STUDY-MODE - Practice Exam 5

Question 1

A structural family therapist would use a family map to:
Select one:

A. facilitate interactions between family members during a therapy session.
B. help family members recognize differences in their perceptions.
C. identify family values, life themes, and significant life events.
D. clarify the nature of the boundaries between family subsystems.

Answer 1

Knowing that boundaries are a key focus of Minuchin’s structural family therapy would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.

a. Incorrect This describes the goal of enactment.
b. Incorrect This is a goal of circular questions, which are used by Milan systematic family therapists.
c. Incorrect Identifying and using family values, life themes, and significant life events in conversations during therapy is referred to as tracking.
d. CORRECT A family map is used to help make a structural diagnosis of a family by clarifying its boundaries, coalitions, alignments, etc.

The correct answer is: clarify the nature of the boundaries between family subsystems.

Question 2

From a “control systems” perspective, when established control mechanisms are no longer effective due to radical changes in the environment, new mechanisms must be sought or developed. These new mechanisms will help the system adapt to environmental changes by providing:
Select one:

A. negative feedback.
B. positive feedback.
C. formative evaluations.
D. summative evaluations.

Answer 2

Although it’s probably not clear because of the way this question is worded, this information is relevant to family therapy, which incorporates the principles of cybernetics.

a. Incorrect From a control systems (cybernetics) perspective, negative feedback maintains a system in a steady state. Negative feedback is not useful, however, when the system is faced with extreme changes in the environment.
b. CORRECT Although, under normal circumstances, positive feedback induces change and can result in “runaways,” when the system must adapt to radical changes in the environment, it is positive feedback that makes adaptation possible.
c. Incorrect Formative evaluation is not relevant to control systems.
d. Incorrect Summative evaluation is not relevant to control systems.

The correct answer is: positive feedback.

Question 3

Experts on cross-cultural counseling note that, when working with African American clients, it is important to recognize that their past experiences in a racist society are likely to have fostered feelings of powerlessness. Consequently, a good strategy for a therapist is to adopt a:
Select one:

A. non-directive, less active approach.
B. problem-solving, time-limited approach.
C. color-blind approach.
D. neutral, educative approach.

Answer 3

In general, experts in the field of cross-cultural counseling agree that goal-directed therapies are most effective with members of most minority groups.

a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT According to M. K. Ho, “Regardless of the nature of the family’s problem(s), Black families are likely to be most responsive to problem-solving, time-limited family therapy approaches” (Family therapy with ethnic minorities, Newbury Park, Sage Publications, 1987).
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.

The correct answer is: problem-solving, time-limited approach.

Question 4

From the perspective of Freudian psychoanalytic theory, the defense mechanism of _______________ is viewed as underlying all other defense mechanisms.
Select one:

A. regression
B. repression
C. sublimation
D. projection

Answer 4

The goal of all of the defense mechanisms can be said to be keeping unwanted thoughts and impulses out of consciousness.

a. Incorrect Regression occurs when an individual reverts to behaviors characteristic of an earlier stage in life in order to avoid anxiety-producing impulses.
b. CORRECT Repression involves pushing unacceptable id impulses into the unconscious. Repression can be viewed as the most “basic” of the defense mechanisms since the goal of all defense mechanisms is to make unwanted impulses unconscious.
c. Incorrect Sublimation involves channeling unwanted impulses into socially-acceptable endeavors. It is considered the most “advanced” of the defense mechanisms.
d. Incorrect Projection occurs when an individual attributes his/her unwanted impulses to other people.

The correct answer is: repression

Question 5

Prochaska, Norcross, and DiClemente’s (1994) transtheoretical model distinguishes between 10 different change processes and proposes that the most effective combination of processes depends on a client’s stage of change. For example, they recommend consciousness raising, dramatic relief, and environmental re-evaluation as useful strategies for helping clients transition into the __________ stage.
Select one:

A. maintenance
B. conformity
C. action
D. contemplation

Answer 5

The transtheoretical model distinguishes between six stages of change:

Precontemplation
Contemplation
Preparation
Action
Maintenance
Termination.

a. Incorrect The optimal combination of change processes for clients in the maintenance stage is supportive (helpful) relationships, commitment, countering, environmental control, and social liberation.
b. Incorrect Conformity is not one of the stages of change identified by Prochaska, Norcross, and DiClemente.
c. Incorrect The most effective change processes for clients in the action stage are the same as those for clients in the maintenance stage (answer a).
d. CORRECT Prochaska, Norcross, and DiClemente recommend this combination of change processes for helping clients transition from the precontemplation to the contemplation stage.

The correct answer is: contemplation

Question 6

An African American therapy client exhibiting the “split-self syndrome” as a response to racial oppression will most likely:
Select one:

A. exhibit a high degree of detachment from his family and neighborhood.
B. avoid contacts with Whites.
C. evaluate himself against White standards.
D. exhibit a high degree of “functional paranoia.”

Answer 6

Chronic exposure to racial oppression can have several consequences, one of which is the development of the “split-self syndrome” (see, e.g., J. Landrum-Brown, Black mental health and racial oppression, in D. S. Ruiz and J. P. Comer, Handbook of mental health and mental disorder among Black Americans, Greenwood Press, NY, 1990).

a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT According to Landrum-Brown, the split-self syndrome “is a result of accepting a polarized, hierarchical manner of thinking and accepting negative racial messages.” For African Americans, one manifestation of this syndrome is evaluating oneself against White standards.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.

The correct answer is: evaluate himself against White standards.

Question 7

Cultural universalism is to cultural relativism as:
Select one:

A. emic is to etic.
B. etic is to emic.
C. alloplastic is to autoplastic.
D. autoplastic is to alloplastic.

Answer 7

An ongoing debate in the literature is about the degree to which psychological principles are universal versus specific in terms of their application to individuals from different cultures.

a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT An etic approach is based on the assumption that universal principles apply across cultures while an emic approach is based on the assumption that cultures vary and, consequently, cannot always be understood from the perspective of universal principles. In other words, the etic approach is universalistic, while an emic approach is relativistic.
c. Incorrect The terms alloplastic and autoplastic are used to describe different types of interventions: Alloplastic interventions focus on changing the individual’s situation, while autoplastic interventions focus on changing the individual.

d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: etic is to emic.

Question 8

In the context of Freudian psychoanalysis, the goal of confrontation is to:
Select one:

A. reduce the client’s resistance.
B. clarify a client’s statements.
C. help the client see a behavior in a new way.
D. foster the development of transference.

Answer 8

Freudian psychoanalysis can be conceptualized as involving four processes:

Confrontation
Clarification
Interpretation
Working through.

a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect This sounds more like the goal of clarification.
c. CORRECT When using confrontation, the therapist makes a statement or asks a question that connects the client’s behavior to an unconscious motivation or conflict.
d. Incorrect This is not the goal of confrontation.

The correct answer is: help the client see a behavior in a new way.

Question 9

A parent complains that her 11-year old seems motivated primarily by his strong needs for attention and power and desire to get even with anyone who he thinks has wronged him. Therapy based on the work of which of the following individuals would be best suited to this boy’s problems?
Select one:

A. Carl Jung
B. Fritz Perls
C. Heinz Kohut
D. Alfred Adler

Answer 9

Although the boy’s problems would probably be helped by a number of different types of therapy, the approach of only one of the individuals listed is directly associated with the specific issues described in the question.

a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT According to Adler, people are motivated primarily by the need to belong (i.e., by social interest). However, this need may be misdirected into one of four goals – attention, power, revenge, or to display inadequacy.

The correct answer is: Alfred Adler

Question 10

According to Helms (1990), the ability of Whites to develop a healthy racial identity is most closely related to:
Select one:

A. identification with a particular White culture (e.g., Irish, Swedish, French).
B. stage of ego-identity development.
C. level of self-monitoring.
D. the extent of racism in the society.

Answer 10

Each of the stages of Helms’s White Racial Identity Development reflects a different position with regard to acceptance or rejection of racism.

a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT J. Helms’s model reflects her belief that “the development of white identity in the United States is closely intertwined with the development and progress of racism in this country” (Black and White racial identity: Theory, research, and practice, Westport, CT, Greenwood, 1990, p. 49).

The correct answer is: the extent of racism in the society.

Question 11

Penny Pallid is an Anglo American teacher and Cameron Chroma, her student, is African American. According to Helms’s interaction model, Ms. Pallid will be LEAST effective in teaching Cameron if she is in the __________ stage of racial identity development and Cameron is in the __________ stage.
Select one:

A. reintegration; pre-encounter
B. pseudo-independent; pre-encounter
C. contact; immersion
D. pseudo-independent; encounter

Answer 11

This question is asking about Helms’s proposal that outcomes in clinical and other relationships are affected by the stage of racial identity development of each participant. See J. Helms, Applying the interaction model to social dyads, in J. Helms (Ed.), Black and White racial identity: Theory, research and practice, New York, Greenwood Press, 1990.

a. Incorrect As defined by Helms, this is an example of a parallel relationship and is likely to result in a stable, harmonious interaction.
b. Incorrect This is an example of a progressive relationship. It provides the greatest opportunity for growth for the student.
c. CORRECT This is an example of a crossed relationship. It is the most conflicted type and is characterized by disharmony, fear, and “warfare.” It is least likely to promote the student’s growth.
d. Incorrect This is another example of a progressive relationship.

The correct answer is: contact; immersion

Question 12

In the context of cognitive-behavioral family therapy (Schwebel and Fine, 1994), “family ___________” refers to a set of cognitions that family members possess and that shape how they understand and approach family life.
Select one:

A. prototype
B. map
C. script
D. schema

Answer 12

Even if you are unfamiliar with cognitive-behavioral family therapy, familiarity with cognitive-behavioral therapy in general should have helped you select the correct answer to this question

a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Schemas are a key concept in cognitive-behavioral therapy and in cognitive-behavioral family therapy. However, in the latter, they are conceptualized more narrowly as the cognitive frameworks that family members have about family functioning. See A. Schwebel and M. Fine, Understanding and helping the family: A cognitive-behavioral model, Hillsdale, NJ, Erlbaum, 1994.

The correct answer is: schema

Question 13

Gregory Herek (2000) proposes that the terms "sexual prejudice," "sexual stigma," and "heterosexism" be used as substitutes for:
Select one:

A. heterosexual bias.
B. homophobia.
C. homosexism.
D. sexism.

Answer 13

For the exam, you want to be familiar with Herek’s definitions for the terms listed in this question. These are described in the Clinical Psychology chapter of the written study materials.

a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Herek argues that the terms listed in this question are more useful than homophobia because homophobia is an ambiguous and imprecise term.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.

The correct answer is: homophobia.

Question 14

As described by Sue and Zane (1987), when working with Asian American clients, “gift-giving”:
Select one:

A. is discouraged because it tends to foster dependency on the therapist.
B. is discouraged because it can create a harmful multiple relationship.
C. is encouraged during the final therapy sessions to help clients maintain therapeutic gains.
D. is encouraged during the initial therapy sessions to help reduce premature termination from therapy.

Answer 14

S. Sue and N. Zane point out that ethnic minority clients (especially Asian American clients) often expect to obtain some meaningful benefit early in therapy and tend to be skeptical about its long-term benefits. They recommend “gift-giving” during the initial therapy sessions as a useful strategy for increasing credibility and preventing premature termination [The role of culture and cultural techniques in psychotherapy: A critique and reformulation, American Psychologist, 42(1), 37-45, 1987].

a. Incorrect See explanation for answer d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for answer d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for answer d.
d. CORRECT Examples of “gifts” that can be given during initial therapy sessions include normalizing the client’s distress, instilling a sense of hopefulness, and identifying concrete and mutually agreed upon goals.

The correct answer is: is encouraged during the initial therapy sessions to help reduce premature termination from therapy.

Question 15

An educational psychologist with expertise in the areas of intellectual and learning disabilities is hired by a school district to assist a teacher who is having difficulty working effectively with newly “mainstreamed” students. The psychologist will work directly with the teacher to help him acquire the skills he needs to work with these students but will have little or no direct contact with the students. This is best described as a type of:
Select one:

A. client-centered case consultation.
B. consultee-centered case consultation.
C. program-centered administrative consultation.
D. consultee-centered administrative consultation.

Answer 15

Gerald Kaplan distinguishes between the four types of consultation listed in the answers to this question. Additional information about the types is provided in the Clinical Psychology chapter of the written study materials.

a. Incorrect In client-centered case consultation, the consultant assists the consultee with a particular client or student.
b. CORRECT In consultee-centered case consultation, the focus is on the consultee, and the consultant helps the consultee acquire the knowledge or skills needed to work effectively with a particular type of clients or students.
c. Incorrect This type of consultation involves working with one or more administrators to resolve problems related to an existing program.
d. Incorrect This type of consultation involves assisting one or more administrators acquire the knowledge and skills they need to be more effective in developing, implementing, and/or evaluating future programs.

The correct answer is: consultee-centered case consultation.

Question 16

Surveys have found that women in which of the following groups report the highest lifetime rate of victimization by an intimate partner?
Select one:

A. White Americans
B. African Americans
C. Asians/Pacific Islanders
D. American Indians/Alaska Natives

Answer 16

Statistics on the lifetime rates of victimization by an intimate partner are reported by P. Tjaden and N. Thoennes in Extent, nature and consequences of intimate partner violence: Findings from the National Violence Against Women Study, U. S. Department of Justice, 2000.

a. Incorrect Tjaden and Thoennes report a lifetime rate of victimization by an intimate partner of 24.8% for White females (i.e., 24.8% of White females in their sample reported having been the victim of intimate partner rape, physical assault, or stalking).
b. Incorrect For African American females, these investigators obtained a rate of 29.1%.
c. Incorrect For Asian/Pacific Islander females, Tjaden and Thoennes obtained a rate of 15.0%.
d. CORRECT Tjaden and Thoennes report a lifetime rate for American Indians/Alaska Natives of 37.5%. They note that this higher rate for American Indian/Alaska Native women is consistent with previous research but state that it is not clear whether the rate is actually due to more violent experiences or an increased willingness to report them.

The correct answer is: American Indians/Alaska Natives

Question 17

Smith, Glass, and Miller’s (1980) use of meta-analysis involved:
Select one:

A. counting the number of psychotherapy outcome studies that found a statistically significant difference between treatment and no-treatment groups.
B. statistically comparing the number of psychotherapy outcomes studies that did and did not find significant treatment effects.
C. determining the average magnitude of the outcome of psychotherapy across a large number of outcome studies.
D. using initial symptom severity and type and duration of treatment to predict average treatment outcome.

Answer 17

Smith et al. combined the results of 475 studies on the effectiveness of psychotherapy (Smith, M. L., Glass, G. V., & Miller, R. L., The benefits of psychotherapy, Baltimore, Johns Hopkins University Press, 1980).

a. Incorrect This response describes the “box score” method, not meta-analysis.
b. Incorrect This response describes using an inferential statistical test to compare outcome data for two groups.
c. CORRECT When using meta-analysis, the outcomes of each study are converted to a common metric - i.e., an effect size - and an average effect size is calculated.
d. Incorrect This response describes multiple regression.

The correct answer is: determining the average magnitude of the outcome of psychotherapy across a large number of outcome studies.

Question 18

A therapist who believes the therapeutic change process should focus on altering the client’s environment is adopting which of the following approaches?
Select one:

A. alloplastic
B. autoplastic
C. emic
D. etic

Answer 18

To answer this question, you must be familiar with the definitions for the terms listed in the responses.

a. CORRECT Alloplastic refers to changing or adapting to the environment by effecting changes in the environment.
b. Incorrect Autoplastic (“self-change”) refers to changing or adapting to the environment by altering one’s own behaviors or responses.
c. Incorrect Adopting an emic perspective involves focusing on the intrinsic distinctions that are meaningful to members of a particular culture or society.
d. Incorrect Adopting an etic perspective involves focusing on extrinsic distinctions that have meaning for the observer of the culture or society.

The correct answer is: alloplastic

Question 19

From the perspective of object-relations theory, projective identification is illustrated by which of the following?
Select one:

A. A woman who doesn’t want to own her feelings of love and hate manipulates another person into experiencing them.
B. A child kicks and pushes his mother away from him even though he actually longs for her attention.
C. A man continuously interprets his wife’s behavior as an attempt to “mother” him.
D. A therapist reacts to lower-SES clients in ways consistent with stereotypes she formed during her internship.

Answer 19

Klein introduced the notion of projective identification and defined it as a mechanism that is revealed in fantasies in which the subject inserts the self (in part or whole) into the object in order to possess or control the object. It can be considered a type of projection.

a. CORRECT Projective identification underlies a number of pathological conditions and is responsible for severe difficulties in establishing one’s own identity and in feeling secure enough to establish relationships with others. See, e.g., C. Cooper, Psychodynamic therapy: The Kleinian approach, in W. Dryden (Ed.), Handbook of individual therapy, London, Sage, 1996.
b. Incorrect This is an example of splitting.
c. Incorrect This sounds more like transference.
d. Incorrect This is an example of theme interference.

The correct answer is: A woman who doesn’t want to own her feelings of love and hate manipulates another person into experiencing them.

Question 20

Ho (1987) and others have recommended the use of a(n) __________ approach when working with African American therapy clients.
Select one:

A. ecostructural
B. solution-focused
C. narrative
D. ethnographic

Answer 20

Ho, Boyd-Franklin, and others recommend that interventions with African-American clients (especially those from low-income backgrounds) incorporate multiple systems including the immediate family, extended family, social service agencies, and church.

a. CORRECT While Boyd-Franklin refers to this approach as a “multisystems model,” Ho uses the term “ecostructural.” See, e.g., M. K. Ho, Family therapy with ethnic minorities, Newbury Park, Sage, 1987.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.

The correct answer is: ecostructural

Question 21

A therapist instructs a client who suffers from insomnia to polish his hardwood floors for at least two hours whenever he wakes up during the night. Apparently this therapist is familiar with the work of:
Select one:

A. Luigi Boscolo.
B. Milton Erickson.
C. Salvador Minuchin.
D. Marquis de Sade.

Answer 21

The task described in the question is an example of an “ordeal.”

a. Incorrect Luigi Boscolo is affiliated with the Milan systemic school of family therapy, which is not associated with the use of ordeals.
b. CORRECT For the exam, you should have paradoxical techniques and ordeals associated with Milton Erickson and Jay Haley (who was strongly influenced by Erickson).
c. Incorrect The use of ordeals is more associated with Erickson and Haley than with Minuchin.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.

The correct answer is: Milton Erickson.

Question 22

Melanie Klein considered the actions of children during play therapy to be equivalent to an adult client’s free associations. Anna Freud, in commenting on Klein’s conclusions:
Select one:

A. agreed that play therapy could be used as a substitute for free association.
B. argued that the actions of children during play therapy are better considered a form of “acting out.”
C. argued that the actions of children during play therapy are better interpreted as a form of resistance.
D. concluded that play therapy is counterproductive in the analysis of children.

Answer 22

Anna Freud regarded play therapy as a useful tool in the analysis of children but rejected Klein”s use of play therapy as a substitute for free association.

a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT In her paper “Acting Out” (The Writings of Anna Freud, Volume IX), Freud notes that, in pre-latency children, motor actions are the legitimate media of expression and communication of impulses; and, consequently, during that period, play is a form of “acting out.”
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.

The correct answer is: argued that the actions of children during play therapy are better considered a form of “acting out.”

Question 23

As defined in Atkinson, Morten, and Sue’s (1993) Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model, a person who has contradictory appreciating and depreciating attitudes toward both his/her own culture and the dominant (majority) culture is in which of the following stages?
Select one:

A. resistance
B. dissonance
C. conformity
D. disintegration

Answer 23

The stages of Atkinson, Morten, and Sue’s Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model are characterized by different combinations of attitudes toward oneself, one’s own racial/cultural minority group, other minority groups, and the dominant (majority) group.

a. Incorrect The resistance/immersion stage is characterized by a preference for one’s own group.
b. CORRECT The dissonance stage is characterized by conflicting attitudes toward one’s own group and the majority group.
c. Incorrect A person in the conformity stage prefers the dominant group.
d. Incorrect Disintegration is not one of the stages in the Atkinson, Morten, and Sue model.

The correct answer is: dissonance

Question 24

The various approaches to behavior family therapy differ with regard to goals and strategies but most share a focus on which of the following?
Select one:

A. helping family members develop new meanings for problematic behaviors.
B. using resistance and paradox to alter maladaptive behaviors.
C. altering transactional patterns as a means of fostering insight.
D. enhancing problem-solving and communication skills.

Answer 24

Behavioral approaches to family therapy combine principles of operant conditioning, social learning theory, and social exchange theory.

a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Behavioral family therapies focus on observable behaviors and use contingent reinforcement and other behavioral techniques to modify behaviors, especially those related to problem-solving and communication.

The correct answer is: enhancing problem-solving and communication skills.

Question 25

From a psychoanalytic perspective, a phobia is: Select one: A. a fear of death or "non-being." B. an externalization of a forbidden impulse. C. a projection of a "disowned self." D. a projection of shame and guilt.

Answer 25

From the perspective of Freudian theory, a phobia is a manifestation of neurotic anxiety, which is aroused by a perception of danger from the instincts. a. Incorrect Although some phobias might be related to a fear of death (Freud did talk about a "death instinct"), this is not the best answer of those given. b. CORRECT The object of a phobia is considered to be related in some way to (and symbolic of) a forbidden instinctual impulse. By expressing the impulse in an external symbolic form, the individual is better able to avoid it. c. Incorrect This does not describe Freud's view of phobias. d. Incorrect Shame and guilt are words that are associated with Freud, but this is not the best answer to this question. The correct answer is: an externalization of a forbidden impulse.

Question 26

During a group therapy session, a few group members complain that some of the members have not been disclosing information about themselves. Other members become defensive and say that they don't feel like they should be required to talk about themselves. A therapist relying on the approach advocated by Irvin Yalom (1985) would: Select one: A. regard the conflict as a normal stage of group development and not intervene. B. interpret the conflict as resistance. C. encourage members to discuss the meaning of the conflict for them. D. clarify the function of self-disclosure in therapy.

Answer 26

Yalom views group therapy as a social microcosm that provides opportunities to work through problems in new, more adaptive ways. a. Incorrect Although Yalom views conflict as an expected part of the group process, this is not the best response. See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT This is most consistent with Yalom's belief that group therapy provides several "curative factors" including interpersonal learning and self-understanding. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: encourage members to discuss the meaning of the conflict for them.

Question 27

Research investigating the effectiveness of SSRIs as a treatment for Alcohol Dependence suggests that these drugs: Select one: A. reduce alcohol consumption for individuals with either early or late onset Alcohol Dependence. B. are more likely to reduce alcohol consumption for individuals with early (versus late) onset Alcohol Dependence. C. are more likely to reduce alcohol consumption for individuals with late (versus early) onset Alcohol Dependence. D. have no effect on alcohol consumption regardless of the onset of Alcohol Dependence.

Answer 27

Studies suggest that the effects of SSRIs on Alcohol Dependence are related to several factors including the onset of symptoms, the severity of symptoms, and the presence of comorbid psychopathology. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Several investigators distinguish between two subtypes of alcoholism (Type A and Type B) and have found that the effects of the SSRIs on alcohol consumption are related to subtype. Type A alcoholics have a later onset of alcohol problems, fewer alcohol-related symptoms, and fewer or less severe symptoms of comorbid psychopathology. In contrast Type B alcoholics have an earlier onset of alcohol problems, more severe alcohol-related symptoms, and more severe comorbid psychopathology. The studies have generally found that SSRIs are more likely to have beneficial short- and long-term effects on alcohol consumption for Type A alcoholics and to have no effect or adverse effects for Type B alcoholics. See, e.g., W. Dundon et al., Treatment outcomes in Type A and Type B Alcohol Dependence six months after serotonergic pharmacotherapy, Alcoholism: Clinical and Experimental Research, 28(7), 1065-1073, 2004. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: are more likely to reduce alcohol consumption for individuals with late (versus early) onset Alcohol Dependence.

Question 28

For children with a learning disorder, the most frequent co-diagnosis is ADHD, with approximately _____% of children with a learning disorder also receiving the latter diagnosis. Select one: A. 5 to 10 B. 20 to 30 C. 45 to 50 D. 65 to 75

Answer 28

Children with a learning disorder often have a co-diagnosis of ADHD, Tourette's Disorder, and/or a mood disorder. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT The studies have found that the most common co-diagnosis is ADHD, with about 20 to 30% of children with a learning disorder also receiving a diagnosis of ADHD. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: 20 to 30

Question 29

As described in the DSM-5, the five core symptoms of the Schizophrenia Spectrum Disorders are: Select one: A. delusions, hallucinations, negative symptoms, impaired cognition, and disorganized speech. B. disorganized thinking, delusions, hallucinations, negative symptoms, and depersonalization or derealization. C. hallucinations, negative symptoms, grossly disorganized or abnormal motor behavior, delusions, and disorganized thinking. D. grossly disorganized or abnormal motor behavior, hallucinations, negative symptoms, affective instability, and delusions.

