TEST MODE - Test 8 Flashcards

Question

In children, Generalized Anxiety Disorder: Select one: A. usually first develops after a recent loss such as parental divorce or death of a family member. B. is usually manifested as autonomic hyperarousal and other prominent physical symptoms. C. is often manifested as excessive concern about performance or competence at school. D. typically involves crying, tantrums, freezing, and clinging to family members, especially among those under 7 years of age.

Answer 1

The symptoms of Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) are somewhat age-related. a. Incorrect This is not characteristic of GAD. b. Incorrect Autonomic hyperarousal is actually somewhat less in GAD than in other Anxiety Disorders. c. CORRECT Children with GAD often worry excessively about their competence or the quality of their performance and this worry is frequently related to schoolwork and performance in sports activities. d. Incorrect This is characteristic of children with Social Phobia. The correct answer is: is often manifested as excessive concern about performance or competence at school.

Answer 2

PKU is an autosomal recessive condition, which means that an individual must have two recessive genes (i.e., be homozygous) to have the disorder. a. CORRECT PKU is carried on a recessive gene. Consequently, to have the disorder, an individual must have inherited one recessive gene from each parent. b. Incorrect See explanation above. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: only in individuals who are homozygous for the condition.

Answer 3

The APA's position on this issue is summarized by S. M. Turner, S. T. DeMers, H. R. Fox, and G. M. Reed in APA's Guidelines for Test User Qualifications: An executive summary (American Psychologist, 56, 1099-1113, 2001). a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT In their summary, Turner et al. note that there may be legal requirements that apply to the administration and use of tests when an individual requires special accommodations. To ensure that these requirements are met, psychologists should consider them and, when appropriate, "obtain legal advice on legal and regulatory requirements regarding appropriate administration of tests and use of test data when assessing individuals with disabilities" (p. 1103). Note that Standard 10.2 of the Standards for Educational and Psychological Testing also addresses this issue and requires test users who do not have adequate knowledge or experience in modifying tests for individuals with disabilities to seek guidance from a consultant or supervisor who has expertise. The correct answer is: obtain legal advice on relevant legal requirements regarding the administration and use of the test.

Answer 4

Ebbinghaus was interested in assessing the effects of time on memory and, based on the results of his studies, constructed a "curve of forgetting," which shows that 50% of memorized syllables are forgotten within less than one hour. a. Incorrect This is the opposite of what is true. In addition, this was not a phenomenon discussed by Ebbinghaus. b. Incorrect This phenomenon is referred to as retroactive inhibition but was not discussed by Ebbinghaus. c. Incorrect This is not true; the greater the overlearning, the greater the retention. d. CORRECT Ebbinghaus memorized syllables using rote learning (verbatim learning through repetition) and found that rote learning of nonsense syllables leads to rapid forgetting. The correct answer is: rote learning of syllables tends to lead to rapid forgetting.

Answer 5

This is a difficult question because while it may ask about a familiar concept it uses language that is unfamiliar. Using the "process of elimination" may have helped you choose the correct answer. a. Incorrect Elaboration refers to the process of increasing the number of associations between items of information which enhances the meaningfulness of the information and is associated with improvements in retention and retrieval. b. Incorrect Deduction refers to reasoning from the general to the specific. c. CORRECT As defined by Piaget equilibration involves a combination of assimilation and accommodation and is motivated by a drive for balance or order. d. Incorrect Accommodation is only one aspect of equilibration. The correct answer is: equilibration.

Answer 6

The inverted-U theory hypothesis is also known as the Yerkes-Dodson Law and has been applied to a number of activities including academic learning and sports performance. The Yerkes-Dodson 1908 study is a classic in the field and is likely to be asked about on the exam. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT The inverted-U hypothesis predicts that, for every activity, there is an optimum level of arousal and that arousal above or below that level has a negative impact on performance. Of the answers given, this one best describes this hypothesis. c. Incorrect This answer describes an assumption underlying Hull's (1943) drive theory. d. Incorrect This answer does not accurately describe the inverted-U hypothesis. The correct answer is: moderate levels of arousal are associated with the highest levels of performance.

Answer 7

Flooding involves exposing the client to high anxiety-arousing situations. When using this technique, the client's anxiety level is regularly monitored to determine the progress of the exposure during a single session and over multiple sessions. Only one of the instruments listed in the answers is useful for this purpose. a. CORRECT When using SUDS (Subjective Units of Distress Scale), the client rates his/her level of anxiety on a scale ranging from 1 to 100 (or, alternatively, from 1 to 10) at regular intervals during exposure. In general, a single exposure session should be continued until a 50% reduction in anxiety level occurs. See, e.g., J. Rosqvist, Exposure treatments for anxiety disorders, Boca Raton, FL, CRC Press, 2005. Note that being familiar with SUDS would have helped you identify this as the correct answer even if you're unfamiliar with its use in conjunction with flooding. b. Incorrect The SCID (Structured Clinical Interview for DSM) is a semi-structured diagnostic interview that is useful for deriving a client's diagnosis. c. Incorrect The MMSE (Mini Mental State Exam) is a screening test for cognitive impairment in older adults. d. Incorrect The BDI (Beck Depression Inventory) is useful for assessing and monitoring severity of depressive symptoms. The correct answer is: SUDS

Answer 8

Knowing that Bandura's theory is also known as social learning theory and observational learning theory would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. a. Incorrect Cognitive load is a key concept in cognitive theories that address the amount of information that can be held in short-term memory before information is lost. b. Incorrect Equilibration is a central concept in Piaget's constructivism and refers to the drive to achieve an optimal state of balance between one's cognitive structures and the demands of the environment. c. Incorrect Scaffolding is associated with Vygotsky's sociocultural theory and refers to the assistance given to a learner by a parent, teacher, or other person within the learner's zone of proximal development. d. CORRECT Bandura proposed that human behavior is influenced by vicarious learning - i.e., by watching another person engage in that behavior. The correct answer is: vicarious learning

Answer 9

The correct answer is B. A significant portion of the training and supervision literature within the field of clinical psychology does not often address the unique challenges that arise in training in the public mental health service settings. A comprehensive model for providing training in EBTs that can apprise local and larger scale implementation and facilitate training partnerships with publicly funded or community-based agencies and practitioners of EBTs has been demonstrated to be most effective. Answers A, C and D are incorrect as government guidelines, lack of procedures and lack of testing applications are not related to any unique challenges with employing evidence-based therapies in public mental health based settings. The correct answer is: No standardized supervision or training literature.

Answer 10

During the initial alarm stage of the GAS, the hypothalamus activates the adrenal medulla to increase its release of epinephrine. a. Incorrect Thyroxine is secreted by the thyroid gland and controls the rate of metabolism and plays a role in protein synthesis. b. Incorrect Melatonin is secreted by the pineal gland and plays a role in the sleep-wake cycle. c. CORRECT Epinephrine (which is also referred to as adrenaline) is a hormone and neurotransmitter. It is released by the adrenal medulla during the alarm stage of the GAS and is responsible for the body's "fight-or-flight" response. d. Incorrect Insulin is secreted by the pancreas and is responsible for the uptake and use of glucose. The correct answer is: epinephrine

Answer 11

In this situation, you would be legally required to make a report to the appropriate authorities. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT The experts generally agree that it is often preferable to involve the client in the reporting process (e.g., to make the report when the client is present). Consequently, this is the best answer of those given. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: explain that you are obligated to make a report and call the authorities while she is in your office.

Answer 12

Translating this question into a less awkward statement might have made it easier to answer; e.g., "Which operant technique is used to put together individual responses in a particular sequence?" a. Incorrect In classical conditioning, stimulus generalization occurs when an organism responds with the target response to stimuli similar to the conditioned stimulus. b. Incorrect Response priming refers to any procedure used to initiate the early steps in a sequence of responses. Although response priming can be used to initiate a behavioral chain, this is not the best answer of those given. c. Incorrect People often confuse shaping and chaining. However, in shaping, the goal is the end behavior; in chaining, the whole string (chain) of behaviors is important. d. CORRECT Chaining is used to combine a sequence of responses in order to end up with a "behavior chain." Chaining is considered by advocates of operant conditioning as the mechanism underlying the acquisition of at least some complex behaviors. The correct answer is: chaining

Answer 13

For the exam, you want to be familiar with acronyms and other mnemonic devices that are described in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials. a. CORRECT This is the method used to form an acronym. For example, students sometimes use the acronym "PEMDAS" to remember the order of operations in mathematics - i.e., parentheses, exponents, multiplication, division, addition, and subtraction. b. Incorrect This is the procedure for creating an acrostic. "Please excuse my dear Aunt Sally" is an acrostic for the order of operations in mathematics. c. Incorrect This describes the keyword method. d. Incorrect Chunking is useful for maintaining information in short-term memory. The correct answer is: forming a word or pronounceable sequence of letters from the first letter of the words included in a list of words.

Answer 14

The kappa statistic is used to evaluate inter-rater reliability. a. CORRECT The kappa statistic is used to measure the consistency of ratings assigned by two raters when data are nominal or ordinal. (Note that some authors use the term "discontinuous" to refer to nominal and other discrete data - i.e., data that represents noncontinuous categories.) b. Incorrect See explanation above. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. (Note that the term "metric" is sometimes used to refer to interval and ratio data.) The correct answer is: nominal or ordinal (discontinuous).

Answer 15

Studies on sleep and dreaming have consistently confirmed that most dreams occur during REM (rapid eye movement) sleep. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT Although some dreaming occurs during non-REM (Stages 1 through 4) sleep, these dreams consist of fleeting images and are less vivid, detailed, and storylike than the dreams that occur during REM sleep. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: Most dreaming occurs during REM sleep and dreams during non-REM sleep are less vivid and elaborate and more realistic.

Answer 16

Communication networks are often described as centralized or decentralized. The most effective network depends on several factors, including the characteristics of the task.

a. CORRECT As its name implies, a centralized network requires all communication to pass through a central person. It is most effective for simple tasks but is less efficient when the task is complex.

b. Incorrect A decentralized network is more efficient when the task is complex.

c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.

d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: are associated with fewer errors and greater productivity when the task is simple.

Answer 17

Sociologists Kenneth and Mamie Clark studied the identity and self-esteem of African American children in the 1930s and 1940s. a. CORRECT The results of the Clarks' research helped the NAACP win the Brown v. Board of Education case, which led to the banning of school segregation. b. Incorrect See explanation above. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: for young Black children, recognition of their race is linked to low self-esteem.

Answer 18

Not surprisingly, solution-focused therapists focus on solutions. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Solution-focused therapists use "exceptions" as one way of identifying possible solutions to the family's problem. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: ask the family members if they can remember a time when they were able to talk to each other for an extended period without arguing.

Answer 19

Consensual observer drift occurs when two or more raters work together and influence each other's ratings. Consensual observer drift tends to make the raters' ratings more similar, which artificially inflates the inter-rater reliability coefficient. The correct answer is: artificially inflate

Answer 20

Most of the research on the effects of malnutrition on the developing brain have been conducted on animals. Studies with humans have, however, suggested that the effects are very similar. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT The most consistent finding of the research is that malnutrition during fetal development results in a reduced number of brain cells. There is also some evidence that there are problems in myelination. The correct answer is: a reduced number of brain cells

Answer 21

Renal failure is also known as kidney failure and occurs when the kidneys are no longer able to remove waste from the body and maintain a normal level of electrolytes in the bloodstream. a. CORRECT The symptoms of renal failure depend on its severity, rate of progression, and cause. However, in many cases, the initial symptoms are a change in the amount and frequency of urination and discomfort or pain when urinating. The change can involve an increase in urination (polyuria) with urine being paler than usual or a decrease in urination (oliguria) with urine being darker than usual. b. Incorrect A metallic taste (not a salty or sour taste) in the mouth is one of the symptoms of renal failure. c. Incorrect Feeling cold (even in a hot room) is one of the symptoms of renal failure. d. Incorrect People with renal failure may experience a decrease (not an increase) in appetite. The correct answer is: a change in the amount and frequency of urination

Answer 22

J. A. Gray and N. McNaughton's (2000) revised version of reinforcement sensitivity theory (RST) distinguishes between three brain systems (FFFS, BAS, and BIS) that are responsible for individual differences in responses to punishing and rewarding events and help explain differences in personality and psychopathology (The neuropsychology of anxiety: An enquiry into the functions of the septo-hippocampal system, Oxford, Oxford University Press, 2000). a. Incorrect The fight-flight-freeze system (FFFS) is one of the systems identified by RST. It mediates reactions to conditioned and unconditioned aversive stimuli and, in terms of personality, is associated with fear proneness and avoidance which can lead to phobic reactions and panic. b. Incorrect According to Gray and McNaughton, the behavioral activation system (BAS) mediates reactions to conditioned and unconditioned appetitive (rewarding) stimuli. With regard to personality, the BAS is associated with optimism, impulsivity, and a reward orientation which can lead to addictive behaviors and high risk, impulsive behaviors (such as those associated with mania). c. CORRECT An attachment-detachment system is not one of the three systems identified by RST. d. Incorrect The behavioral inhibition system (BIS) is the third system identified by RST. It's responsible for resolving goal conflicts, including conflicts between BAS-mediated approach behaviors and FFFS-mediated avoidance behaviors. Associated personality characteristics are worry proneness and anxious rumination which can lead to Generalized Anxiety Disorder and OCD. The correct answer is: attachment-detachment system

Answer 23

Answer B is correct: The WAIS-IV is often used to assist in the diagnosis of traumatic brain injury (TBI). The Processing Speed score is most adversely affected by TBI, with the negative impact being most pronounced for individuals with moderate to severe TBI. Answer A: Although memory is affected by TBI, the Working Memory score tends to be less adversely affected than the Processing Speed score. Answer C: Perceptual Reasoning is less adversely affected than Processing Speed. Answer D: Verbal Comprehension is less adversely affected than Processing Speed. The correct answer is: Processing Speed

Answer 24

The correct answer is C. Privilege is an aspect of the American power system that occurs when a right or benefit belongs to one group. Answers A, B and D are incorrect as none of these answers properly describes the previous dynamic between opposite and same-sex marriage and the legal and social laws that governed it. The correct answer is: Privileged

Answer 25

The approach of Gerald Patterson and his colleagues to aggressive behavior in children and adolescents is classified as a social learning approach.

a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.

b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.

c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.

d. CORRECT Patterson et al.'s "coercion hypothesis" focuses on interactions between parents and their children and identifies the parents' childrearing skills as a key determinant of the nature of these interactions. The correct answer is: the parent’s childrearing skills

Answer 26

Answer B is correct: The performance of repetitive behaviors or mental acts related to the individual's concerns was added to the DSM-5 as a diagnostic criterion for Body Dysmorphic Disorder. Answer A: Self-evaluations that are unduly influenced by body weight and shape is a diagnostic criterion for Bulimia Nervosa and would not confirm a diagnosis of Body Dysmorphic Disorder. Answer C: A preoccupation with having or acquiring a serious illness is characteristic of Illness Anxiety Disorder and would not confirm a diagnosis of Body Dysmorphic Disorder. Answer D: The DSM-5 notes that executive dysfunction (impaired higher-order cognitive skills) is an associated symptom of Body Dysmorphic Disorder. Because it is an associated symptom rather than a diagnostic criterion, it would not be as useful as performing repetitive behaviors or mental acts for confirming a diagnosis of Body Dysmorphic Disorder. The correct answer is: she performs repetitive behaviors or mental acts related to her concerns about her weight.

