and switching attention, controlling encoding and retrieval strategies, and mentally manipulating information held in the slave systems. For example, while performing mental arithmetic, the central executive is responsible for selecting and executing calculation heuristics.
c. Incorrect The phonological loop is responsible for processing and temporarily storing verbally encoded information. It also plays a role in mental arithmetic but, in contrast to the central executive, is responsible for the temporary storage of partial solutions and subvocal rehearsal of running totals.
d. Incorrect The visuo-spatial sketchpad is responsible for processing and temporarily storing visually encoded information.
The correct answer is: central executive
Roe and Holland share in common an emphasis on the role of ___________ in career choice.
Select one:
A.
aptitude
B.
personality
C.
social pressure
D.
vocational interests
Familiarity with Roe and/or Holland would have helped you choose the correct response to this question. Their approaches to career development and choice are described in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Holland proposes that the best career choice is the career that provides a match between the individual’s personality characteristics (e.g., conventional, artistic) and the characteristics of the work environment. Roe links career choice to personality and basic needs.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: personality
Two studies are conducted to test the effects of a cognitive-behavioral technique on attention span in children with ADHD. The studies are identical in procedures, number of participants, and so on, but in Study #1, p.10. Based on this information, you can conclude that:
Select one:
A.
the results of Study #1 indicate an effect opposite of the effect produced in Study #2.
B.
the effect size in Study #1 was larger than the effect size in Study #2.
C.
the researcher has made a Type II error in Study #2.
D.
a one-tailed test was used in Study #1; a two-tailed test in Study #2.
Answer B is correct: The difference between the two studies is that one achieved statistical significance (p.10). Significance is achieved when the effect size (effect of the IV) is sufficiently large to be detected by the statistical test. There is enough information given in this question to draw this conclusion.
Answer A: The results may or may not be in the same direction. There is insufficient information in the question to determine which is the case.
Answer C: Study #2 may involve a Type II error, or, alternatively, Study #1 may involve a Type I error. Whether either of these is true cannot be determined from the information provided in the question.
Answer D: There is nothing in the question that implies that this is true.
The correct answer is: the effect size in Study #1 was larger than the effect size in Study #2.
The ApoE4 gene on chromosome 19 has been linked to an increased risk for:
Select one:
A.
Alzheimer’s disease.
B.
Huntington’s disease.
C.
diabetes mellitus.
D.
multiple sclerosis.
Research has identified a link between Alzheimer’s disease and specific genes on several chromosomes including chromosome 19. a. CORRECT The ApoE4 gene on chromosome 19 has been associated with an increased risk for both heart disease and late-onset Alzheimer’s disease. Note that, even if you were not familiar with the ApoE4 gene, knowing that Alzheimer’s disease has been linked to abnormalities on chromosome 19 would have helped you identify this as the correct answer. b. Incorrect Huntington’s disease is an autosomal dominant gene disorder. It has not been linked to the ApoE4 gene. c. Incorrect Diabetes mellitus is due to insufficient insulin or the inability of cells to use insulin. It has not been linked to the ApoE4 gene. d. Incorrect The cause of multiple sclerosis is unknown but may entail a combination of biological and environmental factors.
The correct answer is: Alzheimer’s disease.
To calculate an effect size (Cohen’s d), you need:
Select one:
A.
the standard error of estimate of the criterion.
B.
the median scores for the pre- and post-tests.
C.
the means of the experimental and control groups.
D.
the actual and predicted scores for the outcome measure.
Cohen’s d is one of several methods for calculating an effect size, which is an index of treatment effects.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Cohen’s d indicates the magnitude of the effect of a treatment in terms of the difference between the means of the experimental (treatment) and control (no treatment) groups. It is calculated by subtracting the mean of the control group from the mean of the experimental group and dividing the result by a pooled standard deviation or by the control group standard deviation.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: the means of the experimental and control groups.
As defined by Minuchin, triangulation is a:
Select one:
A.
healthy adaptation by family members to unexpected change.
B.
way for family members to avoid dealing with stress or conflict.
C.
method used by the therapist to diagnose the family structure.
D.
method used by the therapist to reduce stress in the family.
Minuchin described triangulation as a type of rigid triad.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Triangulation is occurring when the parents are in conflict and both try to recruit a child to their side as a means of avoiding or reducing the conflict between them.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: way for family members to avoid dealing with stress or conflict.
Tova and Thom are in their early 30s, have been married for four years, and are expecting their first child. The only vehicle they have had since their marriage is a two-seater sports car, which they both love; but they realize they will have to trade it for something more “sensible” when the baby is born. In terms of Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, the couple’s realization about their car can be best viewed as an example of:
Select one:
A.
assimilation.
B.
accommodation.
C.
centration.
D.
decalage.
This is an example of a question that takes a concept that may be familiar but places it in an unexpected context, which can be confusing. Fortunately, you’re likely to encounter only a few questions on the exam like this one.
a. Incorrect Assimilation involves interpreting new information in terms of existing cognitive structures.
b. CORRECT Accommodation involves modifying existing cognitive structures or creating new ones to meet the demands of the environment. In this situation, the couple has realized that they will have to alter their schema for “car.”
c. Incorrect Centration is the inability to focus on more than one aspect of an object or situation at a time and underlies the inability to conserve.
d. Incorrect A horizontal decalage is the name for the gradual mastery of logical concepts.
The correct answer is: accommodation.
About 10 to 15% of new mothers develop postpartum major depression in the first few days or weeks following delivery. In addition, up to _____% of new mothers exhibit “baby blues,” a less severe condition that involves mood swings and sleep disturbances.
Select one:
A.
30
B.
40
C.
50
D.
80
The reported rates for post-partum (baby) blues and depression vary in the literature. However, most authorities agree that the majority of new mothers do experience some degree of post-partum “blues.”
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Up to 80% is the percent commonly cited in the literature.
The correct answer is: 80
You are a psychodynamic psychotherapist and are seeing a client who has several problems. One of these problems has been found to respond best to a behavioral technique that you are unfamiliar with. You should:
Select one:
A.
seek supervision while applying the technique.
B. take a class on the technique.
C.
make a referral to a behavioral therapist.
D.
discuss the issue with the client and decide what she wants to do.
There really isn’t enough information given in this question to choose the best course of action, but keep in mind that you always want to be somewhat conservative when answering ethics questions on the exam.
a. Incorrect This might be adequate in some situations. The question states, however, that you’re a “psychodynamic psychotherapist,” so you may not be interested in adding a behavioral technique to your repertoire. This may also be inadequate if the problem is a very serious one.
b. Incorrect Obviously, in most situations, this would not be adequate.
c. CORRECT Given the limited information; this is the best answer. Since you don’t have the training or skills needed to provide the optimal treatment to the client, referral would be the best course of action. (Of course, you can continue treating the client for her other problems.)
d. Incorrect This would not be a good course of action.
The correct answer is: make a referral to a behavioral therapist.
Which of the following is not true of mediation?
Select one:
A.
A mediator can impose a settlement.
B.
A mediator does not serve as an advocate for either party.
C.
Participation in mediation is voluntary.
D.
Arbitration provides a more final resolution than mediation.
Mediation is the most used third-party option. A neutral third party (mediator) uses various tactics to facilitate voluntary agreement between the disputants. Remember you are looking for a statement that is not true.
a. CORRECT Because the mediator has no formal powers, he or she cannot impose a settlement.
b. Incorrect A mediator serves as a neutral facilitator, and thus does not advocate for either participant.
c. Incorrect Mediation is voluntary.
d. Incorrect Arbitration is the final and most formal settlement technique.
The correct answer is: A mediator can impose a settlement.
When calculating the F-ratio for an analysis of variance, which of the following provides an estimate of variability due to the effects of error only?
Select one:
A.
MST
B.
MSW
C.
MSB
D.
MSA
The F-ratio is calculated by dividing a measure of treatment effects plus error (MSB) by a measure of error only (MSW).
a. Incorrect MST is “mean square total” and is a measure of both treatment effects and error (MSB plus MSW).
b. CORRECT MSW stands for “mean square within” and is a pooled measure of variability within each of the treatment groups. It provides an estimate of variability that is due to error only.
c. Incorrect MSB stands for “mean square between” and is a measure of variability between treatment groups. It provides an estimate of variability due to treatment effects plus error.
d. Incorrect MSA is not one of the terms used to calculate the F-ratio.
The correct answer is: MSW
Taylor’s (1911) scientific management is based on the premise that which of the following is most useful for maximizing employee motivation?
Select one:
A.
opportunities for advancement
B.
opportunities to satisfy prepotent needs
C.
satisfying relationships with co-workers
D.
pay that is directly linked to performance
As its name implies, scientific management involves applying the principles of science to the field of management in order to determine the most effective way for workers to perform their jobs.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT A premise of scientific management is that workers are motivated primarily by economic self-interest, and Taylor proposed that productivity is maximized when pay is clearly linked to performance.