Answer 29

Answer C is correct: Hallucinations, negative symptoms (e.g., diminished emotional expression, avolition), grossly disorganized or abnormal motor behavior, delusions, and disorganized thinking are the five core symptoms of Schizophrenia and other Schizophrenia Spectrum Disorders. Answer A: Impaired cognition is an associated feature of Schizophrenia but is not one of the five core symptoms of the Schizophrenia Spectrum Disorders. Answer B: Depersonalization and derealization are associated symptoms of Schizophrenia but are not the core symptoms of the Schizophrenia Spectrum Disorders. Answer D: Affective instability is characteristic of Schizoaffective Disorder, which has the same symptoms as Schizophrenia with the addition of a disturbance in mood. The correct answer is: hallucinations, negative symptoms, grossly disorganized or abnormal motor behavior, delusions, and disorganized thinking.

Question 30

Research on relapse following smoking cessation has found which of the following to be true? Select one: A. On the average, smokers gain 17.5 pounds during the first year after quitting smoking. B. Although many smokers want to quit, only about 9% successfully quit each year. C. Smoking cessation interventions are significantly more effective for women than for men. D. About two-thirds of smokers who quit on their own or with the assistance of an intervention relapse within three months of quitting.

Answer 30

The plethora of research on smoking cessation and relapse has not produced entirely consistent results, but a number of generalizations can be made. a. Incorrect Most authors report an average weight gain of about 5 or 6 pounds. See, e.g., R. C. Klesges et al., Smoking, body weight, and effects on smoking behavior: A comprehensive review of the literature, Psychological Bulletin, 106(2), 204-230, 1989. b. Incorrect According to Reducing tobacco use: A report of the Surgeon General -- 2000, only 2.5% of quitters are successful each year. (Available at www.cdc.gov/tobacco.) c. Incorrect According to Women and Smoking: A report of the Surgeon General, there are no consistent gender differences in the effectiveness of various interventions for smoking. (Available at www.cdc.gov/tobacco.) d. CORRECT This is the statistic reported by T. P. Carmody in Nicotine dependence: Psychosocial approaches to the prevention of smoking relapse, Psychology of Addictive Behaviors, 7(2), 96-102, 1993. The correct answer is: About two-thirds of smokers who quit on their own or with the assistance of an intervention relapse within three months of quitting.

Question 31

The nocturnal-only subtype of Enuresis: Select one: A. is more common in girls and occurs most often during REM sleep. B. is more common in girls and occurs most often during non-REM sleep. C. is more common in boys and occurs most often during REM sleep. D. is more common in boys and occurs most often during non-REM sleep.

Answer 31

The nocturnal-only subtype of Enuresis requires that the repeated voiding of urine into bed or clothes occurs only during nighttime sleep. It also requires that the individual have a chronological age of at least five years or an equivalent developmental level and that symptoms occur at least twice a week for at least three consecutive months or cause clinically significant distress or impairment in functioning. a. Incorrect See explanation for answer d. b. Incorrect See explanation for answer d. c. Incorrect See explanation for answer d. d. CORRECT The nocturnal-only subtype occurs most often during the first third of the night during non-REM, slow-wave sleep and is more common in boys than girls. The correct answer is: is more common in boys and occurs most often during non-REM sleep.

Question 32

According to Aaron Beck, the core link between depression and suicide is: Select one: A. learned helplessness. B. lack of social support. C. severe symptoms. D. feelings of hopelessness.

Answer 32

Beck has conducted longitudinal research to identify the best predictors of suicide among depressed individuals. When answering questions about Beck, keep in mind that he focuses primarily on distorted cognitions rather than on overt behaviors or other external phenomena. a. Incorrect Learned helplessness is associated with Seligman. b. Incorrect Other investigators have linked lack of social support to depression, but this is not something that Beck stresses. c. Incorrect Beck actually found that severity of symptoms was not a very accurate predictor of suicide. d. CORRECT In one study, Beck found that scores on his hopelessness scale accurately predicted suicide in 91% of cases. See A. T. Beck et al., Hopelessness and eventual suicide: A 10-year prospective study of patients hospitalized with suicidal ideation, American Journal of Psychiatry, 142(5), 559-563, 1985. The correct answer is: feelings of hopelessness.

Question 33

The symptoms of PTSD are grouped in the DSM-5 in terms of which of the following clusters? Select one: A. re-experiencing, avoidance/numbness, and arousal B. re-experiencing, dissociation, avoidance, and arousal C. intrusion, avoidance, cognition and mood, and arousal and reactivity D. intrusion, withdrawal/avoidance, cognition, and mood

Answer 33

Answer C is correct: In the DSM-5, the major symptom clusters for PTSD are intrusion symptoms, persistent avoidance of stimuli associated with the trauma, negative alterations in cognition and mood, and marked alterations in arousal and reactivity. (Note that, for adults, adolescents, and children over age 6, persistent avoidance and alterations in cognition and mood are separate categories but are combined into a single category for children age 6 and under.) The correct answer is: intrusion, avoidance, cognition and mood, and arousal and reactivity

Question 34

Phyllis P., a 32-year-old administrative assistant, is constantly seeking approval from others and, when she is criticized even for a minor offense, she becomes very hurt and angry. At office parties Phyllis is especially seductive with male co-workers and physically affectionate with female co-workers, and she often behaves in ways that make her the center of attention. Based on this information, the most likely diagnosis for Phyllis is: Select one: A. Histrionic Personality Disorder. B. Narcissistic Personality Disorder. C. Borderline Personality Disorder. D. Schizotypal Personality Disorder.

Answer 34

For the exam, you want to be familiar with the essential features of the Personality Disorders so that you can answer questions like this one. This information is provided in the Abnormal Psychology chapter of the written study materials. a. CORRECT Phyllis's symptoms reflect excessive emotionality and attention-seeking. These symptoms are most consistent with a diagnosis of Histrionic Personality Disorder, which entails constant seeking of approval and attention, exaggerated emotions, and seductiveness. b. Incorrect Although Narcissistic Personality Disorder also involves oversensitivity to criticism, people with this disorder are less involved with others. c. Incorrect The essential features of Borderline Personality Disorder are a pervasive pattern of instability of self-image, interpersonal relationships, and affects, as well as marked impulsivity. Although Phyllis' mood seems somewhat unstable, she does not have some of the other characteristics of this disorder such as unstable interpersonal relationships, suicide threats, or marked identity disturbance. d. Incorrect Schizotypal Personality Disorder is characterized by a pattern of difficulties in interpersonal relationships and peculiarities in ideation, appearance, and behavior. The correct answer is: Histrionic Personality Disorder.

Question 35

A child with dyslexia who has not responded to interventions that target his reading problems would receive a DSM-5 diagnosis of: Select one: A. Academic Skills Disorder with impaired reading. B. Reading Disorder. C. Learning Disorder NOS. D. Specific Learning Disorder with impairment in reading.

Answer 35

Answer D is correct: The appropriate diagnosis for dyslexia is Specific Learning Disorder with the specifier "impairment in reading." The correct answer is: Specific Learning Disorder with impairment in reading.

Question 36

Of the following, the best predictor of suicide is generally considered to be: Select one: A. lack of social support. B. increase in somatic symptoms. C. family history of suicide. D. prior suicide attempt(s).

Answer 36

Once again, the best predictor of future behavior is past behavior. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT One of the most frequently cited facts in the literature on the predictors of suicide is that a previous suicide attempt is often the best predictor of death by suicide, with reported rates ranging from 40 to 80% of people who commit suicide having made one or more previous attempts. The correct answer is: prior suicide attempt(s).

Question 37

Of the following, which is most true about adolescents who have a history of repeated suicide attempts? Select one: A. The failure of their attempts is usually due to a lack of access to lethal means. B. Their continued threats to commit suicide are of minimal concern because very few adolescent repeat attempters actually complete suicide. C. The real purpose of their suicide attempts is often to exert power in situations in which they feel powerless. D. Their suicide attempts are often a self-imposed extension of the physical abuse they have experienced since early childhood.

Answer 37

Several factors have been linked to an increased risk for suicide among adolescents. a. Incorrect Lack of access to lethal means has not been identified as an explanation for repeated attempts among adolescents. In fact, one pattern that has been identified is a trend toward increasing lethality with each attempt. b. Incorrect Suicide attempts should always be taken seriously regardless of the person's past history. Many people with a history of attempts do ultimately kill themselves. c. CORRECT Among adolescent repeat attempters, the purpose of the attempts is often interpersonal (conflicts with family members) and/or instrumental (an attempt to obtain attention). Thus, the attempts can be viewed as a desire to claim power in situations in which the adolescent feels powerless. d. Incorrect Although childhood abuse is certainly linked with a number of problems (including depression and suicide), this particular dynamic (the attempt reflecting an extension of abuse) has not been identified as a causal agent in repeated suicide attempts among adolescents. The correct answer is: The real purpose of their suicide attempts is often to exert power in situations in which they feel powerless.

Question 38

Your new client is a 20-year-old college student who says she's failing her classes because of her anxiety. She states that she has to force herself to leave her dorm room to go to class, and when she does, she avoids the "quad" and other large open spaces because she's afraid she'll have a panic attack. The client tells you that, when in large open spaces, she can't breathe and her heart races, she feels like she's going to die, and she's afraid that no one will help her if she has an attack. She says that she experiences the same problem when she's part of a crowd and avoids going anywhere where there's likely to be a "lot of people," which has made it hard for her to have a social life. Based on this information, the most likely DSM-5 diagnosis for this client is: Select one: A. Panic Disorder with Agoraphobia B. Agoraphobia C. Agoraphobia without History of Panic Disorder D. Specific Phobia, situational type

Answer 38

Answer B is correct: A DSM-5 diagnosis of Agoraphobia requires the presence of marked fear of or anxiety about at least two of five situations (using public transportation, being in open spaces, being in enclosed spaces, standing in line or being part of a crowd, and being outside the home alone). The individual fears or avoids these situations due to a concern that escape might be difficult or help will be unavailable in case he/she develops incapacitating or embarrassing symptoms; and the situations nearly always provoke fear or anxiety and are actively avoided, require the presence of a companion, or are endured with intense fear or anxiety. Answers A and C: Panic Disorder with Agoraphobia and Agoraphobia Without History of Panic Disorder are not DSM-5 diagnoses. Answer D: It can be difficult to differentiate Agoraphobia from Specific Phobia, situational type; but, when the individual's fear is limited to only one of the situations associated with Agoraphobia and is due to something other than a fear that escape might be difficult or help will be unavailable when symptoms occur, the diagnosis is Specific Phobia, situational type. The correct answer is: Agoraphobia

Question 39

Studies investigating dissociation in children have found that: Select one: A. maltreated children and nonmaltreated children exhibit similar levels of dissociation. B. maltreated children exhibit more dissociative symptoms than nonmaltreated children do and this difference is apparent during the preschool years. C. maltreated children exhibit more dissociative symptoms than nonmaltreated children do but this difference is not apparent until the elementary school years. D. maltreated children exhibit more dissociative symptoms than nonmaltreated children do but this difference is not apparent until the middle-school years.

Answer 39

The research has shown that signs of dissociation are apparent in infancy and that the capacity to dissociate increases rapidly during the preschool years. See, e.g., F. Putnam, Dissociation in children and adolescents: A developmental perspective, New York, Guilford Press, 1997. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT The studies have shown that, when compared to their nonmaltreated peers, maltreated preschool children exhibit more dissociation than nonmaltreated children do. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: maltreated children exhibit more dissociative symptoms than nonmaltreated children do and this difference is apparent during the preschool years.

Question 40

When deciding on an intervention plan for a client with Agoraphobia, it is important to keep in mind that which of the following seems to be the key element in treating this disorder? Select one: A. counterconditioning B. progressive relaxation C. in vivo exposure D. cognitive restructuring

Answer 40

Most of the research on Agoraphobia and other phobic disorders has found the behavioral and cognitive-behavioral techniques to be most effective. However, the specific technique that is most effective depends on the exact nature of the disorder. a. Incorrect Counterconditioning underlies systematic desensitization, which has not been identified as an effective treatment for Agoraphobia. b. Incorrect Although relaxation might be a useful adjunct to in vivo exposure, it is not an effective treatment when used alone. c. CORRECT In vivo exposure with response prevention has been consistently found to be an effective intervention for Agoraphobia. d. Incorrect Cognitive restructuring has not been found to be particularly effective for Agoraphobia. The correct answer is: in vivo exposure

Question 41

The DSM-5 includes the World Health Organization Disability Assessment Schedule 2.0 (WHODAS) as a means for assessing disability in adults ages 18 years and older. The WHODAS uses a 5-point Likert scale to assess functioning in which the following domains? Select one: A. self-care, life activities, cognitive skills, mood and affect, physical health, and interpersonal relationships B. understanding and communicating, getting around, self-care, getting along with people, life activities, and participation in society C. affect, personality functioning, substance use, cognition, personal relationships, and reality testing D. communication skills, activities of daily living, interpersonal skills, motor skills, cognition, and affect

Answer 41

Answer B is correct: The WHODAS is used to assess level of disability in the six domains listed in this answer (understanding and communicating, getting around, self-care, getting along with people, life activities, and participation in society). Answers A, C, and D: See explanation above. The correct answer is: understanding and communicating, getting around, self-care, getting along with people, life activities, and participation in society

Question 42

Which of the following is least likely to be associated with Tourette's Disorder? Select one: A. a learning disorder B. obsessive-compulsive symptoms C. ADHD D. Separation Anxiety Disorder

Answer 42

Tourette's Disorder is characterized by motor and vocal tics that produce significant impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning. According to the DSM, commonly associated disorders include obsessive-compulsive symptoms, Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder, and a learning disorder. Separation Anxiety Disorder is least likely to be associated with Tourette's Disorder. The correct answer is: Separation Anxiety Disorder

Question 43

Although stuttering in children is often difficult to treat, there is some evidence that ____________ is the most effective approach. Select one: A. stress inoculation B. covert sensitization C. regulated breathing D. dialectical behavior therapy

Answer 43

Several studies have found regulated breathing to be effective for people who stutter. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Regulated breathing involves instructing the person to stop speaking when a stuttering episode occurs and to take a deep breath before continuing. It is often combined with awareness training and social support and, in this format, is referred to as habit reversal training. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: regulated breathing

Question 44

The research suggests that a person with Alcohol Use Disorder is most likely to meet the diagnostic criteria for which of the following? Select one: A. Borderline Personality Disorder B. Paranoid Personality Disorder C. Antisocial Personality Disorder D. Avoidant Personality Disorder

Answer 44

The studies have found that at least 50% of individuals with Alcohol or other Substance Use Disorder also meet the criteria for at least one personality disorder, with the DSM Cluster B personality disorders being most prevalent. a. Incorrect See explanation for answer c. b. Incorrect See explanation for answer c. c. CORRECT Most studies have found that Antisocial and Borderline Personality Disorders are the personality disorders that co-occur most frequently with Alcohol Use Disorder, with Antisocial Personality Disorder being more common than Borderline Personality Disorder. See, e.g., K. J. Sher, J. A. Martinez, and A. K. Littlefield, Alcohol use and alcohol use disorders, in D. H. Barlow (ed.), Oxford handbook of clinical psychology (pp. 405-445), New York, Oxford University Press, 2014. d. Incorrect See explanation for answer c. The correct answer is: Antisocial Personality Disorder

Question 45

Of the following aspects of memory, which is least likely to be adversely affected by mild to moderate Alzheimer's disease? Select one: A. working memory B. procedural memory C. episodic memory D. semantic memory

Answer 45

Certain aspects of memory are more likely than others to be adversely affected during the early stages of Alzheimer's disease. a. Incorrect Impairments in working memory are evident in the early stages of Alzheimer's disease. b. CORRECT Procedural memory is not substantially affected by mild to moderate Alzheimer's disease, although it may show impairments in the later stages. c. Incorrect Deficits in episodic memory are the most obvious memory deficits in the early stages of Alzheimer's disease. d. Incorrect Deficits in certain aspects of semantic memory are usually evident in the early stages of Alzheimer's disease and become more severe and widespread as the disease progresses. The correct answer is: procedural memory

Question 46

Delirium shares many symptoms with Schizophrenia, Schizophreniform Disorder, and certain other psychotic disorders, such as disordered thinking, hallucinations, and delusions. Thus, the differential diagnosis of these disorders is often difficult. Generally speaking, however, Delirium can be distinguished from the psychotic disorders because: Select one: A. the symptoms of Delirium tend to be random and haphazard while the symptoms of the psychotic disorders are ordinarily systematized. B. the onset of symptoms in Delirium is insidious while the onset of symptoms in psychotic disorders is usually rapid. C. clouding of consciousness is rare in Delirium but common in the psychotic disorders. D. the psychotic disorders involve hallucinations and delusions but these symptoms are never present in Delirium.

Answer 46

Delirium is almost always caused by a general medical condition or substance use, and its symptoms include disturbances in attention and awareness and other cognitive abilities. a. CORRECT A difference between Delirium and the psychotic disorders is that the symptoms of Delirium tend to be random and haphazard while the symptoms of the psychotic disorders are often systematized. b. Incorrect The onset of Delirium is usually rapid. c. Incorrect Delirium is associated with a clouding of consciousness and a fluctuating course. d. Incorrect Hallucinations and delusions may be present in Delirium; however, they are less systematized (i.e., more random and haphazard) than those associated with the psychotic disorders. The correct answer is: the symptoms of Delirium tend to be random and haphazard while the symptoms of the psychotic disorders are ordinarily systematized.

Question 47

As a treatment for erectile dysfunction, sildenafil citrate (Viagra) exerts its therapeutic effects by increasing: Select one: A. androgen levels. B. blood flow to the penis. C. sensory sensitivity in the penis. D. sexual desire.

Answer 47

Viagra was the first oral medication approved by the FDA to treat erectile dysfunction. a. Incorrect Viagra and similar medications (Levitra, and Cialis) do not affect androgen levels but, instead, promote erection by acting directly on penile tissue. b. CORRECT These drugs are PDE-5 inhibitors, which relax the smooth muscle in the penis and thereby increase blood flow. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: blood flow to the penis.

Question 48

In their prospective study of patients who underwent sex reassignment surgery, Smith et al. (2005) found that: Select one: A. the majority of patients no longer expressed gender dysphoria following surgery. B. the majority of patients continued to express gender dysphoria following surgery. C. the majority of patients expressed an increase in gender dysphoria following surgery. D. the majority of female-to-male (but not male-to-female) patients expressed an increase in gender dysphoria following surgery.

Answer 48

This is a difficult question because it's asking about a particular study. However, being generally familiar with the research on outcomes of sex reassignment surgery would have helped you identify the correct response. a. CORRECT Y. Smith and colleagues found that the 162 adults in their study reported that they no longer experienced gender dysphoria following sex reassignment surgery, and the majority were functioning well psychologically, socially and sexually [Sex reassignment: Outcomes and predictors of treatment for adolescent and adult transsexuals, Psychological Medicine, 35(1), 89-99, 2005]. The outcomes of this study are consistent with the findings of other recent research. b. Incorrect See explanation above. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: the majority of patients no longer expressed gender dysphoria following surgery.

Question 49

Historically, which of the following has (have) been considered the "hallmark" of addiction? Select one: A. a "craving" for the substance B. denial C. impairments in social and occupational functioning D. tolerance and withdrawal

Answer 49

Although the term addiction is not used in the DSM, it is frequently found in the literature where it usually refers to physical dependence. (The term "dependence" was introduced as an alternative to "addiction" by the World Health Organization in 1964.) a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT The repeated administration of certain drugs can result in physical dependence (addiction), which is characterized by tolerance and withdrawal symptoms when drug use is abruptly stopped. The correct answer is: tolerance and withdrawal

Question 50

A number of studies investigating the progression of HIV infection have evaluated the impact of demographic factors. With regard to age, these studies have most consistently found that, among adults: Select one: A. age is unrelated to HIV disease progression. B. younger age is associated with a more rapid HIV disease progression. C. middle age is associated with a more rapid HIV disease progression. D. older age is associated with a more rapid HIV disease progression.

Answer 50

HIV prognosis has been linked to several psychosocial risk factors including age. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT In a study conducted by Farinpour and colleagues, 1,231 HIV-seropositive men, ages 21 to 66, were followed for approximately 13 years after baseline testing. The results of the study indicated that age, general intellectual functioning, and somatic symptoms of depression were significant predictors of HIV progression and survival - i.e., older age, lower IQ, and the presence of somatic symptoms of depression were associated with a more rapid progression to AIDS, HIV-related dementia, and death. [Farinpour, R., et al., Psychosocial risk factors of HIV morbidity and mortality: Findings from the Multicenter Aids Cohort Study (MACS), Journal of Clinical and Experimental Neuropsychology, 25(5), 654-670, 2003.] These findings are consistent with the results of other studies. The correct answer is: older age is associated with a more rapid HIV disease progression.

Question 51

Which of the following is listed in the DSM as a diagnostic (versus associated) feature for Antisocial Personality Disorder? Select one: A. inflated sense of self B. lack of remorse C. lack of empathy D. superficial charm

Answer 51

A diagnosis of Antisocial Personality Disorder (APD) requires a pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others. a. Incorrect Inflated sense of self is listed as an associated feature in the DSM, not a diagnostic feature. b. CORRECT For this diagnosis, the DSM requires the presence of at least three of seven characteristic behaviors. One of the seven is a lack of remorse. c. Incorrect Lack of empathy is another associated feature of APD. d. Incorrect Superficial charm is also a common associated feature. The correct answer is: lack of remorse 1. Failure to obey laws and norms by engaging in behavior which results in criminal arrest, or would warrant criminal arrest 2. Lying, deception, and manipulation, for profit or self-amusement, 3. Impulsive behavior 4. Irritability and aggression, manifested as frequently assaults others, or engages in fighting 5. Blatantly disregards safety of self and others, 6. A pattern of irresponsibility and 7. Lack of remorse for actions (American Psychiatric Association, 2013)

Question 52

When treating a patient with Delirium, a priority is to identify and then treat or remove its cause. In addition, it is important to: Select one: A. make sure that the patient is provided with adequate stimulation. B. keep the patient in a quiet room where he/she can be monitored by a family or staff member. C. administer a neuroleptic to reduce the patient's disorientation and agitation. D. make sure family members and friends visit regularly

Answer 52

Answer B is correct: Delirium is characterized by disorientation and confusion, so an important goal is provide an environment that decreases disorientation. For example, it is important to reduce distractions and to provide a quiet, well-lit room and constant monitoring. Answer A: Although "adequate stimulation" could be taken to mean stimulation that is appropriate for a disoriented state, this response is too vague and not as good as answer B. Answer C: Neuroleptics may or may not be appropriate, depending on the cause of the Delirium. Answer D: With a delirious patient, you want to provide a consistent environment, so regular visits by different people would probably be contraindicated. The correct answer is: keep the patient in a quiet room where he/she can be monitored by a family or staff member.

Question 53

Hypomania is associated with alterations in functioning that often include: Select one: A. a marked increase in both efficiency and creativity. B. a marked decrease in both efficiency and creativity. C. a marked increase in efficiency but a marked decrease in creativity. D. a marked increase in creativity but a marked decrease in efficiency.

Answer 53

Hypomania is characterized by an abnormally and persistently elevated, expansive, or irritable mood. a. CORRECT A hypomanic episode is not severe enough to cause marked impairment in functioning but, in some individuals, causes a change in functioning that involves a marked increase in efficiency, accomplishments, or creativity. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: a marked increase in both efficiency and creativity.

Question 54

According to the DSM-5, the lifetime prevalence of Schizophrenia in the general population is approximately: Select one: A. .01%. B. 0.5%. C. 5%. D. 10%

Answer 54

Estimates of the prevalence of Schizophrenia in the population vary, depending on country, race/ethnicity, and other factors. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT A lifetime prevalence rate of 0.3% and 0.7% is the rate reported in the DSM-5. Since 0.5% falls within this range, this is the best answer. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: 0.5%.

Question 55

HIV infection is often described in the literature in terms of three stages. The second stage is characterized by a strong immune system response and: Select one: A. swollen glands but other few symptoms. B. flu-like symptoms. C. the onset of numerous opportunistic infections. D. impaired concentration, attention, and motor activity.

Answer 55

The three stages of HIV infection (at least according to some experts) are: primary HIV infection, clinically asymptomatic stage, and symptomatic HIV infection. a. CORRECT The second (middle) stage lasts for about eight to ten years and involves few, if any, clinical symptoms. During this asymptomatic stage, the immune system in fighting the virus. b. Incorrect Flu-like symptoms are characteristic of the initial stage. c. Incorrect Numerous opportunistic symptoms develop during the third stage. d. Incorrect These symptoms are characteristic of the middle stage of AIDS Dementia Complex, a form of dementia that begins in the late stage of HIV infection. The correct answer is: swollen glands but other few symptoms.