Answer 27

In this situation, you will correlate two continuous variables. a. Incorrect Spearman rho is used to correlate two variables that are measured in terms of ranks. b. CORRECT The Pearson product moment correlation coefficient (Pearson r) is the appropriate correlation coefficient when both variables are measured on a continuous scale. c. Incorrect The phi coefficient is used to determine the correlation between two dichotomous variables. d. Incorrect The point biserial correlation coefficient is appropriate when one variable is continuous and the other is a true dichotomy. The correct answer is: Pearson r

Answer 28

The name "Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder" is misleading because the disorder is NOT characterized by obsessions or compulsions. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder is characterized by a preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and control. The diagnosis does not require the presence of obsessions and/or compulsions. The correct answer is: The diagnosis of OCD (but not Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder) requires the presence of obsessions and/or compulsions.

Answer 29

Even if you're not familiar with the research, it makes sense that goal-setting theory would apply better to simple tasks than difficult tasks, since performance on the latter would also depend on other factors in addition to the acceptance of difficult goals. a. Incorrect This is the opposite of what is true. b. CORRECT This is the conclusion reached by the developers of goal-setting theory. See R. F. Wood, E. A. Locke, and A. J. Mento, Task complexity as a moderator of goal effects: A meta-analysis, Journal of Applied Psychology, 72, 416-425, 1987. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: the less complex the task, the stronger the link between goal difficulty and productivity.

Answer 30

Defenses are of interest to psychodynamic psychotherapists. a. Incorrect Solution-focused therapy adopts a here-and-now orientation and focuses on identifying solutions to problems. b. CORRECT As a psychodynamic therapy, object relations therapy utilizes many traditional psychodynamic strategies. It focuses on the impact of unconscious processes that impact the client's current relationships and involves identifying and interpreting the client's defenses and transferences. c. Incorrect Reality therapy focuses on current issues and current problems. d. Incorrect Personal construct therapy combines cognitive, behavioral, and humanistic concepts and focuses on the impact of the individual's perspective on his/her experience of the world. The correct answer is: object relations therapy.

Answer 31

For the exam, you want to be familiar with the diagnostic criteria for both Bipolar Disorders. a. CORRECT The diagnosis of Bipolar II Disorder requires the presence or history of major depressive and hypomanic episodes. b. Incorrect See explanation above. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: at least one major depressive episode and one hypomanic episode.

Answer 32

Children's production and comprehension of language develop at different rates. a. CORRECT Overextension (applying a word to a wider collection of objects or events than is appropriate) is a normal part of language acquisition. In addition, young children exhibit greater understanding (comprehension) of language than is suggested by their production of language. b. Incorrect See explanation above. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: represents normal language development.

Answer 33

In this situation, the student will have to memorize and understand fairly complex information. a. Incorrect Maintenance rehearsal involves simply repeating information with little or no processing and is less effective than elaborative rehearsal. b. Incorrect Stimulus coding refers to connecting an image with a part of a word (e.g., the first syllable). It is especially good for paired-associate tasks such as foreign language learning (matching an English word to its foreign-language equivalent). c. Incorrect Imagery is a useful technique but, for a large amount of complex material, elaboration is better. d. CORRECT Elaborative rehearsal involves actively analyzing information and relating it to previously stored data. It is the best way to encode information into long-term memory. The correct answer is: elaborative rehearsal

Answer 34

Individuals who have had a stroke are at risk for a variety of neuropsychiatric symptoms. a. Incorrect Anxiety is fairly common but not as common as depression. Also, when anxiety occurs, it is often comorbid with depression. b. Incorrect Delusions and hallucinations occur following a stroke but are uncommon. c. CORRECT The experts generally agree that, of the behavioral and emotional symptoms associated with stroke, depression is most common, although estimates of the occurrence of depression vary. With regard to depressed mood, a recent study reports a prevalence rate of 61% in post-stroke patients [J. A. Bourgeois et al., Poststroke neuropsychiatric illness: An integrated approach to diagnosis and management, Current Treatment Options in Neurology, 6(5), 403-4200, 2004]. However, other studies report lower prevalence rates ranging from about 30 to 40%. d. Incorrect Disinhibition and euphoria occur following a stroke but are uncommon. The correct answer is: depressed mood

Answer 35

Research by Sue et al. (1991) and others has produced inconsistent results with regard to the impact of therapist-client matching and treatment outcomes. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT For example, Sue et al. found that therapist-client matching in terms of race/ethnicity improved outcomes for Asian and Hispanic clients and reduced premature termination rates for Caucasian clients. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: improves treatment outcomes and reduces premature termination for members of some groups but not for others.

Answer 36

Knowing that Major Neurocognitive Disorder due to HIV infection includes impairments in motor functioning (e.g., tremors and clumsiness) would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question, even if you are unfamiliar with the research on this issue. a. CORRECT Wang et al. found that Major Neurocognitive Disorder due to HIV infection is associated with decreased dopamine transporters in the putamen and ventral striatum. These structures are part of the basal ganglia, which is involved in voluntary motor activity. [G. J. Wang et al., Decreased brain dopaminergic transporters in HIV-associated dementia patients, Brain, 127(11), 2452-2458, 2004] b. Incorrect The suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) is part of the hypothalamus and mediates the sleep-wake cycle and other circadian rhythms. c. Incorrect The superior and inferior colliculi are components of the midbrain. The inferior colliculus plays a role in audition, while the superior colliculus is involved in vision. d. Incorrect Neuron loss and other abnormalities in the entorhinal cortex have been linked to Alzheimer's disease. The correct answer is: putamen and ventral striatum

Answer 37

Watson acted ethically and responsibly by attempting to prevent distortion of psychological findings, while the Project Director acted unethically by not reviewing the data contained in the report in light of Watson's protest and thereby possibly providing the company with misleading information. a. Incorrect Although direct contact with company mananagement may seem extreme, this is not the best answer of those given. b. Incorrect Watson's responsibility did not stop after discussing the matter with the Project Director. c. Incorrect Although the Project Director acted unethically, Watson's behavior was ethical. d. CORRECT This response is most consistent with the requirements of Standards 1.04 and 1.05 of the Ethics Code (which apply to resolving ethical violations by colleagues) and Standard 5.01 (which requires psychologists to avoid making false, deceptive, or misleading statements). The correct answer is: Watson acted ethically but the Project Director acted unethically by not reviewing the report.

Answer 38

In this situation, you are noticing events that confirm your beliefs. a. CORRECT This tendency is referred to as the confirmation bias. b. Incorrect The saliency bias occurs when a vivid (salient) stimulus in a situation is viewed as the cause of behavior in that situation. c. Incorrect The self-fulfilling prophecy effect occurs when one's expectations alter the behaviors of the targets of those expectations. d. Incorrect The correspondence bias is another name for the fundamental attribution bias, which is the tendency to attribute the behaviors of others to dispositional factors. The correct answer is: confirmation bias.

Answer 39

The correct answer is B. With assessments and evaluations being performed online, there needs to be greater security and privacy. Access can be severely limited to a select few if necessary, but also the drawback to this has been an increase to cyber infiltration threatening individuals privacy and personal records. Answers A, C and D are incorrect as quality of service can still be maintained using long distance technology, and although technical difficulties and user understanding are potential difficulties, security and privacy are a greater concern in this new computer technological age. The correct answer is: Privacy and security as the assessment is being administered

Answer 40

This issue is addressed in Standard 8.04(b) of the APA's Ethics Code. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT This answer is consistent with Standard 8.04(b), which states that, "when research participation is a course requirement or an opportunity for extra credit, the prospective participant is given the choice of equitable alternative activities." d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: is ethical only if students are given a choice of alternative assignments.

Answer 41

Animistic thinking is characteristic of the preoperational stage of cognitive development. a. Incorrect This illustrates precausal reasoning, which is also characteristic of the preoperational stage and which underlies animism. b. Incorrect This illustrates the James-Lange theory of emotion. c. CORRECT Animistic thinking is the tendency to attribute life (and life-like qualities) to inanimate objects. d. Incorrect This sounds like a delusion of reference. The correct answer is: At night the sun takes a nap.

Answer 42

Experimental neurosis, a phenomenon described by Pavlov, is manifested by restless, aggressive, and fearful responses. a. Incorrect Negative reinforcement increases the occurrence of the response it follows. Negative reinforcement is an operant conditioning technique and was not used by Pavlov. b. Incorrect Pairing a response with an aversive stimulus (e.g., alcohol consumption with electric shock) is referred to as aversive counterconditioning and results in a decrease of the response. c. Incorrect Unavoidable shock was administered to animals by Seligman in his studies on learned helplessness. d. CORRECT Stimulus discrimination refers to an organism's ability to discriminate between stimuli and thereby respond only to the conditioned stimulus with a conditioned response. While conducting studies on stimulus discrimination, Pavlov discovered that extremely difficult discriminations elicited behaviors characteristic of human neurosis. The correct answer is: requiring the dogs to make difficult discriminations

Answer 43

Answer D is correct: The WAIS-IV provides scores on the four Indexes that are given as responses to this question. The Verbal Comprehension Index provides information on verbal conceptualization, knowledge, and experience. Knowing that patients with Alzheimer's dementia do better on verbal subtests than on performance subtests would have helped you identify this as the correct response. Answer A: Perceptual Reasoning is a measure of nonverbal reasoning. Answer B: Processing Speed is a measure of response speed. Patients with Alzheimer's dementia do most poorly on this Index. Answer C: Working Memory provides information on number ability and sequence processing. The correct answer is: Verbal Comprehension

Answer 44

Agonists are drugs that mimic or stimulate the activity of an endogenous neurotransmitter; and opioid agonists are drugs that stimulate activity at receptors stimulated by endorphins and other naturally occurring opioids. a. CORRECT Naturally occurring opioids and certain opioid agonists such as morphine exert their effects by increasing dopamine activity at opioid receptors in the ventral tegmental area and nucleus accumbens, which have been identified as the primary components of the brain's reward system. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: enhancing dopamine

Answer 45

Parasuicide refers to deliberate burning, cutting, and other self-injurious behaviors and suicidal gestures that do not cause death or are done without the intent to cause death. a. Incorrect As its name implies, stress inoculation training focuses on helping individuals acquire the skills they need to deal more effectively with stress. Although some of the skills addressed in stress inoculation training might be useful for reducing parasuicidal behaviors, these behaviors are not "a primary and explicit target" of treatment. b. Incorrect Self-control therapy is a behavioral intervention that is used primarily to reverse undesirable habits (e.g., overeating, smoking) and has also been found to be an effective treatment for depression. However, parasuicidal behaviors are not a primary target of self-control therapy. c. Incorrect EMDR was initially developed as a treatment for PTSD. Parasuicidal behaviors are not a primary target of EMDR. d. CORRECT DBT was developed as a treatment for Borderline Personality Disorder and explicitly targets parasuicidal behaviors, a common feature of this disorder. For example, skills training is one component of DBT and includes teaching the client strategies to help regulate his/her emotions and better tolerate distress, which decreases the likelihood of parasuicidal behaviors. The correct answer is: dialectical behavior therapy

Answer 46

As its name implies, the multiple hurdles technique involves administering the predictors one at a time. a. CORRECT To maximize the usefulness of the multiple hurdles technique, predictors must be administered in a logical order (e.g., from least to most difficult or least to most expensive). b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: the order in which the predictors will be administered.

Answer 47

The Premack Principle entails reinforcing a low-frequency behavior with a high-frequency behavior or activity. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT The high-frequency behavior or activity may not be immediately available, which can reduce the effectiveness of the intervention since positive reinforcement is most effective when the reinforcer can be delivered immediately following the target behavior. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: it may not be possible to apply the reinforcer immediately following the target behavior.