The correct answer is: pay that is directly linked to performance
When attempting to expand your private practice, it is important to keep in mind that in-person solicitations:
Select one:
A.
are always unethical.
B.
are unethical only when they target individuals receiving similar services from another professional.
C.
are unethical only when they include deceptive or misleading information.
D.
are unethical when they include deceptive information or when the person solicited is susceptible to undue influence.
Although the APA’s prohibitions against solicitation of clients have been limited by the requirements of the Federal Trade Commission, APA still considers certain types of business solicitations unethical.
a. Incorrect In-person solicitations might be ethically acceptable in some situations (e.g., when they are “invited” solicitations).
b. Incorrect This type of solicitation might also be acceptable in some situations.
c. Incorrect This is not the most complete response of those given.
d. CORRECT This is most consistent with Standard 5.06 of the Ethic Code: Solicitations are unethical when they include deceptive or false information or when their targets are individuals who are vulnerable to undue influence.
The correct answer is: are unethical when they include deceptive information or when the person solicited is susceptible to undue influence.
In the Seattle Longitudinal Study, K. W. Schaie (1996) used which of the following research designs to investigate the relationship between age and intelligence?
Select one:
A.
counterbalanced
B.
crossover
C.
cross-sectional
D.
cross-sequential
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the methodology and major results of the Seattle Longitudinal Study. This information is provided in the Psychological Assessment chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT To reduce problems associated with longitudinal and cross-sectional research (e.g., dropouts, cohort effects), Schaie used a cross-sequential design that combined the two strategies. The results of his research identified predictable changes (increases or decreases) in specific cognitive abilities during adulthood and indicated that the range of change for each ability is fairly narrow until age 60 or later.
The correct answer is: cross-sequential
According to Gyorgy Gergely (1994), visual feature representation is a necessary precondition for:
Select one:
A.
gender identity development.
B.
mirror self-recognition.
C.
attachment.
D.
social referencing.
Mirror self-recognition in children, dolphins, and elephants has generated a considerable amount of research in the last decade.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT According to G. Gergely, the ability to recognize oneself in the mirror (which occurs between 1-1/2 and 2 years in humans) requires a certain level of cognitive development. One cognitive prerequisite is the construction of “a visual feature representation of the typical physical appearance of the not-directly-visible parts of … [the] body” (p. 55). [From self-recognition to theory of mind~ in S. T. Parker et al., (Eds.), Self-awareness in animals and humans, Boston, Cambridge University Press, 1994.]
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: mirror self-recognition.
When a person’s hypertension is not adequately alleviated through lifestyle changes, a hypertension drug may be prescribed. These drugs include all of the following except:
Select one:
A.
NSAIDs.
B.
beta blockers.
C.
ACE inhibitors.
D.
calcium channel blockers.
The choice of a hypertension drug for an individual depends on his/her medical history. However, the first drug is usually a diuretic and, if that does not reduce blood pressure to an acceptable level, a beta blocker, ACE inhibitor, or calcium channel blocker may be prescribed. Note that this question is asking for the drug that is NOT prescribed for hypertension.
a. CORRECT NSAIDs (non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs) increase blood pressure and interfere with the effects of antihypertensive medication. Therefore, they should usually be avoided by people with high blood pressure.
b. Incorrect Beta blockers decrease blood pressure through their action on the sympathetic nervous system.
c. Incorrect Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors decrease blood pressure by dilating blood vessels.
d. Incorrect Calcium channel blockers alter blood pressure by slowing the movement of calcium in the cells of the heart and blood vessel walls.
The correct answer is: NSAIDs.
In children, Generalized Anxiety Disorder:
Select one:
A.
usually first develops after a recent loss such as parental divorce or death of a family member.
B.
is usually manifested as autonomic hyperarousal and other prominent physical symptoms.
C.
is often manifested as excessive concern about performance or competence at school.
D.
typically involves crying, tantrums, freezing, and clinging to family members, especially among those under 7 years of age.
The symptoms of Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) are somewhat age-related.
a. Incorrect This is not characteristic of GAD.
b. Incorrect Autonomic hyperarousal is actually somewhat less in GAD than in other Anxiety Disorders.
c. CORRECT Children with GAD often worry excessively about their competence or the quality of their performance and this worry is frequently related to schoolwork and performance in sports activities.
d. Incorrect This is characteristic of children with Social Phobia.
The correct answer is: is often manifested as excessive concern about performance or competence at school.
(phenylketonuria) is an inherited disorder that can cause Intellectual Disability:
Select one:
A.
only in individuals who are homozygous for the condition.
B.
only in individuals who are heterozygous for the condition.
C.
in individuals who are either homozygous or heterozygous for the condition.
D.
in an individual who has at least one parent who is homozygous for the condition.
PKU is an autosomal recessive condition, which means that an individual must have two recessive genes (i.e., be homozygous) to have the disorder.
a. CORRECT PKU is carried on a recessive gene. Consequently, to have the disorder, an individual must have inherited one recessive gene from each parent.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: only in individuals who are homozygous for the condition.
Dr. X has been asked to administer a psychological test to an individual who requires special accommodations because of a physical disability. The test was not developed or normed for individuals with this disability. The APA’s Guidelines for Test User Qualifications recommend that, in this situation, psychologists:
Select one:
A.
refuse to administer the test.
B.
refuse to administer the test unless there are no alternative methods of assessment.
C.
exercise “special care” when administering and scoring the test and interpreting its results.
D.
obtain legal advice on relevant legal requirements regarding the administration and use of the test.
The APA’s position on this issue is summarized by S. M. Turner, S. T. DeMers, H. R. Fox, and G. M. Reed in APA’s Guidelines for Test User Qualifications: An executive summary (American Psychologist, 56, 1099-1113, 2001).
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT In their summary, Turner et al. note that there may be legal requirements that apply to the administration and use of tests when an individual requires special accommodations. To ensure that these requirements are met, psychologists should consider them and, when appropriate, “obtain legal advice on legal and regulatory requirements regarding appropriate administration of tests and use of test data when assessing individuals with disabilities” (p. 1103). Note that Standard 10.2 of the Standards for Educational and Psychological Testing also addresses this issue and requires test users who do not have adequate knowledge or experience in modifying tests for individuals with disabilities to seek guidance from a consultant or supervisor who has expertise.
The correct answer is: obtain legal advice on relevant legal requirements regarding the administration and use of the test.
Ebbinghaus was one of the first investigators to systematically study memory. In his studies, Ebbinghaus used himself as a subject and memorized lists of nonsense syllables. Results of his research indicated that:
Select one:
A.
syllables in the middle of a list are better remembered than those at the beginning and end of the list.
B.
when memorizing syllables, new learning tends to interfere with previous learning.
C.
overlearning improves memory for syllables up to a point but thereafter has no effect.
D.
rote learning of syllables tends to lead to rapid forgetting.
Ebbinghaus was interested in assessing the effects of time on memory and, based on the results of his studies, constructed a “curve of forgetting,” which shows that 50% of memorized syllables are forgotten within less than one hour.
a. Incorrect This is the opposite of what is true. In addition, this was not a phenomenon discussed by Ebbinghaus.
b. Incorrect This phenomenon is referred to as retroactive inhibition but was not discussed by Ebbinghaus.
c. Incorrect This is not true; the greater the overlearning, the greater the retention.
d. CORRECT Ebbinghaus memorized syllables using rote learning (verbatim learning through repetition) and found that rote learning of nonsense syllables leads to rapid forgetting.
The correct answer is: rote learning of syllables tends to lead to rapid forgetting.
A drive for order that involves the testing of patterns and structures against the real world is referred to as:
Select one:
A.
elaboration.
B.
deduction.
C.
equilibration.
D.
accommodation.
This is a difficult question because while it may ask about a familiar concept it uses language that is unfamiliar. Using the “process of elimination” may have helped you choose the correct answer.
a. Incorrect Elaboration refers to the process of increasing the number of associations between items of information which enhances the meaningfulness of the information and is associated with improvements in retention and retrieval.
b. Incorrect Deduction refers to reasoning from the general to the specific.
c. CORRECT As defined by Piaget equilibration involves a combination of assimilation and accommodation and is motivated by a drive for balance or order.
d. Incorrect Accommodation is only one aspect of equilibration.
The correct answer is: equilibration.
Yerkes and Dodson’s (1908) “inverted-U” hypotheses predicts that:
Select one:
A.
moderate levels of group cohesiveness are associated with the highest levels of performance.
B.
moderate levels of arousal are associated with the highest levels of performance.
C.
performance is a function of task complexity, level of arousal, and learned habits.
D.
performance is the result of an interaction between motivation, ability, and task difficulty.