Question 56

Your new client says that she has great difficulty letting go of things to the point that her apartment has become dangerous because of the clutter and that her husband is threatening to leave her if she doesn't clean up her mess. The woman states that she's always been a "collector" but that it "got out of control" after her son died two years ago. When determining whether to assign a diagnosis of Hoarding Disorder or Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) to the client, you should keep in mind that: Select one: A. Individuals with OCD who hoard in response to an obsession or compulsion are distressed by their hoarding behaviors, while those with Hoarding Disorder experience distress when they discard hoarded items. B. For individuals with Hoarding Disorder, hoarding behaviors are ego-dystonic; for those with OCD, the behaviors are ego-syntonic. C. Individuals with OCD who hoard in response to an obsession or compulsion are likely to acquire less bizarre items than those with Hoarding Disorder. D. In contrast to people with OCD, those with Hoarding Disorder have little or no insight into their behavior.

Answer 56

Answer A is correct: When hoarding is associated with a typical obsession or compulsion (e.g., to avoid harm or contamination), it is usually experienced as unwanted and distressful. In contrast, people with Hoarding Disorder accumulate possessions because they feel a need to save them or because of their aesthetic or sentimental value, and they experience distress when required to discard them. Answer B: The opposite is true. Hoarding is ego-syntonic for people with Hoarding Disorder - i.e., they consider their behaviors normal (for them) and are not particularly disturbed by their hoarding. For people with OCD, symptoms are ego-dystonic and experienced as disturbing and unacceptable. Answer C: People with OCD who hoard in response to an obsession or compulsion are more likely than people with Hoarding Disorder to collect bizarre items (hair, feces, trash, etc.). Answer D: The insight of people with Hoarding Disorder or OCD varies, and the DSM-5 provides the following specifiers for both disorders: with good or fair insight, with poor insight, and with absent insight/delusional beliefs. The correct answer is: Individuals with OCD who hoard in response to an obsession or compulsion are distressed by their hoarding behaviors, while those with Hoarding Disorder experience distress when they discard hoarded items.

Question 57

Tarasoff v. Regents of the University of California (1976) established: Select one: A. a psychotherapist's duty to waive confidentiality when a client poses a danger to him/herself. B. a psychotherapists duty to protect an intended victim from a therapy clients violent actions. C. the right of students or the parents of students to inspect and, when appropriate, to modify students academic records. D. the right of students with disabilities to have test procedures modified to fit their abilities.

Answer 57

Although the original 1974 Tarasoff decision established a "duty to warn" the intended victim of a therapy client, that decision was superseded by the 1976 rehearing of the case which established a "duty to protect" the intended victim. Answer B is correct: According to 1976 California Supreme Court ruling, a psychotherapist has a duty to protect an intended victim of a therapy client by taking one of several actions: warning "the intended victim or others likely to apprise the victim of the danger, ... [notifying} the police, or [taking] whatever other steps are reasonably necessary under the circumstances." The correct answer is: a psychotherapists duty to protect an intended victim from a therapy clients violent actions.

Question 58

Dr. Burgher is the only psychologist in a small town. His daughter's girl scout leader wants to begin seeing Dr. Burgher to work through some family-related problems. As an ethical psychologist, Dr. Burgher should: Select one: A. refuse to see the woman because to do so would constitute a "multiple relationship." B. see the woman since he is the only psychologist in town and her problems are unrelated to her role as girl scout leader. C. determine the seriousness of the woman's problems and base his decision about seeing the woman on the outcome of that evaluation. D. assess the potential for exploitation and loss of objectivity and base his decision about seeing the woman on the outcome of that assessment.

Answer 58

Standard 3.05 of the Ethics Code addresses multiple relationships. Keep in mind that, while multiple relationships should ordinarily be avoided, they are not absolutely prohibited. a. Incorrect Because the psychologist is the only one in town, you'd want some additional information before deciding that he should not see his daughter's girl scout leader. b. Incorrect This might be acceptable, but you'd want the response to mention something about the psychologist's ethical responsibilities in this situation. c. Incorrect This is one of the factors that a psychologist might consider in this situation but is certainly not the only one. d. CORRECT This is the best answer of those given because it reiterates the actual language of the Ethics Code. The correct answer is: assess the potential for exploitation and loss of objectivity and base his decision about seeing the woman on the outcome of that assessment.

Question 59

Dr. Bettina B.'s new clients are a Japanese family that consists of a grandmother, mother, father, and two children. The grandmother and father speak limited English and the mother has offered to act as an interpreter. In this situation, the psychologist should: Select one: A. allow the mother to act as an interpreter. B. allow the mother to act as an interpreter only if she is highly proficient in both Japanese and English. C. allow the mother to act as an interpreter only if the grandmother and father agree to this arrangement. D. not allow the mother to act as an interpreter.

Answer 59

This situation is addressed in Standard 2.05 of the APA's Ethics Code. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Standard 2.05 states that psychologists who use the services of others, such as interpreters, "take reasonable steps to ... avoid delegating work to persons who have a multiple relationship with those being served that would likely lead to exploitation or loss of objectivity." In this situation, the mother's relationship with the grandmother and her husband may bias her translations and interfere with the therapist's ability to form therapeutic relationships with family members. The correct answer is: not allow the mother to act as an interpreter.

Question 60

A client of yours is currently suing her employer for race discrimination. You receive a subpoena from the employer's attorney requiring you to appear at a deposition to provide information about the client. When you discuss this with the client, she tells you she does not want you to provide the employer with any information from her therapy sessions. You should: Select one: A. provide the requested information at the deposition since privilege is waived in this situation. B. attend the deposition but provide only that information you believe to be germane to the case. C. refuse to attend the deposition without a court order. D. ask your attorney to contact the employer's attorney to discuss the situation.

Answer 60

There are several actions that can be taken when a subpoena is received. Asserting the privilege is certainly one possibility but is not necessarily the best first course of action. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Of the responses given, this is the best choice. When a client does not want confidential information revealed, the requesting party can be contacted to see if the request can be rescinded or modified, thereby avoiding further legal steps. Of course, another alternative would be to attend the deposition and assert the privilege, but this may be less desirable than first attempting to work out a compromise that is agreeable to all parties and it is not given as an option. The correct answer is: ask your attorney to contact the employer's attorney to discuss the situation.

Question 61

Greenberg and Shuman (1997) identify ten "irreconcilable conflicts" between therapeutic and forensic relationships. Which of the following is one of the differences described by these authors between the roles of therapist and forensic evaluator? Select one: A. In a therapeutic relationship, the psychologist's role is that of care provider; in a forensic relationship, the psychologist's role is more neutral. B. In both a therapeutic and forensic relationship, the relationship is structured primarily by the client. C. In a therapeutic relationship, information provided by the client is typically scrutinized for accuracy; in a forensic relationship, information provided by the litigant is rarely scrutinized for accuracy. D. In both a therapeutic and forensic relationship, the relationship between client and therapist is rarely adversarial.

Answer 61

Answer A is correct. Even if you are unfamiliar with the Greenberg and Shuman article, you may have been able to identify the correct response as long as you are familiar with the roles and ethical obligations of forensic psychologists. A. Greenberg and D. W. Shuman note that a psychologist does adopt the role of a care provider in a therapeutic relationship. However, in a forensic relationship, a psychologist does not adopt the role of advocate but instead is neutral, detached, and objective [Irreconcilable conflict between therapeutic and forensic roles, Professional Psychology: Research and Practice, 28(1), 50-57, 1997]. The correct answer is: In a therapeutic relationship, the psychologist's role is that of care provider; in a forensic relationship, the psychologist's role is more neutral.

Question 62

Which of the following most accurately describes current laws related to a health professional's obligation when the professional learns that a client or patient who has tested positive for the HIV virus has not told his/her partner of the diagnosis and is having unsafe sex with the partner? Select one: A. All 50 states have laws that require health professionals to breach confidentiality in this situation. B. All 50 states have laws that require health professionals not to breach confidentiality in this situation. C. All 50 states have laws that allow health professionals to determine whether or not to breach confidentiality in this situation. D. The laws regarding breach of confidentiality by health professionals in this situation vary from state to state.

Answer 62

As noted in the chapter on ethics and professional issues in the written study materials, the laws on this issue vary from jurisdiction to jurisdiction. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Some states prohibit health practitioners from notifying partners of patients with HIV/AIDS, while others require them to do so. The correct answer is: The laws regarding breach of confidentiality by health professionals in this situation vary from state to state.

Question 63

A psychologist who has been seeing a prison inmate in therapy is asked by the parole board to evaluate the inmate to determine his readiness for parole. The psychologist should: Select one: A. agree to do so since she is already familiar with the inmates readiness for parole. B. agree to do so only if the inmate agrees and signs a waiver of confidentiality. C. agree to do so only if she has the expertise necessary to make an informed parole recommendation. D. decline to conduct the evaluation because doing so would constitute a multiple relationship.

Answer 63

This issue is addressed in the APA's Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychology and by L. E. Weinberger and S. Sreenivassan in Ethical principles of correctional psychology in W. O'Donohue & K. Ferguson (Eds.), Handbook of professional ethics for psychologists, Thousand Oaks, CA, Sage Publ., 2003. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Weinberger and Sreenivassan state that, when a psychologist is acing as an individual's (inmate's) therapist "and is then asked (regardless by whom) to function as the individual's evaluator, the psychologist is engaging in a multiple relationship" if he/she agrees to do so (p. 367). The correct answer is: decline to conduct the evaluation because doing so would constitute a multiple relationship.

Question 64

Al A., a lonely, single, middle-aged psychologist and college professor, is invited to a play by a graduate student, Betty B., who Al finds sexually attractive. Betty has returned to school after a 15-year absence and has been divorced for three years. If Al accepts Betty's invitation, he will: Select one: A. be acting unethically because the Ethics Code prohibits professors from dating students. B. not be acting unethically as long as he doesn't become sexually involved with Betty. C. not be acting unethically as long as Betty is a graduate student in a department other than the one Al teaches in. D. not be acting unethically because this situation is not covered by the Ethics Code.

Answer 64

Dating students is addressed by two Standards of the APA's Ethics Code: Standard 3.05 discourages multiple relationships and Standard 7.07 prohibits sexual relationships with students over whom a psychologist has direct or evaluative authority. a. Incorrect The Ethics Code does not explicitly prohibit psychologists from dating all students but only those over whom they have evaluative authority. It also prohibits multiple relationships only when the relationship may harm or exploit the other person. b. Incorrect If Betty is a graduate student in the psychology department and/or is likely to be in one of Al's classes, dating her would be prohibited by the multiple relationship clause. c. CORRECT If Betty is a student in another department, it would likely be acceptable for Al to accompany her to the play and become involved with her. d. Incorrect As noted above, this situation is covered by the Ethics Code. The correct answer is: not be acting unethically as long as Betty is a graduate student in a department other than the one Al teaches in.

Question 65

Which of the following sections of the APA's Ethical Principles of Psychologists and Code of Conduct provide(s) "aspirational goals to guide psychologists toward the highest ideals of psychology"? Select one: A. Introduction and Preamble B. Preamble only C. Preamble and General Principles D. Ethical Standards

Answer 65

The correct answer is C. The Ethics Code is divided into four sections: Introduction, Preamble, General Principles, and Ethical Standards. As defined in the Ethics Code, the purpose of both the Preamble and General Principles is to provide "aspirational goals." a. The Introduction "discusses the intent, organization, procedural considerations, and scope of application of the Ethics Code." d. The Ethical Standards "set forth enforceable rules." The correct answer is: Preamble and General Principles

Question 66

You are asked by one of the parties in a custody case to offer an opinion as to the best custody arrangement for the couple's child at an upcoming hearing. The party making the request believes you are the best person to offer an opinion since you have been seeing the child in therapy since her parents separated 12 months ago. You should: Select one: A. agree to the request and make sure that you base your opinion on the best interests of the child. B. agree to the request only if you are also able to evaluate both parents. C. agree to the request only if both parents sign a consent. D. refuse to do so.

Answer 66

This issue is addressed in the APA's Guidelines for Child Custody Evaluations in Family Law Proceedings. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT The Guidelines states that psychologists must avoid multiple relationships. For example, they should avoid assuming an evaluative role in custody cases where they already have established a therapeutic relationship with the child and/or the child's parents. The correct answer is: refuse to do so.

Question 67

When asked to testify in court regarding a defendant's potential for future violence, it is important to remember that the best predictor of future violence is: Select one: A. nature and level of psychopathology. B. inability to control anger. C. the presence of certain family factors. D. past history of violent behavior.

Answer 67

Research suggests that when mental health practitioners predict a high risk for future violence, they are wrong about two out of three times. a. Incorrect In general, the risk of dangerousness among psychiatric patients is not substantially different than the risk among the general population. b. Incorrect This is true only if a lack of control over anger has led to violent behavior in the past. c. Incorrect Reliance on family history alone will lead to too many false positives. d. CORRECT As common sense might suggest, past behavior is indeed the best predictor of future behavior (see, e.g., R. I. Simon, Clinical psychiatry and the law, Washington, DC: American Psychiatric Press, 1992). The correct answer is: past history of violent behavior.

Question 68

A patient experiencing chronic pain tells you that her physician has prescribed an opioid analgesic. She also says she doesn't want to take the drug because her brother is an ex-drug addict and she has had problems with alcohol in the past. You should: Select one: A. continue to explore her feelings about drug addiction in subsequent therapy sessions. B. support her decision and explore alternative methods of pain relief such as biofeedback and relaxation training. C. suggest that you discuss the issue with her physician and obtain a waiver of confidentiality so that you can do so. D. reassure her that the use of an opioid for pain is unlikely to result in addiction as long as the drug is taken as prescribed

Answer 68

This is a difficult question because none of the answers is necessarily optimal (you'd want more information before deciding what to do) or entirely incorrect. However, one response best addresses the requirements of the Ethics Code. a. Incorrect This answer doesn't address the client's immediate problem. b. Incorrect This violates the Ethics Code by not addressing the need to consult and cooperate with other professionals. c. CORRECT Of the responses given, this one is the best. The Ethics Code requires psychologists to consult and "psychologists cooperate with other professionals in order to serve their clients/patients effectively and appropriately" (Standard 3.09). d. Incorrect Although this statement is accurate, it doesn't address ethical requirements related to either client welfare or cooperation with other professionals. The correct answer is: suggest that you discuss the issue with her physician and obtain a waiver of confidentiality so that you can do so.

Question 69

One of your current clients is a 31-year old man who was sexually abused as a child. During the fifth session, he tells you that he's been having fantasies about sexual contacts with children. He says he has not acted on these feelings but is concerned about them. You should: Select one: A. advise him that you are required to make a report with the authorities. B. attempt to determine the degree of risk that he will act on his fantasies. C. tell him that this is not unusual for someone who has been sexually abused and continue to work on this issue in therapy. D. contact his wife to see if she has noticed any changes in the behavior of their three children.

Answer 69

A psychologist is required to report suspected or known cases of child abuse. From the information presented in this question, however, there is no reason to suspect that abuse has actually occurred. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT This is the best response of those given. Obviously, the man's fantasies are a "red flag" that must be taken seriously and dealt with directly. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: attempt to determine the degree of risk that he will act on his fantasies.

Question 70

Dr. Baron is the only licensed psychologist in a small mental health clinic. The other professionals working at the clinic include the director, who is a psychiatrist, and two social workers. Dr. Baron has just accepted a job at another clinic in a neighboring town. With regard to his client files, Dr. Baron would be best advised to: Select one: A. leave the files with the director. B. take the files with him. C. ask the clients what they would like done with the files. D. destroy the files.

Answer 70

Standard 6.02(c) of the APA's Ethics Code requires psychologists to make sure that the confidentiality of their records is protected in the event of their withdrawal from a position. a. CORRECT Of the responses given, this one makes the most sense, especially since the director is a mental health professional. b. Incorrect This might cause inconvenience to the clients and may be inconsistent with the clinic's policy. c. Incorrect This may violate clinic policy and would not be the best way to ensure that client confidentiality is maintained. It is your responsibility, as a psychologist, to ensure the security of client records. d. Incorrect Obviously, this is wrong. The correct answer is: leave the files with the director.

Question 71

A psychiatrist seeks to consult with you about a client of hers because of your expertise in the area of concern to the client. In this situation: Select one: A. you should not discuss the case until a waiver has been obtained from the client. B. you should not discuss the case until you have had a chance to evaluate the client yourself. C. you can discuss the case with the psychiatrist without a waiver as long as the identity of the client is not revealed. D. you need to get a waiver from the client only if you will also be providing services directly to him.

Answer 71

Standard 4.06 of the Ethics Code applies to this situation. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT A consent is required in consultation situations only when the identity of the client will be revealed. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: you can discuss the case with the psychiatrist without a waiver as long as the identity of the client is not revealed.

Question 72

Which of the following is not a necessary condition for a claim of malpractice against a therapist: Select one: A. the therapist must have had a duty to the client. B. the therapist must have acted in a negligent or otherwise improper manner. C. there must be a causal relationship between the therapist's negligence and the harm claimed by the client. D. there must be no "reasonable doubt" that an alternative course of action (treatment) was available.

Answer 72

Legally, three conditions must be met for a claim of malpractice. These are defined by answers a, b, and c. a. Incorrect This is a condition for malpractice. b. Incorrect This is a condition for malpractice. c. Incorrect This is a condition for malpractice. d. CORRECT This is not a condition for malpractice. The correct answer is: there must be no "reasonable doubt" that an alternative course of action (treatment) was available.

Question 73

Privilege: Select one: A. can be waived by the client. B. can be waived by the client's therapist. C. can be waived only by the court. D. is waived by the attorney in a legal proceeding.

Answer 73

Privilege refers to a client's right to confidentiality in legal proceedings. Privilege is legally defined and belongs to the client. For additional information on privilege, see the chapter on ethics and professional issues in the written study materials. a. CORRECT The client is the holder of the privilege and can waive privilege. b. Incorrect A therapist can "assert the privilege" but he/she cannot waive it. c. Incorrect There are legal exceptions to privilege, but the court cannot "waive" privilege. d. Incorrect As noted above, only the client can waive privilege. The correct answer is: can be waived by the client.

Question 74

You have been working with a couple to resolve their marital conflicts. Despite months of intensive therapy, the couple has come to the conclusion that it is in everyone's best interests to end their marriage. The couple has a 12-year-old daughter and has asked you to perform a custody evaluation for the divorce proceedings. You should: Select one: A. perform the custody evaluation as long as you are no longer providing therapy to the couple. B. perform the custody evaluation only if you obtain consent from both parents to do so. C. perform the custody evaluation after clarifying your roles and responsibilities with all parties. D. not perform the custody evaluation.

Answer 74

This issue is addressed in APA's (2010) Guidelines for Child Custody Evaluations in Family Law Proceedings. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT This answer is most consistent with Paragraph II.7 of APA's Guidelines, which states "psychologists strive to avoid conflicts of interest and multiple relationships in conducting evaluations." It is also consistent with the ethical requirements regarding multiple relationships provided in Standard 3.05 of the APA's Code of Ethics and the Values Statement of Paragraph III of the Canadian Code of Ethics. The correct answer is: not perform the custody evaluation.

Question 75

Dr. R. B. Traight obtains the permission from a child's mother and father before beginning an evaluation that will be used by the court to help determine custody rights. Before the evaluation is completed, however, the mother withdraws her consent. Dr. Traight should: Select one: A. make a custody recommendation on the basis of the information he has already obtained. B. continue the evaluation since the father has not withdrawn his consent. C. continue the evaluation since both parents gave their consent prior to beginning the evaluation. D. contact the court to determine the appropriate course of action.

Answer 75

Normally, a psychologist would not evaluate a child without the consent of both parents. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Given the limited information provided in this question, this is the best response of those given. Whenever one parent does not give consent (or withdraws his/her consent) for an evaluation in a custody case, the psychologist should seek guidance from the court on how to proceed. The correct answer is: contact the court to determine the appropriate course of action.

Question 76

You receive a phone call from Hermann H., age 28, who says he is "totally miserable" because of the recent breakup with his girlfriend and that he would like to begin therapy with you. During the first session with Hermann, you find out that his political views are completely repugnant to you, and you feel that you would not enjoy working with him. As an ethical psychologist, you should: Select one: A. consult with another psychologist during the course of treatment to make sure your feelings don't interfere with your objectivity. B. discuss the difference in political views with Hermann only if they become relevant to the psychotherapy process. C. see Hermann in therapy until his current crisis is over and then make a referral if necessary. D. provide Hermann with appropriate referrals.

Answer 76

Answer D is correct. Psychologists are not required to see every client who seeks their services - and, to do so, would be unethical if the client's characteristics interfere with the provision of adequate services. It's evident objectivity is already impaired as the case scenario indicates the psychologist doesn't think he'll like working with this client, therefore a referral is the best option based on the information provided. Of the responses given, answer D describes the action that is in the best interests of both the client and you (the psychologist). Answer C: The information presented in the question does not suggest that the client is experiencing a crisis, therefore answer C is incorrect. The correct answer is: provide Hermann with appropriate referrals.

Question 77

Dr. Callow is a licensed psychologist who has recently been hired by a mental health clinic. Several of his new patients are members of a culturally diverse group that he has not worked with before. His training, however, is appropriate for the services he will provide. As an ethical psychologist, Dr. Callow should: Select one: A. refuse to work with these patients. B. take a relevant APA-approved continuing education course. C. obtain consultation from a therapist who does have experience with members of this group. D. see the patients and seek consultation only if he experiences any problems during the course of therapy.

Answer 77

Several Standards of the Ethics Code apply to this situation. For example, Standard 2.01(b) states that when differences in race or ethnicity might affect a psychologist's ability to work, he/she obtains "the training, experience, consultation, or supervision necessary to ensure the competence of [his/her] services." a. Incorrect Since it appears that expertise in working with members of this culturally-diverse group is important for his position at the mental health clinic, it would be better for Dr. Callow to gain that expertise. b. Incorrect Taking a course does not seem to be sufficient in this situation. c. CORRECT Of the answers given, this one seems to represent the most ethical course of action. It is consistent with the requirements of Standard 2.01(c), which states that "Psychologists planning to provide services, teach, or conduct research involving populations, areas, techniques, or technologies new to them undertake relevant education, training, supervised experience, consultation, or study." Even though he has had no prior experience with members of this group, consultation would be the best course of action for Dr. Callow because he is competent to provide the type of treatment. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. It would be better for Dr. Callow to seek consultation prior to treating these populations, and not "only" if a problem arises. The correct answer is: obtain consultation from a therapist who does have experience with members of this group.

Question 78

Dr. Strait is invited to a holiday party at a fellow psychologist's house. While there, he notices that one of the guests is a current therapy client of the other psychologist. Dr. Strait's best course of action would be to: Select one: A. leave the party in protest. B. contact the ethics committee as soon as possible. C. discuss the issue with the psychologist immediately. D. discuss the issue with the psychologist at a later time.

Answer 78

The information provided in the question suggests that the psychologist is engaging in a multiple (dual) relationship with a client. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. (Also note that Dr. Strait would have to obtain permission from the client before revealing his/her name to the Ethics Committee, which also makes this a less desirable answer than response d.) c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Standard 1.04 of the Ethics Code requires psychologists to take action when they believe another psychologist has acted unethically. Based on the information given in the question, this would be the best course of action - i.e., Dr. Strait should discuss the matter with the psychologist to determine the circumstances (e.g., the client may have come to the party without an invitation). The correct answer is: discuss the issue with the psychologist at a later time.

Question 79

With regard to the provision of "pro bono" services, the APA's Ethics Code: Select one: A. prohibits free services. B. advises against free services. C. recommends free services. D. mandates free services.

Answer 79

General Principle B (Fidelity and Responsibility) of the Ethics Code applies in this situation. It states that "Psychologists strive to contribute a portion of their professional time for little or no compensation or personal advantage." a. Incorrect The Ethics Code clearly does not prohibit the provision of free services. b. Incorrect The Ethics Code does not advise against providing free services. c. CORRECT Of the responses given, this one best describes the requirements of the Ethics Code since the General Principles are aspirational (not enforceable) guidelines. d. Incorrect Principle F only encourages psychologists to provide services for which they receive "little or no personal advantage." It does not mandate that psychologists provide free services. The correct answer is: recommends free services.

Question 80

Which of the following is true about the use of hypnotically induced testimony in legal proceedings? Select one: A. Hypnotically induced testimony is permitted in all jurisdictions as long as the hypnotherapist is licensed or certified. B. Hypnotically induced testimony is permitted in all jurisdictions only when there is no contradictory evidence. C. Hypnotically induced testimony is permitted in some jurisdictions under specific conditions (e.g., when corroborating evidence is available). D. Hypnotically induced testimony is not permitted in any jurisdiction under any conditions.

