Extra Section Quiz Question Flashcards
According to the catecholamine hypothesis:
Select one:
a.
mania is due to a deficiency in norepinephrine.
b.
depression is due to a deficiency in norepinephrine.
c.
mania is due to excessive acetylcholine.
d.
depression is due to excessive acetylcholine.
Answer B is correct: According to the catecholamine hypothesis, at least some types of depression are due to a lower-than-normal level of norepinephrine.
Answer A is incorrect: The catecholamine hypothesis predicts that mania is due to excessive norepinephrine.
The correct answer is: depression is due to a deficiency in norepinephrine.
A diagnosis of Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder should not be assigned for the first time before the individual is _____ years of age or older than _____ years of age.
Select one:
a.
three; fifteen
b.
five; sixteen
c.
six; eighteen
d.
ten; eighteen
Answer C is correct: As described in the DSM-5, the diagnosis of Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder must not be assigned for the first time when the individual is less than six years of age or more than 18 years of age, and the onset of symptoms must be prior to age 10.
The correct answer is: six; eighteen
A DSM-5 diagnosis of Erectile Disorder requires the presence of characteristic symptoms for a minimum duration of approximately _____ months.
Select one:
a.
two
b.
six
c.
ten
d.
twelve
Answer B is correct: The DSM-5 requires the presence of characteristic symptoms for a minimum duration of about six months for all of the Sexual Dysfunctions except Substance or Medication-Induced Sexual Dysfunction for which no minimum duration is specified.
The correct answer is: six
A DSM-5 diagnosis of Somatic Symptom Disorder requires the presence of one or more somatic symptoms that are distressing or cause significant disruption in daily life plus:
Select one:
a.
evidence that symptoms are not associated with a known medical condition.
b.
performance of excessive health-related behaviors or maladaptive avoidance of medical care.
c.
evidence that symptoms are not being feigned or voluntarily produced.
d.
excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors related to the symptoms.
Answer D is correct: Criterion B for the DSM-5 diagnosis of Somatic Symptom Disorder requires the presence of “excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors related to the somatic symptoms or associated health concerns” (APA, 2013, p. 311).
Answer A is incorrect: For the diagnosis of Somatic Symptom Disorder, symptoms may or may not be associated with a medical condition.
Answer B is inccorect: Performance of excessive health-related behaviors or maladaptive avoidance of medical care is a diagnostic criterion for Illness Anxiety Disorder.
Answer C is incorrect: Evidence that symptoms are not being intentionally produced or feigned is not required for a DSM-5 diagnosis of Somatic Symptom Disorder.
The correct answer is: excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors related to the symptoms.
A DSM-5 diagnosis of Specific Learning Disorder requires that the individual’s academic skills be substantially below those expected for his or her:
Select one:
a.
chronological age.
b.
mental age.
c.
measured intelligence.
d.
academic aptitude.
Feedback
Answer A is correct: A DSM-5 diagnosis of Specific Learning Disorder requires the individual’s academic skills to be “substantially and quantifiably below those expected for the individual’s chronological age” (APA, 2013, p. 67).
The correct answer is: chronological age.
A DSM diagnosis of Antisocial Personality Disorder requires a history of symptoms of Conduct Disorder prior to ___ years of age.
Select one:
a.
7
b.
10
c.
13
d.
15
Answer D is correct: As defined in the DSM, a diagnosis of Antisocial Personality Disorder requires that the person be at least 18 years of age, that there is evidence of Conduct Disorder prior to age 15, and that the person has exhibited at least three characteristic symptoms involving the violation of the rights of others since the age of 15.
The correct answer is: 15
A DSM diagnosis of Bipolar II disorder requires which of the following?
Select one:
a.
one or more manic episodes
b.
one or more mixed episodes
c.
manic and major depressive episodes
d.
hypomanic and major depressive episodes
Answer D is correct: A diagnosis of Bipolar II disorder requires at least one major depressive episode and at least one hypomanic episode.
The correct answer is: hypomanic and major depressive episodes
As defined by the DSM, a diagnosis of Attention-Deficit or Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) requires which of the following?
Select one:
a.
an onset of symptoms prior to 4 years of age
b.
a duration of symptoms of at least 6 months
c.
markedly impaired academic performance
d.
negativistic, hostile, and defiant behavior
Answer B is correct: Of the diagnostic criteria listed in the answers, a duration of symptoms of at least 6 months is the only one required by the DSM-5 for a diagnosis of ADHD.
The correct answer is: a duration of symptoms of at least 6 months
As described in the DSM-5, a manic episode involves a period of abnormally and persistently elevated, expansive, or irritable mood plus:
Select one:
a.
inflated self-esteem or grandiosity.
b.
persistently increased activity or energy.
c.
involvement in activities that have a high potential for negative consequences.
d.
anxious distress.
Answer B is correct: Criterion A for both manic and hypomanic episodes in the DSM-5 includes “an emphasis on changes in activity and energy as well as mood” (2013, p. 4). Therefore, this is the best answer of those given.
Answers A and C are incorrect: Inflated self-esteem and grandiosity and persistent involvement in activities that have a high potential for painful consequences are possible symptoms of a manic episode but are not required.
Answer D is incorrect: Anxious distress is a possible accompanying symptom of Bipolar I Disorder and “with anxious distress” is included in the DSM-5 as a specifier for this disorder.
The correct answer is: persistently increased activity or energy.