The inverted-U theory hypothesis is also known as the Yerkes-Dodson Law and has been applied to a number of activities including academic learning and sports performance. The Yerkes-Dodson 1908 study is a classic in the field and is likely to be asked about on the exam.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT The inverted-U hypothesis predicts that, for every activity, there is an optimum level of arousal and that arousal above or below that level has a negative impact on performance. Of the answers given, this one best describes this hypothesis.
c. Incorrect This answer describes an assumption underlying Hull’s (1943) drive theory.
d. Incorrect This answer does not accurately describe the inverted-U hypothesis.
The correct answer is: moderate levels of arousal are associated with the highest levels of performance.
When using flooding (in vivo exposure) to treat a client’s Specific Phobia, which of the following instruments would be most useful for monitoring the client’s progress in treatment and determining when to terminate treatment?
Select one:
A.
SUDS
B.
SCID
C.
MMSE
D.
BDI
Flooding involves exposing the client to high anxiety-arousing situations. When using this technique, the client’s anxiety level is regularly monitored to determine the progress of the exposure during a single session and over multiple sessions. Only one of the instruments listed in the answers is useful for this purpose.
a. CORRECT When using SUDS (Subjective Units of Distress Scale), the client rates his/her level of anxiety on a scale ranging from 1 to 100 (or, alternatively, from 1 to 10) at regular intervals during exposure. In general, a single exposure session should be continued until a 50% reduction in anxiety level occurs. See, e.g., J. Rosqvist, Exposure treatments for anxiety disorders, Boca Raton, FL, CRC Press, 2005. Note that being familiar with SUDS would have helped you identify this as the correct answer even if you’re unfamiliar with its use in conjunction with flooding.
b. Incorrect The SCID (Structured Clinical Interview for DSM) is a semi-structured diagnostic interview that is useful for deriving a client’s diagnosis.
c. Incorrect The MMSE (Mini Mental State Exam) is a screening test for cognitive impairment in older adults.
d. Incorrect The BDI (Beck Depression Inventory) is useful for assessing and monitoring severity of depressive symptoms.
The correct answer is: SUDS
Which of the following is considered a cornerstone of Bandura’s social-cognitive theory?
Select one:
A.
cognitive load
B.
equilibration
C.
scaffolding
D.
vicarious learning
Knowing that Bandura’s theory is also known as social learning theory and observational learning theory would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
a. Incorrect Cognitive load is a key concept in cognitive theories that address the amount of information that can be held in short-term memory before information is lost.
b. Incorrect Equilibration is a central concept in Piaget’s constructivism and refers to the drive to achieve an optimal state of balance between one’s cognitive structures and the demands of the environment.
c. Incorrect Scaffolding is associated with Vygotsky’s sociocultural theory and refers to the assistance given to a learner by a parent, teacher, or other person within the learner’s zone of proximal development.
d. CORRECT Bandura proposed that human behavior is influenced by vicarious learning - i.e., by watching another person engage in that behavior.
The correct answer is: vicarious learning
What is a unique challenge that comes from using Evidence-Based Therapies in public mental health services settings?
Select one:
A.
No universal guidelines provided by the government.
B.
No standardized supervision or training literature.
C.
No procedures for selecting supervisors or trainers.
D.
No testing applications to verify licensing authenticity.
The correct answer is B. A significant portion of the training and supervision literature within the field of clinical psychology does not often address the unique challenges that arise in training in the public mental health service settings. A comprehensive model for providing training in EBTs that can apprise local and larger scale implementation and facilitate training partnerships with publicly funded or community-based agencies and practitioners of EBTs has been demonstrated to be most effective. Answers A, C and D are incorrect as government guidelines, lack of procedures and lack of testing applications are not related to any unique challenges with employing evidence-based therapies in public mental health based settings.
The correct answer is: No standardized supervision or training literature.
During the alarm stage of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS), the release of _______ results in an increase in heart rate, blood pressure, and respiration rate.
Select one:
A.
thyroxine
B.
melatonin
C.
epinephrine
D.
insulin
During the initial alarm stage of the GAS, the hypothalamus activates the adrenal medulla to increase its release of epinephrine.
a. Incorrect Thyroxine is secreted by the thyroid gland and controls the rate of metabolism and plays a role in protein synthesis.
b. Incorrect Melatonin is secreted by the pineal gland and plays a role in the sleep-wake cycle.
c. CORRECT Epinephrine (which is also referred to as adrenaline) is a hormone and neurotransmitter. It is released by the adrenal medulla during the alarm stage of the GAS and is responsible for the body’s “fight-or-flight” response.
d. Incorrect Insulin is secreted by the pancreas and is responsible for the uptake and use of glucose.
The correct answer is: epinephrine
During the second therapy session with a client, she admits that she has beaten her 7-year-old son on two occasions. She is very remorseful, promises never to do it again, and says she will continue coming to therapy to get the help she needs. You should:
Select one:
A.
continue seeing the woman in therapy and contact the authorities only if you believe she is capable of hitting her son again.
B.
continue seeing the woman and make a report to the authorities only if she stops coming to therapy.
C.
explain that you are obligated to make a report and call the authorities while she is in your office.
D.
say nothing to the client about making a report but call the authorities as soon as possible after the therapy session ends.
In this situation, you would be legally required to make a report to the appropriate authorities.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT The experts generally agree that it is often preferable to involve the client in the reporting process (e.g., to make the report when the client is present). Consequently, this is the best answer of those given.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: explain that you are obligated to make a report and call the authorities while she is in your office.
From the perspective of operant conditioning, which of the following techniques is most useful for combining component responses into a particular sequence?
Select one:
A.
stimulus generalization
B.
response priming
C.
shaping
D.
chaining
Translating this question into a less awkward statement might have made it easier to answer; e.g., “Which operant technique is used to put together individual responses in a particular sequence?”
a. Incorrect In classical conditioning, stimulus generalization occurs when an organism responds with the target response to stimuli similar to the conditioned stimulus.
b. Incorrect Response priming refers to any procedure used to initiate the early steps in a sequence of responses. Although response priming can be used to initiate a behavioral chain, this is not the best answer of those given.
c. Incorrect People often confuse shaping and chaining. However, in shaping, the goal is the end behavior; in chaining, the whole string (chain) of behaviors is important.
d. CORRECT Chaining is used to combine a sequence of responses in order to end up with a “behavior chain.” Chaining is considered by advocates of operant conditioning as the mechanism underlying the acquisition of at least some complex behaviors.
The correct answer is: chaining
Creating an acronym involves:
Select one:
A.
forming a word or pronounceable sequence of letters from the first letter of the words included in a list of words.
B.
creating a sentence or rhyme using the first letter of the words included in a list of words.
C.
creating an image that combines the images of two or more words.
D.
chunking items together to make a smaller number of items.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with acronyms and other mnemonic devices that are described in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.
a. CORRECT This is the method used to form an acronym. For example, students sometimes use the acronym “PEMDAS” to remember the order of operations in mathematics - i.e., parentheses, exponents, multiplication, division, addition, and subtraction.
b. Incorrect This is the procedure for creating an acrostic. “Please excuse my dear Aunt Sally” is an acrostic for the order of operations in mathematics.
c. Incorrect This describes the keyword method.
d. Incorrect Chunking is useful for maintaining information in short-term memory.
The correct answer is: forming a word or pronounceable sequence of letters from the first letter of the words included in a list of words.
The kappa statistic is used as a measure of reliability when data are:
Select one:
A.
nominal or ordinal (discontinuous).
B.
interval or ratio (continuous).
C.
nonlinear.
D.
metric.
The kappa statistic is used to evaluate inter-rater reliability.
a. CORRECT The kappa statistic is used to measure the consistency of ratings assigned by two raters when data are nominal or ordinal. (Note that some authors use the term “discontinuous” to refer to nominal and other discrete data - i.e., data that represents noncontinuous categories.)
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above. (Note that the term “metric” is sometimes used to refer to interval and ratio data.)
The correct answer is: nominal or ordinal (discontinuous).
Which of the following best describes the relationship between REM sleep and dreaming?
Select one:
A.
All dreaming occurs during REM sleep.
B.
Most dreaming occurs during REM sleep and dreams during non-REM sleep are less vivid and elaborate and more realistic.
C.
Most dreaming occurs during REM sleep but dreams during non-REM sleep are more vivid, elaborate, and bizarre in nature.
D.
Most dreaming occurs during REM sleep and dreams during non-REM sleep occur only when the individual has been sleep-deprived.
Studies on sleep and dreaming have consistently confirmed that most dreams occur during REM (rapid eye movement) sleep.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Although some dreaming occurs during non-REM (Stages 1 through 4) sleep, these dreams consist of fleeting images and are less vivid, detailed, and storylike than the dreams that occur during REM sleep.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: Most dreaming occurs during REM sleep and dreams during non-REM sleep are less vivid and elaborate and more realistic.
Compared to decentralized communication networks, centralized networks:
Select one:
A.
are associated with fewer errors and greater productivity when the task is simple.
B.
are associated with fewer errors and greater productivity when the task is complex.
C.
are associated with fewer errors and greater productivity regardless of whether the task is simple or complex.
