TEST MODE - Test 1 Flashcards

Question

``` When a person with an optimistic attribution style does poorly on an exam in a class he ordinarily does well in, that person will most likely say which of the following? Select one: ``` A. I didn't study hard enough. B. I was unlucky. C. The teacher gave a very hard test this time. D. The teacher always grades on the curve.

Answer 1

According to Seligman's (1990) theory of learned optimism, the attributions of optimistic people are just the opposite of those made by depressed and other pessimistic people. a. Incorrect This is an internal attribution and is not consistent with Seligman's theory. b. Incorrect This isn't as good of a response as response c. c. CORRECT Of the responses given, this one fits best with Seligman's theory which proposes that optimistic people tend to make external, specific, and unstable (temporary) attributions for negative events. d. Incorrect This is a global (rather than specific) attribution. The correct answer is: The teacher gave a very hard test this time.

Answer 2

The correct answer is D. In fairness research, there is a focus on what a person receives (distributive justice) and how perceived goods are allocated (procedural justice), and then there is the interpersonal treatment received by individuals as the justice is carried out. For the most part, organizational justice is concerned with the ways in which employees decide if they been treated fairly in their jobs and the conditions in which those determinations influence other work-related variables. Answer A is incorrect as compensatory justice tends to be more for criminal matters and how punishment is administered to the convict. Answer B is incorrect as procedural justice would have been in this case the amount of money that the company set aside for bonuses as opposed to how much each individual receives. Answer C is incorrect as this is a type of justice that has more to do with criminal punishment than social fairness. The correct answer is: Distributive

Answer 3

To identify the correct response to this question, you need to know that, of the four drugs listed in the answers, only one is not an antipsychotic drug. a. Incorrect Risperidone is an atypical antipsychotic drug. b. Incorrect Olanzapine is also an atypical antipsychotic. c. Incorrect Chlorpromazine is a traditional antipsychotic. d. CORRECT Carbamazepine is an anticonvulsant drug that is also useful for treating Bipolar Disorder. The correct answer is: carbamazepine (Tegretol)

Answer 4

Eysenck's 1952 publication sparked research on psychotherapy outcomes. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect This sounds more like the Smith, Glass, and Miller (1980) meta-analysis, which found relatively few differences between various therapeutic approaches. c. Incorrect This is just the opposite of what Eysenck concluded. d. CORRECT Eysenck reported that 66% of patients in eclectic therapy and 44% in psychoanalytic psychotherapy improved versus 72% of those with similar problems who did not receive therapy. The correct answer is: challenged the effectiveness of conventional psychotherapeutic interventions.

Answer 5

Kahneman and Tversky (1984) identified the four heuristics (mental shortcuts) listed in the answers. a. Incorrect The availability heuristic involves judging the likelihood or frequency of an event based on how easy it is to retrieve information relevant to the event from long-term memory. b. CORRECT The representativeness heuristic involves judging the likelihood or frequency of an event based on the extent to which it resembles the "typical" case. (Even if you aren't familiar with the representativeness heuristic, you may have been able to identify the correct answer to this question since things that resemble or are similar to members of a category can be viewed as being representative of that category.) c. Incorrect The simulation heuristic involves judging the likelihood or frequency of an event based on how easy it is to mentally simulate (imagine) the event. d. Incorrect The anchoring and adjustment heuristic involves judging the likelihood or frequency of an event by using an anchoring (starting) point and making adjustments up or down from that point. The correct answer is: representativeness

Answer 6

This question is apparently asking about competence to stand trial. a. CORRECT A psychologist may be asked to evaluate a person's current mental status to determine if he/she is competent to stand trial (i.e., is able to understand court procedures and the charge against him/her). b. Incorrect A psychologist would determine the person's status at the time of the crime in order to support the insanity defense. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: at the time of the evaluation.

Answer 7

The studies have consistently shown that children do not spontaneously and consistently use rehearsal until about age 9 or 10. a. CORRECT This is the result reported, for example, by T. J. Keeney et al. (Spontaneous and induced verbal rehearsal in a recall task, Child Development, 38, 953-966, 1967). The first-graders in their study could be taught to use rehearsal for a specific task; however, they did not generalize this knowledge to other tasks. b. Incorrect See explanation above. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: these children learn to apply rehearsal to the current task but do not generalize this knowledge to other tasks.

Answer 8

A needs assessment is conducted in organizations to determine training needs. a. Incorrect These are systems in Bronfenbrenner's ecological model. b. Incorrect These are the stages in Lewin's model of planned change. c. Incorrect These are not the components of a needs assessment. d. CORRECT The systems approach to needs assessment involves three types of analysis - organization, task/job, and person. The correct answer is: organization analysis, task analysis, and person analysis.

Answer 9

As its name implies, "consultee-centered case consultation" targets the consultee. a. Incorrect This is an example of client-centered case consultation. b. Incorrect This is an example of program-centered administrative consultation. c. Incorrect This is an example of consultee-centered administrative consultation. d. CORRECT In this situation, the consultant is helping the consultee improve her skills so that she is better able to deal with future problems in the classroom. The focus of the consultation is on the consultee rather than on particular individuals who the consultee will be in contact with. The correct answer is: A consultant helps a teacher acquire the behavior modification skills she needs to reduce disruptions in her classroom.

Answer 10

Long-term memory can be divided into two types - procedural and declarative - and declarative memory can be further divided into semantic and episodic memory. a. Incorrect Procedural memory contains memories of skilled responses and actions (e.g., riding a bicycle). b. CORRECT Episodic (autobiographical) memory consists of memories for personal events (e.g., first date, graduation from college). c. Incorrect Semantic memory contains memories of general knowledge. d. Incorrect Implicit memory refers to memories that are recalled without conscious effort. The correct answer is: episodic

Answer 11

Split-brain patients have had their corpus callosum severed, usually as a treatment for severe epilepsy. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT A primary function of the corpus callosum is to transfer sensory (and some motor) information from one hemisphere to the other. When the corpus callosum is severed, messages from the right brain cannot be transferred to the left brain and vice versa, and this deficit is most apparent in tasks involving sensory input. The correct answer is: sensory functions

Answer 12

Immediate action is the appropriate response to situations involving a high risk for suicide. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect Referral to a therapist might be the next step after talking with the student. c. CORRECT Of the responses given, this is the best one. It implies an immediate action that would help determine if the student is actually at risk. d. Incorrect There's no information in this question suggesting that the test needs to be re-administered. The correct answer is: discuss your concerns with the student immediately.

Answer 13

At least one reason for R. A. Fisher's development of the ANOVA was to have a mathematically simpler alternative to multiple regression for analyzing the effects of qualitative variables. However, with the availability of computers, the need for the ANOVA has been questioned. a. Incorrect This is an advantage of multiple regression. All of the information is provided with a single analysis as opposed to the two-step process required when using the ANOVA. b. Incorrect This is also an advantage of multiple regression. It can be used for independent variables measured on any scale of measurement and doesn't require that continuous variables be categorized (which has the effect of reducing the usefulness of the data). c. Incorrect The "stepwise" method of multiple regression does have this advantage. d. CORRECT This is not an advantage of either multiple regression or the ANOVA. The correct answer is: it allows the researcher to estimate the effects of the independent variables on the dependent variable with the effects of measurement error removed.

Answer 14

Knowing that anomia is a symptom of some types of aphasia and/or that it involves an inability to name familiar objects and people would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. a. Incorrect The somatosensory cortex is located in the parietal lobe and is involved in pressure, temperature, pain, and proprioception. b. Incorrect The mammillary bodies are connected to the hypothalamus and play a role in learning and memory. c. CORRECT Wernicke's area is a major language area in the brain, and damage causes deficits in language comprehension and production, including an inability to name familiar objects and people. d. Incorrect Papez's circuit was proposed as a brain mechanism (circuit) that mediates the experience and expression of emotion. The correct answer is: Wernickes area

Answer 15

The debate over the relationship between Parkinson's Disease and depression has not been entirely resolved. However, there seems to be more evidence that it is endogenous to the disorder rather than simply a reaction to it. a. Incorrect Depression is more common in those with Parkinson's Disease than in the general population and, as noted above, it is currently believed to be endogenous to the disorder. b. Incorrect As noted, depression is probably not just a reaction to the disorder. c. CORRECT One source of evidence for the endogenous nature of depression in Parkinson's Disease is the occurrence of a prodromal "parkinsonian personality," which is characterized by melancholia, introversion, and pessimism. The early appearance of depressive symptoms is most common in younger patients and those with a family history of the disorder. d. Incorrect As noted above, depression is an early appearing symptom in some patients. The correct answer is: appears to be endogenous to the disorder and may precede motor symptoms, especially in younger patients.

Answer 16

Jung's analytic psychology differs from Freud's psychotherapy in a number of important ways. For Jung, for example, the basic elements of the psyche are the conscious (which includes the ego) and the unconscious (which includes a personal and collective component). a. Incorrect This is true about Jung's perspective. He described people as being more creative and goal-directed than Freud. b. Incorrect This also describe's Jung's approach. c. Incorrect Jung placed a great deal of emphasis on changes that occur during adulthood, especially in midlife. d. CORRECT The ego is an important part of Jung's theory, and, although he did make use of the notion of the "self," he considered the self to be the archetype for the ego. The correct answer is: Jung replaced the concept of the ego with the concepts of the self and the ideal-self.

Answer 17

For the exam, you want to be familiar with the managed care terms listed in the answers to this question. a. IConcurrent review is the term used for utilization reviews conducted during the course of treatment. b. CORRECT Credentialing is a formal process for determining whether or not a provider meets and maintains qualification standards and provides some legal protection for the MCO. c. Quality management is another name for quality assurance. d. Clinical audit is a method of quality assurance. The correct answer is: credentialing.

Answer 18

This is a difficult question, but you may have been able to identify the correct answer if you remembered that Vygotsky viewed cognitive development as being initially interpersonal (which refers to the child's interactions with others) and then intrapersonal (which occurs when the child internalizes what he or she has learned). a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Internalization is a key concept in Vygotsky's theory of cognitive development. For example, he described language development as a process involving a transition from social (external) speech to private (self-directed) speech to internal speech. In other words, speech first serves a social function (social speech); is then used to direct, plan, and evaluate one's own actions (private speech); and then acts as a tool for thinking (internal speech). d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: Vygotsky

Answer 19

The term "habituation" refers to a decrease in response strength that occurs as the result of repeated stimulation. It is considered the simplest type of learning. a. CORRECT Kandel and Schwartz's research with Aplysia indicated that habituation is due to a decrease in the release of a neurotransmitter. b. Incorrect See explanation above. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: neuronal processes underlying memory.

Answer 20

Answer C is correct: Depersonalization/Derealization Disorder is characterized by recurrent episodes of depersonalization (a sense of unreality, detachment, or being an outside observer of one's thoughts, feelings, etc.) and/or derealization (a sense of unreality or detachment involving one's surroundings) that cause clinically significant distress or impaired functioning. Answer A: Delusional Disorder involves one or more delusions that last at least one month. As defined in the DSM-5, a delusion is "a false belief based on incorrect inference about external reality that is firmly held despite what almost everyone else believes and despite what constitutes incontrovertible and obvious proof or evidence to the contrary" (p. 819). Answer B: A dissociative fugue is characterized by apparently purposeful travel with an inability to recall some or all of one's past and is included in the DSM-5 as a specifier for Dissociative Amnesia. Answer D: Depersonalization Disorder is not a DSM-5 diagnosis. The correct answer is: Depersonalization/Derealization Disorder

Answer 21

One of the advantages of many of the newer (atypical) neuroleptics is that they are associated with fewer negative side effects than the traditional neuroleptics are. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT Although long-term use of risperidone can produce tardive dyskinesia, the risk for this side effect is much lower for this drug than for the traditional neuroleptics. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: is less likely to produce tardive dyskinesia.

Answer 22

In the beginning of group therapy, clients rely more on the therapist. Later, as the group members become closer, group cohesion develops and members interact more with one another. a. CORRECT Initially, group members ignore each other and direct all of their comments and questions to the therapist. b. Incorrect As response a suggests, interactions between group members will be sparse at the onset of therapy. c. Incorrect Although this may be true in some cases, most group members perceive the therapist as their ally. d. Incorrect Cliques begin to develop, if at all, after the beginning stages of group therapy. The correct answer is: group members will talk through the therapist and seemingly ignore one another.

Answer 23

Knowing the schedule of reinforcement of slot machines may have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT When using a variable ratio schedule, a reinforcer is provided after a variable number of responses. Of the four intermittent schedules, it is associated with the highest rate of responding and the greatest resistance to extinction once the reinforcer is no longer provided. The correct answer is: variable ratio

Answer 24

Cataplexy is a brief episode of a sudden loss of muscle tone that is associated with narcolepsy. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Cataplexy occurs in the majority of individuals who have narcolepsy and is triggered by strong emotions (most often positive emotions such as joking and laughing but also by anger). d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: strong emotions

Answer 25

This is a controversial issues in the literature, and the results of the research have not been consistent. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT This is probably the best conclusion that can be drawn on the basis of the inconsistent research results. The inconsistency has led some experts to conclude that other factors (e.g., rapport and attitudes) are more important, although "colorblindness" has not been identified as one of these factors. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: White examiners may have a positive, a negative, or no effect on the test performance of these children.

Answer 26

In this situation, multiple X scores will be used to predict multiple Y scores. a. Incorrect Multiple regression is used when scores on two or more X variables will be used to predict a single Y score. b. CORRECT Canonical correlation is an extension of multiple regression that is appropriate when there is more than one Y variable. c. Incorrect Multiple discriminant analysis is used when the Y variable is nominal and two or more X variables will be used to place the examinee into a category on Y. d. Incorrect Cluster analysis is used to identify or confirm homogeneous subgroups. The correct answer is: canonical correlation.