Children with Tourette’s Disorder frequently exhibit significant problems in learning. This is most likely attributable to:
Select one:
a.
language disabilities.
b.
attention deficits and hyperactivity.
c.
lower-than-average IQ.
d.
peer and other social problems.
Answer B is correct: Hyperactivity, distractibility, and impulsivity are fairly common in individuals with Tourette’s Disorder and have been identified as a cause of school problems.
Answer A: Language disabilities are not associated with Tourette’s Disorder.
Answer C: A lower-than-average IQ is not characteristic of Tourette’s Disorder.
Answer D: Although impairments in social functioning are common, they have not been identified as a cause of academic failures.
The correct answer is: attention deficits and hyperactivity.
Dalal D., age 21, displays several active psychotic symptoms including persecutory delusions, auditory hallucinations, incoherence, and loosening of associations. Assuming that her symptoms started suddenly three months ago and that she has no previous history of similar symptoms, your tentative diagnosis would be which of the following?
Select one:
a.
Schizophrenia
b.
Brief Psychotic Disorder
c.
Schizoaffective Disorder
d.
Schizophreniform Disorder
Answer D is Correct: The disorders listed in the answers to this question share several characteristics but also differ in terms of duration and/or certain key symptoms. Dalal’s symptoms and their duration are most suggestive of Schizophreniform Disorder.
Answer A is incorrect: Although Dalal’s symptoms suggest Schizophrenia, they do not meet the DSM requirement of a duration of least 6 months for a diagnosis of this disorder.
Answer B is incorrect: The duration of Brief Psychotic Disorder is from one day to one month.
Answer C is incorrect: For a diagnosis of Schizoaffective Disorder, mood symptoms must co-occur with psychotic symptoms except during a period of at least two weeks in which delusions or hallucinations are present without prominent mood symptoms.
The correct answer is: Schizophreniform Disorder
Drugs that interfere with the breakdown of __________ are used to treat memory loss and other cognitive problems in individuals with mild to moderate Alzheimer’s disease.
Select one:
a.
norepinephrine
b.
cortisol
c.
acetylcholine
d.
dopamine
Answer C is correct: Cholinesterase inhibitors (e.g., donepezil, galantamine, tacrine) are used to temporarily improve or slow the progression of memory loss and other cognitive impairments during the early stages of Alzheimer’s disease. These drugs prevent the breakdown of acetylcholine, which is important for learning, memory, and other cognitive functions.
The correct answer is: acetylcholine
Ethel E., age 36, has just been offered a promotion at work. Although she wants the increase in salary and prestige of the new position, she is planning to turn down the job because it will require extensive speaking in front of large groups of employees. Ethel has avoided situations that require her to speak to groups for as long as she can remember because public speaking is a very embarrassing experience for her. Whenever she has to speak in front of others, she is extremely anxious, her heart races and her palms become sweaty, and she becomes preoccupied with the concern that she will forget what she has planned to say. Ethel’s symptoms are most suggestive of which of the following disorders?
Select one:
a.
Panic Disorder
b.
Social Anxiety Disorder
c.
Avoidant Personality Disorder
d.
Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder
Answer B is correct: Of the disorders listed, Ethel’s symptoms come closest to those required for a DSM diagnosis of Social Anxiety Disorder (Social Phobia). She has an intense fear of a specific social situation (public speaking) because it exposes her to scrutiny by others. Consequently, she avoids the situation.
Answer A is incorrect: The diagnosis of Panic Disorder requires recurrent unexpected panic attacks. Although Ethel’s symptoms are consistent with panic attacks, they are linked to a specific situation and are not unexpected.
Answers C and D are incorrect: Ethel’s symptoms are not characteristic of Avoidant Personality Disorder or Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder.
The correct answer is: Social Anxiety Disorder
Following cessation of alcohol use that has been prolonged and heavy, a 45-year old woman exhibits a number of symptoms including autonomic hyperactivity, hand tremor, and nausea. A diagnosis of Alcohol Withdrawal Delirium would be a more appropriate diagnosis than Alcohol Withdrawal if the woman also exhibits:
Select one:
a.
psychomotor agitation.
b.
tonic-clonic seizures.
c.
impaired attention and awareness.
d.
tardive dyskinesia.
Feedback
Answer C is correct: The key to identifying the correct answer to this question is to know that disturbances in attention and awareness are essential features of Delirium.
Answer A is incorrect: Psychomotor agitation is characteristic of Alcohol Withdrawal.
Answer B is incorrect: In extreme cases, Alcohol Withdrawal can involve tonic-clonic seizures.
Answer D is incorrect: Tardive dyskinesia is not a symptom of Delirium.
The correct answer is: impaired attention and awareness.
For children and adolescents, a diagnosis of Cyclothymic Disorder requires the presence of symptoms for at least:
Select one:
a.
six months.
b.
twelve months.
c.
twenty-four months.
d.
thirty-six months.
Answer B is correct: Cyclothymic Disorder is characterized by a disturbance of mood involving hypomanic episodes and periods of depressed mood for an extended period of time. A DSM diagnosis of Cyclothymic Disorder requires the presence of symptoms for at least two years in adults and one year in children and adolescents.
The correct answer is: twelve months.
In prepubertal children, boys and girls are about equally affected by Major Depressive Disorder. In adolescents and adults:
Select one:
a.
the rates for males and females remain about equal.
b.
the rate for females is about 1.5 to 3 times the rate for males.
c.
the rate for females is about 4 to 5 times the rate for males.
d.
the rate for males is 2 to 3 times the rate for females.