Answer 48

This is a very difficult question because it requires you to be familiar with the results of a specific research study. Fortunately, you won't encounter too many questions like this one on the EPPP. The GRCS was designed as a measure of men's gender role conflict and provides scores on the four subscales listed in the answers to this question. For their sample of male undergraduates, Good et al. found that scores on the restrictive emotionality subscale were most predictive of scores on the Global Severity Index of the Symptom Checklist-90-Revised. Based on these results, the researchers conclude that men may experience psychological distress as a result of "their beliefs about the need for restrictive emotionality as part of male gender role expectations" (p. 8). [G. E. Good et al., Male gender role conflict: Psychometric issues and relations to psychological distress, Journal of Counseling Psychology, 42(1), 3-10, 1995.] The correct answer is: restrictive emotionality

Answer 49

Answer A is correct: The DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for Bipolar I and Bipolar II disorder include at least one episode involving an abnormally persistent elevated, expansive, or irritable mood with the presence of persistently increased goal-directed activity or energy. Answer B: A lack of awareness of the illness and the need for treatment is an associated symptom of Bipolar I disorder but is not a diagnostic criterion for either disorder. Answer C: For a diagnosis of Bipolar I Disorder, symptoms must be sufficiently severe to cause marked impairment in functioning or hospitalization to prevent harm to self or others or include psychotic features. For a diagnosis of Bipolar II Disorder, symptoms must not be severe enough to cause marked impairment in functioning or necessitate hospitalization. Answer D: The diagnosis of Bipolar II Disorder requires the presence of both hypomanic and major depressive episodes, but the diagnosis of Bipolar I Disorders requires only the presence of one or more manic episodes (although it may include hypomanic and/or major depressive episodes). The correct answer is: and persistently increased goal-directed activity or energy.

Answer 50

The therapeutic relationship would be best served if the policy regarding confidentiality is established with both the parents and the child at the onset of therapy. a. Incorrect Although this may not violate ethical or legal guidelines, answer c describes a better course of action. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Parents have a legal right to information about their child in most situations but providing them with all information is not necessarily the best course of action from a clinical standpoint. Therefore, this is the best course of action since it takes the welfare of the child as well as the legal rights of the parents into consideration. d. Incorrect See explanation given above. The correct answer is: clearly establish with the girl and her parents prior to therapy what the policy will be with regard to sharing information with the parents.

Answer 51

Fiedler's contingency model distinguishes between two types of leaders - high-LPC and low-LPC. High LPC leaders are person-oriented and are concerned primarily with maintaining good interpersonal relationships, while low LPC leaders are task-oriented and are most concerned about successful task performance. Answer C is correct: Fiedler's contingency model predicts that task-oriented (low-LPC) leaders are most effective when the situation is extreme - that is, when the leader has either low or high situational control, while person-oriented (high-LPC leaders) are most effective when situational control is moderate. As defined by Fiedler, situational control is determined by three factors: leader-member relations, task structure, and leader position power. The correct answer is: degree of situational control

Answer 52

Elevated levels of cortisol and other stress hormones lower resistance to disease by compromising the body's immune system. a. Incorrect Antigens are substances (e.g., bacteria, viruses) that stimulate the body's production of antibodies. b. Incorrect Interferons are antiviral proteins that are produced by certain cells in the body in response to exposure to a virus. c. CORRECT Chronic stress leads to the release of corticosteroids (cortisol and corticosterone) by the adrenal cortex. Continually high levels of corticosteroids cause suppression of the immune system, apparently by interfering with the production of antibodies and T-cells. d. Incorrect Anabolic steroids are manufactured substances that mimic male sex hormones. The correct answer is: corticosteroids

Answer 53

Results of the Ohio State leadership studies indicated that leaders can be described in terms of two behavioral dimensions - consideration and initiating structure. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT The Ohio State group focused on the behaviors exhibited by supervisors and other organizational leaders. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: behaviors.

Answer 54

Knowing the functions of the brain areas listed in the responses and the core symptoms of ADHD would have helped you choose the correct answer to this question even if you are unfamiliar with the brain-imaging research. a. CORRECT The prefrontal cortex is involved in executive cognitive functions (e.g., planning, decision-making, attention), while the basal ganglia are involved in the regulation of movement and consist of several structures including the caudate nucleus and globus pallidus. Abnormalities in these structures have been linked to ADHD. b. Incorrect See explanation above. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: prefrontal cortex and basal ganglia.

Answer 55

Bulimia Nervosa has been linked to lower-than-normal levels of serotonin. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Bulimia has been found to be responsive to drugs that increase serotonin levels (e.g., an SSRI). The correct answer is: increases serotonin levels

Answer 56

Like much research in psychology, studies on the outcomes of child sexual abuse have not produced consistent results. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Currently, there is no clear consensus about the outcomes of child sexual abuse for male and female victims. A number of studies have found no consistent gender differences; but, when differences are found, the outcomes are worse for females than for males. The correct answer is: produced inconsistent results, with some studies showing that females have more negative outcomes and others finding that the outcomes are similar for males and females.

Answer 57

The correct answer is A. One of the common modern forms of supervision is a triangular model where the organizational policies and professional knowledge form the foundation, the supervisor relationship is at the core, and the ultimate emphasis on providing service to the clients. Answers B, C and D are incorrect as these various answer models are not models of supervision based on the triangular model. The correct answer is: Because organizational policies and professional knowledge form the foundation, while the relationship with the supervisor forms the core.

Answer 58

Kohlberg's theory of moral development distinguishes between three stages, with each stage including two substages. The three stages are preconventional, conventional, and postconventional. Preschool children are in the preconventional stage of moral development and base their moral judgments on the consequences of actions. a. Incorrect Kohlberg did not refer to the superego. b. Incorrect This is more characteristic of individuals in the conventional stage. c. Incorrect Kohlberg did not describe moral development in terms of an "inner sense." The correct answer is: the consequences of the act.

Answer 59

The Big Five personality traits are openness to experience, conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, and neuroticism. (A useful way for remembering the Big Five is with the acronym "OCEAN.") a. CORRECT The best general conclusion about the Big Five is that they are universal. However, factor analyses have not been entirely consistent, with evidence for openness to experience showing the weakest replicability in some Asian and other non-Western countries. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: openness to experience

Answer 60

A number of tests have been found useful for evaluating the abilities of individuals with Autism Spectrum Disorder. a. CORRECT Children with autism often show superior performance on the Embedded Figures Test, which measures field dependence/independence. b. Incorrect Children with autism tend to do poorly on the WCST. c. Incorrect Children with autism also receive low scores on the Tower of London Test. d. Incorrect Children with autism tend to receive a low score on the Arithmetic subtest of the WISC-V. The correct answer is: Embedded Figures Test

Answer 61

Self-in-relation therapy was developed at the Stone Center for Developmental Services and Studies at Wellesley College. See, e.g., J. V. Jordan et al., Women's growth in connection: Writings from the Stone Center, Guilford Press, NY, 1991. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Object relations theory was an important influence on self-in-relation theory. However, self-in-relation theory extends the object relations approach by considering the impact of same versus opposite gender in caregiver-infant relationships on development, especially on development of the relational self. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: feminist therapy that emphasizes the role of the mother-son versus mother-daughter relationship in creating gender differences in behavior.

Answer 62

The important thing to note in the description of the man's speech is that he does eventually get back to the point. a. CORRECT Circumstantiality refers to speech that is indirect and delayed in reaching the point because of unnecessary, tedious details and parenthetical remarks. b. Incorrect Loosening of associations involves a complete lack of connectedness between utterances and the loss of the original point. c. Incorrect Confabulation involves a fabrication of facts or events to compensate for memory loss. d. Incorrect Derailment is another term for loosening of associations. The correct answer is: circumstantiality

Answer 63

The DSM Cluster B personality disorders share a number of characteristics and sometimes co-occur but differ in terms of gender ratios. a. CORRECT Hamburger et al. proposed that Antisocial Personality Disorder (APD) and Histrionic Personality Disorder (HPD) represent gender-related manifestations of the same biological predisposition toward psychopathy. Note, however, that the research has not been entirely supportive of this hypothesis. [M. E. Hamburger, S. O. Lilienfeld, and M. Hogben, Psychopathy, gender, and gender roles: Implications for antisocial and histrionic personality disorders, Journal of Personality Disorders, 10(1), 41-55, 1996.] b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect APD and Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD) also share a number of symptoms (e.g., impulsivity, manipulativeness, and problems with relationships) and are viewed by some experts as gender-related manifestations of a similar pathology. However, this question is asking about Hamburger et al.'s hypothesis, which describes APD and HPD (not BPD) as sharing underlying psychopathic personality traits. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: Histrionic

Answer 64

As described in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials. adverse impact can be the result of several factors including differential validity and unfairness.

a. CORRECT As defined by the EEOC, unfairness occurs when the validity coefficients and criterion performance for two groups are similar but members of the groups perform differently on the predictor.

b. Incorrect The slopes of the regression lines would be useful for determining if adverse impact is due to differential validity.

c. Incorrect See explanation above.

d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: the criterion (performance) scores obtained by males and females.

Answer 65

Lithium may produce a number of unpleasant gastrointestinal side effects. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain, anorexia, and dry mouth are common early gastrointestinal side effects of lithium. These symptoms usually appear within a few weeks and, if they occur late in therapy, may be a sign of lithium toxicity. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal pain

Answer 66

The nature, number, and duration of the man's symptoms suggest that the best diagnosis is Major Depressive Disorder. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT The nature, number, and duration of the man's symptoms are consistent with a diagnosis of Major Depressive Disorder: He is experiencing a depressed mood and has at least five other characteristic symptoms of this disorder; his symptoms have lasted for more than two weeks; and he is experiencing impaired occupational functioning as the result of his symptoms. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: Major Depressive Disorder.

Answer 67

Friendships with former clients are covered by the multiple relationship clause in the Ethics Code. In most situations, a psychologist would want to avoid friendships with former clients. a. Incorrect See explanation for responses b and d. b. Incorrect The two-year limit applies to sexual relationships, which this question is not addressing. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Most experts agree that friendships with former clients should be avoided since this sets up an unequal situation and precludes the possibility that the former client can return for therapy in the future. The correct answer is: do not meet the client for lunch and explain why a friendship would not be in the client's best interests.

Answer 68

Three types of prevention are distinguished in the literature - primary, secondary, and tertiary. a. Incorrect Primary preventions are aimed at reducing the development and incidence of mental disorders. b. Incorrect Secondary preventions target individuals who have just begun to exhibit symptoms of a disorder in order to prevent the disorder from becoming more serious. c. CORRECT Tertiary preventions are aimed at individuals who have already developed a disorder. Their goal is to reduce the risk for chronicity and relapse and any other problems related to the disorder. d. Incorrect This is a "made up" term. The correct answer is: tertiary prevention.

Answer 69

Group cohesiveness has been linked to a number of benefits and liabilities. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT Group cohesiveness has been consistently linked to reduced absenteeism and turnover and higher levels of satisfaction and commitment by the research, but its association with productivity is moderated by a number of factors (e.g., the group's norms regarding productivity). c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: greater satisfaction, reduced turnover and, in some situations, greater productivity.

Answer 70

The symptoms listed in the four answers to this question are characteristic of four types of aphasia that you want to be familiar with for the licensing exam. a. Incorrect These symptoms are characteristic of Broca's aphasia. b. CORRECT As its name suggests, global aphasia is caused by widespread brain injury and is characterized by extensive disruption in the ability to produce and understand language. Impaired comprehension, impaired speech, anomia (inability to name a common or familiar object, attribute, or action), and paraphasia (substitution of a word with a sound or incorrect word) are symptoms of this type of aphasia. c. Incorrect These symptoms are characteristic of Wernicke's aphasia. d. Incorrect These symptoms are characteristic of conduction aphasia. The correct answer is: impaired comprehension, nonfluent speech, and deficits in naming and repetition.

Answer 71

Knowing that the symptoms of Borderline Personality Disorder tend to dissipate with increasing age would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. a. CORRECT The rates of BPD are highest during the young adult years. Although individuals with this disorder often continue to exhibit some symptoms throughout their life, by age 40, many no longer meet the diagnostic criteria for BPD. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: 19 through 34.

Answer 72

Although some authors use the terms "critical period" and "sensitive period" interchangeably, they actually mean two different things. a. Incorrect A critical period refers to a time when, if certain developmental events don't happen, later aspects of development will not occur. A sensitive period refers to an optimal period rather than a necessary period. The situation described in this question suggests there is a sensitive period for dual language learning. The correct answer is: the concept of sensitive periods

Answer 73

For the exam, you want to be familiar with the definitions of the terms listed in the answers to this question. a. Incorrect Satiation occurs when a reinforcer loses its reinforcing value because the individual has received too much reinforcement. b. CORRECT The question describes habituation which, in the context of punishment, occurs when the punisher loses its effectiveness. Gradually increasing the intensity of a punishment over time is usually ineffective because it leads to habituation. c. Incorrect In the context of punishment, sensitization occurs when an individual's response to a neutral (innocuous) stimulus increases after the individual has been exposed to a punishing (aversive) stimulus. d. Incorrect In operant conditioning, extinction occurs when a previously reinforced response is no longer reinforced and, as a result, the response decreases or no longer occurs. The correct answer is: habituation.

Answer 74

For the exam, you want to be familiar with Howard et al.'s (1986) phase model and dose dependent effect, which are both described in the Clinical Psychology chapter of the AATBS written study materials. a. Incorrect These are the three stages in Lewin's force field model of organizational change. b. CORRECT As described by Howard et al., remoralization is an improvement in the subjective sense of well-being, remediation is a reduction in symptoms, and rehabilitation involves improvements in overall functioning. c. Incorrect These are not the phases identified by Howard and colleagues. d. Incorrect These are three of the six phases of the transtheoretical model of change. The correct answer is: remoralization, remediation, and rehabilitation.