Answer 27

The child in the question is exhibiting insecure/avoidant attachment. a. Incorrect Abuse and neglect are most associated with the disorganized/disoriented attachment pattern. b. Incorrect Maternal depression may lead to insecure attachment, but you can't draw this conclusion from the information given (i.e., the mother may or may not be depressed). c. CORRECT Research by Ainsworth and her colleagues found that babies exhibiting insecure/avoidant attachment often have mothers who tend to be either very impatient and nonresponsive or, alternatively, overstimulating. d. Incorrect Single parenthood has not been linked to the insecure/avoidant attachment pattern. The correct answer is: impatient or overstimulating.

Answer 28

The research on biofeedback is far from consistent, but biofeedback does appear to have positive effects for several problems including hypertension. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT The research has shown that, for most disorders that it has been applied to, biofeedback has beneficial effects, but these effects do not exceed those associated with other treatments. For hypertension, biofeedback seems to be about as effective as relaxation training and self-monitoring. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: is about equally as effective as relaxation training or self-monitoring of blood pressure.

Answer 29

A measure has content validity when its items represent the content (or behavior) domain the test was designed to measure. a. CORRECT This is an accurate description of content validity. b. Incorrect This technique would be used to establish construct or criterion-related validity. c. Incorrect This sounds like concurrent validity (a type of criterion-related validity). d. Incorrect This sounds like predictive validity (another type of criterion-related validity). The correct answer is: make sure that the skills required by the work sample represent the skill domain required by the job.

Answer 30

Migraine headaches are more common in females and have been linked with certain personality characteristics. a. CORRECT The risk for migraine is higher for females than males; the onset of migraines is between puberty and mid-life; and personality characteristics that have been linked to migraines include perfectionism, neatness, restraint, and ambitiousness. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: a 35 year old female who is perfectionistic and ambitious

Answer 31

Many of the licensing exam questions on specific tests will (like this one) require you to be familiar with the test's purpose. a. CORRECT In addition to knowing that the Wonderlic is a 12-minute test of mental ability for adults, you want to know that it is used to assist employers with hiring decisions. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: brief test of mental ability for adults.

Answer 32

Different experts have labeled the different levels or categories of acculturation somewhat differently, but most distinguish between at least four levels - assimilated, integrated (bicultural), separated, and marginal. a. Incorrect The term "fused" refers to the melting pot position in which the two separate cultures cannot be distinguished. b. Incorrect Separation occurs when the individual is immersed in his/her own ethnic culture and is not part of the larger (dominant) culture. c. Incorrect An assimilated individual has given up his/her own ethnic culture and identifies with the larger (dominant) culture. d. CORRECT The bicultural individual has adopted both cultures. Biculturalism can be alternating (as in Manuel's case) or blended. The correct answer is: bicultural.

Answer 33

Postpartum depression is a mood disorder that begins within several weeks following delivery. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT Ten to 15% is the rate most often reported in the literature for postpartum depression in the United States. Factors associated with an increased risk for postpartum depression include having difficulty getting pregnant, having twins or triplets, having premature labor and delivery, experiencing pregnancy and birth complications, and having a baby during adolescence. See, e.g., CDC, Prevalence of self-reported postpartum depression - 17 states, 2004-2005, Morbidity and Mortality Weekly Report, 57(14), 361-366, 2008. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: 10 to 15%

Answer 34

Answer C is correct: The client's symptoms are consistent with a diagnosis of Persistent Depressive Disorder. Answer A: Dysthymic Disorder is not a DSM-5 diagnosis. Answer B: Mood Disorder NOS is not a DSM-5 diagnostic category. Answer D: Unspecified Depressive Disorder applies when a clinician does not want to indicate the reason why a client's symptoms do not meet the criteria for a specific depressive disorder. The correct answer is: Persistent Depressive Disorder

Answer 35

Expectancy theory predicts that motivation is a function of three beliefs: expectancy, instrumentality, and valence. For additional information on expectancy theory, see the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT Instrumentality refers to the belief that good performance will be rewarded. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: instrumentality

Answer 36

Nathan Ackerman, a psychoanalyst and child psychiatrist, began investigating the role of family dynamics in the 1930s; and, in the 1940s, he started developing clinical techniques that applied psychoanalytic principles to the treatment of preschool children and their families. a. CORRECT Ackerman is considered a pioneer in the assessment and treatment of families and the first to integrate the psychoanalytic approach with a systems approach in assessing and treating families. b. Incorrect Whitaker applied experiential (humanistic) principles to family therapy. c. Incorrect Stuart was an early contributor to behavioral family therapy. d. Incorrect Liberman is a major figure in behavioral family therapy. The correct answer is: Nathan Ackerman

Answer 37

The key term in this question is "court-ordered." a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Therapist-client privilege implies that, in most circumstances, a psychologist does not reveal confidential client information in the context of a legal proceeding without the consent of the client or his/her legal representative. There are exceptions to privilege, however, and a court order is one of these exceptions. (If the information is damaging to the client, the normal procedure is to request that it be read by the judge in camera - i.e., in the privacy of the judge's chambers.) The correct answer is: provide the court with the requested information.

Answer 38

Not surprisingly, past behavior is the best predictor of future behavior. a. Incorrect Although drug use by parents or other family members is a good predictor of adolescent drug abuse, it's not as accurate as prior drug use. b. Incorrect This also is not as strong of a predictor as prior drug use. c. CORRECT Use of tobacco, alcohol, and/or marijuana (which are referred to as "gateway" drugs in the literature) is the single-best predictor of illicit drug use and drug abuse by adolescents. See M. A. Pentz, Primary prevention of adolescent drug abuse, in C. B. Fisher and R. M. Lerner (Eds.), Applied developmental psychology, McGraw-Hill, New York, 1994. d. Incorrect Depression is not as predictive as previous drug use. The correct answer is: prior use of gateway drugs.

Answer 39

A careful reading of this question reveals that it is describing "backwards conditioning." a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Backwards conditioning rarely works: For classical conditioning to be effective, the conditioned stimulus must be presented before the unconditioned stimulus. The correct answer is: The target behavior will not change in frequency.

Answer 40

In most situations, psychologists must maintain the confidentiality of their clients unless the client waives his/her right to confidentiality or a breach of confidentiality is mandated by law. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Psychologists ordinarily maintain the confidentiality of a client who is the victim of spousal or partner abuse, and the primary intervention in this situation would be to ensure the safety of Mrs. Maitalain, which would include discussing her options. An exception is when there is reason to suspect that children are also at risk. Also note that some jurisdictions mandate reporting of certain types of abuse for "vulnerable adults," but there is no information given in this question that indicates that Mrs. Maitalain is a vulnerable adult. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: maintain Mrs. Maitalains confidentiality but discuss her options in this situation.

Answer 41

As noted in the Ethics Code, any attempt at resolving a potential ethical violation by a psychologist must include consideration of the client's confidentiality. a. Incorrect Although this may be appropriate, note that this answer does not mention the issue of confidentiality. Consequently, it is not the best answer of those given. b. CORRECT This is the best response since it is most consistent with Standard 1.04 (Informal Resolution of Ethical Violations) of the Ethics Code and does not violate the client's confidentiality. c. Incorrect This would not be an appropriate course of action since there is nothing in the question to imply that you already have a therapeutic relationship with the client. d. Incorrect See explanations for responses a and b. The correct answer is: discuss the issue with the psychologist when he has not been drinking.

Answer 42

As described by Bateson et al. (1956), double-bind communication occurs when a family member receives contradictory injunctions (messages) from another family member and is unable to comment on those injunctions or escape from them. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT The title of Bateson et al.'s 1956 paper was Toward a Theory of Schizophrenia. Their double-bind hypothesis provided an alternative to psychodynamic theory regarding the development of this disorder and proposed that the recipient of double-bind communication learns to escape the discomfort it creates by responding with similarly distorted and contradictory messages. Eventually, the individual becomes unable to understand the true meaning of his/her own messages and those of others. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: Schizophrenia

Answer 43

A number of operant techniques are used to reduce the frequency and/or strength of a behavior. One of them, stimulus control, involves stimulus discrimination, or learning to respond differently in the presence of different stimuli. When a behavior is under the control of stimuli in this manner, the behavior is said to be under stimulus control. a. Incorrect Self-monitoring involves having a client record information about the frequency and conditions of a target behavior. For Sandy Y., self-monitoring might be initially used (i.e, she might record information about where and when she smokes) in order to determine what kind of program would be most effective for reducing her smoking. b. CORRECT Sandy Y. has been instructed to limit (control) the number and kind of stimuli that are associated with cigarette smoking. By doing so, smoking will become associated with (under the control of) a restricted number of stimuli. c. Incorrect Overcorrection involves applying a penalty following an undesirable behavior and then having the individual practice more appropriate behaviors in an exaggerated fashion. It is most useful for the treatment of socially inappropriate and self-injurious behaviors. d. Incorrect Response cost involves the removal of a specific positive reinforcement each time a behavior is performed. If response cost were to be used with Sandy Y., she might have to give up an hour of watching television each time she smokes. The correct answer is: stimulus control.

Answer 44

The multivariate analysis of variance (MANOVA) is used to simultaneously assess the effects of one or more independent variables on two or more dependent variables. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT The more statistical comparisons made within a research study, the greater the likelihood of making a Type I error. By using the MANOVA to simultaneously assess the effects of the independent variable(s) on the dependent variables, the fewer the total number of statistical comparisons, and the lower the probability of making a Type I error. (The word "error" in the term experimentwise error rate refers to a Type I error.) The correct answer is: control the experimentwise error rate.

Answer 45

As its name implies, strategic family therapy involves the use of "strategies." a. Incorrect This is not characteristic of strategic family therapy. b. Incorrect This is not characteristic of strategic family therapy. c. CORRECT Of the responses given, this one is the best example of the techniques used by a strategic family therapist. The therapist is assigning the couple a task that will help them face their own conflicts. d. Incorrect This is also not typical of strategic family therapy. The correct answer is: give the husband and wife a homework assignment designed to foster recognition of the conflicts that exist between them.

Answer 46

The licensing exam measures knowledge of several areas in the field of psychology. a. CORRECT The EPPP is a measure of knowledge that candidates seeking licensure should have. b. Incorrect This would be nice, but the test has not been validated as a measure of job proficiency. c. Incorrect This is not an accurate description of the licensing exam. d. Incorrect This describes licensure but not the licensing exam. The correct answer is: a measure of basic knowledge of psychology.

Answer 47

It is sometimes difficult to distinguish between substance-induced disorders and medical conditions. a. Incorrect Alcohol Withdrawal is characterized by tremor, nausea and vomiting, autonomic hyperactivity, depressed mood and irritability, transient illusions and hallucinations, and insomnia. b. CORRECT The symptoms listed in the question are characteristic of Caffeine Intoxication. c. Incorrect Cocaine Intoxication is marked by euphoria, grandiosity, hypervigilance, impaired judgment, rambling and incoherent speech, perspiration, chills, and visual or tactile hallucinations. d. Incorrect Hyperthyroidism, an endocrine disorder, produces weight loss, increased appetite, intolerance to heat, tremors, and rapid heart rate. The correct answer is: Caffeine Intoxication

Answer 48

Answer A is correct. If you think about Yalom's initial stages in group therapy, you might recall that it is the development of cohesiveness that moves the group forward into the working stage. Although Yalom believes that group therapy provides a number of curative factors, he emphasizes the importance of group cohesiveness and describes it as the analogue to the therapist-client relationship in individual therapy. The correct answer is: cohesiveness

Answer 49

One of the most commonly-cited studies on the outcomes for at-risk children is the longitudinal study by E. Werner and R. Smith (Vulnerable but invincible, New York, McGraw-Hill, 1982). That study and others have identified several factors that predict positive outcomes for high risk (vulnerable) children. a. Incorrect While significantly lower-than-average IQs are associated with a poor outcome, many children with average IQs have a positive outcome. b. CORRECT Children with positive outcomes tend to be described as very active and socially responsive during infancy, and many studies have found that a positive outcome is likely to the extent that the child is able to successfully elicit attention and appropriate care from his/her caretakers. c. Incorrect Learning disabilities (with or without special education) are associated with poorer outcomes. d. Incorrect Many of the mothers in the Werner and Smith study worked outside the home. However, this did not seem to have a negative effect since the children often had close relationships with their grandmothers and/or siblings who acted as caretakers. The correct answer is: exhibit good social responsiveness during infancy.

Answer 50

This question is referring to a survey of APA Division 42 members [M. J. Murphy, C. R., DeBernardo, & W. E. Shoemaker, Impact of managed care on independent practice and professional ethics: A survey of independent practitioners, Professional Psychology: Research and Practice, 29(1), 43-51, 1998]. The results of that survey are described in the Ethical Manual in the written study materials. a. CORRECT Increased demand due to utilization review was the most frequently cited negative effect, with 87% of respondents referring to the increase in paperwork and 83% referring to the increase in phone contacts with third-party payors. b. Incorrect Thirty-eight percent of respondents cited some panels being closed to psychologists. c. Incorrect Forty percent of respondents cited a decline in income due to a decrease in the volume of patients. d. Incorrect Increased need for supervision was not one of the effects cited by respondents. The correct answer is: increased demands due to utilization review.