Answer B is correct: According to the DSM-5, beginning in early adolescence, the rate of Major Depressive Disorder for females is 1.5 to 3 times the rate for males.
The correct answer is: the rate for females is about 1.5 to 3 times the rate for males.
Interoceptive conditioning is one of the components of the cognitive-behavioral treatment of Panic Disorder and may include which of the following strategies?
Select one:
a.
yelling ‚”stop” whenever an undesirable thought occurs
b.
maintaining a “panic diary”
c.
focusing on a pleasant experience or fantasy
d.
breathing through a thin straw
Answer D is correct: Interoceptive conditioning has been identified as an effective component of cognitive-behavioral therapy for Panic Disorder and involves having the individual engage in activities that produce physical sensations associated with a panic attack such as breathing through a thin straw, spinning in a swivel chair, and running in place.
The correct answer is: breathing through a thin straw
In the DSM-5, sleep terror is included:
Select one:
a.
with the Sleep-Wake Disorders as a separate diagnosis.
b.
as a type of Rapid Eye Movement Sleep Behavior Disorder.
c.
as a type of Non-Rapid Eye Movement Sleep Arousal Disorder.
d.
as a specifier for Nightmare Disorder.
Answer C is correct: In the DSM-5, sleep terror is a type of Non-Rapid Eye Movement Sleep Arousal Disorder. (The other type is sleepwalking.)
The correct answer is: as a type of Non-Rapid Eye Movement Sleep Arousal Disorder.
Marlatt and Gordon (1985) describe which of the following as the result of an “overlearned habit pattern”?
Select one:
a.
parasuicidal behavior
b.
substance addiction
c.
hypochondriasis
d.
paraphilias
Answer B is correct: Marlatt and Gordon (1985) describe addictions as the result of problematic learned habits or behaviors that have been acquired because they produce immediate gratification (reinforcement).
The correct answer is: substance addiction
Research has linked Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder to overactivity in which of the following?
Select one:
a.
caudate nucleus
b.
hippocampus
c.
suprachiasmatic nucleus
d.
medulla oblongata
Answer A is correct: Research using brain imaging techniques has found that the caudate nucleus (which is involved in the initiation and control of movement) tends to be overactive in individuals with OCD. The studies have also found that the reduction of obsessions and compulsions following treatment with cognitive-behavioral therapy or an SSRI is accompanied by a decrease in activity in the caudate nucleus.
The correct answer is: caudate nucleus
Rosita R., age 32, maintains systematized paranoid delusions despite a lack of evidence for her beliefs. However, she shows almost no impairment in daily functioning other than some problems that are directly related to her delusions. The symptoms began six months ago shortly after she was fired from her job. The most likely DSM-5 diagnosis for Rosita is:
Select one:
a.
Paranoid Schizophrenia.
b.
Acute Stress Disorder.
c.
Conversion Disorder.
d.
Delusional Disorder.
Answer D is correct: Rosita’s delusions are consistent with Delusional Disorder because they are continuing despite a lack of evidence and because the effects of the delusions on her functioning are circumscribed (affect only those aspects of functioning that are directly related to the delusion).
Answer A is incorrect: Paranoid Schizophrenia is not a DSM-5 diagnosis.
Answer B is incorrect: A diagnosis of Acute Stress Disorder requires exposure to actual or threatened death, severe injury, or sexual violation in at least one of four ways and the presence of at least nine symptoms from any of five categories (i.e., intrusion, negative mood, dissociative symptoms, avoidance symptoms, arousal symptoms).
Answer C is incorrect: A diagnosis of Conversion Disorder requires a disturbance in voluntary motor or sensory functioning that suggests a serious neurological or other medical condition (e.g., paralysis, seizures, blindness, loss of pain sensation) with evidence of an incompatibility between the symptom and recognized neurological and medical conditions.
The correct answer is: Delusional Disorder.
Sensate focus is based on the assumption that sexual dysfunction is often due to:
Select one:
a.
mistaken beliefs about sexuality.
b.
decreased libido.
c.
intrapsychic conflicts related to sexuality.
d.
performance anxiety.
Answer D is correct: Sensate focus was developed by Masters and Johnson (1970) and consists of a series of exercises designed to help a couple overcome anxiety related to intimacy and sexual intercourse by focusing on pleasurable sensations. It has been found useful for treating premature ejaculation and other sexual dysfunctions that are due to performance anxiety.
Answer A is incorrect: Masters and Johnson recognized the impact of misinformation and mistaken beliefs on sexual functioning, but these are not the targets of sensate focus.
Answer B is incorrect: Decreased libido could, of course, be caused by performance anxiety; but sensate focus is not based on the assumption that sexual dysfunction is often due to decreased libido.
Answer C is incorrect: Masters and Johnson did not view sexual dysfunction as a result of intrapsychic conflicts.
The correct answer is: performance anxiety.
The assumption underlying dialectical behavior therapy (Linehan, 1993) as a treatment for Borderline Personality Disorder is that this disorder is caused by:
Select one:
a.
pervasive emotion dysregulation.
b.
dysfunctional object relations.
c.
coercive family interactions.
d.
a lack of response-contingent reinforcement.
Answer A is correct: Dialectical behavior therapy (DBT) was originally developed by Linehan (1993) as a treatment for Borderline Personality Disorder but has since been applied to several other disorders including eating disorders, ADHD in adults, and depression in older adults. According to Linehan, Borderline Personality Disorder is the result of a combination of emotion dysregulation, emotional vulnerability, and an invalidating environment.