Answer 75

An emic approach is characterized by an awareness that each culture possesses unique characteristics. a. CORRECT An emic approach recognizes cultural differences and the impact of those differences on behaviors, attitudes, etc. b. Incorrect An etic approach applies universal principles that are derived from one culture to all cultures. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: an emic approach.

Answer 76

Bandura's (1982, 1986) theory of self-efficacy proposes that people undertake activities they believe they are capable of performing. a. CORRECT These are the four sources of self-efficacy that Bandura has identified. For additional information on Bandura's theory, see the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials. b. Incorrect See explanation above. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: prior accomplishments, observations of others, verbal persuasion, and emotional and physiological states.

Answer 77

The debriefing of research subjects is addressed in Standards 8.07 and 8.08 of the APA's Ethics Code and Principles II and III of the Canadian Code of Ethics. a. Incorrect See explanation for answer c. b. Incorrect See explanation for answer c. c. CORRECT This answer is most consistent with the requirements of the American and Canadian codes: Standard 8.08(c) of the APA's Ethics Code states that, "when psychologists become aware [during the debriefing] that research procedures have harmed a participant, they take reasonable steps to minimize the harm." And Principle II.44 of the Canadian Code of Ethics states that psychologists must "debrief research subjects in such a way that any harm caused can be discerned, and act to correct any resultant harm." d. Incorrect Neither code states that debriefing must be provided to subjects immediately following their participation. The Canadian Code of Ethics does not address the timing of debriefing, and Standard 8.07(c) of the APA's Ethics Code requires psychologists to debrief subjects "as early as is feasible" when the study involved deception, which may be at the conclusion of their participation or at the end of data collection. In addition, Standard 8.08(b) allows psychologists to delay or withhold information that is normally provided during debriefing when there is a scientific or humane justification for doing so. The correct answer is: Subjects must be debriefed about the nature of a research study following their participation in a way that minimizes harm.

Answer 78

Knowing the formula for the standard error of estimate may have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. The formula is given in the Test Construction chapter of the written study materials. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT The standard error of estimate equals the standard deviation of Y (the criterion) times the square root of 1 minus the validity coefficient squared. When the validity coefficient is 1, the standard error equals 0 (there is no error), and when the validity coefficient is 0, the standard error equals the standard deviation of the criterion scores. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: 0 and the standard deviation of the criterion.

Answer 79

Caplan distinguishes between four types of mental health consultation: client-centered case consultation, consultee-centered case consultation, program-centered administrative consultation, and consultee-centered administrative consultation. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Caplan defines theme interference as a type of transference that occurs when a consultee's unresolved conflict related to a particular type of client or situation interferes with his/her current performance with similar clients or in similar situations. The correct answer is: theme interference

Answer 80

Researchers have identified a number of cognitive biases that distort our ability to accurately perceive or interpret reality. a. Incorrect The Von Restorff effect is the tendency to remember very unusual or unique objects or events (i.e., objects or events that "stick out like a sore thumb"). b. Incorrect The Forer effect is another name for the Barnum effect and refers to the tendency to accept a vague or very general description of oneself (e.g., a horoscope) as an accurate description. c. Incorrect The availability heuristic is the tendency to focus on the most salient or affectively charged aspects of a stimulus or situation. d. CORRECT This question accurately describes the base rate fallacy, which is also known as base rate neglect. In one study on this phenomenon, participants were given data about the distribution of GPA in the population and then asked to estimate the GPA of hypothetical students. Rather than relying on the statistical information, participants usually used irrelevant descriptive information about each hypothetical student to estimate the student's GPA. The correct answer is: base rate fallacy

Answer 81

The correct answer is B. Studies using animal models tend to provide more accurate data than studies in humans due to the fact that both genes and environment can be manipulated and controlled in the laboratory setting. Because genes and environments cannot be manipulated in the human species, two quasi-experimental methods are used most often to screen for genetic influence on individual differences in complex traits such as behavior. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect as there is no direct correlation between quality of research and using human participants, there are no unique chemical agents that occur within animal research models, and there are no international rules governing or stating that any kind of research involving human participants is illegal. The correct answer is: Researchers can manipulate both the environment and the genes in a controlled laboratory setting.

Answer 82

In this situation, Samantha is the "teacher" while her younger brother is the "student." a. CORRECT Complementary transactions are transactions between unequals - e.g., between a dominant and a subordinate person. b. Incorrect Symmetrical transactions occur between equals. c. Incorrect Parallel transactions are a combination of complementary and symmetrical transactions. d. Incorrect The term "disengaged" is not used to describe the type of transaction presented in this question. The correct answer is: complementary.

Answer 83

This question is asking about the technique that would change the cue (stimulus) that produces sexual arousal for a client with a paraphilia. a. Incorrect When using covert sensitization to eliminate an undesirable behavior, the individual repeatedly imagines engaging in that behavior (or a stimulus associated with it) and then imagines an aversive consequence of engaging in the behavior. Eventually, as a result of this pairing, thinking about the undesirable behavior will produce an aversive response. For example, if a person is sexually aroused by exposing himself to women in public places, covert sensitization might involve having him imagine exposing himself to a woman on the subway and then imagine that he is arrested by the police for doing so, convicted of a sex crime, and sent to jail. b. Incorrect Flooding is used primarily to reduce anxiety responses and has not been found to be an effective treatment for paraphilias. c. Incorrect Habit reversal training is used to reduce habits such as nail-biting, thumb-sucking, and hair pulling and has not been found to be an effective treatment for paraphilias. Habit reversal training is used to increase the individual's awareness of his/her habit and replace the habit with alternative behaviors. d. CORRECT When using orgasmic reconditioning, the client is "reconditioned" to masturbate to a more appropriate stimulus. This is accomplished by having the client begin to masturbate while fantasizing about the inappropriate stimulus and then switch his fantasy to the more appropriate stimulus. The correct answer is: orgasmic reconditioning

Answer 84

Super's life space/life span theory includes a stage theory that encompasses the entire lifespan. The five stages are growth, exploration, establishment, maintenance, and disengagement.

a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.

b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.

c. CORRECT Each stage involves a set of developmental tasks, and mastery of those tasks represents career maturity. Career maturity prepares the individual to fulfill the life roles characteristic of the stage the person is in as well as for the tasks of the subsequent stage.

d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: refers to the individual's mastery of tasks at each developmental stage.

Answer 85

In a case similar to the one described in this question (APA Casebook, 1987), the parents filed a complaint against the psychologist when he would not release information to them about their daughter. The Ethics Committee decided that the psychologist acted ethically by not releasing the information since he had clarified this policy in advance with the parents and the daughter at the onset of treatment. a. Incorrect Payment of fees does not give a party the right to information about a client's progress in therapy. b. Incorrect Once again, payment of fees does not mean that the parents need to be given information (specific or general) unless this has been explicitly decided upon by all parties. c. Incorrect This response does not address the issue of confidentiality presented by the question. d. CORRECT This is the most ethical alternative and, as noted above, was decided by the Ethics Committee to be an ethical course of action. The correct answer is: the therapist should, at the onset of treatment, establish a policy about confidentiality jointly with the daughter and her parents.

Answer 86

For the exam, you want to be familiar with the four techniques listed in the answers to this question. a. CORRECT Unbalancing is a restructuring technique that is used by structural family therapists to change hierarchical relationships between family members. It may involve affiliating with a family member, ignoring a family member, or entering into a coalition with a family member against another member. b. Incorrect Tracking is a joining technique and involves following the verbal and nonverbal content of the family's communications by, for example, asking clarifying questions, showing interest in what they're saying, and connecting things they've said in the past to current interactions. c. Incorrect Reframing is a paradoxical technique that involves offering an alternative interpretation of the meaning of a behavior or event. d. Incorrect Mimesis is another joining technique and involves adopting the family's affective and communication style. The correct answer is: unbalancing

Answer 87

Claiming insanity as a defense is one of the times when privilege is waived. However, precautions regarding confidential information must still be taken. a. Incorrect This isn't necessary. b. CORRECT Although the psychologist would want to refrain from concluding whether or not the defendant is "insane," he/she can testify about the client's mental state at the time of the crime. Also, while privilege is waived when a defendant claims insanity, the defendant should be informed of the limits of confidentiality prior to the evaluation. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect Psychologists should not conclude whether or not a person is "insane," but they can draw conclusions about a person's mental status, which the court then uses to make a determination of insanity. The correct answer is: evaluate the defendant and testify as requested but inform the defendant of the purpose of the evaluation and of the limits of confidentiality before doing so.

Answer 88

This is a straightforward question. Unfortunately, it requires you to be familiar with the results of a specific survey, although you might have been able to rely on your own experience and those of your colleagues. a. Incorrect Fees were mentioned by 14% of respondents as being ethically troublesome in a recent study conducted by S. Pope (Ethical dilemmas as encountered by members of the APA: A national survey, American Psychologist, 47(3), 397-411, 1992). b. Incorrect Only 4% of respondents listed sexual issues as a problem. c. CORRECT Confidentiality was listed by 18% of respondents as an ethically troubling issue. d. Incorrect The conduct of colleagues was listed as a problem by 4% of respondents. The correct answer is: confidentiality

Answer 89

Recent theories of development typically view nature and nature as contingent factors; i.e., development cannot occur without the ongoing contributions of each factor. a. Incorrect Although this is true, this answer is not the best one since it does not address the contingent relationship between nature and nurture. b. CORRECT This is the only response that suggests a contingent relationship between the factors and, therefore, is the best answer. c. Incorrect This is not a good description of current thinking about the nature-nurture controversy. d. Incorrect This is not an accurate description of the current status of the nature-nurture controversy. The correct answer is: believe that genetic potentials (nature) cannot be realized unless the appropriate environmental experiences (nurture) occur.

Answer 90

Knowing that amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant may have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. a. CORRECT Amitriptyline increases the levels of both norepinephrine and serotonin by inhibiting their reuptake. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: increasing norepinephrine and serotonin levels.

Answer 91

Researchers have found that individuals are often willing to agree that vague descriptions of them - such as those presented in horoscopes - accurately describe their personal characteristics. a. CORRECT The Barnum effect (also known as the Forer effect) predicts that people tend to accept vague or general descriptions of themselves as accurate. The Barnum effect has been attributed to a number of factors including gullibility, wishful thinking, and a confirmation bias. b. Incorrect The false consensus bias is the tendency to overestimate the degree to which others agree with you. c. Incorrect The Zeigarnik effect is the tendency to remember interrupted or uncompleted tasks better than completed ones. d. Incorrect Illusory correlation is the belief that there is a relationship between events when there actually isn't one. The correct answer is: Barnum effect

Answer 92

Atkinson et al.'s model distinguishes between five stages: conformity, dissonance, resistance/immersion, introspection, and integrative awareness. Additional information about these stages is provided in the Clinical Psychology chapter of the written study materials. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Each stage in this model is characterized by a different combination of attitudes toward one's own minority group, other minority groups, and the majority (dominant) group. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: assessing his/her attitudes toward the minority and majority cultures.

Answer 93

Polly Pooch's son has been taught a complex behavior by teaching him the individual responses in the "behavior chain." a. CORRECT Since Mrs. Pooch has started with the last behavior and "worked backward" from there, this is best described as an example of backward chaining. b. Incorrect See explanation above. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: backward chaining.

Answer 94

Transformational leaders differ from transactional leaders in several ways. One way is that they motivate employees by giving goals added meaning by placing them in a larger context (e.g., the "good of society").

a. Incorrect The term priming is used in several contexts. For example, in the field of learning and memory, it refers to unconscious cues that activate related associations (e.g., seeing the word "test" reminds you of the licensing exam even if you are not aware that you saw the word "test").

b. Incorrect Escalating commitment refers to the tendency to continue with a previously chosen course of action even when it is not working.

c. CORRECT Giving goals added meaning is referred to as framing. It is one of the characteristics of transformational leaders.

d. Incorrect Positioning is a paradoxical technique used in family therapy. It involves helping the family see a symptom from a new perspective by exaggerating its severity. The correct answer is: framing.

Answer 95

You may have been able to identify the correct response to this question through the process of elimination. a. Incorrect This may be unnecessary if the therapist has appropriate training or seeks consultation. b. Incorrect American Indian clients are likely to distrust a therapist who attempts to establish a "value-free" environment. c. CORRECT An initial step when working with clients from culturally diverse groups is to identify the client's stage of racial/ethnic identity development, degree of acculturation, and worldview (beliefs, values, attitudes, etc.). d. Incorrect APA guidelines discourage adopting a "colorblind" approach and, instead, require psychologists to always consider the impact of culture on the therapeutic process. The correct answer is: assess each family member's level of acculturation before developing a treatment plan.

Answer 96

Answer A is correct: The DSM-5 diagnosis of Delusional Disorder requires the presence of one or more delusions that last at least one month. The correct answer is: one or more delusions for at least one month.

Answer 97

For the exam, you don't need to understand what rotation involves, but you do want to be familiar with its purpose. a. CORRECT The pattern of factor loadings in the initial factor matrix is often difficult to interpret, so the factors are rotated to obtain a pattern that's easier to interpret. b. Incorrect Rotation does not reduce the effects of measurement error. c. Incorrect Rotation alters the magnitude of the factor loadings but not the magnitude of the communalities. d. Incorrect See explanation for responses a and c. The correct answer is: obtain a pattern of factor loadings that is easier to interpret.

Answer 98

Escape and avoidance conditioning both establish a response that allows the individual to elude an aversive stimulus. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT In escape and avoidance conditioning, the individual's behavior increases because it enables him/her to escape or avoid a stimulus (i.e., a stimulus is taken away following the response). Escape conditioning is simply a straightforward application of negative reinforcement, while avoidance conditioning is more complex and involves a combination of negative reinforcement and classical conditioning. See the Learning Theory chapter for additional information about escape and avoidance conditioning. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: negative reinforcement.