D.
are associated with more errors and poorer productivity regardless of whether the task is simple or complex.
Communication networks are often described as centralized or decentralized. The most effective network depends on several factors, including the characteristics of the task.<p>a. CORRECT As its name implies, a centralized network requires all communication to pass through a central person. It is most effective for simple tasks but is less efficient when the task is complex.</p><p>b. Incorrect A decentralized network is more efficient when the task is complex.</p><p>c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.</p><p>d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: are associated with fewer errors and greater productivity when the task is simple.</p>
Research conducted by Mamie and Kenneth Clark in the 1940s led to their conclusion that:
Select one:
A.
for young Black children, recognition of their race is linked to low self-esteem.
B.
distrust of Whites by adolescent and adult Blacks is a healthy, adaptive response to racism.
C.
young Black children do not begin to form a racial identity until they enter school.
D.
when compared to White children, Black children exhibit accelerated motor development during the first three years of life.
Sociologists Kenneth and Mamie Clark studied the identity and self-esteem of African American children in the 1930s and 1940s.
a. CORRECT The results of the Clarks’ research helped the NAACP win the Brown v. Board of Education case, which led to the banning of school segregation.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: for young Black children, recognition of their race is linked to low self-esteem.
A solution-focused therapist is working with a family whose conversations frequently escalate to intense arguments. The therapist will most likely:
Select one:
A.
reduce tension during therapy sessions by having family members talk directly to her rather than to each other.
B.
appoint one family member to act as “referee” whenever the family fights at home.
C.
ask the family members if they can remember a time when they were able to talk to each other for an extended period without arguing.
D.
instruct the family members to argue with each other for at least one hour each evening.
Not surprisingly, solution-focused therapists focus on solutions.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Solution-focused therapists use “exceptions” as one way of identifying possible solutions to the family’s problem.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: ask the family members if they can remember a time when they were able to talk to each other for an extended period without arguing.
“Consensual observer drift” tends to __________ the size of the inter-rater reliability coefficient.
Select one:
A.
artificially deflate
B.
artificially inflate
C.
accurately deflate
D.
accurately inflate
Consensual observer drift occurs when two or more raters work together and influence each other’s ratings. Consensual observer drift tends to make the raters’ ratings more similar, which artificially inflates the inter-rater reliability coefficient.
The correct answer is: artificially inflate
Malnutrition during fetal development is likely to have which effect on the brain?
Select one:
A.
scarring due to the death of brain cells
B.
synaptic enlargement
C.
malformation of the brain cells
D.
a reduced number of brain cells
Most of the research on the effects of malnutrition on the developing brain have been conducted on animals. Studies with humans have, however, suggested that the effects are very similar.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT The most consistent finding of the research is that malnutrition during fetal development results in a reduced number of brain cells. There is also some evidence that there are problems in myelination.
The correct answer is: a reduced number of brain cells
Which of the following is one of the initial symptoms of renal failure?
Select one:
A.
a change in the amount and frequency of urination
B.
a salty or sour taste in the mouth
C.
feeling hot even in a cool room
D.
increased appetite with weight loss
Renal failure is also known as kidney failure and occurs when the kidneys are no longer able to remove waste from the body and maintain a normal level of electrolytes in the bloodstream.
a. CORRECT The symptoms of renal failure depend on its severity, rate of progression, and cause. However, in many cases, the initial symptoms are a change in the amount and frequency of urination and discomfort or pain when urinating. The change can involve an increase in urination (polyuria) with urine being paler than usual or a decrease in urination (oliguria) with urine being darker than usual.
b. Incorrect A metallic taste (not a salty or sour taste) in the mouth is one of the symptoms of renal failure.
c. Incorrect Feeling cold (even in a hot room) is one of the symptoms of renal failure.
d. Incorrect People with renal failure may experience a decrease (not an increase) in appetite.
The correct answer is: a change in the amount and frequency of urination
Gray and McNaughton’s (2000) revised version of reinforcement sensitivity theory proposes that there are three systems of neural circuitry that explain differences in personality. Which of the following is not one of these systems?
Select one:
A.
fight-flight-freeze system
B.
behavioral activation system
C.
attachment-detachment system
D.
behavioral inhibition system
J. A. Gray and N. McNaughton’s (2000) revised version of reinforcement sensitivity theory (RST) distinguishes between three brain systems (FFFS, BAS, and BIS) that are responsible for individual differences in responses to punishing and rewarding events and help explain differences in personality and psychopathology (The neuropsychology of anxiety: An enquiry into the functions of the septo-hippocampal system, Oxford, Oxford University Press, 2000).
a. Incorrect The fight-flight-freeze system (FFFS) is one of the systems identified by RST. It mediates reactions to conditioned and unconditioned aversive stimuli and, in terms of personality, is associated with fear proneness and avoidance which can lead to phobic reactions and panic.
b. Incorrect According to Gray and McNaughton, the behavioral activation system (BAS) mediates reactions to conditioned and unconditioned appetitive (rewarding) stimuli. With regard to personality, the BAS is associated with optimism, impulsivity, and a reward orientation which can lead to addictive behaviors and high risk, impulsive behaviors (such as those associated with mania).
c. CORRECT An attachment-detachment system is not one of the three systems identified by RST.
d. Incorrect The behavioral inhibition system (BIS) is the third system identified by RST. It’s responsible for resolving goal conflicts, including conflicts between BAS-mediated approach behaviors and FFFS-mediated avoidance behaviors. Associated personality characteristics are worry proneness and anxious rumination which can lead to Generalized Anxiety Disorder and OCD.
The correct answer is: attachment-detachment system
Traumatic brain injury (TBI) is likely to have the most detrimental effect on which of the following WAIS-IV Indexes?
Select one:
A.
Working Memory
B.
Processing Speed
C.
Perceptual Reasoning
D.
Verbal Comprehension
Answer B is correct: The WAIS-IV is often used to assist in the diagnosis of traumatic brain injury (TBI). The Processing Speed score is most adversely affected by TBI, with the negative impact being most pronounced for individuals with moderate to severe TBI.
Answer A: Although memory is affected by TBI, the Working Memory score tends to be less adversely affected than the Processing Speed score.
Answer C: Perceptual Reasoning is less adversely affected than Processing Speed.
Answer D: Verbal Comprehension is less adversely affected than Processing Speed.
The correct answer is: Processing Speed
Recently, the United States Supreme Court ruled that those who were Gay and Lesbian could legally be married. Until then, those who were heterosexual were part of a ______________social group than those who were male or female homosexuals.
Select one:
A.
Dominant
B.
Stagnant
C.
Privileged
D.
Narrowing
The correct answer is C. Privilege is an aspect of the American power system that occurs when a right or benefit belongs to one group. Answers A, B and D are incorrect as none of these answers properly describes the previous dynamic between opposite and same-sex marriage and the legal and social laws that governed it.
The correct answer is: Privileged
According to Gerald Patterson and his colleagues, which of the following is a key contributor to Conduct Disorder?
Select one:
A.
the child’s temperament
B.
the child’s cognitive skills
C.
the strength of the parent-child attachment
D.
the parent’s childrearing skills
The approach of Gerald Patterson and his colleagues to aggressive behavior in children and adolescents is classified as a social learning approach.<p>a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.</p><p>b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.</p><p>c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.</p><p>d. <b>CORRECT</b> Patterson et al.’s “coercion hypothesis” focuses on interactions between parents and their children and identifies the parents’ childrearing skills as a key determinant of the nature of these interactions.
The correct answer is: the parent’s childrearing skills</p>
Anna, age 34, tells you that she is convinced that she is extremely overweight even though her body mass index is within normal limits. She says that she’s mostly concerned about her “fat thighs and stomach” which make her feel ugly and that she’s afraid to go out in public because she thinks people will ridicule her. If a DSM-5 diagnosis of Body Dysmorphic Disorder is the appropriate diagnosis for Anna, further questioning of Anna will confirm that:
Select one:
A.
her self-evaluations are unduly influenced by her body weight and shape.
B.
she performs repetitive behaviors or mental acts related to her concerns about her weight.
C.
she is preoccupied with having or acquiring a serious illness related to her weight.
D.
she exhibits impairments in cognitive functioning.
Answer B is correct: The performance of repetitive behaviors or mental acts related to the individual’s concerns was added to the DSM-5 as a diagnostic criterion for Body Dysmorphic Disorder.
Answer A: Self-evaluations that are unduly influenced by body weight and shape is a diagnostic criterion for Bulimia Nervosa and would not confirm a diagnosis of Body Dysmorphic Disorder.
Answer C: A preoccupation with having or acquiring a serious illness is characteristic of Illness Anxiety Disorder and would not confirm a diagnosis of Body Dysmorphic Disorder.
Answer D: The DSM-5 notes that executive dysfunction (impaired higher-order cognitive skills) is an associated symptom of Body Dysmorphic Disorder. Because it is an associated symptom rather than a diagnostic criterion, it would not be as useful as performing repetitive behaviors or mental acts for confirming a diagnosis of Body Dysmorphic Disorder.