Answer B is incorrect: DBT relies primarily on cognitive-behavioral principles and does not consider Borderline Personality Disorder to be the result of dysfunctional object relations.
Answer C is incorrect: Coercive family interactions have been linked to aggressive behavior in children by Patterson (1992).
Answer D is incorrect: Some behavioral models of depression describe it as the result of a lack of response-contingent reinforcement.
The correct answer is: pervasive emotion dysregulation.
The differential diagnosis of Major Depressive Disorder (pseudodementia) and mild Neurocognitive Disorder in older adults can be difficult because of the overlap in cognitive symptoms. However, the presence of which of the following suggests that Major Depressive Disorder is the appropriate diagnosis?
Select one:
a.
The onset of the patient’s cognitive symptoms was insidious.
b.
The severity of the patient’s cognitive symptoms increases in the evening.
c.
The patient seems unaware of his or her cognitive deficits.
d.
The patient is uncooperative during cognitive testing.
Answer D is correct: A lack of cooperation during testing is more characteristic of patients with depression than of those with a Neurocognitive Disorder who tend to be cooperative but inaccurate in their responses.
Answer A is incorrect: In Major Depressive Disorder, symptom onset is usually sudden; but, in mild Neurocognitive Disorder, it is typically insidious (gradual and subtle).
Answer B is incorrect: Increased severity of symptoms in the evening is characteristic of some forms of Neurocognitive Disorder but is uncommon in Major Depressive Disorder.
Answer C is incorrect: A patient with Major Depressive Disorder is likely to complain about and exaggerate his/her cognitive problems, while a patient with a Neurocognitive Disorder often denies problems in the early stage of the disorder and is unaware of them in the later stages.
The correct answer is: The patient is uncooperative during cognitive testing.
The most effective treatment for Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder is:
Select one:
a.
exposure therapy with response prevention.
b.
stress management with relaxation training.
c.
covert sensitization.
d.
stress inoculation training.
Feedback
Answer A is correct: Exposing the individual to anxiety-arousing stimuli while prohibiting him or her from engaging in usual anxiety-reducing responses (rituals) is considered to be treatment-of-choice for OCD.
The correct answer is: exposure therapy with response prevention.
The prognosis for a child with autism is best if the child:
Select one:
a.
does not have delays in motor development.
b.
displays some ability to communicate verbally by age five or six.
c.
has one or more “savant” abilities.
d.
does not have a family history of a mental disorder.
Answer B is correct: Most individuals with autism continue to have significant impairments throughout their lives. However, a better prognosis has been linked to the ability to communicate verbally by age five or six, an IQ of 70 or above, and a later onset of symptoms.
The correct answer is: displays some ability to communicate verbally by age five or six.
The prognosis for Schizophrenia has been linked to several factors. Which of the following is NOT associated with a better prognosis?
Select one:
a.
an acute and late onset of the disorder
b.
the presence of a precipitating event
c.
a family history of a mood disorder
d.
male gender
Answer D is correct: The course of Schizophrenia varies from individual to individual, but the disorder is usually chronic and complete remission is rare. However, research has identified several factors that are associated with a better prognosis including female gender, an acute and late onset of symptoms, the presence of a precipitating event, and a family history of a mood disorder.
The correct answer is: male gender
The revised learned helplessness model proposed by Abramson, Metalsky, and Alloy (1989) identifies ___________ as the key contributor to depression.
Select one:
a.
a high rate of self-punishment
b.
emotional oversensitivity
c.
the ‚ “depressive cognitive triad”
d.
hopelessness
Answer D is correct: According to Abramson, Metalsky, and Alloy’s (1989) version of the learned helplessness model, a sense of hopelessness is a proximal cause of some types of depression. From this perspective, the attributions a person makes about negative events in his/her life contribute to depression only to the degree that they foster a sense of hopelessness.
Answer A is incorrect: A high rate of self-punishment has been identified by Rehm (1987) as a contributor to depression.
Answer B is incorrect: Emotional oversensitivity is not a component of the learned helplessness model of depression.
Answer C is incorrect: Beck’s (1976) cognitive theory views depression as involving a “depressive cognitive triad” that consists of negative, illogical self-statements about oneself, the world, and the future.
The correct answer is: hopelessness
The symptoms of Oppositional Defiant Disorder are categorized in three groups in the DSM-5. These groups are:
Select one:
a.
destruction of property, deceitfulness or theft, and serious violations of rules.
b.
negativistic, defiant, and hostile behavior.
c.
deceitfulness/dishonesty, irritability/aggressiveness, and failure to conform to social norms.
d.
angry/irritable mood, argumentative/defiant behavior, and vindictiveness.
Angry/irritable mood, argumentative/defiant behavior, and vindictiveness are the three categories of symptoms included in the DSM-5 for Oppositional Defiant Disorder.
Answer A is incorrect: These are three of the four categories of symptoms included in the DSM-5 for Conduct Disorder (the fourth is aggression to people and animals).
The correct answer is: angry/irritable mood, argumentative/defiant behavior, and vindictiveness.
In Berry’s bidirectional acculturation model (1993), ____________ is characterized by low involvement in one’s own minority culture and in the majority culture.
Select one:
A.
moratorium
B.
alienation
C.
separation
D.
marginalization
The correct answer is D.
Berry (1993) distinguishes between two independent dimensions in his discussion of acculturation: involvement in one’s minority culture and involvement in the majority culture. Marginalization occurs when a member of a minority group is uninvolved in both cultures.
Answer A: Moratorium is not one of Berry’s four acculturation status categories.