Answer 51

In most situations, multiple relationships are to be avoided. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT This answer is most consistent with ethical guidelines that require psychologists to avoid multiple relationships. For example, Guideline 7 of the APA's Guidelines for Child Custody Evaluations in Family Law Proceedings identifies providing psychotherapy to prior child custody examinees as a multiple relationship that should be avoided. The correct answer is: refer the woman to a colleague.

Answer 52

The release of confidential client information ordinarily requires a waiver from the client. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Of the responses given, this is the best one. Privilege may or may not be waived in this situation and, even if it is, you should discuss the release of confidential information (even to the client's attorney) with the client and, in most cases, obtain a waiver. The correct answer is: discuss the release with the client before taking any additional action.

Answer 53

Stress inoculation training was designed to help people cope more effectively with stress by increasing their coping skills. a. Incorrect These are not the three stages of stress inoculation training. b. Incorrect These are the three targets of Rehm's self-control therapy. c. Incorrect These are steps in Meichenbaum's self-instructional training. d. CORRECT Unfortunately, the names given to the three stages vary somewhat in the literature, so you need to be flexible when looking for the correct answer to a question on this technique. The first stage of stress inoculation training is ordinarily referred to as the conceptualization, education, or cognitive phase; the second stage as the skills application or training phase or the skills acquisition and rehearsal phase; and the third phase as the application or application and follow-through phase. The correct answer is: conceptualization, skills acquisition, and application.

Answer 54

In this situation, the evaluation of the instructor has become more extreme for some group members as a result of their participation in the group. a. Incorrect Social facilitation occurs when performance on a task is improved as the result of the presence of other people. b. CORRECT Group polarization refers to the tendency of groups to make more extreme decisions than individual group members would make alone. Of the responses given, group polarization best "fits" the situation described in this question. c. Incorrect The fundamental attribution bias refers to the tendency to make dispositional attributions when judging the behavior of others. d. Incorrect Negative framing refers to presenting a problem to a person in negative terms. The correct answer is: group polarization

Answer 55

Interoceptive exposure has been found useful for reducing anxiety associated with panic attacks, PTSD, and other anxiety-related disorders. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT Interoceptive exposure involves exposing the individual to internal bodily sensations (e.g., elevated heart rate, hyperventilation) associated with a panic attack or other anxiety response by having him/her inhale carbon dioxide, spin in a chair, etc. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: exposure to bodily sensations associated with anxiety reactions.

Answer 56

The Solomon four-group design combines the pretest-posttest control group design with the posttest only control group design. a Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT The purpose of Solomon four-group design is to evaluate the effects of pretesting on a study's internal and external validity. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: evaluate the effects of pretesting.

Answer 57

Mediation is often distinguished from fact-finding and arbitration. a. Incorrect This sounds more like arbitration. b. Incorrect This sounds a more like fact-finding than mediation. c. CORRECT In mediation, a neutral third party (the mediator) uses various tactics to facilitate voluntary agreement between disputants. Mediators can make recommendations, but they have no formal power and cannot impose their solution or decision. d. Incorrect This does not describe the role of a mediator. The correct answer is: the mediator facilitates the flow of information between the involved parties and helps them progress toward an acceptable compromise.

Answer 58

A number of factors influence whether bystanders will assist the apparent victim of an accident, crime, or other emergency situation including the number of bystanders. a. CORRECT The research has found that bystanders are less likely to offer help when in the presence of others than when alone and that the greater the number of bystanders, the less likely anyone will offer assistance. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: only one bystander.

Answer 59

Some chemicals act as either agonists or antagonists in the brain. a. CORRECT L-dopa is a precursor to dopamine, which means that it is transformed to dopamine in the brain. An agonist is a chemical that increases the amount or action of a neurotransmitter. Consequently, L-dopa is a dopamine agonist. b. Incorrect An antagonist reduces the amount or availability of a neurotransmitter in the brain. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: dopamine agonist.

Answer 60

Wernicke's area is one of the primary speech areas. a. Incorrect The occipital lobe mediates vision and visual perception. b. CORRECT Wernicke's area is located in the temporal lobe. Damage to this area causes Wernicke's (receptive) aphasia. c. Incorrect Broca's area (the other primary speech area) is located in the frontal lobe. d. Incorrect The parietal lobe contains the somatosensory cortex. The correct answer is: temporal lobe.

Answer 61

The implications of incentive/reward and other motivational theories are summarized by R. A. Katzell and D. E. Thompson in Work motivation: Theory and practice, American Psychologist, 45(2), 144-153, 1990. a. Incorrect This is an implication of reinforcement theory, which is different from incentive/reward theory in its premises and implications. b. CORRECT Incentive/reward theory is broader than reinforcement theory and emphasizes the features of the job and work environment that maximize worker interest and satisfaction. c. Incorrect This is not a key implication of incentive/reward theory. d. Incorrect This is also not an implication of incentive/reward theory. The correct answer is: making jobs interesting, attractive, and satisfying

Answer 62

Some generalizations about the treatment of Hispanic and Hispanic American clients have been made in the literature, and you should be familiar with them for the licensing exam. a. Incorrect This is true. There are different levels of acculturation not only between families but also within families (i.e., younger members of the family tend to be more acculturated to the white middle-class way of life). b. CORRECT Although Hispanic families do tend to be hierarchical, this does not preclude them from family therapy. In fact, family therapy is often the treatment-of-choice because of the close relationships between family members. c. Incorrect This is true not only for Hispanics but also members of other minority groups. d. Incorrect This is also generally true. The correct answer is: family therapy is often contraindicated because of the hierarchical nature of the Hispanic family.

Answer 63

Minuchin distinguished between three types of rigid triads that help alleviate tension between two family members - detouring, stable coalition, and triangulation. a. Incorrect Reframing is a paradoxical technique that involves providing an alternative meaning for a behavior so that it can be seen from a new perspective. b. CORRECT Detouring occurs when parents avoid the tension between them by either blaming or overprotecting a child. c. Incorrect A stable coalition occurs when a parent and child consistently "gang up" against the other parent. d. Incorrect Triangulation occurs when both parents attempt to get the child to side with him or her. The correct answer is: detouring.

Answer 64

Although the laws vary from jurisdiction to jurisdiction, in general, a psychologist should not release information after a client's death without proper authorization (e.g., from the executor of the estate or the client's legal representative). a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT This is the best course of action. See, e.g., R. I. Simon, Clinical psychiatry and the law, American Psychiatric Press, Washington, DC, 1992. The correct answer is: not release any information without appropriate authorization.

Answer 65

The correct answer is D. Many community-based training initiatives in evidence-based psychosocial treatments have acquired significant support due to the evidence that some EBTs can be conveyed effectively into non-research and community-based settings. Although many large health organizations such as the National Health Service in the United Kingdom, the United States Department of Veterans Affairs and state mental health systems have mandated the implementation of EBTs, the intensity and type of training varies considerably across these fields. Answers A, B and C are incorrect as the main difficulty is the lack of consistency across the field, not the expense, number of trainers or lack of evidenced based therapies. The correct answer is: The varied type and intensity of training that differs across regions.

Answer 66

To answer this question correctly, you need to know that an interaction occurs when the effects of one independent variable differ for different levels of another independent variable. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Because the interaction is significant, this means that the effects of training type may differ for different levels of self-efficacy --e.g., training method #1 might be most effective for people with low self-efficacy, while training method #2 might be most effective for people with high self-efficacy. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: the most effective type of training depends on level of self-efficacy.

Answer 67

Answer D is correct: Croen et al. (2001) investigated individual and family characteristics of children with a mild or severe Intellectual Disability with an unknown etiology and found low birth weight to be the strongest predictor of both levels of disability. Answers A, B, and C: See explanation for answer D. The correct answer is: low birth weight

Answer 68

In a normal distribution, the mean, median, and mode are equal to the same value. In contrast, in a skewed distribution, the distribution is asymmetrical and the mean, median and mode have different values due to the presence of a few outliers in the positive or negative end of the distribution. a. Incorrect The term leptokurtic is used to describe a distribution of scores that is more "peaked" than the normal distribution. b. Incorrect The term platykurtic is used to describe a distribution of scores that is flatter than the normal distribution. c. CORRECT In a negatively skewed distribution, the mean is affected most by the few outliers in the negative (low) end of the distribution and, therefore, has the lowest value. d. Incorrect In a positively skewed distribution, the mean is larger than the median which is larger than the mode. The correct answer is: negatively skewed

Answer 69

Equity theory predicts that motivation is a function of the comparisons workers make between their own input/outcome ratio and those of workers doing similar jobs. a. Incorrect The Rosenthal effect is another name for the self-fulfilling prophecy effect, which isn't really relevant to equity theory. b. CORRECT According to equity theory, motivation is a result of our social comparisons. Additional information on equity theory is provided in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials. c. Incorrect Drive theory is also a theory of motivation but isn't as relevant to equity theory as social comparison theory. d. Incorrect The buffering hypothesis predicts that the perception of adequate social support buffers people against the negative effects of stress. The correct answer is: social comparison theory

Answer 70

Sophie reviewed several of the prominent stage theories to derive her own general model [A critical examination of stage theories of lesbian identity development, Journal of Homosexuality, 12(2), 39-51, 1985/86]. a. Incorrect These are four of the six stages of Cass's (1984) stage model of gay and lesbian identity development. In order, the six stages are identity confusion, identity comparison, identity tolerance, identity acceptance, identity pride, and identity synthesis. b. Incorrect These are the four stages of Troiden's (1988) gay/lesbian identity development model. c. CORRECT These are the four stages described by Sophie. d. Incorrect These are the four stages of Cross's (1991) Black racial identity development model. The correct answer is: first awareness, testing and exploration, identity acceptance, and identity integration

Answer 71

All of the phenomena listed in the answers are characteristic of Schizophrenia and other disorders, but only one describes the woman's symptom. a. Incorrect An illusion is a distorted perception or memory. b. Incorrect An hallucination is a false perception. A person is hallucinating, for example, if she hears voices that are not really there. c. CORRECT A delusion is a false belief that persists despite evidence to the contrary. The woman's delusion (her interpretation of an external event as though it has special significance for her) is a "delusion of reference." d. Incorrect Blocking is an abrupt, involuntary interruption in the flow of speech or thought. The correct answer is: delusion

Answer 72

This question is asking about a situation in which the views of group members become increasingly extreme due to their participation in the group. a. Incorrect Individuation occurs when a person feels "anonymous" as a member of a group. b. Incorrect A social trap is a conflict that occurs when behavior has positive short-term consequences but negative long-term consequences. c. CORRECT Group polarization refers to the tendency of people to make more extreme decisions when acting as members of a group than they would have made as individuals. d. Incorrect Group contagion refers to the transmission of emotion through a crowd or group. The correct answer is: group polarization

Answer 73

The final stage in Erikson's stages of psychosocial development involves a conflict between integrity versus despair. a. Incorrect The development of a coherent identity is the goal of adolescence. b. Incorrect Developing intimate relationships is a goal during young adulthood. c. CORRECT Successful resolution of the psychosocial conflict of late adulthood (ages 65 and over) involves developing a broader philosophical and moral perspective ("wisdom") that younger adults often lack. d. Incorrect "Hope" is not associated with this stage. The correct answer is: wisdom

Answer 74

The Ethics Code is not "crystal clear" about this issue, but it does seem to imply that the psychologist maintains responsibility for the care and treatment of animal subjects. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Standard 8.09(b) states that "Psychologists trained in research methods and experienced in the care of laboratory animals supervise all procedures involving animals and are responsible for ensuring appropriate consideration of their comfort, health, and humane treatment." In light of this statement, this response is the best one. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: is ultimately responsible for the animals him/herself.

Answer 75

There are several models of depression, but only one identifies all three of the components listed in the question as the factors underlying this disorder. a. Incorrect Bandura's self-efficacy model has not been widely applied to the understanding or treatment of depression. However, it implies that depression and other undesirable or maladaptive behaviors are due to a low sense of self-efficacy. b. CORRECT According to Rehm's self-control theory, individuals with depression selectively attend to negative events and to the immediate consequences of their behavior; make inaccurate internal attributions about their behaviors; and have low rates of self-reinforcement. c. Incorrect Seligman's learned helplessness model attributes depression to prior exposure to uncontrollable negative events, which leads to a sense of helplessness. d. Incorrect Self-verification theory is not a theory of depression. It predicts that people tend to seek information that confirms the self-concept. The correct answer is: Rehm's self-control theory

Answer 76

A number of cognitive-behavioral techniques have been used to alleviate anxiety, fears, and other maladaptive behaviors in children and adults. Obviously, some techniques are less appropriate for children than others. a. CORRECT Several studies have confirmed that coping skills training--which incorporates positive self-statements and positive imagery--is a useful technique for eliminating nighttime fear of the dark. b. Incorrect This would not be a useful technique for young children. c. Incorrect Although certain aspects of stress inoculation might be useful with young children, this technique in its entirety is better suited for adults. d. Incorrect Covert sensitization is a type of aversive counterconditioning and would not be useful for this purpose. The correct answer is: coping self-statements and positive imagery.

Answer 77

Studies on the relationship between gender and the effects of crowding have produced somewhat inconsistent results. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT A review of the research indicates that the inconsistencies are due largely to the setting in which the research was conducted. Women tend to respond better than men in crowded laboratory (experimental) situations, while men do better in naturalistic settings. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: women cope with crowding better than men do in laboratory settings but men cope with crowding better in residential settings.

Answer 78

As its name suggests, form quality refers to the form (shape) of the inkblot. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT Form quality refers to the degree to which an examinee's response matches the actual form of the inkblot and provides information on the degree of congruence between the examinee's response and reality. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: the degree of congruence between the response and reality.