Answer 80

The studies have generally found memories elicited under hypnosis to be unreliable, and laws regarding the admissibility of hypnotically induced testimony in legal proceedings are consistent with these findings. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Of the answers given, this one best describes the current status of the admissibility of hypnotically induced testimony in legal proceedings. Many jurisdictions have adopted a "per se exclusion" that excludes testimony about memories that first occurred during or after hypnosis. In other jurisdictions, a "totality of circumstances test" is used, which requires that certain guidelines or conditions be met so that it is unlikely that hypnosis impacted the individual's memory. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: Hypnotically induced testimony is permitted in some jurisdictions under specific conditions (e.g., when corroborating evidence is available).

Question 81

When conducting research with human participants, a psychologist should be aware that: Select one: A. participants must be debriefed promptly after their participation in the study. B. participants must be debriefed after their participation in a study only when the study involved deception. C. participants must be debriefed promptly if possible or, if necessary to delay the debriefing, psychologists must reduce the risk for harm. D. the decision to debrief is left to the psychologist and involves considering the risk for harm to participants if they are not debriefed.

Answer 81

This issue is addressed in Standard 8.08 of the Ethics Code. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Research participants should be promptly provided with "appropriate information about the nature, results, and conclusions of the research." When there must be a delay in providing such information, "psychologists take reasonable measures to reduce the risk of harm." d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: participants must be debriefed promptly if possible or, if necessary to delay the debriefing, psychologists must reduce the risk for harm.

Question 82

For a client or former client to successfully bring a charge of malpractice against a psychologist, he/she must show that: Select one: A. the psychologist practiced in a way that could have led or did lead to harm. B. the psychologist knowingly or deliberately acted in a way that led to harm. C. the psychologist's actions were the cause of a demonstrable injury. D. the psychologist did not adequately warn the client of the possible negative consequences of the treatment.

Answer 82

Some experts describe malpractice in terms of four basic elements: The psychologist must owe a duty of care to the plaintiff; there must have been a breach of that duty; the breach must have led to demonstrable injury; and the psychologist's acts must have been the cause of that injury. a. Incorrect The psychologist's behaviors must have actually led to harm. b. Incorrect A psychologist doesn't have to knowingly or deliberately cause harm in order to be found guilty of malpractice. c. CORRECT This response addresses the third and fourth elements of a malpractice claim. d. Incorrect This is not a requirement for a claim of malpractice. The correct answer is: the psychologist's actions were the cause of a demonstrable injury.

Question 83

The Introduction and Applicability section of the APA's Ethics Code notes that the APA may take action against a member after his/her: Select one: A. conviction of a felony. B. conviction of a felony or misdemeanor. C. conviction of a felony or misdemeanor only when the offense is clearly related to the psychologists professional role. D. conviction of a felony only when the offense resulted in a loss or suspension of licensure.

Answer 83

The Introduction and Applicability section of the Ethics Code states that the Code "applies only to psychologists' activities that are part of their scientific, educational, or professional roles as psychologists." However, this section also identifies exceptions to this general rule. a. CORRECT The Introduction and Applicability section states that the APA "may take action against a member after his or her conviction of a felony, expulsion or suspension from an affiliated state psychological association, or suspension or loss of licensure." It does not place qualifications on these exceptions and it does not apply to misdemeanors. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: conviction of a felony.

Question 84

Based on APA's guidelines, the best overall conclusion that can be drawn about dual relationships in forensic settings is that psychologists: Select one: A. should always avoid dual relationships. B. should avoid dual relationships whenever possible C. may participate in dual relationships only when the client has consented to the arrangement. D. may participate in dual relationships only when they are the result of a court order.

Answer 84

Dual relationships in forensic (and other) settings are not completely prohibited by the Ethics Code or other APA guidelines. However, special precautions must always be taken when embarking on a dual relationship. a. Incorrect The prohibition against dual relationships is not an absolute one and, in fact, APA guidelines mention some specific dual relationships that might be acceptable. b. CORRECT This answer is most consistent with Paragraph 4.02 of the Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychology, which states: "Forensic practitioners strive to recognize the potential conflicts of interest and threats to objectivity inherent in multiple relationships. Forensic practitioners are encouraged to recognize that some personal and professional relationships may interfere with their ability to practice in a competent and impartial manner and they seek to minimize any detrimental effects by avoiding involvement in such matters whenever feasible or limiting their assistance in a manner that is consistent with professional obligations. c. Incorrect Even though a client grants permission for the psychologist to engage in a dual relationship, the client's information about the possible consequences may be limited. Consequently, it is up to the psychologist to determine whether the dual relationship is appropriate when the client has consented. d. Incorrect APA guidelines are less restrictive with regard to dual relationships than this response indicates. The correct answer is: should avoid dual relationships whenever possible

Question 85

Alan A. has been receiving treatment from Dr. Larry L., a psychiatrist, for several months. Dr. L. suspects that Alan's self-esteem problems may be related to a learning disability that has caused academic and occupational failures throughout Alan's life and, to confirm his suspicions, refers Alan to Dr. Nancy N., a psychologist, for psychological assessment. During the course of testing, Alan tells Dr. N. that he is unhappy with the treatment he is receiving from Dr. L. and asks if he can begin therapy with her instead. As an ethical psychologist, Dr. N.'s best course of action would be to: Select one: A. make an appointment with Alan to discuss the reasons for his dissatisfaction with Dr. L. B. make an appointment with Alan but call Dr. L. to discuss Alan's decision. C. make an appointment with Alan but suggest that he call Dr. L. to inform him of his decision. D. recommend to Alan that he discuss the matter with Dr. L. before making an appointment with her.

Answer 85

Standard 10.04 of the Ethics Code requires psychologists to "carefully consider the treatment issues and the potential client's/patient's welfare" when requested to provide services to a client who is receiving similar services from another professional. a. Incorrect If Dr. N. took this action, she would be ignoring her obligation to Dr. L. This might be the appropriate course of action if Alan's reason for his dissatisfaction was related to an ethical or legal violation, but there is no reason to believe that this is the case in this situation. b. Incorrect If Dr. N. takes this action, she would not only be ignoring her obligation to Dr. L but would also be breaching the confidentiality of Alan. c. Incorrect Although it might be acceptable to see Alan with the provision that he also discuss his termination with Dr. L., because of the nature of the professional relationship between Dr. L. and Dr. N., the better course of action would be for Alan to first discuss his desire to terminate therapy with Dr. L. d. CORRECT Because of the nature of their professional relationship, Dr. N.'s best course of action would be to recommend to Alan that he discuss his dissatisfaction and possible termination with Dr. L. before beginning treatment with her. The correct answer is: recommend to Alan that he discuss the matter with Dr. L. before making an appointment with her.

Question 86

Of the "big five" personality traits, ____________ has most consistently been linked to job performance across a variety of jobs. Select one: A. emotional stability B. agreeableness C. conscientiousness D. openness to experience

Answer 86

The big five personality traits are extraversion/introversion, emotional stability, agreeableness, conscientiousness, and openness to experience. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT This was the conclusion reached, for example, by M. R. Barrick and M. K. Mount, based on their meta-analysis of the research (The big five personality dimensions and job performance: A meta-analysis, Personnel Psychology, 1991, 44, 1-25). d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: conscientiousness

Question 87

In his well-known 1973 study, Rosenhan had several "pseudopatients" admit themselves to psychiatric hospitals with complaints of auditory hallucinations. Which of the following is most useful for explaining the results of Rosenhan's study? Select one: A. central tendency error B. Hawthorne effect C. contrast effect D. halo effect

Answer 87

In Rosenhan's study, mental health professionals responded to ("rated") pseudopatients on the basis of their original diagnoses regardless of their subsequent behaviors. The response of mental health professionals in this study can be interpreted as a rater bias. a. Incorrect Central tendency error is a rater bias that occurs when a rater tends to rate all individuals in the middle range of a rating scale. This would not explain the response of mental health professionals in this study. b. Incorrect The Hawthorne effect predicts that organizational change, regardless of its intent or content, produces a positive effect on worker motivation and/or performance and does not explain the response of mental health professionals in the Rosenhan study. c. Incorrect The contrast effect refers to the perception of heightened difference between two stimuli when they are juxtaposed or when one immediately follows the other. In interview situations, a contrast effect occurs when an interviewer's assessment of an interviewee is affected by his/her impressions of previous interviewees. The contrast effect does not explain the results of Rosenhan's study. d. CORRECT The halo effect is a rater bias that occurs when a rater's ratings of an individual on one or several dimensions are affected by his/her rating on another dimension. The halo effect does explain the response of mental health professionals in this study; i.e., the mental health professionals continued to "rate" pseudopatients on the basis of their first ratings (diagnosis), regardless of the patients' subsequent behaviors. The correct answer is: halo effect

Question 88

According to Maslow's theory of motivation, when a person's prepotent need is ungratified: Select one: A. the person becomes less motivated. B. the person may "regress" to a lower-level need. C. the ungratified need continues to be a primary motivator. D. the ungratified need continues to be a primary motivator only when there is a good chance that it will eventually be satisfied.

Answer 88

Maslow's theory predicts that only ungratified needs motivate behavior and that progression through the need hierarchy always goes from lower-order needs to higher-order needs. a. Incorrect This is the opposite of what Maslow's theory predicts. b. Incorrect This is predicted by Alderfer's ERG theory, not Maslow's theory. c. CORRECT According to Maslow, an ungratified need is the primary source of motivation. d. Incorrect This isn't predicted by Maslow's theory. The correct answer is: the ungratified need continues to be a primary motivator.

Question 89

According to McClelland (1975), the need for power can be described in terms of which of the following two types? Select one: A. instrumental and hostile B. referent and coercive C. explicit and implicit D. personal and socialized

Answer 89

McClelland described motivation as being determined by three fundamental needs -- needs for affiliation, achievement, and power. a. Incorrect Instrumental and hostile are two types of aggression distinguished in the literature. b. Incorrect Referent and coercive are two of the bases of social power identified by French and Raven. c. Incorrect Explicit and implicit are not the types of power described by McClelland. d. CORRECT McClelland distinguished between personal and socialized power. People with a high need for personal power have a strong desire to dominate others, while those with a high need for socialized power are more concerned about using their influence to benefit others. According to McClelland, a high need for socialized power is associated with effectiveness as a manager. The correct answer is: personal and socialized

Question 90

Investigators have identified "five robust dimensions" of personality that appear to underlie all others: extraversion vs. introversion; agreeableness; conscientiousness; emotional stability; and openness to experience. Of these, which is most predictive of performance for all types of jobs and all types of performance measures? Select one: A. emotional stability B. conscientiousness C. openness to experience D. agreeableness

Answer 90

This question addresses the results of a meta-analysis of the research by M. R. Barrick and M. K. Mount (The big five personality dimensions and job performance: A meta-analysis, Personnel Psychology, 44, 1-26, 1991). a. Incorrect Contrary to the predictions of Barrick and Mount, emotional stability was not found to be a good predictor of job performance, apparently because unstable people don't keep their jobs. b. CORRECT As predicted, conscientiousness was found to be a valid predictor for jobs ranging from professional to semiskilled. c. Incorrect Openness to experience is related to training proficiency. d. Incorrect Agreeableness seems to be related to some jobs but not others. The correct answer is: conscientiousness

Question 91

In organizations, employee surveys are most often conducted to: Select one: A. determine the effects of an organization-wide intervention. B. evaluate employee attitudes and opinions about an intervention. C. identify employees who would benefit from an intervention. D. allow employees to evaluate the job performance of their co-workers.

Answer 91

The term "survey" is rather vague and refers to a variety of information-gathering techniques. However, in general, surveys are used to obtain information about respondents' feelings and opinions. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT Survey feedback is an example of the use of surveys in organizations. It is an organizational development (OD) strategy that involves obtaining information about employees' opinions about specific aspects of the organization and using this information to identify and correct problems. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: evaluate employee attitudes and opinions about an intervention.

Question 92

Research on the impact of downsizing indicates that which of the following is a key contributor to survivor syndrome? Select one: A. the lack of adequate outplacement programs. B. perceived unfairness and inequity in the layoff procedures among employees. C. the adoption of a Theory Y management style by supervisors during the layoff process. D. a pre-existing sense of learned helplessness among employees.

Answer 92

Survivor syndrome refers to characteristic symptoms exhibited by individuals who remain on-the-job during downsizing. a. Incorrect Outplacement programs are important for the adjustment of individuals who have been laid off rather than for those who are still on-the-job. b. CORRECT Providing information to employees about the purpose of layoffs, steps taken to avoid or minimize layoffs, and how layoff decisions are made has been found to be an effective way for minimizing negative reactions among downsizing survivors. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: perceived unfairness and inequity in the layoff procedures among employees.

Question 93

Which of the following has been found to be true about job enrichment? Select one: A. It is less effective than job enlargement as a means of increasing job satisfaction and performance. B. It increases job performance and, to a lesser degree, job satisfaction for most employees. C. It increases job satisfaction but has no effect on job performance. D. It has positive effects (at least for some employees) on both job satisfaction and job performance.

Answer 93

Job enrichment involves redesigning a job to make it significantly different in terms of the variety of tasks, autonomy, and responsibility it provides. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Although research on job enrichment has had mixed results, in general, it has been found to result (at least for some employees) in less absenteeism, tardiness, and turnover, increased job satisfaction, and increased job performance, especially in terms of work quality. The correct answer is: It has positive effects (at least for some employees) on both job satisfaction and job performance.

Question 94

Research on the speed-accuracy tradeoff suggests that, when teaching complex motor skills that require both speed and accuracy for successful performance, the best strategy is to initially: Select one: A. emphasize speed over accuracy. B. emphasize accuracy over speed. C. consistently emphasize speed and accuracy to the same degree. D. alternate between emphasizing speed and accuracy.

Answer 94

Although the optimal approach to training complex motor skills depends, to some degree, on the specific skill, the best approach is to usually to initially emphasize speed of performance. a. CORRECT R. Engelhorn, for example, compared the effects of emphasizing speed versus accuracy in training girls to throw a ball. The results of the study indicated that the "speed group threw faster with better technique" (p. 1011) than the accuracy group did (Speed and accuracy in the learning of a complex motor skills, Perceptual and Motor Skills, 85, 1011-1017, 1997). b. Incorrect See explanation above. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: emphasize speed over accuracy.

Question 95

Theories of career choice and development can be categorized in terms of four basic types. The theories of Tiedeman and O'Hara (1963) and Tiedeman and Miller-Tiedeman (1984) are examples of the __________ approach. Select one: A. developmental B. trait-oriented C. reinforcement-based D. personality

Answer 95

S. H. Osipow distinguishes between the four types of theories listed in the responses to this questions (Convergence in theories of career choice and development, Journal of Vocational Behavior, 36, 122-131, 1990). a. CORRECT The vocational identity theory proposed by Tiedeman and colleagues is classified as a developmental approach. (Super's theory also represents this approach.) b. Incorrect Parson's (1939) and Holland's (1988) theories are trait-oriented approaches. c. Incorrect Krumboltz's (1979) social learning theory is classified by Osipow as a reinforcement-based approach. d. Incorrect Roe's (1984) theory emphasizes the role of personality. The correct answer is: developmental

Question 96

From the perspective of Tuckman and Jensen's (1977) model of group formation, an emphasis on socializing and developing close relationships is characteristic of the __________ stage. Select one: A. norming B. forming C. performing D. storming