Answer B: Alienation is not one of Berry’s four acculturation status categories.
Answer C: Berry asserts that separation involves withdrawal from the dominant culture and acceptance of one’s own culture.
The correct answer is: marginalization
Freud described countertransference as the analyst’s transference to the patient, which may interfere with the analyst’s functioning in therapy. More recently, psychoanalysts have begun to view countertransference as:
Select one:
A.
a detriment to the normal progression of therapy.
B.
a potential source of information about the client.
C.
an analyst’s distortion of the client’s behavior.
D.
an opportunity for the analyst to respond to the client in an authentic way.
The correct answer is B.
Psychoanalysts have broadened their view of countertransference over the past few decades. Most analysts now believe that countertransference reactions originate as much (or more) from the patient as from the analyst. Consequently, countertransference is now viewed as a potentially beneficial way to gain insight into the patient’s inner world (Gabbard, 1995; Langs, 1982).
Answer A: Modern analysts believe that countertransference can positively aid the progression of therapy rather than serving as a detriment to treatment.
Answer C: Freud viewed countertransference as the therapist’s distorted response to the client. However, modern analysts consider countertransference to be a potential source of information about the client that can be an important factor in the curative process.
Answer D: This is not the best answer. Answer B constitutes a more definitive distinction between a modern view and a traditional Freudian view of countertransference in therapy.
The correct answer is: a potential source of information about the client.
Researchers interested in evaluating the outcomes of psychotherapy distinguish between effectiveness and efficacy research. In contrast to effectiveness research, efficacy research:
Select one:
A.
has better internal validity but limited external validity.
B.
has limited internal validity but better external validity.
C.
has better internal and external validity.
D.
has limited internal and external validity.
The correct answer is A.
Efficacy studies are conducted in well-controlled conditions, often using a structured manualized session format. In contrast, effectiveness studies are conducted in real-world settings with less experimental control. Therefore, while efficacy studies are useful for determining whether a treatment has beneficial effects under controlled conditions, effectiveness studies are useful for determining if those effects generalize to other conditions. (Note that to identify the correct answer to this question, you not only have to be familiar with efficacy and effectiveness research, but also with internal and external validity, which are described in the Statistics and Research Design chapter of the written study materials.)
Answer B: A criticism of efficacy research is that because many of the crucial elements of what is actually done during the course of delivering psychotherapy are controlled, the results have good internal validity but limited external validity.
Answer C: Efficacy studies are deemed to have good internal validity but limited external validity.
Answer D: Efficacy studies are deeded to have good internal validity but limited external validity.
The correct answer is: has better internal validity but limited external validity.
Studies have shown that psychotherapy research participants in placebo control groups typically show:
Select one:
A.
greater improvement than those in no-treatment or wait-list control groups.
B.
less improvement than those in no-treatment or wait-list control groups.
C.
similar improvement to those in no-treatment or wait-list control groups.
D.
no improvement when compared to no-treatment or wait-list control groups.
The correct answer is A.
Studies have shown that placebo conditions have a substantial impact, with participants in placebo control groups typically showing greater improvement in symptoms than those in no-treatment or wait-list control groups. Lipsey and Wilson, for example, report an average effect size of .67 when treated participants are compared to no-treatment controls, but a smaller effect size of .48 when participants in the treatment group are compared to those in a placebo control group (1993).
Answer B: The opposite is true.
Answer C: Greater improvement is typically noted in psychotherapy research placebo control groups.
Answer D: Improvement is typically noted among psychotherapy research placebo control groups.
The correct answer is: greater improvement than those in no-treatment or wait-list control groups.
The belief that a child’s misbehavior has one of four goals—i.e., attention, revenge, power, or to display inadequacy—is most consistent with:
Select one:
A.
Beck’s cognitive-behavioral therapy.
B.
Adler’s individual psychology.
C.
Perls’s Gestalt therapy.
D.
Mahler’s object relations theory.
The correct answer is B.
Adler believed that all behaviors are goal-directed and purposeful. He further asserted that while misbehavior was intended to meet one of four goals, each goal ultimately was rooted in a desire to belong.
Answer A: This belief is not most consistent with to Beck’s theory.
Answer C: This belief is not most consistent with Perls’s theory.
Answer D: This belief is not most consistent with Mahler’s theory.
The correct answer is: Adler’s individual psychology.
Asking the “miracle question” is an initial intervention in which type of therapy?
Select one:
A.
Transtheoretical
B.
Interpersonal
C.
REBT
D.
Solution-focused
Feedback
The correct answer is D.
The “miracle question” is used to help clients identify solutions to their problems. As its name implies, solution-focused therapy focuses on identifying solutions to problems. The miracle question is one of the techniques used by solution-focused therapists to identify solutions and establish therapy goals. It involves asking the client how the client’s life would be if their problems were suddenly resolved.
Answer A: The miracle question is not a component of the transtheoretical model.
Answer B: The miracle question is not a component of interpersonal theory.
Answer C: The miracle question is not a component of REBT.
The correct answer is: Solution-focused
Solution-focused therapists utilize all of the following interventions except:
Select one:
A.
the miracle question.
B.
the exception question.
C.
reflective questioning.
D.
scaling questions.
The correct answer is C.
In solution-focused therapy, the therapist acts as a consultant/collaborator who poses different types of questions designed to assist the client in recognizing and using their strengths and resources to achieve specific goals. However, “reflective questioning” is not part of this questioning. This is a made up term.
Answers A, B, and D: Solution-focused therapists utilize all of three of these interventions.