The correct answer is: she performs repetitive behaviors or mental acts related to her concerns about her weight.
To determine the degree of association between number of hours studied and score on the EPPP for a sample of 50 licensure candidates, you would use which of the following bivariate correlation coefficients?
Select one:
A.
Spearman rho
B.
Pearson r
C.
phi coefficient
D.
point biserial coefficient
In this situation, you will correlate two continuous variables.
a. Incorrect Spearman rho is used to correlate two variables that are measured in terms of ranks.
b. CORRECT The Pearson product moment correlation coefficient (Pearson r) is the appropriate correlation coefficient when both variables are measured on a continuous scale.
c. Incorrect The phi coefficient is used to determine the correlation between two dichotomous variables.
d. Incorrect The point biserial correlation coefficient is appropriate when one variable is continuous and the other is a true dichotomy.
The correct answer is: Pearson r
Which of the following is true about the difference between Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder and Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)?
Select one:
A.
Obsessions and compulsions in Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder are less severe than those in OCD but began in early adulthood and are present in a variety of contexts.
B.
Obsessions and compulsions in Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder (but not in OCD) are experienced by the individual as ego-syntonic.
C.
The diagnosis of Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder (but not OCD) requires the presence of obsessions and compulsions prior to age 21.
D.
The diagnosis of OCD (but not Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder) requires the presence of obsessions and/or compulsions.
The name “Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder” is misleading because the disorder is NOT characterized by obsessions or compulsions.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder is characterized by a preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and control. The diagnosis does not require the presence of obsessions and/or compulsions.
The correct answer is: The diagnosis of OCD (but not Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder) requires the presence of obsessions and/or compulsions.
One prediction of goal-setting theory is that difficult goals result in greater productivity than easy or ambiguous goals. With regard to task difficulty, the studies have shown that:
Select one:
A.
the more complex the task, the stronger the link between goal difficulty and productivity.
B.
the less complex the task, the stronger the link between goal difficulty and productivity.
C.
the relationship between task complexity and productivity is curvilinear with the strongest link being between moderate goal complexity and productivity.
D.
the relationship between task complexity and productivity is curvilinear with the strongest links being between low and high goal complexity and productivity.
Even if you’re not familiar with the research, it makes sense that goal-setting theory would apply better to simple tasks than difficult tasks, since performance on the latter would also depend on other factors in addition to the acceptance of difficult goals.
a. Incorrect This is the opposite of what is true.
b. CORRECT This is the conclusion reached by the developers of goal-setting theory. See R. F. Wood, E. A. Locke, and A. J. Mento, Task complexity as a moderator of goal effects: A meta-analysis, Journal of Applied Psychology, 72, 416-425, 1987.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: the less complex the task, the stronger the link between goal difficulty and productivity.
Interpreting the defenses against anxiety that underlie a client’s current maladaptive behavior patterns would be of most interest to a practitioner of:
Select one:
A.
solution-focused therapy.
B.
object relations therapy.
C.
reality therapy.
D.
personal construct therapy.
Defenses are of interest to psychodynamic psychotherapists.
a. Incorrect Solution-focused therapy adopts a here-and-now orientation and focuses on identifying solutions to problems.
b. CORRECT As a psychodynamic therapy, object relations therapy utilizes many traditional psychodynamic strategies. It focuses on the impact of unconscious processes that impact the client’s current relationships and involves identifying and interpreting the client’s defenses and transferences.
c. Incorrect Reality therapy focuses on current issues and current problems.
d. Incorrect Personal construct therapy combines cognitive, behavioral, and humanistic concepts and focuses on the impact of the individual’s perspective on his/her experience of the world.
The correct answer is: object relations therapy.
A DSM diagnosis of Bipolar II Disorder requires the presence or history of:
Select one:
A.
at least one major depressive episode and one hypomanic episode.
B.
at least one major depressive episode and one mixed episode.
C.
two or more mixed episodes without a manic, hypomanic, or major depressive episode.
D.
two or more hypomanic episodes.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the diagnostic criteria for both Bipolar Disorders.
a. CORRECT The diagnosis of Bipolar II Disorder requires the presence or history of major depressive and hypomanic episodes.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: at least one major depressive episode and one hypomanic episode.
A 22-month old refers to all vehicles - e.g., cars, buses, and trucks - as “cars.” However, when asked to point to a picture of a bus or truck, she is able to do so. This discrepancy:
Select one:
A.
represents normal language development.
B.
suggests giftedness in the area of language development.
C.
is an early sign of autism.
D.
is an early sign of a language production disorder.
Children’s production and comprehension of language develop at different rates.
a. CORRECT Overextension (applying a word to a wider collection of objects or events than is appropriate) is a normal part of language acquisition. In addition, young children exhibit greater understanding (comprehension) of language than is suggested by their production of language.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: represents normal language development.
A university freshman would be best advised to rely primarily on which of the following when studying for his Psychology 101 final exam?
Select one:
A.
maintenance rehearsal
B.
stimulus coding
C.
imagery
D.
elaborative rehearsal
In this situation, the student will have to memorize and understand fairly complex information.
a. Incorrect Maintenance rehearsal involves simply repeating information with little or no processing and is less effective than elaborative rehearsal.
b. Incorrect Stimulus coding refers to connecting an image with a part of a word (e.g., the first syllable). It is especially good for paired-associate tasks such as foreign language learning (matching an English word to its foreign-language equivalent).
c. Incorrect Imagery is a useful technique but, for a large amount of complex material, elaboration is better.
d. CORRECT Elaborative rehearsal involves actively analyzing information and relating it to previously stored data. It is the best way to encode information into long-term memory.
The correct answer is: elaborative rehearsal
Neuropsychiatric symptoms are common sequelae of a stroke (cerebrovascular accident); and, of these symptoms, ________ is/are the most common.
Select one:
A.
anxiety
B.
delusions and hallucinations
C.
depressed mood
D.
disinhibition and euphoria
Individuals who have had a stroke are at risk for a variety of neuropsychiatric symptoms.
a. Incorrect Anxiety is fairly common but not as common as depression. Also, when anxiety occurs, it is often comorbid with depression.
b. Incorrect Delusions and hallucinations occur following a stroke but are uncommon.
c. CORRECT The experts generally agree that, of the behavioral and emotional symptoms associated with stroke, depression is most common, although estimates of the occurrence of depression vary. With regard to depressed mood, a recent study reports a prevalence rate of 61% in post-stroke patients [J. A. Bourgeois et al., Poststroke neuropsychiatric illness: An integrated approach to diagnosis and management, Current Treatment Options in Neurology, 6(5), 403-4200, 2004]. However, other studies report lower prevalence rates ranging from about 30 to 40%.
d. Incorrect Disinhibition and euphoria occur following a stroke but are uncommon.
The correct answer is: depressed mood
Research by Sue and his colleagues (1991) found that matching therapist and client in terms of race/ethnicity:
Select one:
A.
improves treatment outcomes and reduces premature termination for Asian, Hispanic, African American, and Caucasian clients.
B.
reduces premature termination for Asian, Hispanic, African American, and Caucasian clients but has no effect for members of these groups on other treatment outcomes.
C.
improves treatment outcomes and reduces premature termination for members of some groups but not for others.
D.
has no effect on treatment outcomes or premature termination for Asian, Hispanic, African American, or Caucasian clients.
Research by Sue et al. (1991) and others has produced inconsistent results with regard to the impact of therapist-client matching and treatment outcomes.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT For example, Sue et al. found that therapist-client matching in terms of race/ethnicity improved outcomes for Asian and Hispanic clients and reduced premature termination rates for Caucasian clients.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: improves treatment outcomes and reduces premature termination for members of some groups but not for others.
Major Neurocognitive Disorder due to HIV infection has been linked to abnormalities in which of the following structures of the brain?
Select one:
A.
putamen and ventral striatum
B.
suprachiasmatic nucleus
C.
superior and inferior colliculi
D.
entorhinal cortex
Knowing that Major Neurocognitive Disorder due to HIV infection includes impairments in motor functioning (e.g., tremors and clumsiness) would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question, even if you are unfamiliar with the research on this issue.
a. CORRECT Wang et al. found that Major Neurocognitive Disorder due to HIV infection is associated with decreased dopamine transporters in the putamen and ventral striatum. These structures are part of the basal ganglia, which is involved in voluntary motor activity. [G. J. Wang et al., Decreased brain dopaminergic transporters in HIV-associated dementia patients, Brain, 127(11), 2452-2458, 2004]
b. Incorrect The suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) is part of the hypothalamus and mediates the sleep-wake cycle and other circadian rhythms.
c. Incorrect The superior and inferior colliculi are components of the midbrain. The inferior colliculus plays a role in audition, while the superior colliculus is involved in vision.
d. Incorrect Neuron loss and other abnormalities in the entorhinal cortex have been linked to Alzheimer’s disease.