Answer 99

Self-conscious emotions become apparent during the second and third years of life. Research on the ages at which the self-conscious emotions are first evident has provided somewhat inconsistent results. However, there is evidence that empathy, jealousy, and embarrassment emerge at about 18 to 24 months of age and are followed by pride, shame, and guilt at about 30 months. See, e.g., M. Lewis, Early emotional development, in A. Slatter and M. Lewis (Eds.), Introduction to infant development, New York, Oxford University Press, 2002. The correct answer is: 30

Answer 100

In the situation described in this question, some of the items on the Biographical Information Blank appear to be unrelated to the requirements of the job. Face validity refers to the extent to which a measure appears to measure what it is supposed to measure. The correct answer is: lack face validity.

Answer 101

Unfortunately, the research on work schedules is very inconsistent with different studies comparing different types of schedules and producing different results with regard to the outcomes associated with flextime, compressed workweek, rotating shifts, etc. a. CORRECT In one study, workers who were switched from rotating shifts to permanent day shifts showed significant increases in several measures of well-being [T. Akerstedt and L. Torsvall, Experimental changes in shift schedules: The effect on well-being, Ergonomics, 21(10), 849-856, 1978]. In a more recent study, workers on fixed and rotating shifts were compared and those on the fixed shift reported less stress and better work attitudes [M. Jamal and V. Baba, Shiftwork and department-type related to job stress, work attitudes, and behavioral intentions: A study of nurses, Journal of Organizational Behavior, 13(5), 449-464, 1992]. b. Incorrect Studies comparing day and night shifts have usually found the day shift to be associated with better outcomes. Apparently, this is because, for most people, the night shift is inconsistent with the normal sleep-wake cycle. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: permanent day shift

Answer 102

The transtheoretical model predicts that an intervention is most effective when it matches the individual's stage of change. a. CORRECT From the perspective of the transtheoretical model, a person is in the preparation stage when he/she has a clear intent to take action in the immediate future (usually defined as within the next month). b. Incorrect A person in the contemplation stage is planning to take steps to change in the more distant future (usually defined as within the next six months). c. Incorrect A person in the precontemplation stage has no intention of changing in the foreseeable future. d. Incorrect People in the action phase have already started making changes in their lives. The correct answer is: preparation

Answer 103

Relatively little empirical research has been conducted on the stepparent-stepchild relationship, so this question is hard to answer. Unfortunately, the exam does occasionally include questions on topics that have received little research attention. a. Incorrect In most cases, this is the opposite of what is true -- relationships with stepparents are most difficult when remarriage occurs when the child is in early adolescence. b. CORRECT This finding is often cited in the literature and is particularly true for stepfathers who do not have biological children. See, e.g., J. W. Santrock, K. A. Sitterle, and R. A. Warshak, Parent-child relationships in stepfather families, in P. Bronstein and C. P. Cowan (Eds.), Fatherhood today, New York, Wiley, 1988. c. Incorrect In fact, there is some evidence that stepparents tend to be more authoritarian (not authoritative) than biological parents are. d. Incorrect This is the opposite of what has been found to be true. The correct answer is: stepfathers tend to be distant and disengaged from their stepchildren.

Answer 104

The investigator is using a within-subjects design that involves having each participant receive all levels of the independent variable. a. Incorrect The term "analogue" is used in the context of research design to refer to the investigation of a well-defined research question in well-controlled conditions. b. Incorrect The dismantling strategy is used to determine the effects of each component of a multi-component treatment and involves administering different components to different groups of participants. c. CORRECT Counterbalanced designs are within-subjects designs that help control order or practice effects by administering the levels of the independent variable to different subjects (or groups of subjects) in a different order. d. Incorrect The Solomon four-group design is used to evaluate the impact of pretesting on a study's internal and external validity. The correct answer is: counterbalanced

Answer 105

As noted in the chapter on ethics and professional issues in the written study materials, several surveys have been conducted to determine factors related to sexual misconduct by mental health professionals. a. Incorrect Male therapists are involved in substantially more sexual and nonsexual dual relationships than female therapists. b. Incorrect This is not necessarily true. Some research indicates higher rates among the more experienced. c. CORRECT The average age of therapists who become involved in sexual dual relationships is 42 or 43 (depending on which study you read), while the average age of the client is 32 or 33. See K. S. Pope, Sexual feelings in psychotherapy: Explorations for therapists and therapists-in-training, American Psychological Association, Washington, DC, 1993. d. Incorrect The research is not entirely consistent on this issue. Most studies have found either that there is no effect of therapy or that therapy is associated with an increased risk for sexual involvement. The correct answer is: in a sexual dual relationship, the client is, on the average, 10 years younger than the therapist.

Answer 106

Manual-guided treatments provide manuals that specify the theoretical underpinnings of the treatment and treatment goals and present specific therapeutic guidelines and strategies. a. CORRECT Treatment manuals were initially developed to standardize treatments so that their effects could be empirically evaluated and to provide training guidelines for therapists. b. Incorrect The research on this issue is inconsistent and but has generally not found manual guided treatments to have substantially better outcomes than treatments that are not guided by the use of a manual. c. Incorrect This has not been identified as an outcome of the use of treatment manuals. d. Incorrect This is not one of the benefits of treatment manuals. The correct answer is: standardizes treatment delivery so that, in research, treatment effects can be more clearly ascertained.

Answer 107

One of the most consistent findings is that, for adolescents, living in a single-parent family increases the risk for suicide. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT The linkage between a single-parent family and risk for a suicide in adolescents was recently confirmed in a large-scale study in Sweden, which compared 65,085 children from single-parent homes with 921,257 children from two-parent homes and found that the rate of suicide attempts was 2 times greater for girls from single-parent homes and 2.3 times greater for boys from single-parent homes [G. R. Weitoft et al., Mortality, severe morbidity, and injury in children living with single parents in Sweden: A population-based study, The Lancet, 361(9354), 289-295, 2003]. The correct answer is: girls and boys from single-parent families are both at higher risk than girls and boys from dual-parent families.

Answer 108

Although written, signed consents are advisable in both therapy and research, they are not required by the Ethics Code. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Paragraph 3.10(d) of the Code states that "Psychologists appropriately document written or oral consent, permission, and assent." d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: documented.

Answer 109

Young children make a number of predictable errors when acquiring language. Overregularization occurs when children overextend grammatical rules - e.g., add "s" to feet to form the plural or "ed" to run to form the past tense. The correct answer is: overregularization

Answer 110

This situation is addressed in Standard 8.09(g) of the Ethics Code. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Standard 8.09(g) states that "when it is appropriate that an animal's life be terminated, psychologists proceed rapidly, with an effort to minimize pain and in accordance with accepted procedures." d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: permits this practice when it is appropriate and done in a way that minimizes pain.

Answer 111

The parent is using punishment in order to decrease the probability that the behavior will occur again. A variety of factors affect the effectiveness of punishment. a. CORRECT Punishment, like all forms of behavior therapy used to reduce undesirable behaviors, is most effective when used in conjunction with reinforcement for alternate desirable behaviors. In this case, the 50 cents would represent reinforcement (a stimulus that increases the probability of a behavior) for the alternate desirable behavior of being nice. b. Incorrect Punishment is more effective when it is applied consistently (after every performance of a behavior) than when it is applied intermittently. c. Incorrect A gradual increase in the intensity of punishment can produce habituation. In other words, if the child has to spend more and more time in his room, he may get used to it and won't mind it as much. d. Incorrect This strategy will do nothing to decrease the occurrence of the behavior and may produce habituation. The correct answer is: give the child 50 cents each time he is nice to his sister.

Answer 112

For the exam, you want to be familiar with the off-the-job and on-the-job training techniques that are described in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials so that you can answer questions like this one. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT As its name suggests, cross-training involves training an employee to perform other tasks (usually tasks related to his/her current job). Cross-training benefits the employer by increasing the flexibility of employees and the employees by increasing their interest and motivation. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: cross-training

Answer 113

Naltrexone (ReVia) is an opioid receptor antagonist. a. Incorrect Antabuse reduces alcohol consumption by causing adverse effects when taken in combination with alcohol. b. CORRECT Naltrexone blocks the reinforcing effects and craving (desire) for alcohol. c. Incorrect Naltrexone does not reduce withdrawal symptoms. d. Incorrect Naltrexone is not used to produce rapid detoxification. The correct answer is: reduces the person's craving for alcohol.

Answer 114

Being familiar with the major concerns and assumptions of Bowen's extended family systems therapy would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question even if you're unfamiliar with a genogram. a. CORRECT As originally described by Bowen, a genogram is a schematic diagram of a family's relationships and usually includes at least three generations. A primary purpose of a genogram is to identify behavior patterns that recur in the family. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect This describes an ecomap. Although some authors use the terms ecomap and genogram interchangeably, this question is asking specifically about the use of a genogram by a Bowenian therapist, so response a is the best answer. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: examine family relationships over several generations.

Answer 115

A review of the existing studies clearly indicates that one type of therapy has been the focus of the research on psychological interventions for individuals with cystic fibrosis and several other medial conditions. a. CORRECT Very few studies have been conducted on psychological interventions for patients with cystic fibrosis, and the majority of these have focused on children. However, most of the existing studies investigated the impact of behavioral therapy or cognitive-behavioral therapy and have found that these interventions are beneficial for alleviating psychological problems associated with the disorder. Therefore, of the answers given, this is the best one. See, e.g., H. Oxley and A. K. Webb, How a clinical psychologist manages the problems of adults with cystic fibrosis, Journal of the Royal Society of Medicine, 98 (Suppl. 45), 37-46, 2005. b. Incorrect See explanation above. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: cognitive-behavioral therapy

Answer 116

The neo-Piagetian theories include the theories of Kurt Fischer and Robbie Case. a. CORRECT The neo-Piagetian theories use information processing concepts to explain proposed shortcomings of Piagetian theory. b. Incorrect An emphasis on social influences is not a factor that distinguishes Piagetian and neo-Piagetian theories. c. Incorrect The neo-Piagetians view cognitive development as involving stages. d. Incorrect This is the opposite of what is true. Neo-Piagetians are interested in cognitive development within specific domains. The correct answer is: emphasis on information processing.

Answer 117

The correct answer is C. Cytogenetics involves the examination of chromosomes and their abnormalities. Biochemical testing utilizes techniques that examine the protein instead of the gene. Molecular or DNA testing tends to be the most efficacious methodology, particularly if the function of the protein is not known and a biochemical test cannot be developed. Answers A, B and D are incorrect as mitochondrial nerves, protein structure, cortex neurons and binomial functions are not part of the genetic material that is tested. The correct answer is: Chromosome structure; protein function; DNA sequence.

Answer 118

On the MMPI, a combination of high scores on the hypochondriasis and hysteria scales (Scales 1 and 3) and a low score on the depression scale (Scale 2) is referred to as the conversion-V pattern. a. CORRECT The conversion-V pattern is characteristic of people with Conversion Disorder or other somatoform disorder. (Note that, in the DSM-5, the Somatoform Disorder category has been replaced by the Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders category.) b. Incorrect Higher scores on Scales 6 and 8 than on Scale 7 is referred to as the psychotic-V pattern and is associated with psychotic symptoms. c. Incorrect Alcohol and drug abuse and depression are associated with high scores on Scales 2, 4, and 7. d. Incorrect Elevated scores on Scales 2, 7, and 8 are associated with schizoid reactions and phobic and depressive symptoms. The correct answer is: a somatoform disorder

Answer 119

For the exam, you want to know the definition of each of the terms listed in the answers to this question. a. Incorrect Prototypes are representative examples of a concept or category. For example, some people would consider Freud to be a prototypical psychotherapist. b. Incorrect Mnemonics are strategies used to improve memory. c. Incorrect Algorithms are step-by-step problem-solving procedures or strategies that allow individuals to solve problems even if they do not completely understand the problem. d. CORRECT Heuristics are mental shortcuts (rules-of-thumb) that simplify decision-making or problem-solving. For example, you would be relying on a heuristic if you assume that a higher price is always associated with a better quality product and then use price to make decisions about what products to buy. The correct answer is: Heuristics

Answer 120

The correct answer is D. The twin method relies on the providence of nature that results in identical (monozygotic, MZ) twins or fraternal (dizygotic, DZ) twins. The adoption method is a quasi-experimental design that relies on a social chance in which children are adopted away from their biological (birth) parents early in life, thus separating effects of genetics versus environmental factors. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect as the Family Method, Benson Method, Separate Method, and Individual Method are irrelevant or non-existent regarding this type of research. The correct answer is: The Twin Method and Adoption Method.

Answer 121

The symptoms of Parkinson's disease vary somewhat from person to person and from day to day. However, most people with this disorder experience the symptoms listed in answer a. a. CORRECT Resting tremor, slowed movement (bradykinesia), rigidity, and impaired balance and coordination are common symptoms of Parkinson's disease. b. Incorrect These are symptoms of Huntington's disease. c. Incorrect These are characteristic symptoms of multiple sclerosis. d. Incorrect These are characteristic symptoms of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), which is also known as Lou Gehrig's disease. The correct answer is: resting tremor; slowed movement; rigidity; and impaired balance and coordination

Answer 122

Answer A is correct: The DSM-5 diagnosis of Intermittent Explosive Disorder requires recurrent behavioral outbursts that reflect a failure to control aggressive impulses as manifested by verbal aggression or physical aggression toward property, animals, or other people that does not result in destruction or injury or behavioral outbursts that do result in destruction of property or injury of people or animals. Answer B: This is not a requirement for a DSM-5 diagnosis of Intermittent Explosive Disorder. Answer C: The aggressive acts associated with Intermittent Explosive Disorder are due to a failure to control aggressive impulses but are not necessarily precipitated by an irritable mood. Also, as noted above, aggression can be verbal or physical. Answer D: The diagnosis of Intermittent Explosive Disorder does not require that aggression be accompanied by a lack of remorse or guilt. The correct answer is: verbal aggression or physical aggression toward property, animals, or other people that does not cause injury or destruction or behavioral outbursts that do cause injury or destruction.