The correct answer is: reflective questioning.
For a Gestalt therapist, a primary goal of treatment is to help the client:
Select one:
A.
integrate the present with their past and future.
B.
integrate the various aspects of the self.
C.
develop a success identity.
D.
develop a healthy style of life.
The correct answer is B.
The primary goal of Gestalt therapy is to increase awareness and integration of all aspects of the self. This includes integrating one’s feelings, thoughts, and actions.
Answer A: In Gestalt therapy, the focus is on the present. The founder of Gestalt therapy, Fritz Perls, argued that “nothing exists but the now.”
Answer C: Developing a success identity is the goal of reality therapy.
Answer D: A focus on developing a healthy life is in alignment with Adlerian therapy.
The correct answer is: integrate the various aspects of the self.
Research on Helms’s White Racial Identity Development Model suggests that a White therapist will usually be most successful when working with a client from an ethnic/racial minority group when the therapist is in which stage?
Select one:
A.
Reintegration
B.
Immersion-emersion
C.
Autonomy
D.
Integrative awareness
The correct answer is C.
Helms’s White Racial Identity Development Model distinguishes between six identity statuses (stages): contact, disintegration, reintegration, pseudo-independence, immersion-emersion, and autonomy. For the exam, you’ll want to be familiar with the characteristics of each stage. A White therapist is likely to be most effective when working with a client from an ethnic/racial minority group when the therapist is in the final stage of Helm’s identity development—i.e., the autonomy stage. A person in this stage has internalized a positive (non-racist) White identity that includes an appreciation of and respect for racial/cultural similarities and differences.
Answers A, B, and D: A White therapist is likely to be most effective when working with a client from an ethnic/racial minority group when the therapist is in the final stage of White identity development.
The correct answer is: Autonomy
The primary goal of a newly developed community-based mental health program is to help people recently released from a psychiatric hospital adjust to life in the community. This is an example of:
Select one:
A.
primary prevention.
B.
secondary prevention.
C.
tertiary prevention.
D.
crisis intervention.
The correct answer is C.
Prevention programs are often described as primary, secondary, or tertiary, depending on their goals. You are likely to encounter a question or two on prevention on the exam. Tertiary preventions are designed to reduce the prevalence of mental disorders by reducing the duration or preventing the recurrence of mental disturbance.
Answer A: Primary preventions are designed to prevent the development of a mental disorder.
Answer B: Secondary preventions are designed to reduce the prevalence of mental disorders through early identification and intervention.
Answer D: Crisis interventions are designed to reduce the negative consequences of crises.
The correct answer is: tertiary prevention.
Culturally sensitive approaches to psychotherapy vary from traditional approaches in that these approaches attempt to understand a client’s experience of an illness within the client’s cultural context. Thus, culturally sensitive approaches are rooted in an ____________ perspective.
Select one:
A.
emic
B.
etic
C.
emetic
D.
endogenous
Feedback
The correct answer is A.
The terms “emic” and “etic” were originally used by linguistic anthropologists but are now also used by psychologists interested in cross-cultural psychotherapy. Culturally sensitive therapies emphasize an emic, or “view from the inside,” approach.
Answer B: Traditional psychotherapies reflect an etic, or “view from the outside,” approach.
Answer C: The term emetic is a medical term that is not associated with any cultural theory.
Answer D: Endogenous means “originating within.”
The correct answer is: emic
Margaret Mahler proposed that the development of a sense of self is related to:
Select one:
A.
separation-individuation.
B.
projective identification.
C.
pseudomutuality.
D.
assimilation-accommodation.
The correct answer is A.
Mahler’s theory of early development focuses on the processes that contribute to the development of a sense of identity. Separation-individuation is triggered by the child’s ability to separate from their primary caregiver. It begins at about 4 to 5 months of age when a child who is being held by their caregiver is able to lean away to scan the environment.
Answer B: Melanie Klein used the term “projective identification” to refer to projecting disliked or undesirable aspects of the internal object (self) onto an external object (caregiver).
Answer C: Pseudomutuality describes a relationship between family members that appears to be healthy (is open and mutually empathic) but is not.
Answer D: Assimilation and accommodation are terms used by Piaget to describe the modification and development of cognitive schemas.
The correct answer is: separation-individuation.
Carl Jung believed that a client’s transference:
Select one:
A.
is a fantasy that distracts the client from reality.
B.
represents mixed feelings toward the therapist.
C.
is a form of “acting out.”
D.
reflects the client’s personal and collective unconscious.
The correct answer is D.
Jung viewed transference as the projection of both the personal and collective unconscious.
Answer A: Jung did not describe transference as a deviation from reality.
Answer B: Jung did not postulate that transference was rooted in ambiguous feelings toward the clinician.
Answer C: Acting out is a defense mechanism described in psychoanalytic theory.
The correct answer is: reflects the client’s personal and collective unconscious.
Smith, Glass, and Miller’s meta-analysis of the psychotherapy outcome research (1980) found that people receiving therapy are “better off” than about _____% of people who need treatment but do not receive it.
Select one:
A.
45
B.
55
C.
80
D.
95
The correct answer is C.
Smith, Glass, and Miller report an average effect size of .85 for 475 controlled studies of psychotherapy (1980). This means that the mean outcome score of people who receive treatment is higher than the mean outcome score of about 80% of people who need treatment but do not receive it. For the exam, you want to be familiar with the results of the Smith et al. meta-analysis as well as understand what meta-analysis is used for and be able to interpret an effect size. These are described in the Clinical Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
Answers A, B, and D: The correct answer is 80%.