The correct answer is: putamen and ventral striatum
Dr. Watson is one of three organizational psychologists who have been hired by a large corporation to conduct research on the selection of top-level managers. The psychologists’ research has provided some evidence that “anal retentive” managers are the least effective managers in the company. Prior to submitting the project report, which recommends that the company screen candidates for top management positions for “anal retentiveness,” Dr. Watson approaches the Project Director, who is also an industrial psychologist, and argues that, although there is some evidence that there is a relationship between anal retentiveness and management effectiveness, the evidence is insufficient to justify eliminating potential managers on the basis of this characteristic alone. Despite Dr. Watson’s protest, the Project Director refuses to review the report and submits it to the company. Dr. Watson decides to go to the company’s management to point out the possible limitations of the report’s recommendations. Which of the following statements best describes the ethical issue in this situation?
Select one:
A.
Watson clearly acted unethically by directly contacting management and thereby compromising the Project Director’s relationship with the company.
B.
Watson acted unethically by not consulting with the Ethics Committee before taking further action against the Project Director after his refusal to review the report.
C.
Watson acted unethically by directly contacting management and the Project Director acted unethically by not reviewing the report.
D.
Watson acted ethically but the Project Director acted unethically by not reviewing the report.
Watson acted ethically and responsibly by attempting to prevent distortion of psychological findings, while the Project Director acted unethically by not reviewing the data contained in the report in light of Watson’s protest and thereby possibly providing the company with misleading information.
a. Incorrect Although direct contact with company mananagement may seem extreme, this is not the best answer of those given.
b. Incorrect Watson’s responsibility did not stop after discussing the matter with the Project Director.
c. Incorrect Although the Project Director acted unethically, Watson’s behavior was ethical.
d. CORRECT This response is most consistent with the requirements of Standards 1.04 and 1.05 of the Ethics Code (which apply to resolving ethical violations by colleagues) and Standard 5.01 (which requires psychologists to avoid making false, deceptive, or misleading statements).
The correct answer is: Watson acted ethically but the Project Director acted unethically by not reviewing the report.
If you believe that, during a full moon, people tend to act “crazier,” you will be likely to notice incidents of bizarre behavior during a full moon and ignore similar incidents when the moon is not full. This tendency is referred to as the:
Select one:
A.
confirmation bias.
B.
saliency bias.
C.
self-fulfilling prophecy bias.
D.
correspondence bias.
In this situation, you are noticing events that confirm your beliefs.
a. CORRECT This tendency is referred to as the confirmation bias.
b. Incorrect The saliency bias occurs when a vivid (salient) stimulus in a situation is viewed as the cause of behavior in that situation.
c. Incorrect The self-fulfilling prophecy effect occurs when one’s expectations alter the behaviors of the targets of those expectations.
d. Incorrect The correspondence bias is another name for the fundamental attribution bias, which is the tendency to attribute the behaviors of others to dispositional factors.
The correct answer is: confirmation bias.
When providing assessment services via video chat, what is one of the primary concerns?
Select one:
A.
Quality of therapeutic services being delivered
B.
Privacy and security as the assessment is being administered
C.
Potential technical difficulties that could arise during the assessment
D.
Client knowledge of the technology, or lack thereof, that could impact the quality of the services being provided
The correct answer is B. With assessments and evaluations being performed online, there needs to be greater security and privacy. Access can be severely limited to a select few if necessary, but also the drawback to this has been an increase to cyber infiltration threatening individuals privacy and personal records.
Answers A, C and D are incorrect as quality of service can still be maintained using long distance technology, and although technical difficulties and user understanding are potential difficulties, security and privacy are a greater concern in this new computer technological age.
The correct answer is: Privacy and security as the assessment is being administered
Dr. Rafael, a licensed psychologist, requires his Psychology 101 students to participate in two research studies conducted by graduate students or professors at the university as part of the course requirements. This requirement:
Select one:
A.
is unethical under any circumstances.
B.
is ethical only if students are aware of the requirement prior to enrolling in the class.
C.
is ethical only if students are given a choice of alternative assignments.
D.
is ethical as long as the research has been approved by the university’s Institutional Review Board.
This issue is addressed in Standard 8.04(b) of the APA’s Ethics Code.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT This answer is consistent with Standard 8.04(b), which states that, “when research participation is a course requirement or an opportunity for extra credit, the prospective participant is given the choice of equitable alternative activities.”
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: is ethical only if students are given a choice of alternative assignments.
Which of the following statements illustrates animistic thinking?
Select one:
A.
Step on a crack, break your mother’s back.
B.
My knees are shaking, so I must be scared.
C.
At night the sun takes a nap.
D.
The man on the TV is talking to me.
Animistic thinking is characteristic of the preoperational stage of cognitive development.
a. Incorrect This illustrates precausal reasoning, which is also characteristic of the preoperational stage and which underlies animism.
b. Incorrect This illustrates the James-Lange theory of emotion.
c. CORRECT Animistic thinking is the tendency to attribute life (and life-like qualities) to inanimate objects.
d. Incorrect This sounds like a delusion of reference.
The correct answer is: At night the sun takes a nap.
Pavlov produced “experimental neurosis” in experimental dogs by using which of the following procedures?
Select one:
A.
applying negative reinforcement each time the dogs ate
B.
pairing eating with an aversive tone
C.
making it impossible for the dogs to escape electrical shock
D.
requiring the dogs to make difficult discriminations
Experimental neurosis, a phenomenon described by Pavlov, is manifested by restless, aggressive, and fearful responses.
a. Incorrect Negative reinforcement increases the occurrence of the response it follows. Negative reinforcement is an operant conditioning technique and was not used by Pavlov.
b. Incorrect Pairing a response with an aversive stimulus (e.g., alcohol consumption with electric shock) is referred to as aversive counterconditioning and results in a decrease of the response.
c. Incorrect Unavoidable shock was administered to animals by Seligman in his studies on learned helplessness.
d. CORRECT Stimulus discrimination refers to an organism’s ability to discriminate between stimuli and thereby respond only to the conditioned stimulus with a conditioned response. While conducting studies on stimulus discrimination, Pavlov discovered that extremely difficult discriminations elicited behaviors characteristic of human neurosis.
The correct answer is: requiring the dogs to make difficult discriminations
A patient with Alzheimer’s dementia would be expected to perform BEST on which of the following WAIS-IV Indexes?
Select one:
A.
Perceptual Reasoning
B.
Processing Speed
C.
Working Memory
D.
Verbal Comprehension
Answer D is correct: The WAIS-IV provides scores on the four Indexes that are given as responses to this question. The Verbal Comprehension Index provides information on verbal conceptualization, knowledge, and experience. Knowing that patients with Alzheimer’s dementia do better on verbal subtests than on performance subtests would have helped you identify this as the correct response.
Answer A: Perceptual Reasoning is a measure of nonverbal reasoning.
Answer B: Processing Speed is a measure of response speed. Patients with Alzheimer’s dementia do most poorly on this Index.
Answer C: Working Memory provides information on number ability and sequence processing.
The correct answer is: Verbal Comprehension
Morphine, an opioid agonist, produces euphoria and other pleasurable feelings primarily by __________ activity in the “reward center” of the brain.
Select one:
A.
enhancing dopamine
B.
inhibiting dopamine
C.
enhancing glutamate
D.
inhibiting glutamate
Agonists are drugs that mimic or stimulate the activity of an endogenous neurotransmitter; and opioid agonists are drugs that stimulate activity at receptors stimulated by endorphins and other naturally occurring opioids.
a. CORRECT Naturally occurring opioids and certain opioid agonists such as morphine exert their effects by increasing dopamine activity at opioid receptors in the ventral tegmental area and nucleus accumbens, which have been identified as the primary components of the brain’s reward system.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: enhancing dopamine
The reduction of parasuicidal behaviors is a primary and explicit target of which of the following?
Select one:
A.
stress inoculation training
B.
self-control therapy
C.
eye movement desensitization and reprocessing
D.
dialectical behavior therapy
Parasuicide refers to deliberate burning, cutting, and other self-injurious behaviors and suicidal gestures that do not cause death or are done without the intent to cause death.
a. Incorrect As its name implies, stress inoculation training focuses on helping individuals acquire the skills they need to deal more effectively with stress. Although some of the skills addressed in stress inoculation training might be useful for reducing parasuicidal behaviors, these behaviors are not “a primary and explicit target” of treatment.
b. Incorrect Self-control therapy is a behavioral intervention that is used primarily to reverse undesirable habits (e.g., overeating, smoking) and has also been found to be an effective treatment for depression. However, parasuicidal behaviors are not a primary target of self-control therapy.
c. Incorrect EMDR was initially developed as a treatment for PTSD. Parasuicidal behaviors are not a primary target of EMDR.
d. CORRECT DBT was developed as a treatment for Borderline Personality Disorder and explicitly targets parasuicidal behaviors, a common feature of this disorder. For example, skills training is one component of DBT and includes teaching the client strategies to help regulate his/her emotions and better tolerate distress, which decreases the likelihood of parasuicidal behaviors.