Answer 123

The APA's guidelines require psychologists to avoid dual (multiple) relationships. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT This type of situation is addressed in the Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychology and the Ethics Code, which require psychologists to avoid dual relationships whenever objectivity, exploitation, and other issues related to effectiveness are of concern, which would be the case in this situation. The two roles -- therapist and forensic evaluator -- clearly conflict and should be avoided. The correct answer is: refuse to evaluate Bird for the parole hearing.

Answer 124

For the exam you want to be familiar with the major approaches to learning and cognitive development especially the approaches of Piaget and Vygotsky. a. CORRECT If you did not know that Vygotsky's sociocultural theory is also referred to as the theory of socially mediated learning you may have been able to identify this as the correct response by recalling that Vygotsky described learning as first social then individual. b. Incorrect Piaget's developmental theory (which is also known as the theory of genetic epistemology) proposes that individuals build cognitive structures in active and adaptive ways (e.g. through assimilation and accommodation). c. Incorrect Dewey's theory emphasizes the experiential aspects of learning and it proposes that learning is the result of our experiences and attempts to make sense of those experiences. d. Incorrect Gagne's approach to learning focuses on instruction and is sometimes categorized as an information processing approach. It focuses on learning outcomes (cognitive effective or psychomotor) and the conditions that facilitate each type of outcome. The correct answer is: Vygotsky's

Answer 125

This is a difficult question since the research on the effects of cognitive-behavior therapy (CBT) on the physical and psychological functioning of patients with rheumatoid arthritis has not produced entirely consistent results. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Of the answers given, this is the best one since the qualifier "in some cases" reflects the inconsistency of the research results. While the studies have generally found that CBT has beneficial effects on feelings of self-efficacy, anxiety, and other aspects of psychological functioning, its effects on the physical symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis vary from study to study. In some studies, however, CBT did reduce pain intensity and joint impairment and inflammation. See, e.g., A. O'Leary et al., A cognitive-behavioral treatment for rheumatoid arthritis, Health Psychology, 7, 527-544, 1988 d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: improves psychological functioning and, in some cases, has a beneficial effect on pain intensity and joint inflammation.

Answer 126

Two-factor theory describes phobic reactions as involving both classical conditioning and negative reinforcement. a. CORRECT Negative reinforcement is occurring when a response increases because an aversive stimulus is removed following the response. In phobic reactions, the avoidance response increases because, by avoiding the feared object or event, anxiety is reduced or eliminated. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: negative reinforcement.

Answer 127

Kohler is a co-founder of Gestalt psychology, which focuses on perception. He is probably best known for his research on animals, especially Sultan the chimpanzee. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT Kohler's research revealed that like humans, animals seem to experience an "aha" experience ("insight") while solving problems. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: insightful.

Answer 128

Ataxia is a symptom of a number of disorders including multiple sclerosis, cerebral palsy, spinal injury, and stroke. Note that, for the licensing exam, you want to be familiar with all of the conditions described in the answers to this question. Additional information on these conditions is provided in the Physiological Psychology and Psychopharmacology chapter of the written study materials. a. Incorrect A complete or almost complete loss of movement is referred to as akinesia. b. Incorrect An uncomfortable sense of restlessness or agitation is referred to as akathisia. c. CORRECT Ataxia involves a loss of balance and coordination. It is one of the symptoms of multiple sclerosis and can be caused by damage to the cerebellum, dorsal spinal cord, or vestibular system. Although its symptoms depend on the area affected, they often include unsteady gait, difficulty with fine motor tasks, abnormal eye movements, slurred speech, and difficulty swallowing. d. Incorrect Athetosis involves slow writhing involuntary movements. The correct answer is: impaired coordination and balance.

Answer 129

The correct answer is B. The use of the internet for interpersonal communication is not the same as traditional face-to-face communication in enriching the quality of life. Online communication does have the potential to have an adverse effect on peoples perceived life quality. Although the relative lack of strong ties or in-depth quality that can result in internet communication cannot be the sole reason for the negative effect of online communication for quality of life. An absence of nonverbal cues: lack of warmth, and less demand for engagement in internet communication results in impersonality, shallow interactions, and difficulty in building social support. These are reasons why there is a negative contribution of online communication to perceived quality of life. Answers A and C are incorrect and although they may be part of ongoing long distant relationship problems that occur between individuals of various cultures, it is not necessarily tied directly to the use of technology to foster the growth of their relationship. The correct answer is: Lack of quality and depth in their relationship.

Answer 130

When using item response theory to construct a test, an item characteristic curve is constructed for each item. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT The point at which the curve intercepts the Y axis indicates the probability of answering the item correctly by guessing. Other information provided by the curve is described in the Test Construction chapter of the written study materials. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: the probability of answering the item correctly by guessing

Answer 131

The research has generally found that Asian Americans underutilize traditional mental health services. a. CORRECT Asian Americans often adhere to traditional cultural values that encourage the resolution of problems within the family. Reasons for preferring assistance from family members include the stigma associated with mental illness and seeking outside help and a lack of culturally competent mental health services. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: cultural values that encourage resolution of problems within the family.

Answer 132

In general, the results of an evaluation are not revealed without the individual's consent. However, this is modified when the evaluation is being conducted in response to a court-order. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT This issue is addressed by G. B. Melton et al. in their discussion of court-ordered evaluations (Psychological evaluations for the court, New York, Guilford, 1987). They note that the therapist-patient privilege does not apply when the therapist-patient relationship "is the creation of the court" (p. 46), which is the case in a court-ordered evaluation. However, from an ethical perspective, you should always warn an individual of the limits of confidentiality. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: discuss the limits of confidentiality with the defendant even though a release of information is not legally required in this situation.

Answer 133

This is a difficult question because this issue has been investigated in only a few empirical studies. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT In a recent study, R. C. Savin-Williams and L. M. Diamond compared the sexual identity milestones for gay males and lesbians and found that, in terms of disclosure, the average age was not substantially different. They also report the results of previous research, which is generally consistent with their findings. Note that Savin-Williams and Diamond did find significant differences for initial same-sex sexual contact and first self-labeling as gay or lesbian, with the average age for both milestones being lower for gay men than for lesbians [Sexual identity trajectories among sexual-minority youths: Gender comparisons, Archives of Sexual Behavior, 29, 607-627, 2000]. The correct answer is: the average ages of disclosure for gay men and lesbians are not significantly different.

Answer 134

According to E. Berscheid (1989), a partner is most likely to experience a high degree of emotion in an intimate relationship when his/her partner's behavior disrupts an organized sequence of behavior. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Berscheid's emotion-in-relationships model predicts that disruptions in organized sequences or patterns of behavior (established interactions between the partners) produce strong emotions in close relationships, with the nature of the emotion (positive or negative) depending on the consequence of the disruption. The correct answer is: elicited by unexpected interruptions in routine interactions.

Answer 135

The split-plot ANOVA is one of several forms of the ANOVA that you want to be familiar with for the exam. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Knowing that the split-plot ANOVA is also referred to as the mixed ANOVA would have helped you identify this as the correct answer. For additional information on the split-plot ANOVA, see the Statistics and Research Design chapter of the written study materials. The correct answer is: the researcher has used a "mixed" design.

Answer 136

An individual examinee's score on a test can be interpreted in several ways. a. Incorrect When using criterion-referenced interpretation, an examinee's test performance is interpreted in terms of an external criterion (i.e., in terms of a specific standard of performance). b. Incorrect Domain-referenced interpretation is a type of criterion-referenced interpretation. It is used to determine how much of a specific knowledge domain the examinee has mastered. c. Incorrect Objectives-referenced interpretation is another type of criterion-referenced interpretation. It involves interpreting an examinee's performance in terms of achievement of instructional objectives. d. CORRECT When using norm-referenced interpretation, an examinee's test performance is compared to the performance of members of the norm group (other people who have taken the test). The correct answer is: norm-referenced interpretation.

Answer 137

Research on the impact of caregiver responsiveness and infant crying has, like research on a number of other issues, produced inconsistent results. However, this question is asking about the results of a specific study rather than the conclusion that can be drawn from the existing studies. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Bell and Ainsworth (1972) found that consistent and prompt maternal response to infant crying during the first three months of the infant's life was associated with a reduced frequency and shorter duration of crying and fussing in subsequent months. Note, however, that their study was criticized on methodological grounds and that subsequent studies have provided both confirming and disconfirming results. See~ e.g.~ A. S. Regine & S. Maarit~ Natural parenting - back to basics in infant care~ Evolutionary Psychology~ 5(1)~ 102-183~ 2007. d. Incorrect Research by Bell and Ainsworth and other investigators has not found that level of infant irritability mediates the relationship between caregiver responsiveness and infant crying. The correct answer is: is associated with a decrease in the amount of infant crying in subsequent months.

Answer 138

Knowing that ADHD in adulthood is associated with prominent symptoms of inattention and impaired social and occupational functioning would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. a. Incorrect Because of their impulsivity (e.g., tendency to make quick decisions) and attention deficits, adults with ADHD are not likely to be perfectionistic. b. Incorrect This is the opposite of what is true. A person with ADHD gets bored easily and would not prefer routine, repetitive tasks. c. Incorrect Adults with ADHD often have trouble maintaining relationships but do not avoid them. With regard to sexual relationships, adults with ADHD tend to have more sexual partners than adults without ADHD and may engage in more impulsive or risky sexual behaviors. d. CORRECT The research has found that adults with ADHD change jobs and intimate partners more often than do individuals without the disorder. The correct answer is: frequently change jobs and intimate partners.

Answer 139

Research has confirmed that prevalence rates for hypertension are related to age, gender, and race/ethnicity. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Information on the prevalence rates of hypertension in the United States are provided by the National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey, which found the rates to be highest for African-Americans (non-Hispanic Blacks), older individuals, and women, with African-American women aged 60 and over having the highest rate. See K. L. Ong et al., Prevalence, awareness, treatment, and control of hypertension among United States adults, 1999-2004, Hypertension, 2007, 49(1), 69-75. The correct answer is: a 65-year-old African-American woman

Answer 140

The dependent variable in this study is number of cigarettes smoked. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT A ratio scale has the properties of order, equal intervals, and an absolute zero point -- and number of cigarettes has all three properties. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: ratio

Answer 141

Hardiness is a psychological style that has been linked to the ability to maintain good physical health under conditions of stress. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT According to S. C. Kobasa, hardy people (1) have a strong sense of commitment to their lives and work, (2) believe they can control or influence the events they encounter, and (3) view change as a positive challenge (Stressful life events, personality, and health: An inquiry into hardiness. Journal of Personality and Social Psychology, 37, 1-11, 1979). c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: commitment, control, and challenge.

Answer 142

There are three standard errors that you want to be familiar with for the exam - the standard error of the mean, the standard error of measurement, and the standard error of estimate. a. Incorrect The standard error of measurement is used to construct a confidence interval around an obtained (measured) test score. b. Incorrect The standard error of estimate is used to construct a confidence interval around a predicted (estimated) criterion score. c. CORRECT The standard error of the mean is the standard deviation of the sampling distribution of the mean. It is calculated by dividing the population standard deviation by the square root of the sample size. d. Incorrect The standard deviation of test scores for a sample can be used to estimate the standard deviation of test scores in the population by using (N-1) instead of N in the denominator of the formula for the standard deviation. The correct answer is: calculate the standard deviation of the sampling distribution.

Answer 143

The Buckley Amendment is another name for the Family Education Rights and Privacy Act (FERPA). a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT Among other things, the Buckley Amendment states that any school district may be denied federal funds if parents of students (or other legal guardians) or students who have reached the age of majority are not given access to their school records. It also prohibits disclosure of school records to unauthorized individuals without parental consent. See the chapter on ethics and professional issues in the written study materials for additional information on the Buckley Amendment. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: establishes the right of parents to inspect the school records of their children.

Answer 144

A synapse is the point where a nerve impulse travels from one neuron to another neuron. a. Incorrect Electrical synapses are rare in the human nervous system and occur at "gap junctions." Electrical synapses connect some neurons, glial cells, and cardiac and smooth muscle cells. b. CORRECT Most synapses in the human nervous system are chemical synapses that involve the release of a neurotransmitter by a presynaptic neuron into the synaptic cleft. The neurotransmitter then binds to receptors on the postsynaptic neuron. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: chemical

Answer 145

According to Schein (1992), organizational culture provides stability and meaning. Although culture can reduce anxiety among organizational members that is caused by uncertainty about current and future events, it can also impede change. a. Incorrect These are three of the six value orientations that Kluckhohn and Strodbeck (1961) used to describe differences among cultural groups. The other three dimensions are relation to nature, view of human nature, and view of relationships among people. b. Incorrect These are three of the five systems or levels of Bronfenbrenner's (2004) ecological model of developmental influences. c. CORRECT These are the three levels of organizational culture identified by Schein. d. Incorrect According to Nadler (1988), these are three of the four factors that must be addressed to accomplish planned change in organizations. The fourth factor is characteristics of the employees and managerial tasks. The correct answer is: observable artifacts, espoused values and beliefs, and underlying assumptions

Answer 146

As noted by M. B. Canter, et al. (1994), in their discussion of the Ethics Code, the ethical requirements with regard to media psychology are "still evolving." However, since this question refers specifically to the Code, the best answer is the one that best resembles the Code's language. a. Incorrect It's not necessary to refuse to do the show, but certain precautions should be taken. b. Incorrect Discussions of media psychology in the literature have generally concluded that advice is actually better than therapy in this context. c. CORRECT Of the responses, this one comes closest to the language of Standard 5.04 (Media Presentations). Moreover, Canter, et al. note that on radio talk shows, the psychologist should be sure that he/she clearly distinguishes between "media psychology" and "therapy" (Ethics for psychologists: A commentary on the APA Ethics Code, Washington, DC, APA, 1994).d. Incorrect This is probably a good idea, but not the best response to this question! The correct answer is: be sure that callers understand that their conversations with her do not constitute a therapeutic relationship.