The correct answer is: 80
According to Howard et al.’s phase model (1996), which of the following is most likely to be affected during the first few sessions of psychotherapy?
Select one:
A.
Coping skills
B.
Severity of symptoms
C.
Maladaptive behaviors
D.
Feelings of hopelessness
The correct answer is D.
Howard et al.’s (1996) phase model predicts that the effects of therapy vary depending on the number of sessions. The characteristics of the three phases of the model include remoralization, remediation, and rehabilitation. Remoralization occurs during the first few therapy sessions and is characterized by a decline in feelings of hopelessness (K. Howard et al., “Evaluation of psychotherapy: Efficacy, effectiveness, and patient progress,” American Psychologist, 51, 1059-1064, 1996).
Answer A: The second phase, remediation, involves a focus on strengthening coping skills.
Answer B: Reducing symptom severity is a longer-term goal that typically does not occur within the first few sessions.
Answer C: The final phase, rehabilitation, focuses on unlearning maladaptive behaviors.
The correct answer is: Feelings of hopelessness
In client-centered case consultation, the consultant’s primary goal is to:
Select one:
A.
help the consultee determine how to work more effectively with a particular client.
B.
help the consultee identify methods for evaluating their own professional services.
C.
help a consultee enhance their skills and knowledge so that the consultee functions more effectively in the future.
D.
work collaboratively with the consultee to jointly deliver an appropriate intervention to a client.
The correct answer is A.
Gerald Caplan (1970) distinguishes between four types of mental health consultation: client-centered case consultation, consultee-centered case consultation, program-centered administrative consultation, and consultee-centered administrative consultation. Client-centered case consultation focuses on a particular client. In this type of consultation, the consultant collects information about the client and makes recommendations to the consultee about the best course of action.
Answer B: This does not accurately describe the primary goal of client-centered case consultation.
Answer C: This describes consultee-centered case consultation.
Answer D: This describes collaboration rather than consultation.
The correct answer is: help the consultee determine how to work more effectively with a particular client.
In comparing Asian and Asian-American therapy clients to European American clients, researchers frequently point out that the former:
Select one:
A.
tend to prefer a less directive therapeutic approach.
B.
are grounded more in the here-and-now than in the past or the future.
C.
respond better when goal-setting is delayed.
D.
are likely to express emotional problems as somatic symptoms.
The correct answer is D.
It is vitally important that clinicians do not make overgeneralizations about members of any particular group and that they maintain awareness of the literature on cross-cultural psychotherapy, which provides some general conclusions about clients belonging to different ethnic/cultural groups. Researchers have suggested that people from Asian cultures ordinarily view the mind and body as inseparable and, as a result, often express mental health problems as somatic complaints such as headaches, fatigue, or sleep problems.
Answer A: This is the opposite of what researchers have found to be true.
Answer B: Researchers have generally found that individuals from Asian cultures often place importance on the relationship of the past to the present.
Answer C: Researchers suggest that it is usually best to identify goals early in therapy (even during the first session) when working with Asian clients.
The correct answer is: are likely to express emotional problems as somatic symptoms.
From the perspective of feminist therapy, therapist self-disclosure is:
Select one:
A.
contraindicated because it puts the client in a passive role.
B.
necessary during the early stages of therapy to encourage the client’s participation.
C.
a means of fostering a special bond between the client and the therapist.
D.
useful for promoting an egalitarian relationship between the therapist and client.
The correct answer is D.
A key characteristic of feminist therapy is its emphasis on an egalitarian relationship, and sharing one’s life experiences with a client is viewed as one way of promoting balance.
Answer A: Promoting client passivity is discouraged in feminist therapy, but appropriate therapist self-disclosure is not considered a contributor to passivity.
Answer B: This describes one use of self-disclosure; however, in feminist therapy, self-disclosure is not described as necessary.
Answer C: Feminist therapists generally discourage developing a “special bond” because doing so can foster the client’s dependence on the therapist.
The correct answer is: useful for promoting an egalitarian relationship between the therapist and client.
The first stage in Cross’s Black Racial Identity Development Model (2001) is:
Select one:
A.
conformity.
B.
incorporation.
C.
contact.
D.
pre-encounter.
Feedback
The correct answer is D.
The most recent version of Cross’s Black Racial Identity Development Model distinguishes between four stages: pre-encounter, encounter, immersion-emersion, and internalization. Cross’s model is based on the premise that African American identity development is directly linked to racial oppression. During the initial pre-encounter stage, race has low salience.
Answer A: Conformity is the first stage of the Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model.
Answer B: Incorporation is not one of Cross’s stages.
Answer C: Contact is the first stage of Helms’s White Racial Identity Development Model.
The correct answer is: pre-encounter.
Replacing a “failure identity” with a “success identity” is a goal of treatment for practitioners of ____________ therapy.
Select one:
A.
Gestalt
B.
reality
C.
solution-focused
D.
Adlerian
The correct answer is B.
Glasser, the founder of reality therapy, viewed identity as a basic psychological need and distinguished between success and failure identities. A person develops a success identity when the person fulfills their needs in a responsible way.
Answer A: This is not a goal of Gestalt therapy.
Answer C: This is not a goal of solution-focused therapy.
Answer D: This is not a goal of Adlerian therapy.
The correct answer is: reality
Prochaska and DiClemente’s stages of change (transtheoretical) model (1982) predicts that a person in the ____________ stage plans to take action within the next six months that will alter their problematic behavior.