Answer 96

``` Tuckman and Jensen (1977) distinguished between five stages of group development -- Forming Storming Norming Performing Adjourning ``` a. CORRECT The norming stage is characterized by worker agreement, congruence, and participation in social activities. It can become a "period of play" as the task becomes temporarily abandoned by workers. Additional information about the Tuckman and Jensen's stages is provided in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials. b. Incorrect See explanation above. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: norming

Question 97

Survey feedback is a method of organizational development that is based on the premise that: Select one: A. people are not usually open and honest with each other. B. work teams are the basic foundation of an organization. C. organizational output is a function of both production and people. D. employees need to understand an organization's strengths and weaknesses.

Answer 97

Organization development encompasses a variety of techniques. a. Incorrect This sounds more like sensitivity training. b. Incorrect This is an assumption underlying the technique known as team building. c. Incorrect This describes an assumption underlying organizational grid training. d. CORRECT The survey feedback technique involves collecting data about the strengths and weaknesses of an organization from employees at all levels; providing employees with the results of the survey; and helping employees use the data to identify ways to overcome current problems. The correct answer is: employees need to understand an organization's strengths and weaknesses.

Question 98

Research on goal-setting theory has identified several factors that influence a worker's commitment to difficult goals. For example, research investigating the impact of a worker's need for achievement has found that: Select one: A. commitment to difficult goals is higher for self-set goals than for assigned goals only for those who are low in need for achievement. B. commitment to difficult goals is higher for self-set goals than for assigned goals only for those who are high in need for achievement. C. commitment to difficult goals is higher for self-set goals than for assigned goals regardless of level of need for achievement. D. commitment to difficult goals is higher for assigned goals than for self-set goals regardless of level of need for achievement.

Answer 98

The research has found an interaction between type of goal (assigned or self-set) and level of need for achievement. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT The studies have found a strong positive relationship between commitment to difficult self-set goals and level of need for achievement, with commitment being greatest for those high in need for achievement. However, among those with a low need for achievement, commitment is usually greater for assigned goals than for self-set goals. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: commitment to difficult goals is higher for self-set goals than for assigned goals only for those who are high in need for achievement.

Question 99

During an interview, a job applicant exhibits one or two very positive characteristics. These characteristics then influence how the interviewer evaluates the applicant on other unrelated characteristics so that her overall impression is very favorable. This is an example of which of the following? Select one: A. halo error B. contrast effect C. leniency bias D. fundamental attribution bias

Answer 99

In this situation, the interviewer's overall evaluation of the applicant has been influenced by one or two very positive characteristics. a. CORRECT This is best described as a positive halo error. b. Incorrect A contrast effect occurs when the evaluation of an applicant is affected by a previous applicant; e.g., if the previous applicant was very poor, a mediocre applicant is likely to be evaluated more favorably than he/she would if the previous applicant had excellent qualifications. c. Incorrect A leniency bias is occurring when a rater tends to rate everyone highly. d. Incorrect The fundamental attribution bias refers to the tendency to attribute the behavior of others to dispositional (versus situational) factors. The correct answer is: halo error

Question 100

According to Dawis and Lofquist's (1984) Theory of Work Adjustment, job tenure is related to an employee's: Select one: A. satisfaction and satisfactoriness. B. motivation and ability. C. organizational commitment. D. career concept.

Answer 100

The Theory of Work Adjustment (TWA) is a person-environment fit theory of career development that focuses on the correspondence between an employee and his/her job and work environment. One of the primary assumptions of TWA is that a person is best suited for jobs that have demands and provide rewards that correspond to that individual's characteristics. a. CORRECT In the context of the TWA, satisfaction refers to the employee's satisfaction with the job, which is determined by the degree to which the rewards provided by the job satisfy the employee's needs; while satisfactoriness refers to the job's "satisfaction" with the employee - i.e., the degree to which the employee's skills meet the skill requirements of the job and, as a result, the degree to which the employee adequately performs the job. According to the TWA, satisfaction and satisfactoriness are determinants of an employee's tenure. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: satisfaction and satisfactoriness.

Question 101

In a police department, the usual rotating 8-hour shift of the officers is replaced by a fixed 12-hour compressed shift. Most likely, this change will have which of the following effects? Select one: A. decrease productivity and satisfaction B. decrease productivity but increase satisfaction C. increase productivity but decrease satisfaction D. increase satisfaction but have little or no effect on productivity

Answer 101

Questions on the effects of work schedules are difficult to answer since the research on this issue has produced inconsistent results. However, a good generalization is that innovative work schedules have a greater impact on attitudes than on productivity (especially objective measures of productivity). a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT This is the best overall conclusion and the one that was reached in a meta-analysis of research on the compressed work week by B. Baltes et al. [Flexible and compressed workweek schedules: A meta-analysis of their effects on work-related criteria, Journal of Applied Psychology, 84(4), 496-513, 1999]. The correct answer is: increase satisfaction but have little or no effect on productivity

Question 102

Recent research suggests that, in terms of predicting job performance, "g" (general cognitive ability): Select one: A. is useful only for managerial and other professional jobs. B. is useful only for predicting performance in traditionally "male" jobs. C. is not as accurate as specific ability tests for many different types of jobs. D. is predictive of performance across a wide variety of jobs.

Answer 102

The current thinking about "g" is that it is a good predictor of job performance for a wide range of jobs. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Meta-analyses of the literature suggest that general cognitive ability is related to job performance across a variety of jobs and that specific ability tests explain little additional variability in performance over that explained by g. See, e.g., P. R. Sackett and S. L. Wilk, Within-group norming and other forms of score adjustment in preemployment testing, American Psychologist, 49(11), 929-954, 1994. The correct answer is: is predictive of performance across a wide variety of jobs.

Question 103

A series of meta-analyses by Eagly and her colleagues of research on gender differences in leadership style (initiating structure and consideration) found that: Select one: A. men and women differ significantly with regard to leadership style. B. men and women do not differ significantly with regard to leadership style. C. men and women differ significantly with regard to leadership style and women leaders are consistently evaluated less favorably than male leaders by superiors and co-workers. D. men and women do not differ significantly with regard to leadership style but women leaders are consistently evaluated less favorably than male leaders by superiors and co-workers.

Answer 103

Eagly et al.'s meta-analyses of the research focused on gender differences in leadership style, leadership emergence, and leadership evaluation. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT A. H. Eagly and B. T. Johnson found little difference between men and women with regard to leadership style, emergence, or evaluation (Gender and leadership style: A meta-analysis, Psychological Bulletin, 108, 233-256, 1990). c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: men and women do not differ significantly with regard to leadership style.

Question 104

Goal-setting theory, equity theory, and expectancy theory share in common which of the following? Select one: A. a focus on peer (co-worker) influences on job performance B. the premise that behavior is motivated by its consequences C. the belief that feedback is a necessary condition of effort D. the assumption that human cognition affects behavior

Answer 104

The three theories are cognitive theories that view motivation and performance as directly linked to cognitive events. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT The cognitive event in goal-setting theory is the conscious acceptance of the goals; in equity theory it is self-other comparisons; and in expectancy theory it is beliefs related to effort/performance and performance/outcomes. The correct answer is: the assumption that human cognition affects behavior

Question 105

Which of the following is not an example of an incentive plan? Select one: A. piecework plan B. merit pay C. gain-sharing D. flexible benefit plan

Answer 105

The use of incentive plans in organizations is based on the assumption that workers will be more productive if their pay and other rewards are a function of their actual output rather than the time they spend on the job. a. Incorrect When using a piecework plan, workers are paid for each unit they produce. b. Incorrect Merit pay is a type of incentive plan for mangers. It entails adding money to the manager's base pay on the basis of his/her performance. c. Incorrect Gain-sharing is also an incentive plan. It involves rewarding employees on the basis of the gains in organizational profits. d. CORRECT A flexible benefit plan (also known as a cafeteria benefit plan) gives employees greater control over and flexibility in the benefits they received. It does not tie rewards to performance. The correct answer is: flexible benefit plan

Question 106

In their meta-analysis of the research on the impact of flextime on job outcomes, Baltes et al. (1999) found that this schedule has the greatest impact on: Select one: A. productivity. B. job satisfaction. C. absenteeism. D. self-rated performance.

Answer 106

The meta-analysis by B. Baltes and colleagues found that flextime has beneficial effects on a variety of job outcomes, although its impact is stronger for some outcomes than others. For additional information on the results of this analysis, see the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials. a. Incorrect Baltes et al. obtained a mean weighted effect size of .45 for flextime and productivity. b. Incorrect These authors obtained an effect size of .15 for flextime and satisfaction (which is lower than the effects reported in earlier studies). c. CORRECT The largest effect size - .93 - was obtained for flextime and absenteeism. d. Incorrect The lowest effect size - .04 - was obtained for flextime and self-rated job performance. The correct answer is: absenteeism.

Question 107

When using a structured interview, the responses of interviewees are evaluated: Select one: A. against an established criterion. B. by consensus of "subject matter experts." C. subjectively by the interviewer. D. through a "utility analysis."

Answer 107

A structured interview contains a series of job-related questions that are consistently used with all interviewees for a particular job and that have prespecified "correct" answers. a. CORRECT One advantage of a structured interview is that it provides individual item scores and a total score that are derived from prespecified criteria. The interview score can then be combined with scores on other selection procedures in a multiple regression equation (or similar technique) to predict job performance. b. Incorrect Although subject matter experts may help determine how responses to a structured interview will be scored, other methods for determining scores are also used. Therefore, this is not the best answer to the question. c. Incorrect An advantage of the structured interview is that it reduces the impact of interviewer subjectivity. d. Incorrect Utility analysis is used to evaluate the practical value of a selection procedure and involves considering the procedure's validity coefficient, the variability of employee job performance (usually in terms of dollar value of output or mean output), and the selection ratio. The correct answer is: against an established criterion.

Question 108

If a court determines that a selection procedure is having an adverse impact, a company: Select one: A. can no longer use the procedure. B. can use the procedure only in conjunction with other procedures. C. can use the procedure only if there is evidence that it is job-related. D. can use the procedure only if there is evidence that it is valid and there are no alternative procedures.

Answer 108

Adverse impact is occurring when a selection procedure is having a negative effect on hiring or other employment decisions about members of a protected minority group. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT When the court has determined that a selection technique is having an adverse impact, it is up to the company to prove that continued use of the technique is a "business necessity." This involves showing evidence of the procedure's validity and of a lack of alternative measures that would have less adverse impact. The correct answer is: can use the procedure only if there is evidence that it is valid and there are no alternative procedures.

Question 109

Which of the following is not true about employees with a high need for achievement (nACH)? Select one: A. They are more concerned with personal accomplishment than with obtaining praise or recognition. B. They like to receive frequent and concrete feedback about their job performance. C. They usually prefer to work alone or with others who are high in need for achievement. D. They prefer high-risk projects and goals that maximally challenge their ability to excel.

Answer 109

Need for achievement was identified by David McClelland as one of the primary needs underlying human motivation. a. Incorrect This is true about people with high nACH. For these individuals, rewards are important only to the extent that they serve as indicators of personal accomplishment. b. Incorrect Individuals with a high nACH desire regular feedback because it allows them to monitor and, if necessary, modify their performance. c. Incorrect This is also true about individuals with high nACH. d. CORRECT McClelland contrasted people high in need for achievement with gamblers. According to McClelland, gamblers are high risk takers while achievement-motivated people prefer moderate levels of risk. For example, workers with high nACH prefer moderately difficult performance goals (i.e., goals that have a 50% chance of success). The correct answer is: They prefer high-risk projects and goals that maximally challenge their ability to excel.

Question 110

Systematic desensitization was originally designed by Wolpe as an application of which of the following? Select one: A. aversive counterconditioning B. reciprocal inhibition C. habituation D. operant extinction

Answer 110

Systematic desensitization is used to reduce anxiety and involves pairing anxiety-producing stimuli with relaxation in order to reduce the anxiety. a. Incorrect Aversive counterconditioning reduces the attractiveness of a stimulus or behavior by repeatedly pairing that stimulus or behavior with a stimulus that produces an unpleasant response. Note that both aversive counterconditioning and systematic desensitization are based on principles of classical conditioning. b. CORRECT Use of reciprocal inhibition (counterconditioning) to reduce an undesirable behavior is based on the assumption that a response can be eliminated by replacing it with an incompatible response; e.g., replacing anxiety with relaxation. See the Learning Theory chapter for additional information on reciprocal inhibition and systematic desensitization. c. Incorrect Habituation refers to a decrease in responding as the result of repeated exposure. d. Incorrect Although researchers have found the effects of systematic desensitization to be due to extinction, they are referring to CLASSICAL extinction, not operant extinction. The correct answer is: reciprocal inhibition

Question 111

Tulving has divided memory into three types: procedural, episodic, and semantic. According to Tulving, semantic memory: Select one: A. consists of internal representations of stimulus-response connections. B. is more affected by amnesia than procedural memory and episodic memory. C. includes rules for manipulating words and symbols. D. is coded temporally.

Answer 111

Tulving (1972, 1985) and others distinguish between three types of long-term memory: semantic, episodic, and procedural. Semantic memory holds all the information we need to use language, including words and the symbols for them; their meanings; their referents (what they represent); and the rules for manipulating words and symbols such as the rules for English grammar, the rules for adding and multiplying, and chemical formulas. Episodic memory holds information about how things appeared and when they occurred, such as "I broke my arm in the summer of 1977." And procedural memory contains learned skills (procedures) and modifiable cognitive operations. a. Incorrect This describes procedural memory. b. Incorrect Of the three types of memory, episodic memory is usually most affected by amnesia. c. CORRECT As noted above, this best describes semantic memory. d. Incorrect This describes episodic memory. The correct answer is: includes rules for manipulating words and symbols.

Question 112

Research on the serial position effect suggests, that when "cramming" for a test, it is important to: Select one: A. get a good night's sleep before taking the test. B. engage in a distracting activity after studying and prior to taking the test. C. give extra attention to material studied during the middle of the study session. D. give extra attention to material studied at the beginning of the study session.

Answer 112

To answer this, you have to know that the serial position effect refers to the tendency to forget items in the middle of a list (versus the beginning and end of the list). a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Studies on memory and forgetting have shown that people tend to remember information presented in the beginning and, in some cases, end of a list better than that presented in the middle. If this finding is extended to a study session, it predicts that a student should pay most attention to the information reviewed in the middle of the study session since that is the information that is most likely to be forgotten. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: give extra attention to material studied during the middle of the study session.

Question 113

From the perspective of classical conditioning, persistence of phobias is best explained by which of the following? Select one: A. The person with a phobia avoids the conditioned stimulus. B. The fear is automatically conditioned. C. The phobia represents an unconditioned response. D. The person with a phobia fears fear itself.

Answer 113

Phobic individuals typically avoid the conditioned stimuli that elicit an anxiety or fear reaction. a. CORRECT Because the phobic individual avoids the conditioned stimulus, he/she never has an opportunity to learn that exposure to it will not result in negative consequences (i.e., that the CS will not be followed by the US). Thus, extinction of the anxiety response does not occur. b. Incorrect "Automatically conditioned" doesn't make sense. c. Incorrect From a classical conditioning perspective, phobic reactions are conditioned, not unconditioned, responses. d. Incorrect Although this may be true in some cases, it does not explain why phobias are so persistent. The correct answer is: The person with a phobia avoids the conditioned stimulus.

Question 114

Your new client, Jay J., age 31, complains that he's had trouble falling asleep at night for a number of years but that it's become a more significant problem since he got married last year because his sleep problems are now keeping his wife awake. You instruct Jay to go to bed only when he feels tired; to get out of bed, go to another room, and engage in a relaxing activity if he doesn't fall asleep within about 20 minutes after going to bed; to use the bed only for sleep and sexual activity; to get up in the morning at about the same time regardless of how much sleep he's had; and to avoid napping. You are using which of the following techniques? Select one: A. habit reversal B. Premack principle C. stimulus control D. overcorrection

Answer 114

The intervention described in this question involves strengthening the bed and bedroom as cues for sleep and weakening them as cues for other activities. a. Incorrect Habit reversal training is a multicomponent behavioral treatment that is used to reduce habitual behaviors that are undesirable and serve no adaptive function (e.g., hair pulling, nail biting, tics). b. Incorrect The Premack principle is an application of positive reinforcement and involves reinforcing a low frequency behavior (e.g., completing homework) with a high frequency behavior (e.g., playing video games) to increase the low frequency behavior. c. CORRECT Stimulus control involves increasing the links between certain cues and a behavior in order to increase the frequency of that behavior. It was originally applied to the treatment of sleep problems by R. Bootzin [A stimulus control treatment for insomnia, American Psychological Association Proceedings, 395-396, 1972}. d. Incorrect Overcorrection is used to eliminate an undesirable behavior and involves having the individual correct the consequences of his/her behavior (restitution) and/or practice corrective behaviors (positive practice). The correct answer is: stimulus control

Question 115

Behavioral assessment is distinguished from traditional assessment in several ways. Which of the following does NOT accurately describe a characteristic associated with behavioral assessment? Select one: A. It focuses on directly observable behaviors and environmental factors. B. It views outward behaviors as signs of an individual's underlying needs, conflicts, and other characteristics. C. It involves assessing behaviors repeatedly throughout the course of an intervention. D. It involves assessing specific (rather than global) aspects of the individual's behaviors.

Answer 115

Behavioral assessment is used as both a diagnostic and evaluative tool to guide decisions related to interventions and to assess their effectiveness. a. Incorrect This is characteristic of behavioral assessment. b. CORRECT Behavioral assessments focus on samples of overt behaviors and do not view or interpret them as signs of underlying phenomena. c. Incorrect This is characteristic of behavioral assessment. d. Incorrect This is characteristic of behavioral assessment. The correct answer is: It views outward behaviors as signs of an individual's underlying needs, conflicts, and other characteristics.

Question 116

Studies on concurrent schedules of reinforcement have found that an organism's relative frequency of responding to one alternative corresponds to the relative frequency of reinforcement for responses to that alternative. This phenomenon is referred to as: Select one: A. the law of effect. B. the matching law. C. Rescorla-Wagner theory. D. the Premack principle.

Answer 116

The research has supported the "common sense" conclusion that an organism will respond to two different stimuli in proportion to the amount of reinforcement received for those responses. a. Incorrect Although the law of effect does make predictions about the effect of positive reinforcement, this answer is not as good (precise) as response b. b. CORRECT The matching law states that, when using concurrent schedules of reinforcement, the proportion of responses will match the proportion of reinforcements. c. Incorrect The Rescorla-Wagner theory predicts that the degree or strength of conditioning depends on how "surprising" (unexpected) the association between the CS and US is: The more surprising the US, the more conditioning will occur. d. Incorrect The Premack principle is a type of positive reinforcement in which a high frequency behavior is used as the reinforcer for a low frequency behavior. The correct answer is: the matching law.

Question 117

To help a depressed client identify the cognitive errors and distortions that are affecting her interpretation of current life events, a practitioner of Beck's cognitive therapy would: Select one: A. rely primarily on didactic techniques. B. make use of Socratic questioning. C. rely on verbal persuasion. D. use paradoxical techniques to overcome resistance.

Answer 117

A key characteristic of Beck's cognitive therapy is the use of guided discovery, which involves the use of questions. a. Incorrect Although Beck uses didactic methods to explain the theory underlying the cognitive approach, they are not as useful as questioning for helping a client identify his or her cognitive errors and distortions. b. CORRECT Inductive (Socratic) questioning is an essential component of Beck's approach. It is used to guide clients through the process of identifying the impact of their cognitions on their emotions and behaviors and alternative ways of thinking. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: make use of Socratic questioning.

Question 117

The parents of a three-year old boy ask a psychologist what they can do to reduce their son's frequent temper tantrums. After learning that the parents pay attention to the boy whenever he has an outburst, the psychologist tells them to consistently ignore the boy each time he has a tantrum. The technique the psychologist has suggested is an example of: Select one: A. shaping. B. negative reinforcement. C. extinction. D. overcorrection.

Answer 117

In the situation described in this question, the child will no longer be reinforced for engaging in temper tantrums; and, as a result, his tantrums will cease. a. Incorrect Shaping is a type of positive reinforcement in which successive approximations to the desired response are reinforced. b. Incorrect Negative reinforcement involves removing or withholding a stimulus following a behavior in order to increase the behavior. c. CORRECT Extinction involves removing reinforcement from a previously reinforced behavior to reduce or eliminate it. Extinction has been found to be an effective method for reducing a child's temper tantrums. d. Incorrect Overcorrection is used to eliminate an undesirable behavior and establish more appropriate or desirable ones. The correct answer is: extinction.

Question 118

When using second-order conditioning to establish a new conditioned response: Select one: A. the second conditioned response will not be as strong as the first conditioned response. B. the second conditioned response will be difficult to establish if the second conditioned stimulus is not similar in nature to the first conditioned stimulus. C. the second conditioned response will be more difficult to extinguish than the first conditioned response. D. the second conditioned stimulus will produce "experimental neurosis" if it is too similar to the first conditioned stimulus.

Answer 118

Second-order conditioning is another name for higher-order conditioning that involves two steps (the original conditioning trials followed by trials in which the original CS is treated as a US and is paired with a second CS). a. CORRECT The further the stimulus is from the original US, the less in magnitude the CR. In other words, the first CR will be less in magnitude than the original UR, and the second CR will, in turn, be less in magnitude than the first CR. b. Incorrect See explanation above. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: the second conditioned response will not be as strong as the first conditioned response.

Question 119

A father wants to increase his son's studying and violin practice and, therefore, reinforces each behavior whenever it occurs with a token that can be exchanged later for a desired privilege. After a period of time, the father realizes that his son will never become a violin virtuoso and stops reinforcing the boy's violin practice. The father can expect which of the following? Select one: A. violin practice and studying will both decrease B. violin practice and studying will both increase C. violin practice will decrease but studying will increase D. violin practice will decrease and studying will stay the same

Answer 119

In this situation, the father is removing reinforcement from one behavior (the violin playing), while another behavior (studying) continues to be reinforced. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Removal of reinforcement from a previously reinforced behavior typically results in an increase in another reinforced behavior. This phenomenon is referred to as "behavioral contrast." d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: violin practice will decrease but studying will increase

Question 120

A psychologist conducting a study to determine the effectiveness of backward conditioning with human participants will use which of the following procedures? Select one: A. Repeatedly present the CS before the US. B. Repeatedly present the US before the CS. C. Apply an intermittent schedule of reinforcement after a continuous schedule has been used to establish a response. D. Apply a continuous schedule of reinforcement after an intermittent schedule has been used to establish a response.

Answer 120

When using classical conditioning to establish a conditioned response, the CS is presented prior to the US, and this is referred to as forward conditioning. a. Incorrect This describes forward conditioning. b. CORRECT Backward conditioning is just the opposite of forward conditioning and involves presenting the US prior to the CS. Backward conditioning is not usually effective. c. Incorrect Switching from a continuous schedule to an intermittent one is referred to as "thinning" and is not an application of backward conditioning. d. Incorrect This does not describe backward conditioning. The correct answer is: Repeatedly present the US before the CS.

Question 121

A psychologist who views learning as the result of operant conditioning would likely attribute the acquisition of complex behaviors to which of the following? Select one: A. chaining B. stimulus control C. higher-order conditioning D. stimulus generalization

Answer 121

From the perspective of operant conditioning, new behaviors are acquired as the result of reinforcement. a. CORRECT With chaining, each response in the chain of responses required to learn and perform a complex behavior serves as a reinforcement for the previous response in the chain. b. Incorrect A behavior is said to be under "stimulus control" when it is elicited by the presence of some stimuli but not others. c. Incorrect Higher-order conditioning is a form of classical conditioning involving the pairing of a second neutral stimulus with a conditioned stimulus so that the second neutral stimulus also elicits the conditioned response. d. Incorrect Stimulus generalization is occurring when stimuli similar to the conditioned stimulus also elicit the conditioned response. It can explain how behaviors can occur in situations outside the context in which they were originally learned. The correct answer is: chaining

Question 122

A third-grade teacher puts a student in the "time-out chair" for 15 minutes when he is disruptive. After 10 minutes in time-out, the boy tells the teacher that he is sorry, that he knows what he did was wrong, and that he won't bother the other children again. The teacher lets him rejoin the other students in the classroom. Three days later, the boy again disturbs the other students and the teacher sends him to time-out for 15 minutes. This time, the boy apologizes and promises he won't misbehave again after only 8 minutes. The teacher again lets the boy rejoin his classmates. In this situation, the boy's expression of remorse is being controlled by which of the following? Select one: A. positive reinforcement B. avoidance conditioning C. escape conditioning D. higher-order conditioning

Answer 122

In the situation described in this question, the boy's apology is being controlled by negative reinforcement - it occurs because it causes an undesirable event (the time-out) to be removed. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Escape conditioning is a type of negative reinforcement in which a behavior occurs because it allows the individual to escape an undesirable stimulus or event. (Avoidance conditioning is another application of negative reinforcement. It involves presenting a cue that signals that an undesirable event is about to occur so that the individual can avoid the undesirable event by engaging in the target behavior as soon as the cue is presented.) d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: escape conditioning

Question 123

Two rats are being conditioned to push a button in order to receive a food pellet. During the acquisition of this behavior, both rats were reinforced using a continuous schedule of reinforcement. After their response rates peaked and then declined, one rat began to receive two food pellets after each button push, whereas the second rat continued to received a single pellet after each response. Despite this difference in the amount of reinforcement, the response rate (i.e., the number of button pushes) for both rats remained the same. This is most likely attributable to which of the following? Select one: A. extinction B. habituation C. satiation D. inhibition

Answer 123

Both rats in this experiment were treated the same until after their response rates plateaued and then began to decline. At that point, one rat received two food pellets and the other continued to receive only one. However, both rats responded at the same rate even though one received more reinforcement. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Satiation occurs when a reinforcer loses its reinforcing value. In this experiment, there is evidence that both rats have become satiated because their responses had declined. So an extra food pellet will not have any more impact than a single food pellet. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: satiation

Question 124

When conducting a functional behavioral analysis, you are interested in: Select one: A. underlying motivations. B. causes of poor performance. C. conditions that control a behavior. D. program costs and benefits.

Answer 124

Functional behavioral analysis is also known as functional behavioral assessment and, as its name implies, involves identifying the function (purpose) of a behavior. a. Incorrect Underlying motivations don't fit the behavioral model. b. Incorrect In some situations, a functional behavior analysis may be useful for this purpose, but it has other purposes as well. c. CORRECT From the behavioral perspective, a behavior is controlled by its antecedents and consequences, and its function is defined in terms of those variables. A functional behavior analysis is conducted to identify the antecedents and consequences that are contributing to or maintaining a behavior. d. Incorrect Program costs and benefits aren't relevant to functional analysis. The correct answer is: conditions that control a behavior.

Question 125

All of the following tend to enhance the effectiveness of punishment as a method for eliminating a target behavior except: Select one: A. administering the punishment on an intermittent schedule. B. administering the punishment immediately after the target behavior occurs. C. administering the punishment from the beginning at a moderate strength. D. giving a "warning" cue just prior to administering the punishment.

Answer 125

Punishment is used to decrease the occurrence of an undesirable behavior. a. CORRECT Punishment is most effective when it is applied immediately following a behavior, when it is applied consistently rather than intermittently, when the relationship between the punishment and the target behavior is verbally clarified, when an individual is warned that it will occur, when reinforcement is offered for competing behavior, and when all positive reinforcement for the targeted behavior is withheld. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: administering the punishment on an intermittent schedule.

Question 126

Which of the following is most effective for establishing a conditioned response? Select one: A. backward conditioning B. simultaneous conditioning C. trace conditioning D. delay conditioning

Answer 126

The success of classical conditioning is affected by several factors, including the temporal relationship between presentation of the US and the CS. a. Incorrect Backward conditioning involves presenting the US before the CS and is rarely effective, especially in non-human animals. b. Incorrect As its name implies, simultaneous conditioning involves presenting the US and CS simultaneously. It's not as effective as trace and delay conditioning. c. Incorrect Trace conditioning is a type of forward conditioning in which the CS is presented and terminated before presenting the US. It's not as effective as delay conditioning. d. CORRECT Delay conditioning is a type of forward conditioning that involves presenting the CS so that it precedes and overlaps presentation of the US. It's the most effective method for establishing a conditioned response. The correct answer is: delay conditioning

Question 127

For retention of information in long-term memory, which of the following seems to be the most critical? Select one: A. visual encoding B. repetition C. time D. meaningful organization

Answer 127

Research on memory indicates that semantic encoding produces the best retention and retrieval. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Encoding semantically--that is, in terms of meaning--helps ensure that information will be transferred to long-term memory and that the information is more easily retrieved. The correct answer is: meaningful organization

Question 128

Magnification, arbitrary inference, overgeneralization, and other cognitive distortions: Select one: A. are unique to individuals with depression. B. are unique to individuals with an affective disorder. C. are unique to individuals with an affective or anxiety disorder. D. may be found among depressed individuals and those who are mentally "healthy."

Answer 128

This is one of those questions where you could use what you know about people in general in order to identify the correct answer. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Cognitive distortions are relatively commonplace -- not just among those who suffer from depression or other mental illness. According to Beck, what distinguishes people with depression from others is the frequency and prevalence of the distortions and the apparent inability to correct them. The correct answer is: may be found among depressed individuals and those who are mentally "healthy."

Question 129

Which of the following best describes the difference between escape and avoidance conditioning? Select one: A. Escape conditioning is the result of positive reinforcement, while avoidance conditioning is the result of negative reinforcement. B. Escape conditioning is the result of negative reinforcement, while avoidance conditioning is the result of negative punishment. C. Escape and avoidance conditioning are both the result of negative reinforcement, but only escape conditioning combines negative reinforcement with classical conditioning. D. Escape and avoidance conditioning are both the result of negative reinforcement, but only avoidance conditioning combines negative reinforcement with classical conditioning.

Answer 129

Knowing that escape and avoidance conditioning are both applications of negative reinforcement would have allowed you to eliminate answers a and b. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Escape and avoidance conditioning both result in an increase in behavior because performance of the behavior results in the removal or termination of a stimulus (negative reinforcer). The difference between the two procedures is that avoidance conditioning involves presentation of a cue (positive discriminative stimulus) that signals that a negative reinforcer is about to be applied so that the organism can perform the target behavior prior to delivery of the negative reinforcer and, therefore, avoid exposure to it. The connection between the cue and negative reinforcer is the result of classical conditioning. The correct answer is: Escape and avoidance conditioning are both the result of negative reinforcement, but only avoidance conditioning combines negative reinforcement with classical conditioning.

Question 130

In working with a client who has received a diagnosis of Dissociative Identity Disorder, a cognitive therapist's initial goal would be: Select one: A. to collaborate with the client to identify specific treatment goals. B. to make a "cognitive diagnosis" for the purpose of developing a concrete treatment plan. C. to identify the cognitive antecedents and consequences that are sustaining the client's multiple personalities. D. to establish a working alliance that provides the client with a sense of safety.

Answer 130

In her discussion of the cognitive treatment of Multiple Personality Disorder--now termed Dissociative Identity Disorder, C. G. Fine (in A. Freeman (Ed.), Comprehensive casebook of cognitive therapy, 1992) emphasizes the importance of establishing a therapeutic relationship with the client. Her position is consistent with that of other cognitive therapists who view the development of a therapeutic alliance as a critical initial step in treatment. a. Incorrect Although cognitive therapy is collaborative, the identification of treatment goals would follow the establishment of a working alliance. b. Incorrect The term "cognitive diagnosis" is a made-up term. Also, treatment planning is not an initial step but, instead, follows establishing a working alliance and identifying or clarifying the client's problems. c. Incorrect Cognitive therapists do look at antecedents (e.g., automatic thoughts as well as aspects of the client's background that may have contributed to the client's problem) and consequences. However, this is not an initial step in therapy. d. CORRECT As noted above, an initial goal in cognitive therapy is to establish a good working alliance. The correct answer is: to establish a working alliance that provides the client with a sense of safety.

Question 131

Which of the following best characterizes the nature of the criticism that boys and girls tend to receive from their teachers in elementary school? Select one: A. Girls receive criticism directed at their behavior, whereas boys receive criticism directed at their ability. B. Boys receive criticism directed at their behavior, whereas girls receive criticism directed at their ability. C. Girls receive more criticism than boys in all respects. D. There is no difference in the nature of the criticism that boys and girls receive.

Answer 131

Research has shown that boys receive more criticism, whereas girls receive more praise during their elementary school years. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT Furthermore, the nature of the criticism varies: boys are more often criticized for incorrect behavior and girls are more often criticized for a lack of ability. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: Boys receive criticism directed at their behavior, whereas girls receive criticism directed at their ability.

Question 132

As defined by Piaget, assimilation and accommodation are the two components of: Select one: A. cognitive organization. B. adaptation. C. decentration. D. decalage.

Answer 132

Assimilation is the process of interpreting the environment in terms of existing cognitive schemas, while accommodation is the process of altering existing schemas to fit new environmental experiences. a. Incorrect Although Piaget used the term organization in his description of cognitive development, it refers to the internal rearrangement and integration of schemas. b. CORRECT Adaptation involves building schemas as the result of direct interactions with the environment. It consists of the two processes known as assimilation and accommodation. c. Incorrect Decentration is a cognitive operation that contributes to the ability to conserve, which emerges during the concrete operational stage. d. Incorrect Piaget used the term decalage to refer to developmental phenomena that are uniform for all children. The correct answer is: adaptation.

Question 133

A distinguishing feature of the Montessori method is its: Select one: A. emphasis on cooperative learning and group achievement. B. use of art and music to teach academic subjects. C. assumption that all learning stems from sense perception. D. placement of children in classes on the basis of developmental level rather than chronological age.

Answer 133

The Montessori method was originally developed for intellectually disabled children but has been shown to be effective for the general population and is not only used in preschool but also in elementary and high school as well. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT The Montessori method is characterized by the use of special materials designed to teach sense discrimination. For example, to facilitate the teaching of reading, large letters of the alphabet are covered with sandpaper. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: assumption that all learning stems from sense perception.

Question 134

According to Piaget, the key feature of the _______________ stage is the development of the "semiotic function." Select one: A. concrete operational B. preoperational C. sensorimotor D. formal operational

Answer 134

The semiotic function refers to the ability to use a symbol, object, or word to stand for something. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT The preoperational stage extends from ages 2 to 7. During this stage, thought becomes symbolic in form. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: preoperational

Question 135

Research investigating the effects of Head Start and similar compensatory education programs has found that these programs: Select one: A. have few benefits in terms of academic achievement or other outcomes. B. have some short-term benefits in terms of academic achievement only. C. have benefits in terms of academic outcomes, social adjustment, and employment. D. have few benefits in terms of academic outcomes but some benefits in terms of of social adjustment and employment.

Answer 135

Answer C is correct. Longitudinal studies have found that the immediate effects of compensatory education programs on IQ are often not maintained but that these programs have other positive academic, social, and occupational consequences. Answer C is the best option. The answer summarizes the results of longitudinal studies which have found that improvements in IQ test scores are often not maintained but that children who attend these programs often obtain higher achievement test scores, are less likely to drop out of school, and have lower rates of delinquency and unemployment. The correct answer is: have benefits in terms of academic outcomes, social adjustment, and employment.

Question 136

One criticism of anger management training for children is that its positive effects are limited because: Select one: A. children are unable to develop control over angry feelings and behaviors. B. children tend to blame others for their anger. C. it places too much emphasis on behavior (versus cognition). D. it places too much emphasis on the individual (versus social) factors.

Answer 136

Although there are many approaches to anger management training, most programs are based on a cognitive-behavioral approach that emphasizes the individual's perceptions, feelings, and behaviors. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT One problem with most anger management training programs is that they focus on the individual and ignore the role of interpersonal or systemic factors. The importance of broadening the focus is supported by research showing that targeting individual, family, peer, and community relationships increases the effectiveness of anger management programs (e.g., E. Morley and S. B. Rossman, Helping at-risk youth: Lessons from community-based initiatives, Washington, D.C., The Urban Institute, 1997). The correct answer is: it places too much emphasis on the individual (versus social) factors.

Question 137

At which stage in Erikson's model of psychosocial development does a person come to terms with his or her mortality? Select one: A. intimacy vs. isolation B. generativity vs. stagnation C. identity vs, role confusion D. integrity vs. despair

Answer 137

Erikson's theory of psychosocial development includes eight stages, with each stage being associated with a specific psychosocial crisis. See the Lifespan Development chapter for additional information about Erikson's stages. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT The resolution of dealing with one's mortality is associated with the integrity vs. despair stage. Not surprisingly, this is the last of the eight stages. The correct answer is: integrity vs. despair

Question 138

``` Otitis media (OM) is a frequently-diagnosed childhood disease. Research on the long-term consequences of chronic OM has found that, in general: Select one: ``` A. it does not affect hearing ability. B. it is associated with mild hearing loss that has little or no impact on school achievement. C. it is associated with mild to moderate hearing loss that may have a negative impact on school achievement. D. it is associated with profound hearing loss.