Answer 147

G. Kochanska proposes that "different socialization mechanisms may promote conscience development in children with different temperamental individualities" (p. 228); and she is most interested in the temperament trait of fearfulness. [Multiple pathways to conscience for children with different temperaments: From toddlerhood to age 5, Developmental Psychology, 33(2), 1997, 228-240.] a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT A number of researchers have found that fearful children score higher on measures of conscience, and Kochanska extended this finding by showing that the relationship between fearfulness and conscience development is affected by caregivers' socialization practices. Specifically, she found that, among fearful toddlers, conscience development is fostered when the mother uses "gentle discipline." In contrast, among fearless toddlers, conscience development depends more on a secure mother-child attachment and maternal responsiveness. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: level of fearfulness.

Answer 148

Answer C is correct: The National Comorbidity Survey Replication (NCS-R) found that GAD frequently co-occurs with Mood Disorders, Substance-Related Disorders, and other Anxiety Disorders [Kessler, R. C. et al., Prevalence, severity, and comorbidity of 12-month DSM-IV disorders in the National Comorbidity Survey Replication, Archives of General Psychiatry, 62, 617-709, 2005]. Although reported comorbidity rates for GAD vary somewhat from study to study, in the NCS-R, the highest correlation (.47) was found between GAD and Social Phobia. (Note that the earlier National Comorbidity Survey found the highest correlation for GAD and Simple Phobia, but this question is asking about the NCS-R.) Answer A: The NCS-R reports a correlation of .33 between GAD and OCD. Answer B: The NCS-R reports a correlation of .44 between GAD and PTSD. Answer D: The NCS-R reports a correlation of .36 between GAD and Separation Anxiety Disorder. The correct answer is: Social Phobia.

Answer 149

While some behavioral techniques are designed specifically to either decrease or increase a behavior, others attempt to accomplish both goals. a. Incorrect Response cost is used to decrease an undesirable behavior. b. Incorrect Implosive therapy is used to extinguish a conditioned response and does not attempt to deliberately substitute an alternative response (although this may, of course, occur). c. CORRECT "Contingency" refers to the consequence of a behavior, and contingency management involves identifying and applying punishments for undesirable behaviors and identifying and applying reinforcements for desirable ones. d. Incorrect When using negative practice, the person is required to deliberately repeat the undesirable behavior. It has been found to be an effective treatment for tics. The correct answer is: contingency management

Answer 150

For the exam, you want to be able to distinguish between job analysis, job evaluation, and needs analysis. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT A needs analysis (or assessment) is conducted in organizations to identify training needs and determine the appropriate content for training programs. The correct answer is: training.

Answer 151

Knowing that shingles is due to reactivation of the herpes zoster (chicken pox) virus would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b b. CORRECT Antiviral medication can help reduce the duration of shingles when the drug is taken within 72 hours after development of the rash. Other drugs may be taken to help alleviate the pain caused by shingles such as oxycodine, amitriptyline or other tricyclic antidepressant, and a topical corticosteroid may be used to decrease inflammation. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: acyclovir or other antiviral medication

Answer 152

The mixed standard scale (Blanz and Ghiselli, 1971) was originally designed to reduce rater biases. Note that, if you're unfamiliar with this technique, you may have been able to identify it as the correct answer to this question using the process of elimination. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. (Although the mixed standard scale uses critical incidents, it is not the same as the "critical incident technique.") b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT When using the mixed standard scale, three critical incidents representing good, average, and poor performance for several dimensions of job performance are identified. They are then listed in the rating scale in a random order, and the rater indicates, for each incident, whether the rater's performance is equal to, worse than, or better than the described behavior. The correct answer is: mixed standard scale

Answer 153

This question is asking about research on the serial position effect, which identified a "recency-primacy shift." a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT The recency-primacy shift contradicts, to some extent, the axiom that "memory tends to fade over time." Specifically, the research has shown that, as the delay between study and recall increases, memory for the last item in a list decreases but memory for the first item increases -- i.e., there is a shift from a recency effect to a primacy effect. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: memory for the first item in a list increases while memory for the last item decreases as the delay between study and recall increases.

Answer 154

The studies have generally found that OCD does not differ significantly across different cultures. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT The DSM-5 notes that prevalence rates, age of onset, gender distribution, comorbidity, and symptom structure of OCD are similar across cultures (APA, 2013, p. 140). However, the content of obsessions and compulsions may be affected by cultural factors. The correct answer is: prevalence rates, age of onset, gender distribution, and comorbidity

Answer 155

When hired by a defendant's attorney to evaluate the defendant for a court case, the limits of confidentiality must be discussed prior to conducting the evaluation. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT In this situation, the client should be advised that information will be shared only with his attorney unless the client and his attorney decide to use it to support an insanity or similar defense. See, e.g., G. B. Melton et al., Psychological evaluation for the courts, New York, Guilford Press, 1997. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: should inform the defendant that information will be provided only to his attorney unless the defendant and his attorney decide to use the results of the evaluation to support an insanity defense.

Answer 156

CMV is a type of herpes virus. Although infection with CMV during adulthood usually produces no or mild symptoms, infection during prenatal development or birth can be life-threatening. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Approximately 10% of infants infected with CMV show symptoms at birth, and about 10 to 15% of infants who are asymptomatic at birth develop symptoms during the first few years of life. Common symptoms include some degree of intellectual disability and hearing and visual impairments. The correct answer is: hearing and visual impairments

Answer 157

Answer A is correct: This is an easy question as long as you know that the WAIS-IV Full Scale IQ has a mean of 100 and standard deviation of 15. On the WAIS-IV, a score of 85 is one standard deviation below the mean (100 - 15 = 85). The correct answer is: one standard deviation

Answer 158

Answer C is correct: The duration requirement is the same for Cyclothymic Disorder and Persistent Depressive Disorder (Dysthymia) - at least two years for adults and one year for children and adolescents. Answers A, B, and D: See explanation for response C. The correct answer is: two years; one year

Answer 159

Knowing that the Papez circuit is one of the major pathways of the limbic system and that the limbic system is referred to as the "emotional brain" would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. a. CORRECT Papez (1937) was among the first researchers to propose the existence of a neuroanatomical circuit that mediates emotion. As described by Papez, this circuit includes the hippocampus, mammillary bodies, cingulate gyrus, and anterior nuclei of the thalamus. In addition to controlling the experience and expression of emotions, it plays a role in the acquisition of new memories. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: control of emotions

Answer 160

Longitudinal studies on the original version of the Strong Interest Inventory (the SVIB) have consistently shown that interests are not good predictors of academic or occupational success. a. CORRECT Research has found interest tests to be good predictors of academic and job choice and job persistence and satisfaction which are listed as the other alternatives. However, they are not accurate predictors of job performance. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: as a job selection test to predict future performance.

Answer 161

It is very important not to overgeneralize the characteristics of members of culturally diverse groups. However, the licensing exam sometimes includes questions like this one that require you to do so. a. Incorrect Among Asians and Asian Americans, a smile is more likely to signal embarrassment or confusion than pleasure. b. Incorrect Asians are generally uncomfortable discussing personal details about family members. c. Incorrect Avoidance of eye contact is a sign of respect in the Asian culture. d. CORRECT Although not all Asian and Asian American clients will prefer a direct, structured approach (rather than an indirect, unstructured approach), this is often the preferred strategy. The correct answer is: She will respond best to an indirect, unstructured therapeutic approach.

Answer 162

Dr. Street's actions are consistent with the provisions of the Ethics Code. He has recognized his professional limitations and has taken action to ensure that his client receives the best possible treatment. a. Incorrect Referral to a specific professional is not prohibited although it would be advisable, when appropriate, to give the client a choice of alternatives. This, however, is not the best answer of those given. b. Incorrect Seeing a client who is seeing another professional is only a problem when the client is receiving similar services from the other professional, which is not the case in this situation. c. CORRECT As noted above, Dr. Street has acted in an ethical and responsible manner by referring Bob to another therapist and will continue to do so as long as he cooperates with the other therapist during the course of Bob's treatment. d. Incorrect There is insufficient information to support this conclusion. The correct answer is: ethical as long as the therapists cooperate with one another during the course of Bob's treatment.

Answer 163

To be consistent with the provisions of the Ethics Code, Dr. Beasley should seek competent professional assistance to help him determine if he should suspend, terminate, or otherwise modify his clinical practice because of his current personal problems. a. Incorrect This is a possible course of action for Dr. Beasley, but answer d is a better answer because it addresses the ethical issue of what Dr. Beasley should do to best protect the welfare of his clients. b. Incorrect This course of action might also be acceptable, but it is not the best answer. c. Incorrect While this might be an acceptable action, answer d is a better answer. d. CORRECT Dr. Beasley's first course of action should be to seek advice to help him decide what to do. The correct answer is: seek consultation to determine if he should temporarily suspend his practice or take some other course of action.

Answer 164

Answer C is correct: The client's symptoms are most suggestive of Delusional Disorder, persecutory type. Answer A: The client has a single delusional belief that is limited to the government being out to get him rather than a pervasive tendency to behave, feel, and perceive the world as hostile and persecutory, which would be more indicative of a personality disorder. Answer B: Despite his delusion about the government, the client appears to be functioning well at work and home. Brief Psychotic Disorder would cause greater impairment in functioning, and its diagnosis requires a duration of one day to less than one month. Answer D: The nature of the client's symptoms and their duration do not meet the diagnostic criteria for Schizophrenia. The correct answer is: Delusional Disorder

Answer 165

Depth perception depends on a combination of binocular and monocular cues. Binocular cues are responsible for depth perception of objects at relatively short distances, while monocular cues contribute to depth perception for objects at greater distances. a. Incorrect Interposition is a monocular cue and occurs when one object is blocked by another. b. Incorrect Linear perspective is a monocular cue and refers to the tendency for parallel lines to appear to converge as they approach the horizon. c. CORRECT Retinal disparity is a binocular cue and is also known as stereopsis. It refers to the fact that our two eyes see objects in the world from two different views, and, the closer an object, the greater the disparity of the two images. d. Incorrect Motion parallax is a monocular cue and refers to the apparent relative motion of stationary objects against a background when the observer moves. The correct answer is: retinal disparity

Answer 166

Asian Americans are a heterogeneous group and caution must be taken in drawing general conclusions about their behaviors. However, several generalizations are made in the multicultural counseling literature. See, e.g., D. W. Sue and D. Sue, Counseling the culturally different, New York, John Wiley & Sons, 1999. a. Incorrect Asian Americans tend to demonstrate respect for authorities by "not speaking until spoken to." b. CORRECT For some Asian Americans, smiling may demonstrate uneasiness or embarrassment, while, for others, smiling is avoided because it is considered a sign of weakness. c. Incorrect This is characteristic of Asian Americans. d. Incorrect This is also characteristic of Asian Americans. The correct answer is: use smiling to express disapproval or disagreement

Answer 167

Answer B is correct: One way to evaluate a test's construct validity is to determine if it has high correlations with measures of the same or related traits (convergent validity) and low correlations with measures of unrelated traits (divergent validity). The correct answer is: construct validity

Answer 168

This issue is addressed in Paragraph 5 of the Guidelines. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Paragraph 5(b) states that "effective psychological intervention may be aided by consultation with and/or inclusion of religious/spiritual leaders/practitioners relevant to the client's cultural and belief systems." This response is most consistent with this provision. The correct answer is: support the client in his desire to work with a curandero and express her willingness to collaborate.

Answer 169

Retroactive and proactive interference provide an alternative explanation to trace decay theory for the inability to recall previously acquired information. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Proactive interference occurs when previously learned information hinders the ability to recall information learned more recently; while retroactive interference occurs when information acquired more recently hinders the ability to recall previously acquired information. The correct answer is: forgetting (loss of memory)

Answer 170

A consistent finding of the research is a gender difference in morbidity and mortality rates among newborns. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT Male newborns are not only less mature than female newborns but are also have higher mortality rates and are more vulnerable to a variety of illnesses. See, e.g., J. C. K. Wells, Natural selection and sex differences in morbidity and mortality in early life, Journal of Theoretical Biology, 202(1), 65-76, 2000. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: Newborn boys have higher morbidity and mortality rates than do newborn girls.

Answer 171

This is a difficult question because you don't know what research or theory is being asked about. However, responses b, c, and d correspond to the stages identified by Howard et al.'s (1996) phase model of therapeutic effectiveness. Additional information about this model is provided in the Clinical Psychology chapter of the written study materials. a. Incorrect Although this is a possibility, response b is a better answer since the question specifically mentions that the client's remark occurs during the fourth session of therapy. A placebo effect could occur at any time during therapy. b. Incorrect According to the phase model, insight is not achieved until the third stage of therapy (rehabilitation), which usually does not begin until after the 16th therapy session. c. CORRECT According to Howard and his colleagues, during the first few sessions of therapy, a client experiences an increase in hopefulness. This stage is referred to as remoralization. d. Incorrect During the second phase of therapy (remediation), the client acquires new coping skills and experiences real symptom relief. The correct answer is: the client is beginning to feel more hopeful about his situation.