Answer 79

In the situation described in this question, Kevin has learned to swear in some situations but not in others because of the different consequences for doing so in those situations. a. CORRECT A response is brought under stimulus control when the person learns to respond in situations in which reinforcement is likely but not in situations in which no reinforcement (or punishment) is likely. b. Incorrect Partial reinforcement refers to the use of an intermittent (partial) schedule of reinforcement. c. Incorrect Shaping is a type of reinforcement in which successive approximations to the desired response are reinforced. d. Incorrect Overcorrection is a behavioral technique that is used to reduce an undesirable behavior and replace it with a more desirable one. The correct answer is: stimulus control.

Answer 80

Answer C is correct: The symptoms listed in this questions are consistent with the DSM-5 diagnosis of Genito-Pelvic Pain/Penetration Disorder. The correct answer is: Genito-Pelvic Pain/Penetration Disorder

Answer 81

The criterion-related validity coefficient is interpreted like any other correlation coefficient for two variables -- i.e., it is squared to obtain a measure of shared variability. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT A validity coefficient of .70 indicates that 49% (.70 squared) of variability is shared by the predictor and criterion -- or, put another way, that 49% of variability in criterion scores is explained by variability in predictor scores. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: 49

Answer 82

As described in the Test Construction chapter of the written study materials, when factors are orthogonal (uncorrelated), a test's factor loadings can be squared and summed to calculate the communality (the amount of variability in test scores explained by the identified factors). a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT Test A's communality is equal to .40 squared (.16) plus .30 squared (.09), which is .25. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: 0.25

Answer 83

The girl's symptoms and their sudden onset are most suggestive of Bipolar Disorder. a. Incorrect - For a diagnosis of ADHD, there would have to be some evidence of hyperactivity-impulsivity and/or inattention in at least two settings. b. Incorrect - A diagnosis of Conduct Disorder requires a persistent pattern of antisocial behavior. Although the question mentions that the girl has had "behavioral problems," there is not sufficient evidence to conclude that they meet the criteria for this diagnosis. c. CORRECT - The girl's symptoms are suggestive of mania which, in adolescents, is sometimes preceded by a history of behavioral problems. d. Incorrect - A diagnosis of Bipolar II disorder requires a history of both major depressive and hypomanic episodes. The correct answer is: Bipolar I Disorder.

Answer 84

Knowing that SAT refers to the Scholastic Assessment Test may have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT The Scholastic Assessment Test is an admissions test that is used to predict the college success of high school seniors. It consists of two parts -- the SAT Reasoning Test and the SAT Subject Tests. The correct answer is: predict the college success of high school seniors.

Answer 85

Data on child maltreatment are collected by the National Child Abuse and Neglect System (NCANDIS) from child protective services in all 50 states, the District of Columbia, and Puerto Rico. a. Incorrect See explanation for answer c. b. Incorrect See explanation for answer c. c. CORRECT The 2012 data revealed that 80.3% of the perpetrators of child maltreatment were parents, with 88.5% of the parents being biological parents (U. S. Department of Health and Human Services, Child Maltreatment: 2012, Washington, DC, U. S. Government Printing Office, 2012). d. Incorrect See explanation for answer c. The correct answer is: a parent

Answer 86

The results of S. M. Gorchoff, O. P. John, and R. Helson's research confirmed earlier studies finding that marital satisfaction tends to increase when children leave home [Contextualizing marital satisfaction during middle age: An 18-year longitudinal study, Psychological Science, 19(11), 1194-2000, 2008]. a. Incorrect See explanation for answer b. b. CORRECT In addition to finding that women reported increased marital satisfaction when their children left home, these investigators found that the increase was due an increase in the quality of interactions with their partners rather than the quantity of time spent with their partners. c. Incorrect See explanation for answer b. d. Incorrect See explanation for answer b. The correct answer is: an increase in marital satisfaction that's related to the quality (but not quantity) of time spent with their partners.

Answer 87

Answer C is correct. Before releasing any information to the client's new therapist, you'd want to discuss the release with her to make sure she understands what information is being released. In addition, to be consistent with ethical obligations, you'd want to obtain verbal or written consent before releasing the information. You would not want to provide another professional with confidential client information unless you had discussed this with the client and obtained a signed written consent or verbal consent (which you would document in her file). Answer D: Although contacting the therapist to determine what information is needed might be appropriate, you should not do so without first getting the client's consent to communicate directly with the therapist. Therefore, answer C is a better response. The correct answer is: contact the client to clarify what information should be sent to the therapist and to obtain a verbal or written consent from the client.

Answer 88

D. W. Sue and D. Sue describe "playing it cool" and the "Uncle Tom Syndrome" as reactions of African Americans to long-term racial oppression (Counseling the culturally different, New York, John Wiley & Sons, 1999). a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT Playing it cool helps African Americans conceal feelings that might be unacceptable to Whites and that, if expressed, could lead to harm and exploitation. The Uncle Tom Syndrome refers to the use of passivity as a defense mechanism. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: survival mechanisms.

Answer 89

The Weisz et al. meta-analysis examined the effects of type of disorder, type of therapy, therapist experience, and child age and gender on psychotherapy outcomes [J. R. Weisz et al., Effects of psychotherapy with children and adolescents revisited: A meta-analysis of treatment outcome studies, Psychological Bulletin, 117(3), 450-468, 1995]. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Weisz et al. report an effect size of .86 for female adolescents. In contrast, they report an effect size of .37 for male adolescents, .44 for female children, and .48 for male children. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: female adolescents.

Answer 90

Common symptoms of SAD are listed in the Abnormal Psychology chapter of the written study materials. a. CORRECT - People with SAD usually experience hypersomnia, increased appetite and weight gain, and a craving for carbohydrates. b. Incorrect - This is not characteristic of SAD. c. Incorrect - Hypersomnia (not insomnia) is characteristic of SAD. d. Incorrect - People with SAD often experience a craving for carbohydrates. The correct answer is: overeating and weight gain

Answer 91

Helms's six identity statuses are: contact, disintegration, reintegration, pseudo-independence, immersion/emersion, and autonomy. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Not surprisingly, information processing flexibility and complexity are characteristic of the final status in Helms's model. The attributes of the autonomy status include awareness of one's own "whiteness" and role in perpetuating racism and a commitment to abandoning a sense of White entitlement. The correct answer is: autonomy

Answer 92

The man's primary symptoms are grandiosity and lack of empathy. a. Incorrect - A diagnosis of Histrionic Personality Disorder requires a pattern of excessive emotionality and attention-seeking. b. CORRECT - These are core features of Narcissistic Personality Disorder. c. Incorrect - A diagnosis of Schizotypal Personality Disorder requires the presence of pervasive social and interpersonal deficits and eccentricities in cognition, perception, and behavior. d. Incorrect - A diagnosis of Delusional Disorder is made in the presence of one or more non bizarre delusions with unimpaired functioning apart from the impact of the delusions. The correct answer is: Narcissistic Personality Disorder.

Answer 93

A review of the literature on risk management reveals consensus among the experts that good record-keeping is a key defense in cases of malpractice. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT S. Knapp, for instance, notes that "An axiom of risk management is that if it is not documented, it did not occur" (Professional liability and risk management in an era of managed care, in D. T. Marsh and R. O. Magee [Eds.], Ethical and legal issues in professional practice with families, New York, John Wiley and Sons, 1997). c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: adequate records

Answer 94

Answer B is correct: For a diagnosis of ADHD, the DSM-5 requires that "several inattentive or hyperactive-impulsive symptoms were present prior to age 12" (p. 60) and that symptoms are present in at least two settings. The correct answer is: 12; 2

Answer 95

This is a difficult question since the visual cliff is probably most associated with the study of depth perception in infants. a. CORRECT The visual cliff has also been used to study attachment and other developmental phenomena. The mother's behavior is a variable in this study (she either smiles or makes a fearful face). If attachment has developed, the mother's facial expression will serve as a signal of safety or danger to the infant. This is referred to as social referencing. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: attachment.

Answer 96

The rational-economic model assumes that decision-makers are perfect and rational. a. Incorrect This better describes the assumption underlying the administrative model of decision-making. b. Incorrect "Bounded rationality" is also associated with the administrative model, which does not view decision-makers as entirely perfect and rational. c. Incorrect This is not associated with the rational-economic model. d. CORRECT The rational-economic model assumes that decision-makers will consider all possible alternatives and choose the optimal one. The correct answer is: optimal decisions.

Answer 97

John Watson applied Pavlov's classical conditioning model to human behavior. In his most famous study, Watson taught Albert B., an 11-month-old child, to fear a white rat. a. Incorrect Albert B.'s phobia was established through classical conditioning and, thus, did not involve confining him. b. Incorrect Pavlov showed that this procedure produced "experimental neurosis"; it is not the procedure used by Watson. c. CORRECT Albert B.'s phobia was created by pairing a US (loud noise) with a CS (white rat) so that the CS alone eventually elicited a startle response. d. Incorrect Watson's research with Albert did not involve the application of punishment. The use of punishment to decrease a response is an operant conditioning technique. The correct answer is: pairing an aversive US with a neutral CS

Answer 98

Answer C is correct: Of the diagnoses listed in the answers, Other Specified Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder is the best since Renaldo's symptoms involve problems related to attention but it's unclear if he has the minimum number of symptoms (at least six for children and five for individuals ages 17 and older) required for a diagnosis of Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder, predominantly inattentive presentation. Answer A: The information provided in the question does not indicate that Renaldo has symptoms of hyperactivity or impulsivity, so Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder, combined presentation can be eliminated as the correct answer. Answer B: There is no information provided in the question to suggest that Renaldo met the full diagnostic criteria for ADHD in the past and it's not clear how many symptoms he has now, so it is not possible to conclude that he is currently in remission. Answer D: See explanation for answers A and C. The correct answer is: Other Specified Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder, with insufficient inattention symptoms

Answer 99

Yalom describes the beginning of a new therapy group as involving three formative stages. a. CORRECT According to Yalom, the third stage of group therapy is characterized by a growing sense of group cohesiveness, which leads to greater participation in the group and increased adherence to group norms. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: cohesiveness

Answer 100

Answer B is correct. Short-term memory is very limited in terms of duration and capacity, but the latter can be expanded by "chunking" information into meaningful units. Miller proposed that short-term memory can hold between 5 and 9 units of information and that the ability to hold larger amounts of information is due to chunking information into groups of related items. The correct answer is: 5 to 9 (7 +/- 2)

Answer 101

There are two basic approaches to diagnosis - categorical classification and dimensional classification. The DSM utilizes a categorical approach, which involves determining whether or not a person meets the criteria for a given diagnosis. a. CORRECT - When using a dimensional approach~ the individual is ranked on a quantitative dimension (e.g., on a scale from 1 to 10) on each symptom or other characteristic. b. Incorrect - See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect - See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect - See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: quantification

Answer 102

Skeletal age is a measure of bone maturation and is determined through X-rays of the long bones of the body, which provide information on the degree to which ossification (hardening of soft tissues into bones) has occurred. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT Girls are ahead of boys in terms of skeletal age from birth, and this gap increases throughout infancy in childhood and explains why girls reach their full height before boys do. See, e.g., L. E. Berk, Development through the lifespan, 2004, Boston, Pearson Education. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: Girls are ahead of boys in terms of skeletal age from birth, which explains why girls reach their full height before boys do.

Answer 103

Huntington's disease (chorea) is a basal ganglia disorder, and the basal ganglia are involved in the control of motor movements. a. CORRECT The caudate nucleus and putamen are structures of the basal ganglia and have been found to be the brain areas most severely affected by Huntington's disease. b. Incorrect See explanation above. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: caudate nucleus

Answer 104

The cause of tardive dyskinesia (TD) seems to be complex and is not entirely understood. However, there is evidence that it is related to dopamine oversensitivity and/or GABA depletion. a. CORRECT There is evidence that dopamine depleting drugs alleviate some symptoms of tardive dyskinesia. b. Incorrect In fact, the research has shown the opposite - i.e., drugs that decrease norepinephrine levels suppress the symptoms of TD. c. Incorrect Drugs that increase GABA (e.g., GABA agonists - especially benzodiazepine) have beneficial effects for many patients with TD. d. Incorrect Research on serotonin has found that SSRIs and other serotonergic drugs are not useful as a treatment for TD. The correct answer is: a drug that decreases dopamine levels

Answer 105

Thermal (temperature) biofeedback provides feedback on skin temperature, which indicates changes in blood-flow. a. Incorrect Respiration biofeedback is useful for alleviating hyperventilation. b. CORRECT Raynaud's disease is a disorder of the blood vessels that limits circulation to certain areas of the body (usually the fingers and toes). It is triggered by cold or emotional stress and causes a change in color of the skin with coldness and numbness followed by throbbing, tingling, or stinging pain upon warming or relief of the stress. Thermal biofeedback has been found to be an effective treatment for Raynaud's disease and for a number of other disorders including hypertension and migraine headache. c. Incorrect Galvanic skin response (GSR) training has been found useful for treating stuttering. d. Incorrect EMG biofeedback has been found to be effective for treating temporomandibular joint (TMJ) syndrome. The correct answer is: Raynauds disease.

Answer 106

Much of the research on emotion and the facial expression of emotion has confirmed universal elements. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT According to the universality hypothesis, there are a certain number of universal emotions (the number varies somewhat from expert to expert but is around seven). The facial expressions for these emotions are recognized cross-culturally, although there are differences in the intensity of facial expressions, which seem to be the result of cultural factors. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: there are several universal facial expressions that may be mediated in terms of intensity by cultural factors.