The correct answer is: dialectical behavior therapy
When using the multiple hurdles approach in personnel selection, a critical decision is:
Select one:
A.
the order in which the predictors will be administered.
B.
how each predictor should be weighted.
C.
whether or not the person administering the criterion should also evaluate predictor performance.
D.
which statistical test to use to determine if results are statistically significant.
As its name implies, the multiple hurdles technique involves administering the predictors one at a time.
a. CORRECT To maximize the usefulness of the multiple hurdles technique, predictors must be administered in a logical order (e.g., from least to most difficult or least to most expensive).
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: the order in which the predictors will be administered.
A potential problem with the Premack Principle is that:
Select one:
A.
it is often difficult to identify an alternative behavior that serves the same function as the target behavior.
B.
it may not be possible to apply the reinforcer immediately following the target behavior.
C.
for some people, secondary reinforcers have little value.
D.
it is difficult to extinguish a behavior without simultaneously reinforcing an alternative one.
The Premack Principle entails reinforcing a low-frequency behavior with a high-frequency behavior or activity.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT The high-frequency behavior or activity may not be immediately available, which can reduce the effectiveness of the intervention since positive reinforcement is most effective when the reinforcer can be delivered immediately following the target behavior.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: it may not be possible to apply the reinforcer immediately following the target behavior.
Higher scores on the Gender Role Conflict Scale (GRCS) have been linked to a number of negative outcomes including lower self-esteem, more symptoms of depression, and more somatic complaints. For example, a study by Good et al. (1995) found that, for male college students, scores on which of the following subscales of the GRSC are most predictive of scores on a measure of psychological distress?
Select one:
A.
conflicts between work and family relations
B.
restrictive affectionate behavior between men
C.
success, power, and competition
D.
restrictive emotionality
This is a very difficult question because it requires you to be familiar with the results of a specific research study. Fortunately, you won’t encounter too many questions like this one on the EPPP. The GRCS was designed as a measure of men’s gender role conflict and provides scores on the four subscales listed in the answers to this question. For their sample of male undergraduates, Good et al. found that scores on the restrictive emotionality subscale were most predictive of scores on the Global Severity Index of the Symptom Checklist-90-Revised. Based on these results, the researchers conclude that men may experience psychological distress as a result of “their beliefs about the need for restrictive emotionality as part of male gender role expectations” (p. 8). [G. E. Good et al., Male gender role conflict: Psychometric issues and relations to psychological distress, Journal of Counseling Psychology, 42(1), 3-10, 1995.]
The correct answer is: restrictive emotionality
The DSM-5 diagnoses of Bipolar I and Bipolar II Disorder both require that the person has had at least one episode involving an abnormally persistent elevated, expansive, or irritable mood:
Select one:
A.
and persistently increased goal-directed activity or energy.
B.
with a lack of awareness of his/her illness and the need for treatment.
C.
that is sufficiently severe to cause a marked impairment in functioning or require hospitalization.
D.
and at least one episode involving a depressed mood or a loss of interest or pleasure in all or most activities.
Answer A is correct: The DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for Bipolar I and Bipolar II disorder include at least one episode involving an abnormally persistent elevated, expansive, or irritable mood with the presence of persistently increased goal-directed activity or energy.
Answer B: A lack of awareness of the illness and the need for treatment is an associated symptom of Bipolar I disorder but is not a diagnostic criterion for either disorder.
Answer C: For a diagnosis of Bipolar I Disorder, symptoms must be sufficiently severe to cause marked impairment in functioning or hospitalization to prevent harm to self or others or include psychotic features. For a diagnosis of Bipolar II Disorder, symptoms must not be severe enough to cause marked impairment in functioning or necessitate hospitalization.
Answer D: The diagnosis of Bipolar II Disorder requires the presence of both hypomanic and major depressive episodes, but the diagnosis of Bipolar I Disorders requires only the presence of one or more manic episodes (although it may include hypomanic and/or major depressive episodes).
The correct answer is: and persistently increased goal-directed activity or energy.
Dr. Colombu, a licensed psychologist, is working in a community mental health center. The parents of a 15-year old girl bring their daughter for counseling. The parents will, of course, be paying Dr. Colombu’s fee. As an ethical psychologist, Dr. Colombu should:
Select one:
A.
caution the girl that, since she is a minor, anything she says may be told to her parents.
B.
advise the parents that he is required to maintain confidentiality and that he will not be able to advise them of anything the girl says during therapy sessions without her consent.
C.
clearly establish with the girl and her parents prior to therapy what the policy will be with regard to sharing information with the parents.
D.
use his discretion with regard to what information to reveal to the girl’s parents and what information to keep confidential.
The therapeutic relationship would be best served if the policy regarding confidentiality is established with both the parents and the child at the onset of therapy.
a. Incorrect Although this may not violate ethical or legal guidelines, answer c describes a better course of action.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Parents have a legal right to information about their child in most situations but providing them with all information is not necessarily the best course of action from
a clinical standpoint. Therefore, this is the best course of action since it takes the welfare of the child as well as the legal rights of the parents into consideration.
d. Incorrect See explanation given above.
The correct answer is: clearly establish with the girl and her parents prior to therapy what the policy will be with regard to sharing information with the parents.
According to Fiedler’s contingency model, leadership is most effective when the leader’s style (task- or person-oriented) matches which of the following?
Select one:
A.
level of employee “maturity”
B.
organizational goals
C.
degree of situational control
D.
role expectations
Fiedler’s contingency model distinguishes between two types of leaders - high-LPC and low-LPC. High LPC leaders are person-oriented and are concerned primarily with maintaining good interpersonal relationships, while low LPC leaders are task-oriented and are most concerned about successful task performance.
Answer C is correct: Fiedler’s contingency model predicts that task-oriented (low-LPC) leaders are most effective when the situation is extreme - that is, when the leader has either low or high situational control, while person-oriented (high-LPC leaders) are most effective when situational control is moderate. As defined by Fiedler, situational control is determined by three factors: leader-member relations, task structure, and leader position power.
The correct answer is: degree of situational control
Long-term stress can result in excessive production of ___________ which, in turn, can suppress the body’s immune system.
Select one:
A.
antigens
B.
interferons
C.
corticosteroids
D.
anabolic steroids
Elevated levels of cortisol and other stress hormones lower resistance to disease by compromising the body’s immune system.
a. Incorrect Antigens are substances (e.g., bacteria, viruses) that stimulate the body’s production of antibodies.
b. Incorrect Interferons are antiviral proteins that are produced by certain cells in the body in response to exposure to a virus.
c. CORRECT Chronic stress leads to the release of corticosteroids (cortisol and corticosterone) by the adrenal cortex. Continually high levels of corticosteroids cause suppression of the immune system, apparently by interfering with the production of antibodies and T-cells.
d. Incorrect Anabolic steroids are manufactured substances that mimic male sex hormones.
The correct answer is: corticosteroids
In the 1950s, researchers at Ohio State University developed an influential theory of leadership that focused on a leader’s:
Select one:
A.
personality traits.
B.
behaviors.
C.
attitudes toward subordinates.
D.
power.
Results of the Ohio State leadership studies indicated that leaders can be described in terms of two behavioral dimensions - consideration and initiating structure.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT The Ohio State group focused on the behaviors exhibited by supervisors and other organizational leaders.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: behaviors.
The use of functional brain imaging techniques to study ADHD has linked its symptoms to lower-than-normal levels of metabolic activity in the:
Select one:
A.
prefrontal cortex and basal ganglia.
B.
prefrontal cortex and ARAS.
C.
entorhinal cortex and SCN.
D.
entorhinal cortex and thalamus.
Knowing the functions of the brain areas listed in the responses and the core symptoms of ADHD would have helped you choose the correct answer to this question even if you are unfamiliar with the brain-imaging research.
a. CORRECT The prefrontal cortex is involved in executive cognitive functions (e.g., planning, decision-making, attention), while the basal ganglia are involved in the regulation of movement and consist of several structures including the caudate nucleus and globus pallidus. Abnormalities in these structures have been linked to ADHD.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: prefrontal cortex and basal ganglia.
A drug that ____________ would be most useful for treating Bulimia Nervosa.
Select one:
A.
increases sensitivity to cortisol
B.
reduces glutamate levels
C.
decreases sensitivity to acetylcholine
D.
increases serotonin levels
Bulimia Nervosa has been linked to lower-than-normal levels of serotonin.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Bulimia has been found to be responsive to drugs that increase serotonin levels (e.g., an SSRI).
The correct answer is: increases serotonin levels
Research evaluating the impact of child sexual abuse on the adjustment of males and females has:
Select one:
A.
consistently found that negative outcomes are essentially the same for males and females in terms of both nature and severity.
B.
consistently found that negative outcomes are worse for males than for females in terms of both nature and severity.