Answer 138

Otitis media (OM) is a middle ear disease. When chronic, it often causes mild to moderate hearing loss. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT The hearing loss resulting from OM has been linked to attention problems (especially attention to language) and resulting language deficits, behavioral problems, and lower school achievement. See, e.g., L. Feagans and A. Proctor, The effects of mild illness in infancy on later development: The sample case of the effects of otitis media (middle ear effusion), in C. B. Fisher and R. M. Learner (Eds.), Applied developmental psychology, Cambridge, MA, McGraw-Hill, 1994. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: it is associated with mild to moderate hearing loss that may have a negative impact on school achievement.

Question 139

According to Piaget, the ability to think abstractly is first evident at about ____ years of age. Select one: A. 6 B. 8 C. 11 D. 15

Answer 139

Piaget described abstract thinking as a characteristic of formal operational thought. For additional information on Piaget's stages of cognitive development, see the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for resposne c. c. CORRECT The formal operational stage is the final stage in Piaget's stage model of cognitive development. It emerges at around age 11. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: 11

Question 140

Research examining the effects of divorce suggests that maladjustment in children following the divorce of their parents is most likely the result of which of the following? Select one: A. the parent's separation B. parental disharmony C. disruption in lifestyle D. diminished parental control

Answer 140

One of the more consistent findings of the research is that parental conflict is a major cause of maladjustment in children in both intact and divorced families. a. Incorrect The separation itself seems to be less predictive of maladjustment than parental conflict. b. CORRECT Conflict (disharmony) has been found to be more critical than the separation. Children of divorced parents show less maladjustment when the conflict between their parents is minimal. c. Incorrect This is of less importance than parental disharmony. d. Incorrect Although this does occur, it is not as strongly linked to maladjustment as parental conflict. The correct answer is: parental disharmony

Question 141

Research on the impact of parents' gender stereotypes about math ability on their children's interest in math has found that: Select one: A. maternal and paternal stereotypes have an impact on the math interest of boys but not girls. B. maternal and paternal stereotypes have an impact on the math interest of both boys and girls. C. maternal stereotypes have an impact on the math interest of boys but not girls. D. paternal stereotypes have an impact on the math interest of girls but not boys.

Answer 141

Not surprisingly, the research has found that parental stereotypes about academic ability affect the academic and career interests of offspring. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT Studies have found that, while the gender discrepancy in math achievement has declined in recent years, girls continue to be less likely to choose a math-related major in college or career in mathematics. In addition, the research has confirmed that maternal and paternal gender-related attitudes, beliefs, and behaviors are a key contributor to the disparity in interest in math and perceptions about math ability. Interestingly, a longitudinal study by Bleeker et al. suggests that the father's gender stereotypes may have a different impact than the stereotypes of the mother - i.e., while father's stereotypes are associated with an increased interest in math among boys and a decreased interest among girls, the mother's stereotypes are associated with a decreased interest for both boys and girls (J. E. Bleeker et al., "I can, but I don't want to": The impact of parents, interests, and activities on gender differences in math, in A. M. Gallagher and J. C. Kaufman (Eds.), Gender differences in mathematics: An integrative psychological approach, New York, Cambridge University Press, 2005). c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: maternal and paternal stereotypes have an impact on the math interest of both boys and girls.

Question 142

A 15-month-old child points to a milk carton on the table and says "milk," which means, "I want some milk." Later, when he spills milk on his shirt, he starts crying and says "milk" which means, "I spilled my milk and I'm all wet." This illustrates which of the following? Select one: A. telegraphic speech B. holophrastic speech C. underextension D. overextension

Answer 142

The child in this question is using a single word to communicate the meaning of a whole sentence. a. Incorrect Telegraphic speech involves stringing two or more words together to make a sentence (e.g., "want milk"). b. CORRECT From one to two years of age, children use single words to express whole phrases and sentences. This is referred to as holophrastic speech. c. Incorrect Underextension occurs when a child applies a word too narrowly to objects or situations. d. Incorrect Overextension occurs when a child applies a word to a wider collection of objects or events than is appropriate. The correct answer is: holophrastic speech

Question 143

In response to questions included in the Adult Attachment Interview, a 34-year old mother describes her childhood relationships with her own parents as very positive, but she is unable to come up with specific examples of pleasant experiences with them. Although she says this inability is due to poor memory, she is able to recall other events that occurred during early childhood. Most likely, this woman's 13-month old baby will exhibit which of the following attachment patterns in the Strange Situation? Select one: A. secure B. avoidant C. resistant D. disorganized/disoriented

Answer 143

This question is asking about research linking a mother's responses to the Adult Attachment Interview to the attachment pattern exhibited by her child. Additional information about this research is provided in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials. a. Incorrect Parents categorized as "autonomous" on the Adult Attachment Interview are most likely to have children who exhibit a secure attachment pattern. In response to interview questions, these parents describe their childhood relationships with parents as either negative or positive and are able to provide specific examples that support their descriptions. b. CORRECT Parents categorized as "dismissing" describe their relations with parents in positive terms but are unable to recall specific examples that support their descriptions. They most often have children who exhibit avoidant attachment in the Strange Situation. c. Incorrect Parents categorized as "preoccupied" often have resistant children. These parents describe their childhood relationships in negative or confused ways but are unable to provide specific examples to support their descriptions. d. Incorrect The children of "unresolved/disorganized" parents often exhibit a disorganized/disoriented attachment pattern. The correct answer is: avoidant

Question 144

National Survey on Drug Use and Health found that the largest percentage of respondents ages 12 through 17 used which of the following during the past month? Select one: A. hallucinogenics B. marijuana C. tobacco products D. alcohol

Answer 144

The 2013 rates of alcohol and drug use among individuals ages 12 through 17 were somewhat lower than rates reported in previous years. However, alcohol continued to be the most commonly used substance by adolescents. a. Incorrect In the 2013 survey, .5% of respondents ages 12 to 17 reported using hallucinogenic drugs in the past month. b. Incorrect In this survey, 7.1% of respondents ages 12 to 17 reported using marijuana in the past month. Of the illicit drugs, it was the most commonly used drug. c. Incorrect In this survey, 7.8% of respondents ages 12 to 17 reported using tobacco products (cigarettes, smokeless tobacco, cigars, and/or pipe tobacco) in the past month. d. CORRECT In this survey, 11.6% of respondents ages 12 to 17 reported using alcohol in the past month. The correct answer is: alcohol

Question 145

Lev Vygotsky's view of cognitive development is best described as a(n): Select one: A. neo-Piagetian theory. B. information processing theory. C. biological-maturationist approach. D. contextual approach.

Answer 145

Knowing that Vygotsky's theory of cognitive development emphasizes social and cultural influences would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. a. Incorrect Neo-Piagetian theories are often classified as a type of information-processing theory. They combine the information-processing and Piagetian approaches and focus on development within specific domains of knowledge and skills. b. Incorrect Information-processing theories view cognitive development as involving changes in the ways that information is processed and distinguish between different types of processes such as memory, understanding and producing language, and problem-solving. c. Incorrect The biological-maturationist approach views genetic and biological factors as the primary determinants of development. d. CORRECT As its name implies, the contextual approach focuses on the specific contexts in which cognitive development occurs. For Vygotsky, the sociocultural context is the most important influence, and he proposed that cognitive development depends on the individual's interactions with other people (i.e., interactions with others in his/her social and cultural milieu). The correct answer is: contextual approach.

Question 146

Which of the following represents a phoneme? Select one: A. "b" B. "ing" C. "go" D. "mama"

Answer 146

A phoneme is the smallest unit of sound in a language. a. CORRECT English has 26 letters but 44 phonemes since the same letter alone or combined with others can represent more than one sound. b. Incorrect This is a morpheme (the smallest unit of sound that conveys meaning). c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: "b"

Question 147

According to the "hostile attribution bias" (Crick & Dodge, 1994; Dodge, 1980): Select one: A. people with moderate to severe depression are less likely than people with mild or no depression to interpret the ambiguous actions of others as intentionally hostile. B. aggressive children are more likely than nonaggressive children to interpret the ambiguous actions of peers as intentionally hostile. C. authoritarian parents are more likely than authoritative parents to interpret the actions of their children as hostile. D. people are more likely to attribute the hostility of others to dispositional factors than to situational factors.

Answer 147

The hostile attribution bias is used to explain the reactions of aggressive children to the behaviors of peers. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT This is an accurate description of the prediction of the hostile attribution bias, which was originally described by Dodge (1980). It predicts that aggressive children are more likely than nonaggressive children to interpret the ambiguous behaviors of peers as intentionally hostile and, therefore, to react to those peers with aggressive, hostile behaviors. The hostile attribution bias is believed to be due to deficits in social information processing. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: aggressive children are more likely than nonaggressive children to interpret the ambiguous actions of peers as intentionally hostile.

Question 148

Research comparing the children of heterosexual and homosexual parents has generally found that: Select one: A. the children of gay/lesbian parents and heterosexual parents do not differ in terms of sexual orientation. B. the children of heterosexual parents are less likely to become homosexual than the children of homosexual parents. C. the children of gay parents are more likely to become homosexual than the children of the parents of lesbian or heterosexual parents. D. the children of lesbian parents are more likely to become homosexual than the children of the parents of gay or heterosexual parents.

Answer 148

According to the research, the sexual orientation of children whose parents are gay or lesbian does not differ in any systematic way from the sexual orientation of children whose parents who are heterosexual. a. CORRECT See explanation above. Additional information on this issue is provided in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials. b. Incorrect See explanation above. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: the children of gay/lesbian parents and heterosexual parents do not differ in terms of sexual orientation.

Question 149

Children between the ages of approximately _______ years are in the phallic stage of psychosexual development according to Freud and in the initiative vs. guilt stage of psychosocial development according to Erikson. Select one: A. 1 to 3 B. 3 to 6 C. 6 to 12 D. 12 to 15

Answer 149

Knowing the order of Freud's psychosexual stages and Erikson's psychosocial stages may have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. a. Incorrect Children between the ages of 1 and 3 years are in the second stage of psychosexual development and psychosocial development. Freud referred to the second stage as the anal stage and Erikson referred to the conflict associated with this stage as autonomy vs. shame. b. CORRECT Children between the ages of 3 and 6 are in the third stage of psychosexual development and psychosocial development. Freud referred to the third stage as the phallic stage and Erikson identified the conflict of this stage as involving initiative vs. guilt. c. Incorrect Children between the ages of 6 and 12 years are in the fourth stage of psychosexual development and psychosocial development. Freud named this the latency stage and Erikson described the conflict of this stage as involving industry vs. inferiority. d. Incorrect Freud's final (fifth) stage of psychosexual development is the genital stage and is characteristic of adolescence. Erikson described the major conflict of adolescence as involving identity vs. identity (role) confusion. The correct answer is: 3 to 6

Question 150

Youngsters begin to describe themselves in terms of personality attributes - e.g., "I'm smart," "I'm friendly," "I'm shy": Select one: A. in early childhood (ages 2-6). B. at the beginning of middle childhood (ages 7-8). C. toward the end of middle childhood (ages 10-12). D. in early adolescence (ages 13-14).

Answer 150

Children's descriptions of themselves are affected by their self-concept, which develops in a predictable way during childhood. a. Incorrect In early childhood, children describe themselves primarily in terms of specific behaviors. b. Incorrect At the beginning of middle childhood, children start to describe themselves in terms of their physical competencies - e.g., "I'm good at ..." c. CORRECT Toward the end of middle childhood, a child's self-concept becomes increasingly based on personality traits. d. Incorrect Children begin to describe themselves in terms of personality traits prior to adolescence. The correct answer is: toward the end of middle childhood (ages 10-12).

Question 151

A sudden loud noise would elicit which of the following reflexes from a one-month old infant? Select one: A. Babkin B. Darwinian C. Moro D. Babinski

Answer 151

A sudden loud noise produces a startle reaction. a. Incorrect The Babkin reflex occurs in response to an object being placed against both of an infant's palms. b. Incorrect The Darwinian (palmar) reflex occurs in response to placing an object in the infant's hand. c. CORRECT The Moro reflex occurs in response to either a loud noise or being dropped. d. Incorrect The Babinski reflex is produced by tickling the middle of the soles of the infant's feet. The correct answer is: Moro

Question 152

The relationship between authoritative parenting and children's academic achievement: Select one: A. is stronger for children who had an easy temperament as babies. B. is observed for children but not for adolescents whose school performance is more highly affected by peers. C. is observed among children as well as among adolescents. D. is stronger among children who have lower levels of intelligence.

Answer 152

Of the four parenting styles, authoritative parenting has consistently been linked with the most positive child outcomes including better academic achievement. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT There is some evidence that the benefits of authoritative parenting persist into adolescence. See, e.g., S. Dornbusch et al., The relationship of parenting style to adolescent school performance, Child Development, 58, 1244-1257, 1987. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: is observed among children as well as among adolescents.

Question 153

Cross-sectional research conducted in the 1960s and 1970s on marital satisfaction across the lifespan generally found: Select one: A. a U-shaped pattern with the lowest levels of reported satisfaction during the middle adult years. B. an inverted U-shaped pattern with the lowest levels of reported satisfaction during the early adult and older adult years. C. a positive linear pattern with reported satisfaction gradually increasing over the lifespan. D. a negative linear pattern with reported satisfaction gradually decreasing over the lifespan.

Answer 153

Cross-sectional research conducted in the 1960s and 1970s (e.g., Burr, 1970; Rollins and Cameron, 1974) identified a consistent pattern for marital satisfaction over the lifespan. a. CORRECT The cross-sectional studies found the lowest reported levels of marital satisfaction (especially among women) during the middle adult years - i.e., among those who had been married for 11 to 30 years. This result was often attributed by the researchers to the presence of adolescents in the family. Note that more recent longitudinal studies have not entirely confirmed the earlier findings (e.g., Vallant and Vallant, 1993). b. Incorrect See explanation above. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: a U-shaped pattern with the lowest levels of reported satisfaction during the middle adult years.

Question 154

According to Erikson, the purpose of play is to: Select one: A. release "unemployed energy." B. reduce tension by re-enacting prior experiences. C. socially construct knowledge within the zone of proximal development. D. master social and emotional experiences.

Answer 154

Knowing that Erikson describes development as involving eight psychosocial stages would have enabled you to identify the correct answer to this question even if you're unfamiliar with his view of play. a. Incorrect Play was described as an opportunity to release surplus energy by Spencer, Schiller, and other evolutionary theorists. b. Incorrect Freud described children's play as the result of a "repetition compulsion." c. Incorrect Vygotsky's sociocultural theory of development describes knowledge as socially constructed and conceptualizes symbolic play as an opportunity to practice behaviors in situations that require less precision and accuracy than would be required in reality. d. CORRECT Erikson (1977) describes play as a function of the ego that allows children to master and control social and emotional experiences. Through play, children learn about themselves and their social environments. The correct answer is: master social and emotional experiences.

Question 155

The smallest unit of sound that is understood is referred to as a: Select one: A. homophone. B. morpheme. C. phoneme. D. sememe.

Answer 155

A number of terms are used to describe the elements of written and spoken speech. a. Incorrect The term "homophone" refers to two or more letters or groups of letters that have the same sound (e.g., "c" in cite and "s" in song). b. Incorrect A morpheme is the smallest meaningful unit in a language. Suffixes and prefixes are examples of morphemes. c. CORRECT A phoneme is the smallest unit of distinct sound in a language. Phonemes combine to form morphemes and words. d. Incorrect The term sememe refers to the meaning of a morpheme. The correct answer is: phoneme.

Question 156

As defined by Piaget, the ability to engage in deferred imitation depends on the development of: Select one: A. transductive reasoning. B. mental representation. C. animistic thinking. D. self-recognition.

Answer 156

Deferred imitation refers to copying the past behavior of someone else. a. Incorrect Transductive (precausal) reasoning is characteristic of the preoperational stage and reflects an incomplete understanding of cause and effect. b. CORRECT Mental representation is also referred to as representational or symbolic thought and is the ability to hold an image in one's mind for a period beyond one's immediate experience. It develops at about 18 to 24 months of age and is responsible for the ability to engage in deferred imitation, use language, and participate in symbolic play. c. Incorrect Animistic thinking refers to the belief that inanimate objects have human characteristics and is characteristic of the preoperational stage of development. d. Incorrect Piaget did not link self-recognition to the ability to engage in deferred imitation. The correct answer is: mental representation.

Question 157

Vygotsky viewed the "self-talk" of young children as: Select one: A. a manifestation of egocentrisim. B. a means of self-guidance and self-instruction. C. rehearsal for interpersonal communication. D. prelinguistic speech.

Answer 157

Self-talk (talking aloud to oneself) is also referred to as private speech and is exhibited by children ages 4 through 9. Vygotsky considered children's self-talk to be an essential contributor to cognitive development. a. Incorrect Piaget viewed self-talk as nonsocial and as a manifestation of egocentrism. Vygotsky disagreed with Piaget's view. b. CORRECT Vygotsky believed that the self-talk of young children helps them integrate language with thought and thought with action. According to Vygotsky, children use self-talk to guide their actions, especially when working on difficult or confusing tasks. c. Incorrect Vygotsky viewed self-talk as communication with oneself, not as rehearsal for communication with others. d. Incorrect Prelinguistic speech refers to crying, cooing, babbling, and imitation of the speech of others. The correct answer is: a means of self-guidance and self-instruction.

Question 158

Among bilingual speakers, those who exhibit "code-switching": Select one: A. tend to obtain lower scores on measures of reading comprehension. B. tend to have trouble understanding speakers of the majority language. C. go back and forth between languages during the course of a conversation as a way to better express themselves. D. unconsciously confuse the majority and minority languages while speaking, especially in high-stress situations.

Answer 158

Code switching refers to shifts between languages during the course of a conversation. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Code switching seems to serve several functions for bilingual and multilingual speakers. For example, it is sometimes used to express solidarity with one's cultural group or to better express one's attitudes or feelings toward the listener. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: go back and forth between languages during the course of a conversation as a way to better express themselves.

Question 159

A person taking an SSRI in conjunction with an MAOI may develop ____________, which is characterized by agitation, confusion, tremor, unsteady gait, diarrhea, sweating, and chills. Select one: A. a hypertensive crisis B. a cholinergic crisis C. serotonin syndrome D. sympathomimetic syndrome

Answer 159

Taking an SSRI in conjunction with an MAOI or other serotonergic agent may result in serotonin syndrome, which is potentially life-threatening if not treated. a. Incorrect A hypertensive crisis can occur when an MAOI is taken in conjunction with a barbiturate, amphetamine, or antihistamine or with foods containing tyramine. Its symptoms include a severe headache, stiff neck, rapid heart rate, nausea, vomiting, sweating, and sensitivity to light. b. Incorrect A high dose of a cholinergic medication can produce a cholinergic crisis, which is caused by an excessive amount of ACh at the neuromuscular junction and involves sweating, salivation, flaccid paralysis, and respiratory failure. c. CORRECT Serotonin syndrome is associated with a number of cognitive, neuromuscular, and autonomic symptoms including the ones listed in this answer. Without treatment, it can lead to coma and death. d. Incorrect Sympathomimetic syndrome results from an acute overdose or long-term use of cocaine or amphetamines. Its symptoms include hypertension, tachycardia, hyperthermia, psychomotor agitation, and aggression. The correct answer is: serotonin syndrome

Question 160

Chronically high levels of cortisol due to chronic stress can lead to significant damage to certain areas of the brain, especially to the: Select one: A. hippocampus. B. thalamus. C. suprachiasmatic nucleus. D. cerebellum.

Answer 160

Increased cortisol levels provide a temporary increase in energy which enables us to better respond to stress. However, when stress becomes chronic, increased cortisol levels can have a detrimental effect. a. CORRECT The hippocampus is very sensitive to cortisol, and chronically high levels of this hormone can destroy neurons in this structure resulting in significant impairments in memory. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: hippocampus.

Question 161

``` Second generation (atypical) antipsychotic drugs such as clozapine (Clozaril) and risperidone (Risperdal) are: Select one: ``` A. serotonin-dopamine antagonists. B. serotonin-dopamine agonists. C. serotonin agonists/dopamine antagonists. D. serotonin antagonists/dopamine agonists.

Answer 161

Knowing that drugs that block dopamine and serotonin receptors have been found useful for alleviating the symptoms of Schizophrenia would have helped you identify the correct response to this question. a. CORRECT To choose the correct response to this question, you also need to know that an antagonist is a drug that blocks the effects of a neurotransmitter and that an agonist is a drug that increases or mimics a neurotransmitter's effects. Many of the second generation antipsychotics exert their beneficial effects on the positive and negative symptoms of Schizophrenia primarily by blocking the effects of dopamine and serotonin. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: serotonin-dopamine antagonists.

Question 162

Thirty-six-year-old Abraham was in a car accident. Aside from receiving many broken bones, he experienced significant head trauma. Months after the car accident, he systematically begins forgetting things and it is progressively becoming worse. What is the most likely reason he is experiencing memory loss? Select one: A. He may be experiencing early onset Alzheimers brought on by the trauma of the car accident B. There may be psychological trauma that he is experiencing which is affecting his memory processing because he is refusing to address the car accident C. There may be a genetic defect in his brain became worse from the trauma of the car accident D. His hippocampus may have been damaged, along with other parts of his brain which is now affecting his memory

Answer 162

The correct answer is D. It is most likely that Abraham is experiencing some form of anterograde amnesia as a result from the damage to his hippocampus. Answer A is incorrect as early onset Alzheimers is very rare, and it is unlikely that the car accident was a trigger. Although answer B has some possibility, it would not necessarily be progressively getting worse, nor do we have any reason to believe from the vignette that Abraham has been actively refusing to address the car accident. Answer C is incorrect; though it is possible, it is statistically unlikely, and he would have been showing symptoms prior to the accident if that were the correct diagnosis. The correct answer is: His hippocampus may have been damaged, along with other parts of his brain which is now affecting his memory

Question 163

A patient taking a benzodiazepine develops several undesirable symptoms including insomnia, nightmares, hallucinations, and rage reactions. These symptoms are most suggestive of which of the following? Select one: A. overdose B. anticholinergic effects C. paradoxical agitation D. rebound anxiety

Answer 163

The benzodiazepines are associated with several undesirable side effects including rebound anxiety, physical and psychological dependence, and withdrawal symptoms. a. Incorrect Overdose is fairly rare and involves hypotension, depressed respiration, and, in severe cases, coma. b. Incorrect Anticholinergic effects include dry mouth and blurred vision. c. CORRECT Insomnia and the symptoms listed in the question are the symptoms of paradoxical agitation, which is most likely to occur in people with a history of aggressive behavior or unstable emotional behavior. d. Incorrect Rebound anxiety may occur when the drug is stopped and is characterized by intense anxiety symptoms. The information provided in the question does not indicate that the patient has stopped taking the drug. The correct answer is: paradoxical agitation

Question 164

``` Propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal) is most likely to be prescribed for which of the following? Select one: ``` A. hypotension B. essential tremor C. bronchial asthma D. diabetes

Answer 164

Propranolol hydrochloride is a beta-blocker. a. Incorrect Propranolol HCl is used to treat hypertension and is contraindicated for hypotension. b. CORRECT This is one of the conditions that propranolol is used to treat. c. Incorrect Propranolol is contraindicated for bronchial asthma. d. Incorrect Propranolol is not used for diabetes. The correct answer is: essential tremor

Question 165

The loss of memory for events that occurred during the weeks prior to a head injury is referred to as: Select one: A. anterograde amnesia. B. retrograde amnesia. C. proactive interference. D. retroactive interference.