Answer 107

For the exam, you want to be familiar with the areas under the normal curve so that you can answer questions like this one. See the Statistics and Research Design chapter for a description of areas under the normal curve. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect About 68% of scores fall between the scores that are plus and minus one standard deviation from the mean. c. CORRECT About 95% of scores fall between the scores that are plus and minus two standard deviations from the mean. d. Incorrect About 99% of scores fall between the scores that are plus and minus three standard deviations from the mean. The correct answer is: 95

Answer 108

The correct answer is A. Byrne's law of attraction proposes that there is positive linear relationship between level of attraction and similarity in attitudes (The attraction paradigm, New York, Academic Press, 1971). Byrne proposes that people are reinforced for interacting with others who have similar attitudes because doing so confirms their effectiveness in interpreting the world and produces positive affect. The correct answer is: reinforcement

Answer 109

Holland used the term differentiation to describe the extent to which a person has clearly defined interests. A person who scores high on one of his interest scales and low on all other scales is highly differentiated. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT According to Holland, the importance of a good "fit" between a person's interests and the characteristics of the job is most important for those who are highly differentiated. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: increases the predictability of the person-environment interaction.

Answer 110

A good "rule-of-thumb" for answering questions is to eliminate responses that contain absolutes (e.g., "always" or "never"). a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Groups that are heterogeneous with regard to members' skills, experience, and other characteristics have been found to be particularly beneficial for disjunctive tasks in which only one member needs to identify the correct response or solution. For a discussion of this issue, see D. T. Kenrick, S. L. Heuberg, & R. B. Cialdini, Social psychology: Unraveling the mystery, Boston, Allyn & Bacon, 2001. d. Incorrect Heterogeneity can actually be detrimental on conjunctive tasks in which group success depends on the ability of each member to perform his/her role effectively (and the roles do not require heterogeneity). The correct answer is: group heterogeneity is preferable on disjunctive tasks but can actually be detrimental on some other types of tasks.

Answer 111

The ability to imitate the behavior of a model after a time delay of hours or days is referred to as deferred imitation. a. CORRECT Piaget believed that deferred imitation does not occur until about 18 months of age and depends on the ability to represent objects and actions symbolically - i.e., to form a mental representation of the object or action. b. Incorrect Assimilation refers to the incorporation of new information into existing knowledge. Although assimilation may be involved in the ability to imitate a model, it does not account for deferred imitation. c. Incorrect Transductive (precausal) reasoning is one of the limitations of the preoperational stage and reflects an incomplete understanding of cause and effect. d. Incorrect As defined by Piaget, centration is another limitation of the preoperational stage and refers to the tendency to focus on the most noticeable feature of an object. The correct answer is: mental representation

Answer 112

While the staff member's intention is to decrease the boy's behavior, she is actually increasing it. This is apparently because the desirable, reinforcing properties of the staff member's presence and attention are stronger than any aversive effect of what she is saying to him. a. CORRECT Positive reinforcement involves the application of a stimulus following a behavior in order to increase that behavior. Here, the staff member's presence is reinforcing the child's misbehavior. Often, parents who find that their attempts at punishment fail to decrease a behavior are unaware that the punishment actually contains reinforcing properties, such as attention. b. Incorrect Negative reinforcement is the removal of a stimulus following a behavior in order to increase that behavior. In this case, a stimulus (the staff member's attention) is being applied rather than removed. c. Incorrect Punishment is used to reduce or eliminate a behavior. In this case, the child's tantrums are occurring more often, and the staff member's behavior is apparently reinforcing rather than punishing. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: positive reinforcement of the misbehavior.

Answer 113

The correct answer is C. Practical (or pragmatic) Clinical Trials (PCTs) are randomized studies conducted in practice settings. PCTs complement and increase the information provided by efficacy clinical trials, which evaluate interventions under ideal experimental conditions by carefully selecting suitable patients, adopting a placebo control, and utilizing intensive assessment batteries to detect statistically meaningful variations. Answers A, B and D are incorrect as the interventions are not conducted in a laboratory, community interventions are not being evaluated, and what is being evaluated is not strength and valence but rather effect. The correct answer is: To evaluate the effects of interventions delivered under typical community conditions.

Answer 114

In this situation, the mother's "picking-up-her-child" behavior occurs because it is reinforced by the cessation of her child's whining. a. Incorrect Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior increases because of the stimulus that is applied following the behavior. b. CORRECT The mother's behavior increases ("reinforcement") because of the stimulus that is removed following the behavior ("negative"). c. Incorrect Positive punishment occurs when a behavior decreases because of the application of a stimulus following the behavior. d. Incorrect Negative punishment occurs when a behavior decreases because of the removal or cessation of a stimulus following the behavior. The correct answer is: negative reinforcement

Answer 115

In this situation, you are correlating a variable representing a true dichotomy (pregnant versus not pregnant) with a variable representing a ratio (continuous) scale of measurement (number of stress events). a. Incorrect The Pearson r is appropriate when both variables are measured on a continuous scale. b. Incorrect Spearman rho is appropriate when both variables are expressed in terms of ranks. c. Incorrect The biserial correlation coefficient is used when one variable is an artificial dichotomy (a continuous variable that has been artificially or arbitrarily dichotomized) and the other variable is continuous. d. CORRECT The point biserial correlation coefficient is appropriate when one variable is a true dichotomy and the other is continuous. The correct answer is: point biserial

Answer 116

This question should have been easy to answer as long as you're familiar with the individual who developed Personal Construct Therapy. a. Incorrect William Glasser is associated with Reality Therapy. b. CORRECT Kelly's Personal Construct Therapy is a constructivist approach that focuses on how people "construe" events and proposes that construing involves reliance on personal constructs. c. Incorrect Victor Frankl is associated with Existential Therapy. d. Incorrect Fritz Perls is associated with Gestalt Therapy. The correct answer is: George Kelly

Answer 117

This issue is addressed in Paragraph 5.02 of the Specialty Guidelines. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT This answer is most consistent with the provisions of Paragraph 5.02 which states: "Forensic practitioners seek to avoid undue influence that might result from financial compensation or other gains. Because of the threat to impartiality presented by the acceptance of contingent fees and associated legal prohibitions, forensic practitioners strive to avoid providing professional services on the basis of contingent fees." The correct answer is: should ordinarily be avoided.

Answer 118

Horn and Cattell (1966) divided general intellectual ability into two components: crystallized and fluid. a. CORRECT As defined by Horn and Cattell, crystallized intelligence refers to acquired knowledge and skills and is affected by educational and cultural experiences. Language comprehension is a measure of crystallized intelligence. b. Incorrect Items assessing short-term memory, sequential reasoning, and puzzle solving measure fluid intelligence, which depends on information processing skills and is less influenced than crystallized intelligence by educational and cultural experiences. c. Incorrect See explanations for responses a and b. d. Incorrect See explanations for responses a and b. The correct answer is: language comprehension

Answer 119

Standard 10.08(a) addresses this issue. It states: "Psychologists do not engage in sexual intimacies with former clients/patients for at least two years after cessation or termination of therapy." In addition Standard 10.08(b) states: "Psychologists do not engage in sexual intimacies with former clients/patients even after a two-year interval except in the most unusual circumstances. Psychologists who engage in such activity ... bear the burden of demonstrating that there has been no exploitation, in light of all relevant factors ...." a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT This answer is most consistent with the admonitions set forth in Standard 10.08. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: A therapist may have a sexual relationship after two years have passed since termination, the circumstances of the therapy and/or termination were not exploitative, and the client's mental status and/or personal history does not show susceptibility to exploitation.

Answer 120

The process of Freudian psychoanalysis is described as involving a combination of confrontation, clarification, interpretation, and working through. a. Incorrect This does not accurately describe the function of clarification. b. Incorrect This is a better description of interpretation than of clarification. c. CORRECT Clarification is used to clarify an issue by, for example, separating a key issue from less important ones. d. Incorrect This is part of the working through process. The correct answer is: brings a confusing or unclear issue into focus.

Answer 121

Answer A is correct. The situation described in this question is not directly addressed by the APA's Ethics Code. However, one of the answers is most consistent with the "spirit" of the Code. This response is most consistent with the requirements of the Ethics Code. Specifically, Standard 3.04 states that psychologists "take reasonable steps to avoid harming their clients/patients." Contacting the client prior to releasing the requested information to the attorney would help ensure that the client is not harmed. Answer B: Releasing only relevant information is always the best action but, before making a decision about releasing the requested information, you'd want to discuss the issue with the client given that he said he would never want you to release personal information under any circumstance. Therefore, answer a is the best response. Answer C: Because of the client's statement to you about the release of personal information, you would want to check with him to make sure he understands what information will be released and how that information will be used. You would also want to see a copy of the release before providing the attorney with the requested information. Answer D: There is no information given in the question suggesting that it would be necessary to obtain a court order before releasing the requested information to the attorney. The correct answer is: contact the client to discuss the matter with him before taking any further action.

Answer 122

The research has consistently confirmed a genetic contribution to Schizophrenia. a. Incorrect - See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect - See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT - The closer the genetic similarity, the higher the concordance rate for Schizophrenia. The woman's identical twin is most similar to her in terms of genetic make-up and, therefore, most likely to also receive the diagnosis. d. Incorrect - See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: her identical twin

Answer 123

Although psychologists must be careful not to stereotype members of specific cultural groups, it is always important to take a client's cultural background into consideration as part of the treatment planning process. a. CORRECT Promoting a "value-free" environment is similar to adopting a "color-blind" perspective and is inappropriate when working with members of American Indian and Alaskan Native communities. A more effective approach is to establish credibility and trust by demonstrating familiarity with and respect for the client's culture. b. Incorrect This would be an appropriate approach when working with American Indians and Alaskan Natives who tend to view illness holistically - i.e., as being the result of multiple factors, including disharmony with nature. c. Incorrect Incorporating elders, medicine people, and other traditional healers as well as traditional healing practices and ceremonies into the treatment process is considered an essential component of successful treatments for members of American Indian and Alaskan Native communities. d. Incorrect A collaborative, problem-solving, client-centered approach is appropriate for members of these communities. The correct answer is: promoting a value free environment in therapy

Answer 124

To calculate the 68% confidence interval, one standard error is added to and subtracted from the examinee's test score. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT Adding and subtracting 5 (the standard error) to and from the examinee's score of 103 produces a confidence interval that ranges from 98 to 108. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: 98 to 108.

Answer 125

The symptoms listed in the question are characteristic of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), which is a rare disorder that can occur with any class of neuroleptic agent. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT NMS can be fatal unless it is recognized early and the medication is immediately stopped. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: immediately stop the drug and administer fluids and electrolytes.

Answer 126

This issue is addressed in Standard 8.12(c) of the APA's Ethics Code. a. Incorrect This is the general rule for authorship credit. However, the standards for publications based primarily on a student's dissertation project differ. b. Incorrect This is not consistent with the requirements of the Ethics Code. c. CORRECT Standard 8.12(c) states that "Except under exceptional circumstances, a student is listed as principal author on any multiple-authored article that is substantially based on the student's doctoral dissertation." Note that timeliness is one consideration when determining if a circumstance is "exceptional." As an example, the University of Victoria provides the following authorship guidelines for research conducted by graduate students: "If a student does not produce the first draft of the manuscript within e.g., 12 months of defending the thesis or dissertation, unless another arrangement has been negotiated in advance, the supervisor can take over the lead and be listed as the principal author. The student, however, remains an author of the article" (web.uvic.ca/psyc/GradAdvisor/GradRegs_Sept2004.pdf). d. Incorrect The statement "except under exceptional circumstances" in Standard 8.12(c) suggests that there are times when it would be acceptable not to list the student as the principal author. The correct answer is: The student must be listed as first author except under exceptional circumstances.

Answer 127

Much research has been conducted on communicator, audience, and message characteristics that influence persuadibility. Though you should be familiar with such research, you can also sometimes use logic or your own experience to derive answers to questions such as this one. a. Incorrect "Accidental" messages are associated with greater attitude change than intended messages. b. CORRECT Research suggests that listeners are better able to resist a persuasive message if they have been forewarned about its content. c. Incorrect A communicator arguing against his/her own best interest is more likely to change the attitudes of listeners than a communicator arguing to advance his/her own interests. d. Incorrect A moderate discrepancy in position between the listener and communicator is associated with greater attitude change than either a high or low discrepancy. The correct answer is: the listener has prior knowledge about the content of the message.

Answer 128

Migraine headaches are classified as common or classic. a. Incorrect Classic migraines begin with an aura. b. Incorrect Migraines involve throbbing pain. c. CORRECT A number of things can exacerbate the pain of a migraine including lifting or bending over. In contrast to classic migraines, common migraines do not begin with an aura. d. Incorrect This sounds more like a cluster headache than a migraine headache. The correct answer is: does not begin with an aura and may be exacerbated by bending over or lifting.

Answer 129

Holland distinguished between six personality/job environment themes. a. Incorrect A person who scores high on the investigative theme has scientific, mathematical, analytic, or scholarly interests or skills. b. Incorrect Mechanical is not one of Holland's themes. c. Incorrect A person who scores high on the conventional theme has interests or skills in keeping records, organizing data, attending to detail, or following through on others' instructions. d. CORRECT A person who scores high on the realistic theme enjoys or does well in technical, physical, mechanical, and/or outdoor activities. The correct answer is: realistic

Answer 130

This issue is addressed by A. J. Kimmel in Ethical issues in behavioral research, Blackwell Publishers, Cambridge, MA, 1996. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Kimmel concludes that, when the effectiveness of an intervention is unknown, it is acceptable to include a "no-treatment control group" in a research study. However, as soon as the treatment is shown to be effective (especially when it is effective for a serious disorder or problem), the treatment should be made immediately available to individuals in the control group. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: discontinue the study and offer the treatment to the women in the control group immediately.