Answer 172

According to classical test theory, an examinees obtained test score (X) is composed of two components -- T and E. "T" refers to true score variability, while "E" refers to random (measurement) error. The correct answer is: random error

Answer 173

Cross's (1991) Black Racial Identity Development Model distinguishes between four stages: pre-encounter, encounter, immersion-emersion, and internalization. a. Incorrect A lack of interest in race is characteristic of the pre-encounter stage. b. Incorrect African American individuals in the assimilation substage of the pre-encounter stage have adopted a mainstream (White) identity. c. Incorrect Ridley (1984) used the term functional paranoia to refer to an unhealthy condition that is characterized by mistrust and suspicion. A person in the immersion-emersion stage is more likely to exhibit cultural paranoia, which Ridley defined as a healthy reaction to racism. d. CORRECT An African American individual in the immersion substage is immersed in African American culture, which is evident in his/her interests, speech, style of dress, actions, choice of friends, etc. This individual also feels a great deal of rage toward Whites. During the emersion substage, the person's intense emotions subside but he/she continues to reject White culture and begins to develop a more sophisticated African American identity. The correct answer is: intense involvement in African American culture

Answer 174

In a positively skewed distribution, the distribution of scores is extended by a few outliers on the positive end of the distribution. Note that knowing that the median is always the middle score in a distribution would have enabled you to eliminate answers b and d. a. CORRECT Because the mean is affected more than the other measures of central tendency by outliers, it will be the largest number in a positively skewed distribution. The median is always the middle score so it will be second in magnitude, and the mode will be the smallest in magnitude. A figure that illustrates the relationships between the mean, median, and mode is included in the Statistics and Research Design chapter of the written study materials. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect This describes a negatively skewed distribution. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: the mean is larger than the median which is larger than the mode.

Answer 175

A child is exhibiting holophrastic speech when he/she uses a single word to convey an entire idea - e.g., uses the word "juice" to mean "give me some juice." a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT Most children begin exhibiting holophrastic speech by 12 to 18 months. c. Incorrect Children begin exhibiting telegraphic speech (the use of two words to convey an entire sentence) between the ages of 18 and 24 months. d. Incorrect By about 24 to 36 months, most children use sentences of three or more words. The correct answer is: 12 to 18 months.

Answer 176

Answer B is correct: As described in the Test Construction chapter of the written study materials, the 95% confidence interval for an obtained test score is constructed by multiplying the standard error of measurement by 1.96 and adding and subtracting the result from the examinee's score. This interval is closest to the 95% confidence interval and was obtained by multiplying the standard error by 2.0 (instead of 1.96) and adding and subtracting the result from the examinee's score of 70. The correct answer is: 60 to 80

Answer 177

Sensory compensation refers to an improvement in one sensory modality when another modality is compromised. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Contrary to the predictions of the sensory compensation hypothesis, deafness is not generally associated with superior visual abilities. One exception is that some deaf children and adults who use sign language exhibit superior visual processing skills on mental rotation, face recognition, and visual attention tasks, but this advantage appears to be due to the use of sign language rather than to deafness itself. See, e.g., J. A. Albertine, Deafness and hearing loss, in I. B. Weiner and W. E. Craighead (Eds.), The Corsini encyclopedia of psychology, Volume 2 (pp. 461-462), Hoboken, NJ, John Wiley & Sons, 2010. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: children who are deaf perform similarly to peers without hearing deficits on most visual tasks.

Answer 178

For the exam, you want to be familiar with the provisions of the Ethics Code regarding sexual relations with supervisees and students so that you can answer questions like this. For additional information on this issue, see the Ethics and Professional Issues chapter of the written study materials. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT Standard 7.07 states that, "Psychologists do not engage in sexual relationships with students or supervisees who are in their department, agency, or training center or over whom psychologists have or are likely to have evaluative authority." c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: clearly prohibits a psychologist from having sexual relationships with a student or supervisee when he/she is in a position of authority over that person.

Answer 179

As noted in the chapter on ethics and professional issues in the written study materials, this issue is often discussed within the framework of the Tarasoff decision. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT In discussing this topic, S. Knapp and L. VandeCreek, for example, note that three issues are involved in the duty to protect: a fiduciary relationship, an identifiable victim, and the foreseeability of harm. They note that the "issue of foreseeability creates the greatest problems with the duty to protect with HIV-positive patients because the research has not identified all the risk factors involved in HIV transmission" (Application of the duty to protect to HIV-positive patients, Professional Psychology: Research and Practice, 21(3), 161-166, 1990). d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: foreseeability of harm.

Answer 180

An area of the body that is innervated by the sensory fibers of single nerve root is referred to as a dermatome. a. Incorrect The skin on the shoulder and clavicular areas is innervated by C4. b. CORRECT The skin on the medial side of the arm and forearm and the ring and little fingers is innervated by C8. c. Incorrect The skin on the medial side of the upper arm and the pectoral area of the chest is innervated by T2. d. Incorrect The skin around the waist at the level of the umbilicus is innervated by T10. The correct answer is: eighth cervical nerve (C8)

Answer 181

Virginia Satir's emphasis on communication reflects her affiliation with the Mental Research Institute in Palo Alto. a. CORRECT Satir distinguishes between five communication styles--placater, blamer, super-reasonable, irrelevant, and congruent. b. Incorrect See explanation above. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: styles of communication.

Answer 182

This situation is not explicitly covered by the Ethics Code. However, several Standards and General Principles are applicable. Principle A, for example, states that "psychologists seek to safeguard the welfare and rights of those with whom they interact professionally and other affected persons." a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Standard 5.01 also applies to this situation. It states that "psychologists do not knowingly make public statements that are false, deceptive, or fraudulent concerning their research, practice, or other work activities or those of persons or organizations with which they are affiliated." Agreeing with the company's decision to publish only supportive data would be supporting a form of deception (and would not be in the best interests of the potential users of the drug). Therefore, this response is most consistent with the "spirit" of the Ethics Code. The correct answer is: not agree to participate in designing or conducting the study.

Answer 183

Researchers often use habituation to assess information processing skills in infants. Studies using this technique have found that recognition memory skills are apparent at a very early age. a. CORRECT By three months of age, infants habituate to visual stimuli - i.e., show less response to the second presentation of a stimulus for periods up to 24 hours. This is interpreted as indicating that the infant recognizes the stimulus. b. Incorrect See explanation above. c. Incorrect By 7 months, infants begin to show signs of recall memory. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: 3

Answer 184

Criterion deficiency refers to the degree to which a criterion measure fails to measure all aspects of the ultimate (conceptual) criterion.

a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.

b. CORRECT A criterion measure can have high reliability but low validity - i.e., it can give consistent results but measure only some aspects of the ultimate criterion.

c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.

d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: low validity.

Answer 185

Development of the cortex corresponds to the emergence of various capabilities. a. CORRECT The frontal lobes mediate a number of functions including higher-order cognitive skills, which do not fully develop until early adulthood. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: frontal

Answer 186

``` The classical (tripartite) view of validity distinguishes between three major types -- content, criterion-related, and construct. From this perspective, construct validity refers to the degree to which a test measures the construct it was designed to measure. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. ``` b. CORRECT Due to changes in the conceptualization of validity, methods for evaluating validity, and methods of interpreting test scores, construct validity is now described by many experts as a unifying concept of validity. See, e.g., M. E. Strauss and G. T. Smith, Construct validity: Advances in theory and methodology, Annual Review of Clinical Psychology, 5, 1-25, 2009. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: construct

Answer 187

Answer B is correct: The DSM-5 distinguishes between Major and Mild Neurocognitive Disorders. The diagnosis of a Major Neurocognitive Disorder requires a significant decline from a previous level of cognitive functioning that interferes with independence in everyday activities; while the diagnosis of a Mild Neurocognitive Disorder requires a modest decline from a previous level of cognitive functioning that does not interfere with independence in everyday activities. Answers A, C, and D: See explanation for answer B. The correct answer is: cognitive functioning that interferes with independence in everyday activities.

Answer 188

Evolutionary psychologists propose that a woman's waist-to-hip ratio provides potential mates with information about her reproductive potential. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Studies in the United States, Britain, and other countries have found that men generally prefer a low waist-to-hip ratio of around .7. According to D. Singh, this is because this ratio is associated with greater fertility and health (Adaptive significance of waist-to-hip ratio and female physical attractiveness, Journal of Personality and Social Psychology, 65, 293-307, 1993). d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: 70

Answer 189

Knowing that haloperidol is an antipsychotic drug would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Like other conventional antipsychotics, haloperidol is a dopamine antagonist and exerts its therapeutic effects primarily by blocking dopamine receptors. However, it also has some effect on acetylcholine and serotonin levels. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: dopamine

Answer 190

Answer B is correct: This study has two independent variables - treatment and time. This is a mixed design because one of the variables is a between-groups variable (treatment), while the other is a within-subjects variable (time). Answer A: Counterbalancing involves presenting the different levels of an IV to different subjects or groups of subjects in different orders. Answer C: The term "natural groups" is used to describe a study in which the IV is an organismic variable (e.g., intelligence, self-esteem). Answer D: In a between groups design, comparisons of different levels of the IV are made between different groups. The correct answer is: mixed.

Answer 191

Krumboltz proposes that career decisions are based on what the individual has learned.

a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.

b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.

c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.

d. CORRECT Krumboltz's emphasis is on social learning -- i.e., modeling and other aspects of the social environment -- and his theory is referred to as the Social Learning Theory of Career Decision Making (SLTCDM). Additional information about Krumboltz's theory is provided in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials. The correct answer is: social learning.

Answer 192

When it is determined that a selection procedure is having an adverse impact, the employer cannot continue using it unless he/she can demonstrate that doing so is a business necessity. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT An employer can show that continued use of the selection procedure is a business necessity by demonstrating that (a) the measure is valid by establishing its relationship to successful job performance and (b) there are no alternate methods that would have less adverse impact. The correct answer is: validate that the procedure is job-related.

Answer 193

As might be expected, the area of the brain most associated with emotions is the area that exhibits different levels of activity when subjects view pictures of African American and White faces a. Incorrect See explanation for answer b. b. CORRECT Studies using functional MRI imaging to investigate the neural correlates of race evaluation have consistently found that, when White subjects are shown pictures of White and African American faces, they tend to exhibit a greater amygdala response to Africa American faces and that, the darker the skin tone of the African American faces, the greater the amygdala response. See, e.g., J. Ronquillo et al., The effects of skin tone on race-related amygdala activity: An fMRI investigation, Social Cognitive and Affective Neuroscience, 2(1), 39-44, 2007. Note that there is also some evidence that the increased amygdala response to African American faces also occurs when African American and White subjects are shown pictures of African American faces. c. Incorrect See explanation for answer b. d. Incorrect See explanation for answer b. The correct answer is: amygdala

Answer 194

Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) is characterized by excessive anxiety and worry about a number of events or activities. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect Although worry may occur without a precipitant, it is often related to specific events or activities. d. CORRECT One of the diagnostic criteria for GAD is that the person finds it difficult to control his/her anxiety and worry. The correct answer is: finds it difficult to control his or her worrying.

Answer 195

The formula for the degrees of freedom for the t-test for independent samples is N-2, where N is the total number of participants. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT The total number of participants is 30: 30 - 2 = 28. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: 28

Answer 196

Considering the characteristics of depression and anxiety might have helped you choose the correct response to this question even if you are unfamiliar with the research. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT As described in the Abnormal Psychology chapter of the written study materials, this is the difference reported by L. A. Clark et al., Temperament, personality, and the mood and anxiety disorders, Journal of Abnormal Psychology, 103, 92-102, 1994. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: a similar level of negative affect but a higher level of both autonomic arousal and positive affect.

Answer 197

The term "identical elements" refers to similarities in the learning and performance environments. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Transfer of training is maximized when learning conditions are similar to performance conditions (i.e., when they are similar in terms of task, equipment, environment, etc.). d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: ensuring transfer of training.

Answer 198

Knowing that mescaline is an hallucinogen would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT The DSM diagnosis of Hallucinogen Persisting Perception Disorder is characterized by re-experiencing perceptual disturbances reminiscent of those experienced during earlier Hallucinogen Intoxication. Of the substances listed in the answers, only mescaline is a type of hallucinogen. The correct answer is: mescaline

Answer 199

Perhaps surprisingly, the research has found that scores on cognitive ability tests are poor predictors of leader effectiveness. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT F. Fiedler and T. Link note that prior reviews of the research report median correlations of .20 to .30 between various measures of intellectual ability and leadership and managerial performance [Leader intelligence, interpersonal stress, and task performance, in R. J. Sternberg & R. J. Wagner (Eds.), Mind in context: Interactionist perspectives on human intelligence (pp. 152-170), New York, Cambridge University Press, 1994]. Explanations for these low correlations focus on potential moderating variables. For example, one explanation is that it is the relative intelligence of the leader to the intelligence of his/her supervisees that is most important - i.e., that leaders are most effective when they are only slightly more intelligent than their followers. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: weak positive

Answer 200

Even if you are unfamiliar with Sue's conceptualization of worldview, you probably could have identified the correct response by considering the information provided in the question. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT This individual has an external locus of responsibility (he can't do anything about his problems) and an external locus of control (he believes his problems are due to racism). The correct answer is: external locus of control and external locus of responsibility.

Answer 201

Obviously, a client has a right to discontinue treatment. This creates an ethical dilemma, however, when the therapist believes that termination is ill-advised. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT This is the best response of those given. In this situation, the therapist would want to discuss the possible risks of terminating therapy at this time and encourage the client to re-think his decision. Although the action described in answer b would also be important, it should follow a discussion about the possible consequences of leaving. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: discuss with him the reasons you believe he should continue and recommend that he re-think his decision.