Answer 165

This question is asking about a loss of memory for events occurring before the head injury. Loss of memory can be either anterograde or retrograde. a. Incorrect This would involve an inability to form new memories following the head injury. b. CORRECT Retrograde amnesia refers to amnesia for events "backward in time." c. Incorrect Proactive interference occurs when previous learning interferes with new learning. d. Incorrect Retroactive interference occurs when current learning interferes with the ability to retrieve previously acquired information. The correct answer is: retrograde amnesia.

Question 166

Akathisia is characterized by: Select one: A. spasms and contortions. B. motor and psychic hypoactivity. C. unpleasant feelings of physical restlessness. D. rigidity and coarse tremors.

Answer 166

You're likely to encounter two or three questions on the exam that, like this one, require you to identify the correct description of a condition or disorder. a. Incorrect This describes dystonia. b. Incorrect This is akinesia. c. CORRECT Akathisia is an extrapyramidal side effect of the neuroleptic drugs and a symptom of Parkinson's disease and involves an unpleasant feeling of restlessness and need to move. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: unpleasant feelings of physical restlessness.

Question 167

Research on "motor imagination" indicates that which area of the brain is most likely to be active when a person is imagining that he/she is engaging in a motor activity? Select one: A. posterior occipital lobe B. mammillary bodies C. supplementary motor area D. ascending reticular activating system

Answer 167

The studies on motor imagination have found that the same areas of the brain that are active during the execution of a motor activity are active when a person is imagining that he/she is engaging in that activity. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT The specific areas that are activated when a person imagines he/she is engaging in a motor activity depend on the specific nature of the activity. However, the areas most likely to be involved include the supplementary motor area, cerebellum, basal ganglia, and parietal lobe (especially the somatosensory cortex). d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: supplementary motor area

Question 168

Coping strategies are an important contributor to adaptation to chronic pain, and research on coping strategies suggests that: Select one: A. active and passive coping strategies are equally effective for improving the physical and psychological functioning of those with chronic pain. B. active coping strategies are more effective than passive strategies for improving the physical and psychological functioning of those with chronic pain. C. passive coping strategies are more effective than active strategies for improving the physical and psychological functioning of those with chronic pain. D. active coping strategies are more effective for improving the physical functioning of those with chronic pain, while passive coping strategies are more effective for improving their psychological functioning.

Answer 168

Active coping strategies include exercise, using distractions, and ignoring the pain; passive coping strategies include resting, taking medications, and "wishful thinking." a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT The research is not entirely consistent, but has generally found that active coping strategies are associated with greater improvement in psychological and physical functioning. A. L. Snow-Turek, N. P. Norris, and G. Tan, for example, found that passive strategies were strongly associated with depression and other forms of psychological distress, while active strategies were inversely related to psychological distress [Active and passive coping strategies in chronic pain patients, Pain, 64(3), 455-462, 1996]. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: active coping strategies are more effective than passive strategies for improving the physical and psychological functioning of those with chronic pain.

Question 169

A drug that mimics or enhances the effects of a neurotransmitter is referred to as: Select one: A. an agonist. B. an antagonist. C. ionotropic. D. metabotropic.

Answer 169

Drugs that increase or decrease the effects of neurotransmitters and hormones are referred to, respectively, as agonist and antagonists. a. CORRECT An agonist increases activity of nerve cells by stimulating the production of a neurotransmitter or hormone, or stimulation of receptors for that neurotransmitter or hormone. b. Incorrect An antagonist blocks the effects of a neurotransmitter or hormone. c. Incorrect An ionotropic effect is a synaptic effect that depends on the rapid opening of a "gate" in the synaptic membrane. d. Incorrect A metabotropic effect is a synaptic effect that depends on metabolic reactions. The correct answer is: an agonist.

Question 170

Tactile agnosia is most likely due to damage to the: Select one: A. frontal lobe. B. parietal lobe. C. occipital lobe. D. temporal lobe.

Answer 170

Tactile agnosia involves an inability to recognize familiar objects by touch alone despite adequate sensation in the fingers. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT Touch is controlled by the somatosensory cortex, which is located in the parietal lobe. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: parietal lobe.

Question 171

Soon after starting to take an antidepressant, a young woman develops several troublesome symptoms including dry mouth, urinary retention, constipation, and blurred vision. Which of the following would be most useful for alleviating these side effects? Select one: A. caffeine B. an antihistamine C. a dopamine agonist D. a cholinergic agonist

Answer 171

The woman's symptoms are collectively referred to as "anticholinergic side effects" and are caused by interference with acetylcholine activity. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT A drug that increases activity at acetylcholine receptors would be appropriate in this situation. Cholinergic agonists (e.g., bethanechol) work by binding to and stimulating acetylcholine receptors. The correct answer is: a cholinergic agonist

Question 172

The changes in cognitive flexibility, memory, and everyday behavior (e.g., loss of spontaneity and lack of initiative) that are characteristic of Parkinson's Disease lend support to the hypothesis that this disorder involves subcortical systems that influence certain areas in the: Select one: A. frontal lobes. B. temporal lobes. C. occipital lobes. D. parietal lobes.

Answer 172

Parkinson's Disease is characterized by neuron loss in the substantia nigra and other brain-stem nuclei and the presence of Lewy bodies in the neurons that remain in these regions. a. CORRECT A number of patients with Parkinson's Disease develop dementia, which is currently believed to be of the "subcortical type". There is some evidence that damage to these subcortical areas produces dementia because of their influence on the frontal cortex. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a, c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: frontal lobes.

Question 173

Expressive aphasia is to Broca's area as ____________ aphasia is to Wernicke's area. Select one: A. global B. conduction C. impressive D. transcortical

Answer 173

There are many different kinds of aphasia, and, unfortunately, several go by more than one name. The types of aphasia you want to be familiar with for the exam are described in the Physiological Psychology and Psychopharmacology chapter of the written study materials. a. Incorrect Global aphasia involves deficits in comprehension, repetition, and output and is due to damage to several regions of the brain including the cortex and basal ganglia. b. Incorrect Conduction aphasia is caused by damage to nerves that connect Broca's and Wernicke's areas. c. CORRECT Wernicke's aphasia has several names including sensory, receptive, and impressive aphasia. d. Incorrect Transcortical aphasia is caused by lesions outside Broca's and Wernicke's areas that disconnect those areas from other regions of the brain. The correct answer is: impressive

Question 174

The area of the brain referred to as the "midbrain" contains all of the following structures except: Select one: A. inferior colliculus. B. superior colliculus. C. substantia nigra. D. mammillary bodies.

Answer 174

The midbrain is also known as the mesencephalon and is divided into two regions: the tectum and the tegmentum. a. Incorrect The inferior colliculus is part of the tectum and is involved in audition. b. Incorrect The superior colliculus is also part of the tectum and mediates vision. c. Incorrect The substantia nigra is located in the tegmentum and is part of the brain's sensorimotor system. d. CORRECT The mammillary bodies are part of the hypothalamus and are located in the diencephalon which, along with the telencephalon, make up the forebrain. The correct answer is: mammillary bodies.

Question 175

Tetraplegia is most likely to be the outcome of spinal cord injury at the ________ level. Select one: A. T9-T12 B. L2-L5 C. S3-S5 D. C1-C7

Answer 175

The spinal cord consists of 31 segments that are divided into five groups which are, from the top to the bottom of the spinal cord, cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal. a. Incorrect An injury at the lower thoracic level (T9-T12) produces paraplegia. People with this injury have some trunk control and may be able to walk short distances with an assistive device. b. Incorrect Injury at the lumbar level causes leg weakness and numbness, with the severity depending on the extent and location of the injury. c. Incorrect Injury at the lower sacral level (S3-S5) causes loss of bladder and bowel control and numbness in the perineum. d. CORRECT To identify this as the correct answer, you would have to know that tetraplegia is now the more commonly used term for quadriplegia and that it is the result of injury at the cervical level. The correct answer is: C1-C7

Question 176

You would be most concerned about a child with ADHD being prescribed methylphenidate if he has a co-diagnosis of: Select one: A. Tourette's Disorder. B. Conduct Disorder. C. Major Depression. D. Intellectual Disability.

Answer 176

Methylphenidate is the primary treatment for ADHD. The studies suggest, however, that it may be contraindicated in some cases. Answer A is correct. The research on this issue is far from consistent, but there is some agreement among experts that caution is necessary when prescribing methylphenidate for children with existing tics or a family history of tics since the drug may elicit or exacerbate the condition. The correct answer is: Tourette's Disorder.

Question 177

The endoplasmic reticulum is involved in: Select one: A. processing incoming visual stimuli. B. processing incoming auditory stimuli. C. transporting proteins and fats. D. storing neurotransmitters.

Answer 177

The endoplasmic reticulum is a system of channels in the cell body of the neuron. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT The rough portion of the endoplasmic reticulum plays a role in the synthesis and transportation of proteins, while the smooth portion is involved in the synthesis and transportation of fats. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: transporting proteins and fats.

Question 178

Cortisol is a steroid secreted by the: Select one: A. adrenal cortex. B. adrenal medulla. C. pineal gland. D. pancreas.

Answer 178

Cortisol is one of several steroid hormones. a. CORRECT The steroid hormones are secreted by the adrenal cortex. They are critical for many bodily functions including mediating the stress response and maintaining blood sugar levels, bodily fluids, and electrolytes. b. Incorrect See explanation above. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: adrenal cortex.

Question 179

In comparison to tricyclic antidepressants, fluoxetine and other SSRIs: Select one: A. are more cardiotoxic. B. are less likely to negatively affect sleep and anxiety symptoms. C. are less likely to cause cognitive impairments. D. are more effective for positive symptoms.

Answer 179

The SSRIs (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors) are associated with fewer side effects than the tricyclics. a. Incorrect SSRIs are not cardiotoxic, which is one of their advantages over tricyclics. b. Incorrect At least initially, the SSRIs may worsen sleep and anxiety symptoms. c. CORRECT Another benefit of the SSRIs is that they are not associated with cognitive impairments (the tricyclics are). d. Incorrect Positive symptoms refer to Schizophrenia, not depression. The correct answer is: are less likely to cause cognitive impairments.

Question 180

Older people are especially sensitive to both the therapeutic and toxic effects of psychoactive drugs. For example, for older (vs. younger) adults, benzodiazepine use is more likely to produce: Select one: A. unsteadiness, confusion, wandering, and memory loss. B. bizarre or hostile behavior, paranoia, and confusion. C. extrapyramidal symptoms and cardiovascular effects. D. tremor, weight gain, restlessness, and fatigue.

Answer 180

Older adults are more susceptible to the toxic effects of drugs (including benziodiazepines), even when the drugs are taken at a relatively low dose. a. CORRECT These side effects are more common in older(vs. younger) adults. b. Incorrect These side effects are associated with analgesics and anti-inflammatories. c. Incorrect These side effects are associated with neuroleptic drugs and are more likely in older than younger adults. d. Incorrect These are common side effects of lithium. The correct answer is: unsteadiness, confusion, wandering, and memory loss.

Question 181

Abnormalities in which of the following has been linked to Parkinson's disease, Huntington's disease, Tourette's Disorder, and Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder? Select one: A. corpus callosum B. postcentral gyrus C. mammillary bodies D. basal ganglia

Answer 181

Of the brain areas/structures listed in the answers, only one plays a key role in voluntary movement. a. Incorrect The corpus callosum is a large bundle of axons that connects the right and left hemispheres of the cerebral cortex and has not been identified as a structure involved in the etiology of the disorders listed in the question. b. Incorrect The postcentral gyrus is located in the parietal lobe and contains the primary somatosensory cortex which receives signals related to pressure, temperature, pain, proprioception, and gustation. c. Incorrect The mammillary bodies are part of the hypothalamus and are believed to play a role in memory. d. CORRECT The basal ganglia are involved in planning, organizing, and coordinating voluntary movement and regulating the amplitude and direction of motor actions. Several disorders involving prominent motor symptoms are associated with basal ganglia pathology including Huntington's disease, Parkinson's disease, Tourette's Disorder, and OCD. The correct answer is: basal ganglia

Question 182

The word HEART is projected onto a screen so that HE is projected to the subject's left visual field only while ART is projected to the subject's right visual field only. If the subject in the experiment is a "split brain" patient, you would expect him/her to report seeing: Select one: A. HE only. B. ART only. C. ART HE. D. HE ART.

Answer 182

Results of studies on split-brain patients have shown that the left hemisphere in most people is specialized for language. To identify the correct answer to this question, you'd have to remember that information in the right visual field goes to the left hemisphere, while information in the left visual field goes to the right hemisphere. a. Incorrect When HE is projected to the left visual field, it is processed by the right hemisphere and, because the patient is a split-brain patient, it is not transferred to the left hemisphere. Therefore, the patient will not be able to say HE. b. CORRECT This is the result reported by Sperry (1970). Because ART was projected to the patient's right visual field, it was processed by the left hemisphere which is specialized for language in most people. Thus, a split-brain patient could report seeing ART. c. Incorrect Split-brain patients did not report reversals in Sperry's study. d. Incorrect Split-brain patients can verbally report only what is projected to the left hemisphere. The correct answer is: ART only.

Question 183

An amputee experiences a sensation on his missing limb whenever he is touched on his lower lip. This is referred to as: Select one: A. phantom limb. B. super-added phantom. C. referred phantom sensation. D. adventitious synesthesia.

Answer 183

Several terms are used to describe the phantom phenomena that may occur following amputation of a limb. a. Incorrect Phantom limb (also known as phantom limb sensation) involves experiencing a sensation other than pain in the missing limb without any type of external stimulation. b. Incorrect Super-added phantom involves experiencing the feeling of an object (e.g., a ring or watch) on the missing limb. c. CORRECT Referred phantom sensation occurs when a person experiences a sensation in the missing limb when a stimulus is applied to another part of his/her body. There is evidence that this phenomenon is due to cortical remapping, which involves a reorganization of nerve fibers in the somatosensory cortex. See, e.g., V. S. Ramachandran, D. C. Rogers-Ramachandran, and M. Stewart, Perceptual correlates of massive cortical reorganization, Science, 258(5085), 1159-1160, 1992. d. Incorrect Adventitious synesthesia is the only term listed in the answers that is NOT associated with amputation. Synesthesia is a rare neurological condition in which stimulation of one sensory modality triggers a sensation in another sensory modality; and adventitious synesthesia refers to synesthesia that is due to epilepsy, stroke, the use of drugs, or other non-genetic cause. The correct answer is: referred phantom sensation.

Question 184

An individual at Level 8 on the Rancho Scale of Cognitive Functioning Revised: Select one: A. is nonresponsive to sounds or light and appears to be in a state of deep sleep. B. is confused, agitated, and incoherent, may exhibit bizarre behavior, and is unable to care for him/herself. C. is alert and oriented and can remember and integrate remote and recent events but may have some impairments in judgment, planning, and abstract reasoning. D. is functioning at an intellectual level that is superior for his/her age, education, and demographic background.

Answer 184

The Rancho Scale of Cognitive Functioning Revised is used to monitor recovery from head trauma and involves rating the individual in terms of ten levels of functioning. a. Incorrect This describes behaviors characteristic of Level 1. b. Incorrect These behaviors are characteristic of Level 4. c. CORRECT This answer accurately describes Level 8 behaviors. d. Incorrect This answer does not accurately describe any of the levels of functioning assessed by the Rancho Scale. The correct answer is: is alert and oriented and can remember and integrate remote and recent events but may have some impairments in judgment, planning, and abstract reasoning.

Question 185

Which of the following tests is based on the PASS model of intelligence? Select one: A. Columbia Mental Maturity Scale B. Fagan Test C. Cognitive Assessment System D. Wonderlic

Answer 185

For the exam, you want to be familiar with the four tests listed in the answers to this question. All four are described in the Psychological Assessment chapter of the written study materials. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT The Cognitive Assessment System (CAS) is a measure of basic cognitive processes and is based on the PASS model, which distinguishes between four cognitive functions -- planning, attention, simultaneous processing, and sequential processing. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: Cognitive Assessment System

Question 186

An examinee's score on which of the following Rorschach variables is most useful for estimating his/her level of intelligence? Select one: A. organizational activity B. perceptual thinking C. WSum6 D. S-CON

Answer 186

Research on the Rorschach test has confirmed that performance on several variables correlates with intelligence test scores. a. CORRECT Organizational activity reflects the extent to which the examinee organizes the various elements of the inkblot into a unified image and, of the Rorschach variables listed in the answers, correlates most highly with intelligence. Other Rorschach variables that correlate with intelligence include developmental quality, lambda, and F%. See, e.g., G. J. Meyer, The Rorschach's factor structure: A contemporary investigation and historical review, Journal of Personality Assessment, 59, 117-136, 1992. b. Incorrect The perceptual-thinking index (PTI) was developed as a measure of thought disorders. Individuals with schizophrenia or other psychotic disorder typically obtain high scores on this index. c. Incorrect Weighted sum (WSum6) is also used to identify thought disorders. d. Incorrect S-CON (suicide constellation) is used to evaluate suicide risk. The correct answer is: organizational activity

Question 187

Curriculum-based measurement is most useful for: Select one: A. determining the cognitive processes a student uses to solve complex problems. B. regularly monitoring a student's progress to obtain the information needed to make instructional decisions. C. comparing what a student can do alone and can do with prompts, physical support, or other types of assistance. D. determining if a student can apply his/her knowledge and skills to real-life activities and projects.

Answer 187

As its name implies, curriculum-based measurement (CBM) is used to evaluate a student's performance with regard to the current curriculum. a. Incorrect This describes protocol analysis. b. CORRECT CBM consists of brief standardized measures that provide information on a student's progress within a curriculum and are useful for assisting with instructional decision-making. c. Incorrect This describes dynamic assessment. d. Incorrect This describes authentic assessment. The correct answer is: regularly monitoring a student's progress to obtain the information needed to make instructional decisions.

Question 188

On Holland's Self-Directed Search, the frequency with which an examinee's code occurred in the standardization sample is referred to as: Select one: A. congruence. B. commonness. C. consistency. D. coherence.

Answer 188

A person's summary code on Holland's Self-Directed Search (SDS) can be interpreted in several ways. a. Incorrect Congruence refers to the degree of match between a person's expressed and measured interests. b. CORRECT The score report for the SDS provides information on congruence, consistency, coherence, differentiation, and commonness. Commonness indicates the degree to which an examinee's code occurred in the standardization sample (i.e., the percent of people in the sample who obtained the same code). c. Incorrect Consistency refers to the distance between the examinee's first two code letters on the RIASEC hexagon. When the first two code letters are adjacent in the hexagon, the individual's consistency is high. d. Incorrect Coherence is the degree to which an individual's interests belong to the same Holland category. The correct answer is: commonness.

Question 189

Overall, research investigating the effects of examiner race on the performance of African American children on IQ tests suggests that: Select one: A. the performance of African American children is significantly suppressed when the examiner is White. B. the performance of African American children is significantly improved when the examiner is African American. C. the performance of African American children is enhanced somewhat when the examiner is White and clearly unbiased. D. the performance of African American children is affected more by the examiner's testing experience and attitudes than by his or her race.

Answer 189

This is one of the controversies in psychology that has not been completely resolved. However, in general, matching in terms of race or ethnicity has not been found to be a critical factor in testing, therapy, or other situations. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT This is the best conclusion that can be drawn from the existing studies. When an examiner's race appears to have an impact on the examinee's performance, it is often the result of factors other than race. (Even Arthur Jensen found that, when a White examiner adopted a more informal style with African American children, the children's scores on IQ tests were higher.) The correct answer is: the performance of African American children is affected more by the examiner's testing experience and attitudes than by his or her race.

Question 190

A child with Autism Spectrum Disorder without language impairment would be expected to obtain the lowest score on which of the following WISC-V subtests? Select one: A. Block Design B. Matrix Reasoning C. Similarities D. Coding

Answer 190

This is a difficult question, but knowing that children with Autism Spectrum Disorder without language impairment tend to obtain the lowest scores on tests involving processing speed would have helped you identify the correct answer. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Children with Autism Spectrum Disorder without language impairment tend to obtain the lowest scores on the Coding and Symbol Search subtests of the WISC-V which are two of the three subtests that contribute to the Processing Speed Index (D. Wechsler, WISC-V: Technical and interpretive manual supplement, Bloomington, MN, PsychCorp, 2014). The correct answer is: Coding

Question 191

When taking the Stroop test, an examinee may have trouble correctly naming the color of ink that a word is printed in because: Select one: A. the word is projected to his/her right visual field only. B. the word is projected to his/her left visual field only. C. the word names a color that differs from the color of the ink. D. the word is a non-pronounceable "nonsense syllable."

Answer 191

When administering the Stroop Color-Word Association Test, the examinee names the color of the ink of printed words. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Development of the Stroop Test was based on the observation that people can read words faster than they can identify and name colors. When words that name colors are printed in a different color ink (e.g., when the word red is printed in blue), the prepotent response is to say red. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: the word names a color that differs from the color of the ink.

Question 192

According to Sternberg's (1998) triarchic theory, intelligence consists of which of the following three factors? Select one: A. general, broad, and specialized B. analytical, creative, and practical C. attention, processing, and planning D. general, fluid, and crystallized

Answer 192

As its name suggests, Sternberg's triarchic theory describes intelligence in terms of three facets or domains. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT Sternberg's theory distinguishes between the three facets of intelligence listed in this answer. According to Sternberg, analytical intelligence is the componential facet of intelligence and consists of metacomponents, performance components, and knowledge-acquisition components; creative intelligence is the experiential facet; and practical intelligence is the contextual facet. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: analytical, creative, and practical

Question 193

According to Kinder and Sears (1981), symbolic racism is rooted in: Select one: A. authoritarianism. B. realistic self-interest. C. the belief that members of minority groups violate traditional American values. D. limited social contact with members of minority groups or contact only under aversive conditions.

Answer 193

Kinder and Sears (1981) proposed that symbolic racism has largely replaced overt (old-fashioned) racism. a. Incorrect Authoritarianism has been linked to racism, but it's not a component of symbolic racism. b. Incorrect Kinder and Sears proposed that symbolic racism is not the result of realistic self-interest. c. CORRECT According to Kinder and Sears, symbolic racism is characterized by a combination of negative affect toward minorities and the belief that minorities violate traditional American values such as individualism, self-reliance, and the work ethic. d. Incorrect These investigators did not attribute symbolic racism to a lack of contact or contact under aversive conditions. The correct answer is: the belief that members of minority groups violate traditional American values.

Question 194

Professor Sharp argues against raising the legal drinking age from 18 to 21 on the ground that doing so will only encourage 18-, 19-, and 20-year olds to drink. Apparently, Sharp is familiar with which of the following theories? Select one: A. individuation B. psychological reactance C. inoculation D. expectancy-value

Answer 194

Professor Sharp is contending that people will do the opposite of what they are legally required to do. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT Sharp's argument is most consistent with the predictions of psychological reactance theory, which proposes that, when people feel their freedom is being threatened, they will do something to restore that freedom (e.g., engage in the legally-prohibited behavior). c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: psychological reactance

Question 195

Males and females are given several vignettes that each present a situation that describes sexually toned behaviors by an employer toward an employee. Based on your knowledge of the research, you predict that: Select one: A. males will be significantly more likely than females to rate the behavior of the employers as sexual harassment regardless of the severity the behaviors. B. females will be significantly more likely than males to rate the behavior of the employers as sexual harassment regardless of the severity of the behaviors. C. females will be significantly more likely than males to rate the behaviors of the employers as sexual harassment, but only for behaviors that are mild to moderate in severity. D. females will be significantly more likely than males to rate the behaviors of the employers as sexual harassment, but only for behaviors that represent severe harassment.