Answer 131

This is pretty straightforward. The boy's welfare is your first concern, and you'd want to make sure that he is not at risk for suicide. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Suicide threats and ideation should always be taken seriously. Before notifying his parents, however, you'd want to determine how serious his thoughts about suicide are. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: continue to discuss the matter to determine if the boy is, in fact, at risk for suicide.

Answer 132

As described by McGregor (1960), Theory X and Theory Y managers are distinguished by their different assumptions about employee characteristics. a. CORRECT Knowing that Theory X managers have a pessimistic view of employees would have enabled you to identify this as the correct response. b. Incorrect This is more consistent with the assumptions of Theory Y managers who have more positive views of employees. c. Incorrect McGregor's theory does not identify factors that determine the most effective management style. Instead, McGregor proposed that a Theory Y style is most likely to have the greatest benefits for an organization. d. Incorrect See explanations above. The correct answer is: employees have an inherent dislike of work and will avoid it when they can.

Answer 133

Family therapy is generally contraindicated when one family member's disturbance, while affecting the family, is basically unrelated to family processes or structure or is so disruptive that it would interfere with the success of therapy. a. Incorrect Family therapy would be appropriate in this situation. b. Incorrect Family therapy would be appropriate in this situation. c. CORRECT Depression has been linked to a variety of factors including heredity, biochemical abnormalities, learned helplessness, hostility or aggression turned inward, and illogical schemata. It has not, however, been consistently linked with any particular family factor; and family therapy, therefore, would not be particularly useful as a treatment for this disorder. d. Incorrect Family therapy would be appropriate in this situation since eating disorders (especially anorexia and bulimia) have been linked to family factors. The correct answer is: One of the family members has severe depression.

Answer 134

For the exam, you want to be familiar with the variables described in the answers to this question. a. Incorrect This describes a mediator variable. b. CORRECT A moderator variable affects the direction or strength of the relationship between independent and dependent variables. For example, if the results of a research study indicate that EMG biofeedback is more effective for tension headaches than for migraine or cluster headaches, type of headache is a moderator variable - i.e., type of headache moderates the effects of EMG feedback on headache symptoms. c. Incorrect This does not describe a moderator variable. d. Incorrect In correlational research, the dependent (outcome) variable is often referred to as the criterion variable. The correct answer is: affects the direction or strength of the relationship between independent and dependent variables.

Answer 135

The Adult Attachment Interview categorizes respondents in terms of three main categories - autonomous, dismissing, and preoccupied. a. CORRECT Dismissing individuals describe their parents in positive terms that are not substantiated by descriptions of actual interactions. b. Incorrect Preoccupied individuals are confused, angry, or passively preoccupied with attachment figures. c. Incorrect The Adult Attachment Interview includes a fourth category (unresolved/disorganized) that is assigned to respondents who have an unresolved experience related to loss or abuse. It is assigned in conjunction with one of the three categories listed above. d. Incorrect This is not one of the scoring categories for the Adult Attachment Interview. The correct answer is: dismissing

Answer 136

Achievement-oriented people tend to prefer moderate to moderately difficult tasks. a. Incorrect You probably could have eliminated this response on the basis of common sense. People who are achievement-oriented would not get too much gratification from success on easy tasks. b. CORRECT This might not be the answer you'd guess if you're totally unfamiliar with the research on this topic, but, in fact, it is the correct answer. c. Incorrect Somewhat surprisingly, it is people with a low need for achievement who choose more difficult tasks. d. Incorrect If you had eliminated answer "a" for the correct reason, that should have helped you eliminate this answer too since tasks of varying difficulty levels would include easy tasks. The correct answer is: tasks of moderate difficulty

Answer 137

The hypothalamus has been linked to a number of functions including maintaining the body's homeostasis, regulating the release of hormones from the pituitary and other endocrine glands, and mediating aggressive responses. a. Incorrect Indifference and apathy are the likely consequences of lesions in certain areas in the right hemisphere of the cerebral cortex. b. CORRECT Lesions in certain areas of the hypothalamus (including the medial hypothalamus) have been linked to rage reactions and other forms of aggressive behavior. See, e.g., D. F. Swaab, The human hypothalamus: Basic and human aspects, Elsevier Health Sciences, Amsterdam, 2003. c. Incorrect Memory loss may be caused by damage to the hippocampus, thalamus, or prefrontal cortex. d. Incorrect Receptive (Wernicke's) aphasia is caused by damage to Wernicke's area, which is located in the dominant temporal lobe. The correct answer is: outbursts of aggressive behavior

Answer 138

For the exam, you want to be familiar with slope and intercept bias, which are described in the Psychological Assessment chapter of the written study materials. a. CORRECT A slope bias occurs when there is differential validity -- i.e., when the validity coefficients for a predictor differ for different groups. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: a predictor's validity coefficient differs for different groups.

Answer 139

Process consultation is an organizational development (OD) strategy that, as its name suggests, focuses on organizational processes - or, more specifically, the social processes that are a normal part of the job. a. Incorrect This is the opposite of what is true. A distinguishing characteristic of process consultation is its assumption that behavior change precedes attitude change. b. CORRECT Process consultation focuses on identifying and altering the overt behaviors that are interfering with normal social processes. It is based on the assumption that behavior change is the priority and precedes attitude change. c. Incorrect This is not a focus (or prediction) of process consultation. d. Incorrect This is not a focus (or prediction) of process consultation. The correct answer is: behavior change precedes attitude change.

Answer 140

Answer D is correct: This question is asking which symptom is characteristic of Anorexia but not Bulimia. One of the DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for Anorexia (but not Bulimia) is a "restriction of energy intake relative to requirements, leading to a significantly low body weight" (p. 338). Answer A: While binging and purging are classic signs of Bulimia Nervosa, some individuals with Anorexia engage in binging and purging, and the DSM-5 includes binge-eating/purging type as a specifier for Anorexia. Answer B: Anorexia Nervosa and Bulimia Nervosa both involve a disturbance in the perception of one's body weight or shape. Answer C: Menstrual irregularity is an associated feature of both disorders. The correct answer is: persistent restriction of energy intake

Answer 141

The three multicultural counseling competencies described by Sue, Ivey, and Pedersen (1996) were originally identified by D. W. Sue et al. (Position paper: Cross-cultural counseling competencies, The Counseling Psychologist, 10, 45-52, 1982). a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT The first competency is awareness of one's own values, beliefs, and stereotypes regarding human behavior. The second competency is knowledge about the worldview of minority and culturally-different clients. Finally, the third competency is possession of culturally-appropriate counseling skills. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: awareness, knowledge, and skills.

Answer 142

A number of studies have confirmed that radiation and chemotherapy improve survival rates but are associated with a number of negative consequences. a. CORRECT Either treatment alone has substantial negative effects on intellectual functioning and academic achievement, although the effects vary from individual to individual and may be less severe for chemotherapy. In addition, the negative effects are largely irreversible and may worsen over time. See, e.g., C. C. Peterson et al., A meta-analysis of the neuropsychological sequelae of chemotherapy-only treatment for pediatric acute lymphoblastic leukemia, Pediatric Blood Cancer, 51, 99-104, 2008. b. Incorrect See explanation above. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: either treatment alone is associated with decreased intellectual functioning and lower academic achievement.

Answer 143

Answer A is correct. The research has been fairly consistent in identifying Major Depressive Disorder as a significant risk factor for suicide among older adults. In their review of psychological autopsy studies of older adults who completed suicide, Y. Conwell, P. R. Duberstein, and E. D. Caine report that Major Depressive Disorder was identified as the most common psychiatric diagnosis [Risk factors for suicide in later life, Biological Psychiatry, 52, 193-204, 2002]. While Substance Use Disorders, Major Neurocognitive Disorder, and Anxiety Disorders were also linked to suicide in these studies, they were present in a smaller number of cases. The correct answer is: Major Depressive Disorder

Answer 144

Kohlberg's theory of moral development focuses on how individuals reason about moral dilemmas. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT The Heinz dilemma required research participants to reason about a dilemma in which a man must choose between not stealing a drug and stealing the drug to save his wife's life. The correct answer is: Heinz

Answer 145

Alpha is also known as the level of significance, and its value is set by the researcher prior to analyzing the data collected in a research study. a. CORRECT Alpha determines the probability of making a Type I error, which occurs when a true null hypothesis is rejected. b. Incorrect One minus alpha is the probability of retaining a true null hypothesis. c. Incorrect Beta is hypothetical (i.e., is not set by the researcher) and refers to the probability of making a Type II error, which occurs when a false null hypothesis is retained. d. Incorrect One minus beta is also hypothetical. It refers to the probability of rejecting a false null hypothesis and is also referred to as power. The correct answer is: alpha.

Answer 146

To answer this question, you need to know that the "coefficient of stability" is another name for the test-retest reliability coefficient. a. CORRECT The coefficient of stability indicates the degree of consistency (reliability) of a test across time. b. Incorrect See explanation above. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: assessing the reliability of a test that is administered on two different occasions to the same group of examinees.

Answer 147

This issue is addressed by Leland Swenson in Psychology and the law for the helping pofessions, Brooks/Cole, Pacific Grove, CA, 1997. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Swenson notes that "Any required reporter who knows that another required reporter has not reported must report the evidence of abuse as well as identify the nonreporter" (p. 413). d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: contact the appropriate child abuse reporting authority and provide them with information about the abuse and with the colleague's name.

Answer 148

Newborns exhibit a number of reflexes that disappear within the first year of life. For the exam, you want to be familiar with the four reflexes listed in the answers to this question. a. Incorrect The root reflex (rooting) occurs when the corner of a baby's mouth is touched and, in response, the baby turns his/her head in the direction of the touch and opens his/her mouth. b. Incorrect As its name implies, the palmar reflex (also known as the palmar grasp reflex) occurs when an object is placed in the palm of an infant's hand or his/her palm is stroked. c. Incorrect The Moro reflex is also known as the startle reflex and occurs when, in response to a loud noise or sudden movement, the baby throws his/her head back, extends his/her arms and legs, and then brings his/her arms and legs inward. d. CORRECT The Babinski reflex is also referred to as the plantar reflex and is one of a few early reflexes that does not seem to serve a function. It disappears at about 8 to 12 months of age. The correct answer is: Babinski

Answer 149

Parents and researchers agree that infants exhibit a variety of emotions through their facial expressions. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT By 3 to 4 months of age, infants express at least four emotions through their facial expressions -- i.e., interest, sadness, distress, and disgust. Anger, joy, surprise, and fear do not emerge until about 6 to 8 months. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: distress, interest, and disgust.

Answer 150

If the characteristic measured by a test fluctuates over time (i.e., is a "state"), it would not be appropriate to assess the test's reliability using a method that requires administering the test (or alternative forms of the test) at different times. a. Incorrect A coefficient of equivalence is obtained when equivalent forms reliability is used. In most cases, it is necessary to administer the different forms at different times; therefore, this method would not be the best for a test that measures a characteristic that fluctuates over time. b. Incorrect The coefficient of stability is obtained when using test-retest reliability, which would also be inappropriate for a measure of a characteristic that fluctuates over time. c. Incorrect The coefficient of determination is not a measure of reliability. d. CORRECT A coefficient of internal consistency would be appropriate for a test that measures a characteristic that fluctuates over time since it requires administering the test only once. The correct answer is: coefficient of internal consistency

Answer 151

Equity theory proposes that a worker compares his or her input/outcome ratio to the ratio of another worker performing the same or a similar job. When the ratios seem equal to the worker, the worker is motivated to continue performing at the same level. If the ratios are unequal, this has an effect on motivation, performance, and other job outcomes. a. Incorrect Intrinsic motivation is not addressed by equity theory. b. Incorrect Self-efficacy beliefs are not addressed by equity theory. c. CORRECT This pertains to the predictions of equity theory. d. Incorrect This sounds like one of the components of expectancy theory. The correct answer is: the employee's perceptions regarding the pay and benefits received by workers performing similar work duties as the employee

Answer 152

An action potential (nerve impulse) occurs when a neuron "fires" - i.e., when an electrical signal is sent through the axon and triggers the release of a neurotransmitter from the axon terminal into the synaptic cleft. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT An action potential is caused by the exchange of ions across the neuron's semipermeable membrane. Specifically, with sufficient stimulation, the cell's sodium channels open and sodium ions rush into the cell, creating a state of depolarization (which means that the neuron has become more positively charged). Subsequently, the cell's potassium channels open and potassium rushes out of the cell, which reverses the depolarization and causes repolarization of the cell. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: Sodium (Na+) enters the cell and the cell depolarizes; then potassium (K+) leaves the cell and the cell repolarizes.