C.
consistently found that negative outcomes are worse for females than for males in terms of both nature and severity.
D.
produced inconsistent results, with some studies showing that females have more negative outcomes and others finding that the outcomes are similar for males and females.
Like much research in psychology, studies on the outcomes of child sexual abuse have not produced consistent results.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Currently, there is no clear consensus about the outcomes of child sexual abuse for male and female victims. A number of studies have found no consistent gender differences; but, when differences are found, the outcomes are worse for females than for males.
The correct answer is: produced inconsistent results, with some studies showing that females have more negative outcomes and others finding that the outcomes are similar for males and females.
Why does the most pervasive modern form of supervision tend to be the triangular model?
Select one:
A.
Because organizational policies and professional knowledge form the foundation, while the relationship with the supervisor forms the core.
B.
Because the relationship with the supervisor and professional experience form the foundation while care of clients forms the core.
C.
Because the relationship with the clients and counseling theory form the foundation and the organizational policies form the core.
D.
Because the relationship with the organization and the supervisor literature form the foundation and personal experience form the core.
The correct answer is A. One of the common modern forms of supervision is a triangular model where the organizational policies and professional knowledge form the foundation, the supervisor relationship is at the core, and the ultimate emphasis on providing service to the clients. Answers B, C and D are incorrect as these various answer models are not models of supervision based on the triangular model.
The correct answer is: Because organizational policies and professional knowledge form the foundation, while the relationship with the supervisor forms the core.
According to Kohlberg, the moral judgments of preschool children are ordinarily based on:
Select one:
A.
the dictates of the superego.
B.
role conformity.
C.
an inner sense of right and wrong.
D.
the consequences of the act.
Kohlberg’s theory of moral development distinguishes between three stages, with each stage including two substages. The three stages are preconventional, conventional, and postconventional. Preschool children are in the preconventional stage of moral development and base their moral judgments on the consequences of actions.
a. Incorrect Kohlberg did not refer to the superego.
b. Incorrect This is more characteristic of individuals in the conventional stage.
c. Incorrect Kohlberg did not describe moral development in terms of an “inner sense.”
The correct answer is: the consequences of the act.
Research on the universality of the “Big Five” personality traits has generally found that the traits are cross-culturally valid. However, of the five traits, empirical evidence for the universality of __________ is least compelling.
Select one:
A.
openness to experience
B.
neuroticism
C.
conscientiousness
D.
extraversion
The Big Five personality traits are openness to experience, conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, and neuroticism. (A useful way for remembering the Big Five is with the acronym “OCEAN.”)
a. CORRECT The best general conclusion about the Big Five is that they are universal. However, factor analyses have not been entirely consistent, with evidence for openness to experience showing the weakest replicability in some Asian and other non-Western countries.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: openness to experience
A child with Autism Spectrum Disorder would most likely obtain a higher score than a “normal” peer on which of the following?
Select one:
A.
Embedded Figures Test
B.
Wisconsin Card Sorting Test
C.
Tower of London Test
D.
WISC-V Arithmetic subtest
A number of tests have been found useful for evaluating the abilities of individuals with Autism Spectrum Disorder.
a. CORRECT Children with autism often show superior performance on the Embedded Figures Test, which measures field dependence/independence.
b. Incorrect Children with autism tend to do poorly on the WCST.
c. Incorrect Children with autism also receive low scores on the Tower of London Test.
d. Incorrect Children with autism tend to receive a low score on the Arithmetic subtest of the WISC-V.
The correct answer is: Embedded Figures Test
Self-in-relation therapy is an approach to:
Select one:
A.
family therapy that emphasizes the multiple transferences that affect current relationships among family members.
B.
group therapy that focuses on interpersonal interpretations and misinterpretations that affect individual functioning.
C.
feminist therapy that emphasizes the role of the mother-son versus mother-daughter relationship in creating gender differences in behavior.
D.
biopsychosocial therapy that recognizes the interacting impact of biological and sociocultural factors on male and female development.
Self-in-relation therapy was developed at the Stone Center for Developmental Services and Studies at Wellesley College. See, e.g., J. V. Jordan et al., Women’s growth in connection: Writings from the Stone Center, Guilford Press, NY, 1991.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Object relations theory was an important influence on self-in-relation theory. However, self-in-relation theory extends the object relations approach by considering the impact of same versus opposite gender in caregiver-infant relationships on development, especially on development of the relational self.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: feminist therapy that emphasizes the role of the mother-son versus mother-daughter relationship in creating gender differences in behavior.
During the course of a mental status exam, a 36-year old man takes a great deal of time to answer the examiner’s questions because he often focuses on unnecessary details and makes parenthetical remarks. When he is not interrupted, the man usually does get around to answering the examiner’s question. The man’s speech illustrates which of the following?
Select one:
A.
circumstantiality
B.
loosening of associations
C.
confabulation
D.
derailment
The important thing to note in the description of the man’s speech is that he does eventually get back to the point.
a. CORRECT Circumstantiality refers to speech that is indirect and delayed in reaching the point because of unnecessary, tedious details and parenthetical remarks.
b. Incorrect Loosening of associations involves a complete lack of connectedness between utterances and the loss of the original point.
c. Incorrect Confabulation involves a fabrication of facts or events to compensate for memory loss.
d. Incorrect Derailment is another term for loosening of associations.
The correct answer is: circumstantiality
According to Hamburger et al. (1996), psychopathic personality traits interact with biological sex to produce Antisocial Personality Disorder in males and __________ Personality Disorder in females.
Select one:
A.
Histrionic
B.
Narcissistic
C.
Borderline
D.
Schizoid
The DSM Cluster B personality disorders share a number of characteristics and sometimes co-occur but differ in terms of gender ratios.
a. CORRECT Hamburger et al. proposed that Antisocial Personality Disorder (APD) and Histrionic Personality Disorder (HPD) represent gender-related manifestations of the same biological predisposition toward psychopathy. Note, however, that the research has not been entirely supportive of this hypothesis. [M. E. Hamburger, S. O. Lilienfeld, and M. Hogben, Psychopathy, gender, and gender roles: Implications for antisocial and histrionic personality disorders, Journal of Personality Disorders, 10(1), 41-55, 1996.]
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect APD and Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD) also share a number of symptoms (e.g., impulsivity, manipulativeness, and problems with relationships) and are viewed by some experts as gender-related manifestations of a similar pathology. However, this question is asking about Hamburger et al.’s hypothesis, which describes APD and HPD (not BPD) as sharing underlying psychopathic personality traits.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: Histrionic
A new selection test is apparently having an adverse impact on females. To determine if the adverse impact is being caused by “unfairness,” you would check:
Select one:
A. the criterion (performance) scores obtained by males and females.
B.
the slopes of the regression lines for males and females.
C.
to see if the language used in the test is biased.
D.
to see if the measure of job performance is biased.
As described in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials. adverse impact can be the result of several factors including differential validity and unfairness.<p>a. CORRECT As defined by the EEOC, unfairness occurs when the validity coefficients and criterion performance for two groups are similar but members of the groups perform differently on the predictor.</p><p>b. Incorrect The slopes of the regression lines would be useful for determining if adverse impact is due to differential validity.</p><p>c. Incorrect See explanation above.</p><p>d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: the criterion (performance) scores obtained by males and females.
</p>
A 42-year-old woman who has just begun taking lithium carbonate as a treatment for Bipolar Disorder will most likely experience which of the following side effects?
Select one:
A.
constipation, abdominal pain, and excessive salivation
B.
nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal pain
C.
increased appetite, carbohydrate craving, and weight gain
D.
nausea, vomiting, constipation, and salt craving
Lithium may produce a number of unpleasant gastrointestinal side effects.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain, anorexia, and dry mouth are common early gastrointestinal side effects of lithium. These symptoms usually appear within a few weeks and, if they occur late in therapy, may be a sign of lithium toxicity.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal pain
A 33-year-old man tells his therapist that, since his involvement in a serious car accident two months ago, he has been feeling sad every day; has had no appetite; feels tired all of the time and sleeps for 10 to 12 hours each night; isn’t interested in spending time with his friends and family; and feels guilty about the accident, even though it wasn’t his fault. He also says that, because he’s having trouble concentrating at work and getting to work on time, he’s afraid he’s going to be fired. Based on these symptoms, the most likely diagnosis is:
Select one:
A.
Bipolar II Disorder.
B.
Major Depressive Disorder.
C.
Adjustment Disorder.
D.
Acute Stress Disorder.
The nature, number, and duration of the man’s symptoms suggest that the best diagnosis is Major Depressive Disorder.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT The nature, number, and duration of the man’s symptoms are consistent with a diagnosis of Major Depressive Disorder: He is experiencing a depressed mood and has at least five other characteristic symptoms of this disorder; his symptoms have lasted for more than two weeks; and he is experiencing impaired occupational functioning as the result of his symptoms.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: Major Depressive Disorder.