Answer 195

Perhaps not surprisingly, one of the most consistently replicated findings of the research on sexual harassment is that women are more likely than men to rate sexually toned and/or sexually ambiguous behaviors as constituting sexual harassment. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Significant gender differences in judgments of sexual harassment have been confirmed for mild to moderate cases of harassment. However, in severe cases, men and women are equally as likely to judge a sexually-toned behavior as sexual harassment. See, e.g., C. W. Williams et al., An attributional (causal dimensional) analysis of perceptions of sexual harassment, Journal of Applied Social Psychology, 25, 1169-1183, 1995. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: females will be significantly more likely than males to rate the behaviors of the employers as sexual harassment, but only for behaviors that are mild to moderate in severity.

Question 196

Cognitive dissonance theory and ________ share in common the assumption that an uncomfortable experience or sensation is the primary cause of attitude change. Select one: A. the sleeper effect B. attitude inoculation C. balance theory D. the elaboration likelihood model

Answer 196

According to Festinger's (1964) cognitive dissonance theory, unpleasant psychological tension occurs when a person has inconsistent (dissonant) cognitions, which motivates the person to change one of those cognitions. a. Incorrect In the context of social psychology, the sleeper effect refers to the tendency to remember a message but, over time, to forget the source of the message. One outcome of the sleeper effect is that people may eventually adopt an attitude or belief that was originally communicated to them by an low-credible source because they have forgotten the source. b. Incorrect McGuire (1969) found attitude inoculation (McGuire, 1969) to be a useful method for helping people resist persuasive messages. It involves providing the individual with arguments against his/her initial position along with counterarguments prior to hearing the persuasive message. c. CORRECT Like cognitive dissonance theory, balance theory (Heider, 1958) is based on the principle of cognitive consistency, which proposes that having inconsistent attitudes produces a state of discomfort that leads to attitude change. d. Incorrect The elaboration likelihood model is a model of attitude change and proposes that there are two routes of persuasion - the central and peripheral routes - which differ in terms of the degree to which a persuasive message is elaborated (processed) by the recipient. The correct answer is: balance theory

Question 197

A movie viewer is MOST likely to say he/she feels uncomfortable in a crowded movie theater when the movie is: Select one: A. a violent action film. B. a sexually arousing film. C. a boring documentary. D. an amusing comedy.

Answer 197

The subjective effects of crowding depend on several factors including the nature of the environment and task. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT S. Worchel and E. H. Brown (The role of plausibility in influencing environment attributions, Journal of Experimental Social Psychology, 20, 86-96, 1984) found that crowding is experienced as less uncomfortable or stressful in attention-grabbing, arousing situations than in unarousing or uninteresting situations. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: a boring documentary.

Question 198

Self-verification theory (Swann, Pelham, and Krull, 1989) predicts that a depressed person will prefer evaluations from others that: Select one: A. are consistently non-evaluative. B. are non-emotion-arousing. C. confirm his/her own negative self-evaluations. D. contradict his/her own negative self-evaluations.

Answer 198

Swann et al. (1989) conclude that people prefer feedback that is consistent with their own self-beliefs. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Research assessing the validity of self-verification theory has, among other things, confirmed that depressed people and people with low self-esteem prefer evaluations that are consistent with their own negative self-evaluations. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: confirm his/her own negative self-evaluations.

Question 199

``` Two weeks before the election for senior class president, the four candidates are given the opportunity to deliver a 10-minute speech during a school assembly. Sally Smart is familiar with research on the recency and primacy effects and, therefore, asks if she can speak: Select one: ``` A. first. B. second. C. third. D. fourth.

Answer 199

Research on the persuasiveness of messages has found that, in general, the first presenter is most influential. a. CORRECT The primacy effect is usually stronger than the recency effect, although the advantage of going first or last is affected by several factors. For example, there is more likely to be a primacy effect when the messages are presented back-to-back and there is a delay before a decision must be made. Additional information on recency and primacy effects is provided in the Social Psychology chapter of the written study materials. b. Incorrect See explanation above. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: first.

Question 200

Which of the following outcomes is not predicted by cognitive dissonance theory? Select one: A. A college student who is subjected to a difficult and painful initiation into a fraternity is likely to resent the other members. B. A gambler who loses all his money will say he gambles for the fun of it. C. A person who breaks his arm playing football will say that broken bones are not that painful. D. A person paid $2.50 an hour for stuffing envelopes will rate the task as more pleasant than a person paid $10.00 an hour for doing the same task.

Answer 200

Cognitive dissonance theory states that when individuals have two incompatible cognitions, they experience dissonance, which they attempt to relieve by either changing one of their cognitions or adding dissonance-reducing cognitions. a. CORRECT Cognitive dissonance theory predicts that an individual who performs a difficult task without sufficient justification attempts to relieve dissonance by fabricating a justification. Thus, cognitive dissonance theory would predict that, in order to justify performing the difficult initiation task, the student would say positive things about the fraternity and its members. b. Incorrect This gambler is faced with two inconsistent cognitions "I gambled" and "I lost money gambling." Dissonance theory would predict that he would reduce dissonance by adding cognitions that, for example, make losing money seem acceptable. c. Incorrect This person might reduce the dissonance resulting from the inconsistency between his actions and his consequences by downplaying the consequences. d. Incorrect The person paid $2.50 will be faced with insufficient justification for his actions and would, according to dissonance theory, attempt to generate a sufficient justification. The correct answer is: A college student who is subjected to a difficult and painful initiation into a fraternity is likely to resent the other members.

Question 201

Sherif's (1965) social judgment theory implies that, before trying to persuade someone to your point of view, you should consider his/her: Select one: A. categories of judgment. B. locus of control. C. category-based expectancies. D. level of self-monitoring.

Answer 201

Sherif's social judgment theory predicts that people have "CATEGORIES OF JUDGEMENT" by which they evaluate persuasive messages. a. CORRECT Sherif's theory distinguishes between three categories of judgment: Latitude of acceptance Latitude of non-commitment Latitude of rejection A person is most likely to be persuaded when a message is within his/her latitude of acceptance. b. Incorrect See explanation above. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: categories of judgment.

Question 202

Berscheid's (1983) emotion-in-relationship model proposes that strong positive emotions are more likely to be elicited in the initial stages of a relationship than in later stages because: Select one: A. in the early stages, the partners have limited information about each other's undesirable qualities. B. in the early stages, each partner is more likely to do something that is both positive and unexpected. C. in the early stages, the partners work harder to be sensitive to each other's needs. D. over time, people become "emotionally immune" to the behaviors of others.

Answer 202

Berscheid's emotion-in-relationship model proposes that emotion in a close relationship is elicited when a partner's behavior disrupts the status quo. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT According to Berscheid, it is more difficult to do something pleasant and unexpected in the later stages of a relationship. Therefore, it is more difficult to elicit positive emotions from one's partner in the later stages of a relationship than in the initial stages. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: in the early stages, each partner is more likely to do something that is both positive and unexpected.

Question 203

A distribution of scores has a mean of 110 and a standard deviation of 10. Adding 12 points to each score in the distribution will: Select one: A. increase the mean by 12 but have no effect on the standard deviation. B. increase the mean by 12 and the standard deviation by the square root of 12. C. increase the mean and the standard deviation by 12. D. increase the standard deviation by the square root of 12 but have no effect on the mean.

Answer 203

Adding or subtracting a constant to every score in a distribution changes the measures of central tendency but not the measures of variability. a. CORRECT Adding 12 points will increase the mean and other measures of central tendency by 12 points but will have no effect on the standard deviation or other measures of variability. b. Incorrect See explanation above. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: increase the mean by 12 but have no effect on the standard deviation.

Question 204

In multiple regression, an inverse correlation between a predictor and the criterion: Select one: A. indicates that a mistake has been made. B. suggests that the predictor should be eliminated from the analysis. C. is indicated by a low regression coefficient. D. is indicated by a negative regression coefficient.

Answer 204

An inverse correlation between two variables simply means that as values on one variable increase, the values on the other variable decrease. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT In a multiple regression equation, the direction of the correlation between a predictor and criterion is indicated by the sign of the regression coefficient. When there is an inverse (negative) correlation between the variables, the sign is negative. The correct answer is: is indicated by a negative regression coefficient.

Question 205

When an assumption for a one-way ANOVA is violated, the best course of action would be to use which of the following to analyze the data? Select one: A. Mann-Whitney B. Wilcoxon C. Kruskal-Wallis D. Scheffe

Answer 205

The one-way analysis of variance is used to compare three or more independent groups. (Although the one-way ANOVA can be used to compare two groups, the t-test is ordinarily used in this case.) a. Incorrect The Mann-Whitney U test is used to compare two independent groups. b. Incorrect The Wilcoxon matched-pairs test is used to compare two related groups. c. CORRECT The Kruskal-Wallis is the nonparametric alternative to the one-way ANOVA. It can be used to compare two or more independent groups and is useful when one or more of the assumptions for the one-way ANOVA have been violated. d. Incorrect The Scheffe is a post-hoc test that is used to compare means. It requires that the same assumptions be met as for the ANOVA. The correct answer is: Kruskal-Wallis

Question 206

Which of the following techniques would be most useful for investigating a person's cognitive processes while working on a complex task? Select one: A. production interview B. protocol analysis C. behavioral systems assessment D. event coding

Answer 206

To investigate how a person is thinking about a problem, you would want to have him/her "think aloud" while solving the problem. a. Incorrect This technique, which is also called behavioral coding, is used to identify problems with surveys and questionnaires in order to revise them. b. CORRECT Protocol analysis involves having the individual think aloud while solving a problem and then evaluating the protocol (transcript) to clarify the individual's problem-solving process. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: protocol analysis

Question 207

A psychologist is investigating the impact of a treatment for children with severe behavioral problems. He believes that, in this situation, it would be unethical to withdraw the treatment if it is effective just for the purpose of confirming its effects. Therefore, the psychologist would be best advised to use which of the following single-subject research designs? Select one: A. ABAC B. reversal C. multiple baseline D. Latin Square

Answer 207

In this situation, the psychologist wants a single-subject research design that does not require the treatment to be removed during the course of the study. a. Incorrect The ABAC design is a single subject design that includes a baseline (A) phase, application of a treatment (B), a second baseline phase during which the first treatment is withdrawn, and then application of a second treatment (C). b. Incorrect Reversal designs require withdrawing (reversing) the treatment during the course of the study. c. CORRECT One advantage of the multiple baseline design is that it does not require the treatment to be withdrawn once it has been applied to a baseline. d. Incorrect The Latin square design is not a single-subject design. The correct answer is: multiple baseline

Question 208

Dr. R. E. Medy compares the effectiveness of three different treatments for Generalized Anxiety Disorder by randomly assigning individuals who have received this diagnosis to one of the three treatments and then measuring their symptoms before treatment and one week, one month, and six months following treatment. The research design used by Dr. Medy is an example of which of the following? Select one: A. between groups B. within subjects C. mixed D. counterbalanced

Answer 208

The research study described in this question has two independent variables - type of treatment and time. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Treatment is a between-groups variable in this study - participants are assigned to one of the three treatments. Time is a within-subjects variable - all participants are evaluated on the dependent variable at four different times. When a study includes both between-groups and within-subjects variables, it is referred to as a mixed design. d. Incorrect A counterbalanced design is a type of within-subjects design. The correct answer is: mixed

Question 209

A researcher wants to compare the immediate and long-term effects of three different treatments for PTSD. Consequently, she randomly assigns individuals who were recently exposed to the same trauma to either the EMDR, stress inoculation, or in vivo exposure group and then assesses their symptoms one week, one month, and three months after the end of treatment. The researcher is using which of the following research designs? Select one: A. between groups B. within subjects C. counterbalanced D. mixed

Answer 209

To answer this question correctly, you have to recognize that this study includes two independent variables and that one variable is a between-groups variable (type of treatment) while the other is a within-subjects variable (time). a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT A design is referred to as "mixed" when it involves at least one between-groups variable and one within-subjects variable. The correct answer is: mixed

Question 210

A school psychologist wants to determine if there is a significant difference in reading readiness scores between male and female students in the school's preschool program. She obtains scores on a standardized reading readiness test for 17 girls and 13 boys. Which statistical test will be most appropriate for determining if there is a significant difference between the scores obtained by boys and girls? Select one: A. two-way ANOVA B. Student's t-test C. Kolmogorov test D. chi-square test for contingency tables

Answer 210

The researcher in this study will be comparing the scores (most likely the mean scores) achieved by two independent groups of subjects. a. Incorrect The two-way ANOVA is used when a study involves two independent variables. In this study, there is one independent variable (gender). b. CORRECT A t-test (a.k.a. Student's t-test) is used to compare the mean scores obtained by two groups. c. Incorrect The Kolmogorov test is used with a single sample and ordinal data. d. Incorrect The chi-square test is used to analyze frequency (nominal) data. The correct answer is: Student's t-test

Question 211

If an investigator changes the level of significance for his research study from .01 to .001, he is: Select one: A. less likely to incorrectly retain a false null hypothesis. B. less likely to incorrectly reject a true null hypothesis. C. more likely to incorrectly retain a true null hypothesis. D. more likely to incorrectly reject a true null hypothesis.

Answer 211

Decreasing the level of significance (alpha) from .01 to .001 makes it more difficult to reject the null hypothesis because it decreases the "region of rejection" and increases the "region of retention". a. Incorrect When the level of significance is decreased (the rejection region is made smaller), it is more likely that the null hypothesis will be retained regardless of whether it is true or false. b. CORRECT By decreasing the level of significance from .01 to .001, it becomes harder to reject the null hypothesis. Thus, it is less likely that a true null hypothesis will be rejected (i.e., that a Type I error will be made). c. Incorrect Retaining a true null hypothesis cannot be an incorrect decision; therefore, this answer cannot be correct. d. Incorrect Decreasing the level of significance makes it more difficult to reject the null hypothesis. The correct answer is: less likely to incorrectly reject a true null hypothesis.

Question 212

Use of which of the following designs involves administering each level of the independent variable to participants so that it appears the same number of times in each position (first, second, etc.)? Select one: A. factorial B. time-series C. Latin square D. Solomon

Answer 212

Answer C is correct: For the exam, you want to be familiar with the designs listed in the answers to this question. These are described in the Statistics and Research Design chapter of the written study materials. The Latin square design is a type of counterbalanced design that assures that each treatment (level of the IV) appears an equal number of times in each ordinal position. The correct answer is: Latin square

Question 213

According to the Central Limit Theorem, a sampling distribution increasingly approaches a normal shape regardless of the shape of the population distribution: Select one: A. as the number of samples increases. B. as the size of the sample increases. C. as the critical value increases. D. as the effect size increases.

Answer 213

The Central Limit Theorem predicts the characteristics of a sampling distribution. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT Even when the population distribution deviates from normal, the sampling distribution will approach a normal curve as long as the sample size is sufficiently large. Note that the Central Limit Theorem assumes an infinite number of samples and that it is the sample size that varies. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: as the size of the sample increases.

Question 214

If an alpha error is equivalent to a false positive, then a beta error is equivalent to a: Select one: A. true positive. B. true negative. C. false positive. D. false negative.

Answer 214

In statistics, alpha is the probability of making a Type I error, which refers to concluding that the null hypothesis is false when it is actually true; while beta is the probability of making a Type II error, which refers to concluding that the null hypothesis is true when it is actually false. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT In decision theory, a false positive occurs when a predictor indicates an effect (e.g., a diagnosis) when, in fact, there is none - e.g., the predictor tells you that you have a disease when you don't have it. Therefore, a false positive is similar to an alpha (Type I) error in inferential statistics. In contrast, a false negative occurs when a predictor indicates no effect (e.g., an absence of a diagnosis) when, in fact, there is an effect - e.g., the predictor says you do not have a disease when you do have it. Therefore, a false negative is similar to a beta (Type II) error in inferential statistics. [Note that the experts differ with regard to the analogy between alpha and beta errors and false positives and false negatives. However, since this question explicitly compares an alpha error to a false positive, it is accurate to compare a beta error to a false negative.] The correct answer is: false negative.

Question 215

If you are most concerned about the reliability of an achievement test you will be administering to high school freshmen, which of the following types of tests would you be least likely to use? Select one: A. fill-in-the-blank B. four-alternative multiple-choice C. true-false D. essay

Answer 215

A test's reliability is affected by a number of factors including the likelihood that test items can be answered correctly by chance alone (i.e., by guessing). The greater the likelihood that examinees can choose the correct answer by guessing, the lower the reliability. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Of the types of test items listed, true/false items are most likely to be answered correctly by chance alone. Consequently, this kind of test will tend to have the lowest reliability coefficient. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: true-false

Question 216

In principal components analysis, each eigenvalue indicates: Select one: A. the total variance explained by an identified component. B. the total variance explained by all of the identified components. C. the variance shared by each test and an identified component. D. the total variance shared by all of the tests and all of the identified components.

Answer 216

Principal components analysis is similar to factor analysis and involves identifying the components (factors) that underlie or explain the variability observed in a set of tests or other variables. a. CORRECT An eigenvalue for each principal component is calculated by squaring the correlation between each test and the component and then summing the results. The resulting number indicates the total amount of variability in the tests that is explained by the principal component. b. Incorrect This answer does not describe an eigenvalue. c. Incorrect This answer does not describe an eigenvalue. d. Incorrect This answer does not describe an eigenvalue. The correct answer is: the total variance explained by an identified component.

Question 217

A test developer is asked to develop a test to evaluate the effects of a training program on the sales success of inexperienced sales employees. When establishing the validity of the test, the test developer will probably be MOST interested in which of the following types of test validity? Select one: A. discriminant B. content C. criterion-related D. construct

Answer 217

In this situation, the developer will be most interested in determining the magnitude of the relationship between the predictor (training) and a criterion (sales performance). a. Incorrect Discriminant (divergent) validity is a type of construct validity. Construct validity refers to the degree to which a test measures a theoretical construct. The establishment of discriminant validity may include correlating scores on the test with scores on another test that does not purport to measure the same or a related construct. If the correlations are low, evidence that the test measures the construct it purports to measure (and not the construct the other test purports to measure) is provided. (This is referred to as discriminant validity.) b. Incorrect Content validity refers to the degree to which a test samples the content domain it purports to sample. For example, an algebra test with many questions about calculus has low content validity. Content validity, a concern with most academic tests, as well as with the Psychology Licensing Exam, is primarily subjectively determined by experts in the given content domain. c. CORRECT Criterion-related validity refers to the relationship between test scores and a criterion measure. In this case, the test developer will be interested in the degree to which training outcome correlates with the criterion of job performance. Thus, the test developer will be interested in assessing the criterion-related validity of the test. d. Incorrect Construct validity refers to the degree to which a test measures a theoretical construct. In this case, sales success is not a theoretical construct, since it can be defined in terms of concrete dollar amounts. The correct answer is: criterion-related

Question 218

When the Kuder-Richardson Formula 20 produces a coefficient of .98, this means that: Select one: A. the items in the test are homogeneous. B. the trait being measured by the test is stable over time. C. the measuring instruments are equivalent. D. the test measures what it was designed to measure.

Answer 218

KR-20 is a method for assessing internal consistency reliability when test items are scored dichotomously. a. CORRECT As a measure of internal consistency, a high KR-20 coefficient indicates a homogeneous test. b. Incorrect See explanation above. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: the items in the test are homogeneous.

Question 219

A psychologist administers a 100-item true/false test to 50 examinees. The mean of the score distribution is 60 and its standard deviation is 8. If the psychologist decides to correct each examinee's score using a correction for guessing formula that involves subtracting points from examinees' scores, she can expect that: Select one: A. the mean and standard deviation of the new distribution will both be lower. B. the mean and standard deviation of the new distribution will both be higher. C. the mean of the new distribution will be lower and its standard deviation will be higher. D. the mean of the new distribution will be higher and its standard deviation will be lower.

Answer 219

The correction for guessing formula is: Corrected Score = (R) - (W/n-1), where R = number of right answers, W = number of wrong answers, and n = the number of choices per answer. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Unless you do a lot of testing, you're probably not familiar with the correction for guessing formula. If you are, you may have figured out the answer to this question by applying the formula to a concrete example. To illustrate, assume that a 10-item true/false test is administered to three examinees who achieve scores of 10, 6, and 2. The mean of this distribution is 6 and its standard deviation is 4. Using the above formula, the corrected distribution of scores is 10, 2, and -6. The mean of this corrected distribution is 2 and its standard deviation is 8. (Even without calculating the standard deviation for the two distributions, it is clear by looking at them that there is greater variability in scores in the second distribution.) d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: the mean of the new distribution will be lower and its standard deviation will be higher.

Question 220

Which of the following is used as an index of inter-rater reliability? Select one: A. percent agreement B. coefficient alpha C. coefficient of equivalence D. Spearman-Brown formula

Answer 220

Inter-rater reliability is of concern for tests that are subjectively scored. a. CORRECT Inter-reliability can be evaluated by correlating the scores assigned by two or more raters (e.g., the kappa statistic) or by calculating percent agreement. b. Incorrect Coefficient alpha is used to measure internal consistency reliability. c. Incorrect Coefficient of equivalence is another name for the alternative forms reliability coefficient. d. Incorrect The Spearman-Brown formula is used to estimate the effects of shortening or lengthening a test on its reliability coefficient. The correct answer is: percent agreement

Question 221

A researcher obtains a correlation coefficient of .85 when he correlates the raw scores participants received on her study's predictor and criterion. If the researcher converts each participant's raw scores to non-normalized T scores and calculates a correlation coefficient, this coefficient will be: Select one: A. larger than .85. B. smaller than .85. C. .85. D. -0.85

Answer 221

Converting raw scores to non-normalized T scores is a linear transformation, and a linear transformation of scores does not have an effect on the correlation coefficient. a. Incorrect See explanation for answer c. b. Incorrect See explanation for answer c. c. CORRECT A linear transformation of raw scores affects a distribution's mean and standard deviation but does not change is shape. (Note that raw scores can also be converted to normalized T scores when scores obtained by a sample are not normally distributed but there is reason to believe that the distribution is normal in the population. In this case, the correlation coefficient would be affected by the transformation.) d. Incorrect See explanation for answer c. The correct answer is: .85.

Question 222

A test developer uses a multitrait-multimethod matrix to organize the data she has collected in a validation study of her newly developed self-report measure of self-esteem. The matrix indicates that the correlation between her self-report measure of self-esteem and an established (previously validated) teacher rating of self-esteem is .91. This correlation coefficient is referred to as a: Select one: A. monotrait-heteromethod coefficient. B. monotrait-monomethod coefficient. C. heterotrait-heteromethod coefficient. D. heterotrait-monomethod coefficient.

Answer 222

Knowing that, in the context of the multitrait-multimethod matrix, "hetero" means different and "mono" means same would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. a. CORRECT The monotrait-heteromethod coefficient indicates the correlation between two different measures of the same trait - e.g., two different measures of self-esteem. b. Incorrect The monotrait-monomethod coefficient is a reliability coefficient and indicates the correlation of the test with itself ("same trait-same method"). c. Incorrect The heterotrait-heteromethod coefficient indicates the correlation between two different methods that measure different traits (e.g., a self-report measure of self-esteem and a teacher rating of locus of control). d. Incorrect The heterotrait-monomethod coefficient indicates the correlation between two similar methods that measure different traits (e.g., a self-report measure of self-esteem and a self-report measure of locus of control). The correct answer is: monotrait-heteromethod coefficient.

Question 223

In the context of test construction, __________ refers to the extent to which test items contribute to achieving the stated goals or purpose of testing. Select one: A. relevance B. reliability C. significance D. verification

Answer 223

This is a fairly easy question since "relevance" is what it sounds like. a. CORRECT Test items are relevant when they are germane to the purpose of testing. For example, some educators use a "test relevance index" to determine the extent to which test items on achievement tests are relevant to the goals of the curriculum. b. Incorrect Reliability refers to the consistency of scores and is used as an index of the degree to which test scores are unaffected by random (measurement) error. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: relevance

Question 224

The slope of an item characteristic curve provides information on which of the following? Select one: A. reliability B. difficulty level C. discrimination D. probability of guessing correctly

Answer 224

An item characteristic curve usually provides three pieces of information - item difficulty, item discrimination, and the probability of getting the item correct by guessing alone. a. Incorrect Reliability is not indicated by an item characteristic curve. b. Incorrect In an item characteristic curve, the horizontal axis indicates examinees' ability level and the vertical axis indicates the probability of getting the item correct. Item difficulty is determined by identifying the ability level that is required for there to be a 50% chance of getting the item correct. c. CORRECT The slope of the curve indicates the item's ability to discriminate between low and high achievers. The "flatter" the slope, the less the item's discrimination. d. Incorrect This is indicated by the point at which the item characteristic curve crosses the vertical axis. This point indicates the chance that examinees with very low ability will get the item correct - i.e., will get the item correct by guessing. The correct answer is: discrimination