Answer 153

The accuracy of a predictor can be described in terms of its sensitivity, specificity, positive predictive value, and negative predictive value. a. Incorrect A predictor's positive predictive value indicates the probability that an individual identified as a positive is a true positive. It is calculated by dividing the number of true positives by the number of true and false positives. b. Incorrect A predictor's negative predictive value indicates the probability that an individual identified as a negative is a true negative. It is calculated by dividing the number of true negatives by the number of true and false negatives. c. CORRECT A predictor's sensitivity refers to the proportion of individuals in the validation sample who have the characteristic measured by the predictor and were accurately identified by the predictor as having that characteristic. It provides an index of the predictor's ability to identify true positives. Sensitivity is calculated by dividing the number of true positives by the number of true positives plus false negatives. d. Incorrect A predictor's specificity refers to the proportion of individuals in the validation sample without the characteristic measured by the predictor who were correctly identified by the predictor as not having that characteristic. It provides an index of the predictor's ability to identify true negatives. Specificity is calculated by dividing the number of true negatives by the number of true negatives plus false positives. The correct answer is: sensitivity

Answer 154

Kohlberg's cognitive model distinguishes between three stages of gender identity development: identity, stability, and constancy. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT According to Kohlberg, a child recognizes that he/she is a boy/girl by age three (gender identity). Subsequently the child realizes that gender is stable over time and then, by age seven, realizes that gender is constant across different situations. The correct answer is: identity, stability, constancy

Answer 155

To identify the correct answer to this question, you need to know that z scores indicate how far a raw score is below or above the mean. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT In this distribution, the mean is 120 and the standard deviation is 12. Therefore, a raw score of 138 is 1.5 standard deviations above the mean and is equivalent to a z score of 1.5. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: 1.5

Answer 156

Answer D is correct: Angry/irritable mood, argumentative/defiant behavior, and vindictiveness are the three categories of symptoms included in the DSM-5 for Oppositional Defiant Disorder. Answer A: These are three of the four categories of symptoms included in the DSM-5 for Conduct Disorder (the fourth is aggression to people and animals). Answers B and C: See explanation for answer D. The correct answer is: angry/irritable mood, argumentative/defiant behavior, and vindictiveness.

Answer 157

The Americans with Disabilities Act protects the rights of people with physical and mental disabilities. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Although ADA permits only post-offer, pre-employment medical exams, it explicitly excludes drug testing as a medical exam. In other words, drug testing is not prohibited at any time during pre-employment or employment. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: permits drug testing before or after a job offer has been made.

Answer 158

A key assumption underlying DBT is that the central problem in borderline personality disorder (BPD) is a dysfunctional emotion regulation system, which may be the result of genetic factors, events that occurred during prenatal development, and/or early trauma that adversely affected the brain. a. Incorrect Boundary disturbances are viewed as the cause of neurotic behavior by Gestalt therapists. b. Incorrect Learned helplessness has been linked to depression. c. CORRECT Linehan has described BPD as resulting from emotion dysregulation, which is viewed as due to a combination of a biological predisposition to react to even low levels of stress and other forms of provocation with intense and long-lasting emotions and an emotion-invalidating environment. According to Linehan, most of the behaviors associated with BPD are attempts to regulate intense emotions or the undesirable outcomes of emotion dysregulation. d. Incorrect Kernberg identified pathologic internalized object relations as the etiological factor in BPD. The correct answer is: emotion dysregulation.

Answer 159

Loss of sensation due to brain injury is likely to involve the somatosensory cortex. a. CORRECT The somatosensory cortex is located on the postcentral gyrus in the parietal lobe. b. Incorrect See explanation above. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: postcentral gyrus.

Answer 160

Although children show awareness of racial differences by age 3 or 4, a sophisticated understanding of race does not develop until later. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT This is the finding reported by M. N. Alejandro-Wright for both White and African-American children, and it is consistent with the work of other investigators (The children's conception of racial classification: A socio-cognitive developmental model, in M. B. Spencer et al. (Eds.), Beginnings: The social and affective development of Black children, Hillsdale, NJ, Erlbaum, 1985). d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: 10

Answer 161

The husband's symptoms appear to be long-term and experienced by him as ego-syntonic, thereby suggesting a personality disorder. a. Incorrect - An individual with Avoidant Personality Disorder desires close interpersonal relationships but avoids them in order to avoid being hurt. b. CORRECT - The husband's symptoms are most suggestive of Schizoid Personality Disorder which is characterized by detachment from social relationships and a restricted range of emotional expression. c. Incorrect - Schizoaffective Disorder involves a combination of schizophrenic and affective symptoms. This man does not exhibit the psychotic symptoms (hallucinations and delusions) that must be present for this diagnosis. d. Incorrect - The husband does not seem to have the cognitive or perceptual distortions and eccentricities that are characteristic of Schizotypal Personality Disorder. The correct answer is: Schizoid Personality Disorder.

Answer 162

This question is an example of the two or three "distant galaxy" questions that you're likely to encounter on the licensing exam. a. CORRECT J. Hewig et al. found males and females both gazed at the face of a member of the opposite sex for the longest period of time. However, after an initial face-scan, men looked earlier and longest at the female's breasts, while women looked earlier at the male's legs. These investigators note that their findings are consistent with previous research using other methodologies (Gender differences for specific body regions when looking at men and women, Journal of Nonverbal Behavior, 32(2), 67-78, 2008). b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: females and males both gazed at the face of a member of the opposite sex for the longest period of time.

Answer 163

According to Piaget, a child passes through four stages of cognitive development: sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, and formal operational. See the Lifespan Development chapter for additional information about these stages. a. Incorrect This is more characteristic of the concrete operational stage. b. Incorrect This usually doesn't occur until around age 7, when the child is in the concrete operational stage. c. Incorrect This is characteristic of the sensorimotor period of development. d. CORRECT The manipulation of symbols is an essential characteristic of the preoperational stage of development. The correct answer is: treats objects as symbols of things (e.g., dolls as babies).

Answer 164

The NICHD research has found that participation in high-quality early child care is actually associated with enhanced pre-academic (cognitive) skills and language performance at age 4-1/2. However, it is also associated with some negative consequences. a. Incorrect The NICHD research found that children who attend daycare are not at higher risk for serious (clinical) behavioral problems. b. CORRECT Children who attend daycare tend to exhibit a higher degree of externalizing behaviors and conflicts with adults even when quality, type, and stability of the daycare is controlled. However, these behaviors are within the normal range. c. Incorrect As noted above, participation in daycare is associated with better pre-academic and language skills. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: disobedience and other behavioral problems.

Answer 165

Information is retained in short-term memory for a very short period unless it is rehearsed or repeated. a. Incorrect Retroactive interference occurs when recently learned material interferes with the recall of previously learned material, and it is most likely to occur when recently and previously learned material are similar. Counting backwards is not similar to memorizing letters, so counting backwards will not increase the the effects of retroactive interference. b. Incorrect Trace decay theory proposes that memories fade over time. Counting backwards wouldn't affect the process of trace decay. c. CORRECT Having participants count backwards ensures that they do not rehearse the list of letters so that an accurate estimate of the duration of short-term memory can be ascertained. d. Incorrect Having participants count backwards may or may not improve their concentration, so this is not the best answer. The correct answer is: to keep them from rehearsing the list of letters.

Answer 166

In an early evaluation of the trace decay theory of forgetting, Jenkins and Dallenbach (1924) had subjects who had memorized a list of nonsense syllables either sleep or stay awake before being asked to recall the syllables. Those who slept recalled more syllables. a. CORRECT The results of the Jenkins and Dallenbach study suggest that Bob, who slept after studying the list of syllables, will exhibit the greatest recall. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: Bob

Answer 167

Answer D is correct: The DSM-5 identifies 10 classes of drugs that are associated with Substance-Induced Disorders but only eight are associated with Substance-Induced Psychotic Disorder: alcohol; cannabis; phencyclidine; other hallucinogen; inhalant; sedative, hypnotic, or anxiolytic; amphetamine or other stimulant; and cocaine. Answers A, B, and C: See explanation for answer D. The correct answer is: opioids

Answer 168

This question requires you to be familiar with the language of the Ethics Code. Testimonials are not entirely prohibited but should be obtained and used with caution. a. Incorrect This is a good answer but not as complete as response d. b. Incorrect Direct solicitation from a former client is not necessarily prohibited. c. Incorrect This is close but, if you read carefully, it's not a completely accurate reflection of the requirements of the Ethics Code. d. CORRECT This is closest to the actual language of Standard 5.05 of the Ethics Code and, consequently, is the best answer. The correct answer is: the testimonials have not been solicited from current clients or from others who are vulnerable to undue influence.

Answer 169

Piaget distinguished between two stages of moral development--heteronomous and autonomous. a. Incorrect This belief is more characteristic of the heteronomous stage. b. CORRECT Children in the autonomous stage believe that rules can be changed by consensus. c. Incorrect This is more characteristic of the heteronomous stage. d. Incorrect This doesn't describe the autonomous stage as accurately as response b. The correct answer is: rules can be changed by consensus.

Answer 170

Answer B is correct: For the diagnosis of Autism Spectrum Disorder, the DSM-5 requires that "symptoms must be present in the early developmental period" (p. 50). Answers A, C, and D: See explanation above. The correct answer is: an onset of symptoms during the early developmental period

Answer 171

Patterson and his colleagues have found that parents of highly aggressive children tend to rely on physical punishment. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT Patterson et al. also found that parents of aggressive children frequently fail to connect their punishments to the child's behavior, do not state clear rules, and do not consistently punish violation of rules. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: is inconsistent and often not clearly linked to the child's behavior.

Answer 172

Research on brain plasticity has shown that left hemisphere damage during early childhood does not usually produce clinically significant language dysfunction. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT A young child who sustains damage to the language areas in the left hemisphere may show delays in language development but, in most cases, will eventually exhibit language abilities within the low-normal to normal range due to the assumption of language functions by the right hemisphere. However, the child may also experience deficits in some right-hemisphere functions and/or a drop in IQ. See, e.g., D. Riva and L. Cazzaniga, Late effects of unilateral brain lesions sustained before and after age one, Neuropsychologia, 24, 423-428, 1986. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: The child will eventually exhibit language abilities in the low-normal to normal range due to a takeover of language functions by the right hemisphere.

Answer 173

For the exam, you want to know that Mischel and colleagues are well-known for their research on delay of gratification. a. CORRECT J. Metcalfe and W. Mischel propose that delay of gratification is related to "hot" and "cool" systems in the brain (A hot/cool system analysis of delay of gratification: Dynamics of willpower, Psychological Review, 106, 3-19, 1999). The hot system is emotional and demands immediate gratification, while the cool system is cognitive and, in certain conditions, can divert attention away from the hot (arousal-based) features of a reward, resulting in an increased ability to delay gratification. According to these investigators, the hot system develops earlier than the cool system, which explains why the ability to delay gratification increases with increasing age. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: delay of gratification

Answer 174

Groupthink was originally described by Arthur Janis to describe several failed foreign policy decisions including the Kennedy administration's decision to invade Cuba. a. CORRECT Although Janis did not believe that high cohesiveness alone necessarily leads to groupthink, he considered it to be the primary condition and proposed that cohesiveness is likely to lead to poor decision making when it is combined with certain other conditions including insulation from outside opinions, the presence of external threats, and highly directive leadership. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: a group is highly cohesive.

Answer 175

Most studies support the principle of "mood congruency." a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Except in special circumstances (e.g., when current mood is attributed to an experimental manipulation), there is a consistent relationship between affect and cognition. For example, depressed people are more likely to recall pessimistic or negative events and make pessimistic social judgments. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: people in a positive mood perceive, encode, and retrieve positive information more efficiently, while people in a negative mood perceive, encode, and retrieve negative information more efficiently.

Answer 176

Only one of the theorists listed emphasized the roles of both language and social interactions in cognitive development. a. Incorrect Eleanor Gibson is best known for her studies on perceptual development in infants. b. CORRECT Vygotsky's sociocultural theory focuses on the impact of language (e.g., the internalization of dialogues with peers and adults) and social interactions on cognitive development. For additional information about Vygotsky's theory, see the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials. c. Incorrect Perry's research focused on changes in cognitive development from adolescence to early adulthood, and he distinguished between dualistic and relativistic thinking. d. Incorrect Rutter is probably best known for his work on risk and resilience. The correct answer is: L. Vygotsky's

Answer 177

Piaget proposed that the ability to form mental representations occurs at the end of the sensorimotor stage. a. Incorrect From 4 to 8 months of age, the child is in the secondary circular reactions substage of the sensorimotor stage. b. Incorrect From 8 to 12 months, the child is in the coordinated secondary circular reactions substage. c. Incorrect From 12 to 18 months, the child is in the tertiary circular reactions substage. d. CORRECT From 18 to 24 months, the child is in the mental representation substage, which is characterized by the development of the ability to form internal representations of objects and events. (Note that some recent research suggests that deferred imitation and problem solving - which depend on mental representation - occur at an earlier age than Piaget proposed.) The correct answer is: 18 to 24 months.

Answer 178

Answer C is correct: Symptoms of Stimulant Intoxication include tachycardia or bradycardia, pupillary dilation, elevated or lowered blood pressure, perspiration or chills, nausea or vomiting, weight loss, psychomotor agitation or retardation, muscular weakness, respiratory depression or cardiac arrhythmias, confusion, seizures, and coma. Answer A: These symptoms are characteristic of Phencyclidine Intoxication. Answer B: These symptoms are characteristic of Inhalant Intoxication. Answer D: These are symptoms of Stimulant Withdrawal, not Stimulant Intoxication. The correct answer is: pupillary dilation, nausea, and muscular weakness

Answer 179

Answer D is correct. Sue et al. (1991) and others have found a few consistent differences in outcomes for members of different racial/ethnic groups. Sue et al. found that Hispanic Americans had the best outcomes, followed by Anglos, Asian Americans, and, lastly, African Americans. The correct answer is: Hispanic Americans

Answer 180

In factor analysis, a test's communality indicates its "common variance," or the amount of variability in test scores that is explained by the factors that the test shares in common with the other tests included in the analysis. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT A test's communality is interpreted directly as the amount of variability in test scores explained by the identified factors. Therefore, when the communality is .40, this means that 40% of variability in test scores is explained by the identified factors. The correct answer is: 40% of variability in test scores is accounted for by all of the identified factors.

Answer 181

Managed care reduces health costs in several ways including the use of a "gatekeeper" who makes referrals to specialists. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT The gatekeeper is the person who makes referrals to a psychotherapist or other specialist or the person who evaluates the individual to determine if additional care is needed. Very often, the gatekeeper is the individual's primary care physician. The correct answer is: primary care physician.

Answer 182

To identify the correct answer to this question, you have to be aware that colorblindness is a recessive trait that is carried on the X chromosome. a. Incorrect For a son to be colorblind, he would have to inherit the colorblind gene from his mother. This will not occur in this case since there is no history of colorblindness in Alice's family. b. Incorrect For a daughter to be colorblind, she would have to inherit the colorblind gene from her father and her mother. Since there's no history of colorblindness in Alice's family, this would not occur. (However, a daughter would carry the trait if she inherits the gene from her father.) c. Incorrect See explanation for answers a and b. d. CORRECT Since the gene for colorblindness is carried on the X chromosome, colorblindness would have to come from the mother for sons and from both the mother and father for daughters. However, since there's no history of colorblindness in the mother's family, this will not occur. The correct answer is: Neither their male nor their female children will be colorblind.

Answer 183

This is a difficult question because relatively few studies address the topic it is asking about (the use of the serial position effect to detect malingering), and those studies have not provided entirely consistent results. While several studies have found that suppression of primacy effects is characteristic of malingerers but not brain-injured patients, a few other studies suggest that malingerers and brain-injured patients do not consistently differ with regard to primacy (or recency) effects. a. CORRECT Some studies have found that malingerers are less likely than patients with TBI to exhibit a primacy effect (i.e., are less likely to recall words from the beginning of the word list) but are equally likely to exhibit a recency effect (i.e., are equally likely to recall words from the end of the list). See, e.g., J. A. Suhr, Malingering, coaching, and the serial position effect, Archives of Clinical Neuropsychology, 17(1), 69-77, 2002. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: less likely to exhibit a primacy effect.

Answer 184

The psychologist should not mislead the insurance company about the appropriate form of treatment for the couple since doing so would constitute insurance fraud. a. Incorrect This would not be appropriate because individual therapy is not indicated. b. Incorrect Standard 6.06 of the Ethics Code states: "In their reports to payors for services or sources of research funding, psychologists take reasonable steps to ensure the accurate reporting of the nature of the service provided or research conducted, the fees, charges, or payments, and where applicable, the identity of the provider, the findings, and the diagnosis." c. CORRECT The psychologist should make a request to the insurance company for marital therapy. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: appeal to the insurance company for coverage for marital therapy.

Answer 185

D. Baumrind distinguished between four parenting styles based on level of control and warmth. See the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials for additional information about these styles. a. CORRECT As defined by Baumrind, rejecting/neglecting parents are low in control and low in warmth. Their children have the worst outcomes - e.g., they are antisocial, use drugs and alcohol, and score low on cognitive tests. b. Incorrect Permissive/laissez faire parents are low in control and high in warmth. Their children also have poor outcomes but not as poor as those of children of rejecting/neglecting parents. They are immature, impulsive, and self-centered and low in achievement-orientation. c. Incorrect Authoritarian parents are high in control and low in warmth. Their children tend to be aggressive, mistrusting, and dependent and have low levels of self-esteem and academic achievement. d. Incorrect Authoritative parents are high in control and warmth. Their children have the best outcomes. They are mature, resilient, achievement-oriented, and responsible, and do well in school. The correct answer is: low in control and low in warmth

Answer 186

The elaboration likelihood model (Petty and Cacioppo, 1980) distinguishes between central and peripheral processing routes. a. Incorrect Locus of control is not part of the elaboration likelihood model. b. Incorrect This situation is more likely to lead to peripheral processing of a persuasive message. c. CORRECT A person is more likely to use the central route when he/she is highly motivated. Relevance of the message affects motivation. d. Incorrect A weak message is more likely to result in peripheral processing of the message. The correct answer is: the message has some relevance to the recipient of the message.

Answer 187

In this situation, the mother is using a behavioral technique to eliminate an undesirable behavior. a. CORRECT Differential reinforcement involves reducing an undesirable self-reinforcing behavior by providing a reinforcer after each predefined interval of time that the individual does not engage in that behavior but, instead, engages in other (different)behaviors. b. Incorrect Time-out involves removing the individual from all sources of positive reinforcement for a period of time following an undesirable behavior to eliminate that behavior. c. Incorrect Overcorrection involves having the individual correct the consequences of an undesirable behavior and/or practice corrective (alternative) behaviors. d. Incorrect Shaping involves teaching a new behavior by reinforcing successive approximations to that behavior. The correct answer is: differential reinforcement

Answer 188

Biculturalism among African-American and Mexican-American adolescents was examined by J. S. Phinney and M. Devich-Navarro (Variations in bicultural identification among African-American and Mexican-American adolescents, Journal of Research in Adolescence, 7(1), 3-32, 1997). These investigators found that the adolescents in their sample exhibited one of three patterns: blended biculturalism, alternating biculturalism, or separated. a. Incorrect This describes marginalization. None of the adolescents in Phinney and Devich-Navarro's sample fit this pattern. b. Incorrect Phinney and Devich-Navarro refer to this as alternating biculturalism. c. Incorrect This is referred to as a fused identity. Phinney and Navarro found no evidence of this pattern in their sample. d. CORRECT As defined by these authors, this pattern represents blended biculturalism. The correct answer is: view themselves as having integrated American and ethnic identities.

Answer 189

Of the various precipitants of relapse, negative emotional states have been found to be the most frequent cause. a. Incorrect According to Marlatt and Gordon (1985), urges and temptations account for about 11% of relapses among alcoholics (and for similar rates for other types of addictions). b. Incorrect Although negative emotional states are important determinants of relapse, positive emotional states and negative physical states are less predictive than interpersonal conflicts and social pressure (response d). c. Incorrect This response can be eliminated because it doesn't include negative emotional states. d. CORRECT Marlatt and Gordon report that, for alcoholics, 38% of incidents of relapse are related to negative emotional states; 18% to interpersonal conflicts; and 18% to social pressure. Together, these three account for nearly three-fourths of relapse incidents. The correct answer is: negative emotional states, interpersonal conflicts, and social pressure

Answer 190

Of the various precipitants of relapse, negative emotional states have been found to be the most frequent cause. a. Incorrect According to Marlatt and Gordon (1985), urges and temptations account for about 11% of relapses among alcoholics (and for similar rates for other types of addictions). b. Incorrect Although negative emotional states are important determinants of relapse, positive emotional states and negative physical states are less predictive than interpersonal conflicts and social pressure (response d). c. Incorrect This response can be eliminated because it doesn't include negative emotional states. d. CORRECT Marlatt and Gordon report that, for alcoholics, 38% of incidents of relapse are related to negative emotional states; 18% to interpersonal conflicts; and 18% to social pressure. Together, these three account for nearly three-fourths of relapse incidents. The correct answer is: negative emotional states, interpersonal conflicts, and social pressure

Answer 191

Deaux and Emswiller (1974) found that attributions related to achievement vary, depending on the sex of the achiever. Specifically, they found that (1) both males and females viewed ability as the cause of success for males on traditionally masculine tasks, (2) both males and females viewed luck as the cause of success for females on traditionally masculine tasks, (3) both males and females viewed ability as the cause of success for males and females on traditionally feminine tasks. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT This response is in line with the research mentioned above. Jack's success in both fixing a transmission (a traditionally masculine task) and decorating (a traditionally feminine task) will be attributed to ability; Jane's success in sewing (a traditionally feminine task) will be attributed to ability, but her success in cutting down a tree (a traditionally masculine task) will be attributed to luck. The correct answer is: Males and females will both attribute Jack's success in both tasks and Jane's success in sewing to ability, but will attribute Jane's success in cutting down a tree to luck.

Answer 192

Research examining the strengths and weaknesses of various decision-making strategies has found that bounded rationality often fails because of the problem described in this question. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT This is the term used in the literature for the phenomenon described in this question. The correct answer is: satisficing.

Answer 193

There are many different types of seizures. Each involves a different etiology and combination of symptoms. a. Incorrect Petit mal (absence) seizures involve a loss of consciousness without prominent motor symptoms. b. Incorrect Atonic seizures involve a sudden loss of muscle tone that causes the individual to fall down. c. Incorrect Clonic seizures are characterized by jerky movements. d. CORRECT A simple partial seizure begins on one side of the brain and, at least initially, affects only one side of the body. It does not involve a loss of consciousness. The correct answer is: simple partial

Answer 194

Whenever a sample is drawn from a population, there is a good chance that the sample will not be entirely representative of that population. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT As the result of random (chance) factors, the sample may not "mirror" the population in terms of important characteristics. This is referred to as sampling error. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: random factors that produce a nonrepresentative sample.

Answer 195

You may have been able to identify the correct answer to this question by knowing that "chroma" refers to color. a. Incorrect Color agnosia is the inability to name or discriminate between colors. b. Incorrect Akinetopsia is the inability to perceive moving objects as the result of brain damage. c. Incorrect Prosopagnosia is the inability to recognize familiar faces. d. CORRECT Total color blindness, or complete achromatopsia, is an autosomal recessive disorder that is caused by a lack of functioning of the cone cells. The correct answer is: achromatopsia.

Answer 196

Answer A is correct. Risperidone is classified as an atypical antipsychotic. Although extrapyramidal side effects may occur, they are much less common with risperidone than with the typical (traditional) antipsychotics. Answer B: Incorrect - Weight gain and sexual dysfunction are common side effects of risperidone. Answer C: Incorrect - Risperidone can produce NMS, although this side effect is rare. Answer D: Incorrect - One problem with risperidone is that it has a delayed onset. The correct answer is: is less likely to produce extrapyramidal side effects than are the traditional antipsychotics.

Answer 197

Tardive dyskinesia is a serious side effect of the antipsychotic drugs. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Although early research suggests that tardive dyskinesia is irreversible, recently-published longitudinal studies indicate that, in 30 to 60% of cases, symptoms improve after five years following withdrawal of the drug. This is especially true for younger people and when the drug is withdrawn gradually. Note also that continued use of a low-dose of neuroleptics can, at least temporarily, suppress the symptoms of tardive dyskinesia. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: symptoms may eventually improve to some degree following neuroleptic withdrawal.

Answer 198

Answer A is correct. Dr. Nillson's behavior violates Standard 7.03 of the Ethics Code, which calls for accuracy in teaching, as well as General Principle C (Integrity), which encourages "accuracy, honesty, and truthfulness." Dr. Nillson's behavior is in violation of the Ethics Code. Answer B - Incorrect -As a psychologist, Dr. Nillson has an ethical duty to teach objectively, fully, and accurately. Answer C - Incorrect - Dr. Nillson is ethically obligated to make sure her choice of topics is not biased by her own personal beliefs. If she is unqualified to teach certain areas, she could arrange to have someone else do so. Answer D - Incorrect - Dr. Nillson's behavior is biased and, therefore, is unethical. The correct answer is: unethical - she has an obligation to provide accurate and objective information about the topic she is teaching

Answer 199

Answer D is correct: The diagnosis of Conduct Disorder requires a persistent pattern of behavior that violates the basic rights of others and/or age-appropriate social norms or rules with three or more characteristic symptoms, e.g. bullying, threatening, or intimidating others; being frequently truant from school; running away from home at least twice; and vandalizing school property. Answer A: Child or Adolescent Antisocial Behavior is included in the DSM-5 with Other Conditions That May Be a Focus of Clinical Attention and may apply when the individual's symptoms do not meet the criteria for a mental disorder. Answer B: A diagnosis of Adjustment Disorder is assigned when the individual does not meet the diagnostic criteria for another mental disorder. Answer C: Oppositional Defiant Disorder involves a recurrent pattern of an angry/irritable mood, argumentative/defiant behavior, or vindictiveness. The boy's symptoms are more severe than those associated with Oppositional Defiant Disorder. The correct answer is: Conduct Disorder.

Answer 200

The symptoms listed in the question are collectively referred to as "anticholinergic effects." a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT ACh (acetylcholine) is one of the neurotransmitters classified as "cholinergic." Drugs that block acetylcholine activity produce anticholinergic effects. c. Incorrect Glycine is found in the spinal cord and exerts an inhibitory effect. d. Incorrect Glutamate is associated with learning and memory and the effects of alcohol. The correct answer is: ACh

Answer 201

Advancing age is one of the factors that increases the risk for delirium. a. Incorrect See explanation for Answer D. b. Incorrect See explanation for Answer D. c. Incorrect See explanation for Answer D. d. CORRECT Several factors place people at higher risk for delirium. People over 60 are usually cited as the group at highest risk in general. Moreover, the risk for this population increases as the result of a medical illness or surgery. Other high risk factors include cardiotomy, burns, and rapid withdrawal from alcohol or a sedative, hypnotic, or anxiolytic. The correct answer is: delirium

Answer 202

Time-out involves removing the child from all sources of positive reinforcment for a prespecified period of time following a behavior in order to reduce that behavior. a. CORRECT Negative punishment involves taking a stimulus away following a behavior in order to decrease that behavior, which is what occurs in time-out. b. Incorrect Negative reinforcement involves taking a stimulus away following a behavior in order to increase the behavior. c. Incorrect A behavior is brought under stimulus control when it is elicited by the presence of a cue or prompt. d. Incorrect Fading refers to the gradual removal of prompts. The correct answer is: negative punishment