Select one:
A.
action
B.
contemplation
C.
preparation
D.
precontemplation
The correct answer is B.
The six stages of Prochaska and DiClemente’s transtheoretical stages of change model include precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance, and termination. A person in the contemplation stage has not committed to change but intends to take action within the next six months.
Answer A: A person in the action stage is currently taking actions to alter their behavior.
Answer C: A person in the preparation stage is planning to take action in the near future. This is usually defined as in the next month.
Answer D: A person in the precontemplation stage is not planning to change in the foreseeable future.
The correct answer is: contemplation
People in which of the following stages of Atkinson, Morten, and Sue’s (1993) Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model begin to question their rejection of all aspects of the dominant culture and absolute loyalty to their own culture?
Select one:
A.
Encounter
B.
Dissonance
C.
Integrative awareness
D.
Introspection
The correct answer is D.
The five stages of the Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model include conformity, dissonance, resistance and immersion, introspection, and integrative awareness. During the introspection stage, the individual begins to question the unequivocal position that they adopted during the previous resistance-immersion stage with regard to their own culture and the dominant culture.
Answer A: The encounter stage is the second stage in Cross’s Black Racial (Nigrescence) Identity Development Model (1991).
Answer B: During the dissonance stage, the individual begins to question conformity to the dominant culture.
Answer C: During the integrative awareness stage, the person bases acceptance or rejection of aspects of the majority and minority cultures on an objective evaluation.
The correct answer is: Introspection
A family therapist using the structural approach of Salvador Minuchin would most likely:
Select one:
A.
clarify boundaries between family members in order to reduce enmeshment.
B.
work initially with the most differentiated family member.
C.
use a multiple-therapist team to prevent any one therapist from becoming “triangulated” into the family system.
D.
issue specific “directives” designed to counteract dysfunctional processes.
The correct answer is A.
As its name implies, structural family therapy focuses on altering the family’s structure in order to change the behavior patterns of family members. Even if you are unfamiliar with Minuchin, you may have been able to guess that structural therapy would be concerned with boundaries. Structural family therapists view family dysfunction as being related to boundaries that are too diffuse (enmeshed) or too rigid (disengaged).
Answer B: This is more characteristic of Bowen’s approach to family therapy.
Answer C: Minuchin’s approach does not involve the use of multiple-therapist teams.
Answer D: The issuance of directives is more characteristic of strategic family therapy than of structural family therapy.
The correct answer is: clarify boundaries between family members in order to reduce enmeshment.
According to Irvin Yalom, ____________ in group therapy is the analogue of the therapist–client relationship in individual therapy.
Select one:
A.
universality
B.
identification
C.
cohesiveness
D.
alliance
The correct answer is C.
Yalom uses the term cohesiveness to refer to the various relationships that occur in a group. This includes the relationships between group members, between each member and the therapist, and between each member and the group itself. For Yalom, cohesiveness is the primary mode of change in group therapy, with highly cohesive groups having better outcomes. Cohesiveness in group therapy is thus comparable to the quality of the therapeutic alliance in individual therapy.
Answer A: The concept of universality relates to clients’ connected pain.
Answer B: Identification is not one of Yalom’s 11 therapeutic factors.
Answer D: Alliance is not one of Yalom’s 11 therapeutic factors.
The correct answer is: cohesiveness
According to Freud’s notion of ____________, dreams and slips of the tongue are meaningful goal-directed phenomena.
Select one:
A.
psychic dynamogenesis
B.
reciprocal determinism
C.
psychic determinism
D.
ptyalism
The correct answer is C.
Freud interpreted dreams, slips of the tongue, etc. as manifestations of unconscious material. According to Freud’s doctrine of psychic determinism, behaviors are caused by unconscious phenomena rather than true free will.
Answer A: Dynamogenesis is the principle that motor responses are proportional to sensory activities.
Answer B: Reciprocal determinism proposes that behavior, person, and situation interact and influence each other.
Answer D: Ptyalism refers to the excessive production of saliva, something Pavlov, not Freud, would be interested in.
The correct answer is: psychic determinism
The information that family members continuously exchange and that helps minimize deviation and maintain the family’s stability is referred to as ____________ feedback.
Select one:
A.
external
B.
internal
C.
negative
D.
positive
The correct answer is C.
In family systems theory, the information exchange between family members can act as either positive or negative feedback. Negative feedback helps the system return to or maintain its steady state. Thus, a “negative feedback loop” helps minimize deviation and thereby maintains the family’s stability.
Answer A: This term is not relevant to the question posed.
Answer B: This term is not relevant to the question posed.
Answer D: Positive feedback increases deviation from a steady state and, therefore, produces a change in the family’s functioning.
The correct answer is: negative
When working with a Black family, it is important to keep in mind that:
Select one:
A.
Black families are predominantly matriarchal.
B.
Black husbands are usually less tolerant of the career efforts of their wives than White husbands are.
C.
Black familial roles may be more flexible than White familial roles.
D.
Black wives are more willing than White wives to let their husbands make domestic decisions.
The correct answer is C.
Historically, researchers (Billingsley, 1969; Boyd-Franklin, 1989; Paniagua, 1994; Sue & Sue, 2003) have found that Black families are generally less likely to follow traditional White family sex-role stereotypes in comparison to Whites.
Answer A: Researchers have indicated that the power structure of Black families is not substantially different from that found in many White families.
Answer B: This statement is not supported by research regarding Black familial roles.
Answer D: A number of investigators have pointed out that Black and White husbands generally exercise the same degree of decision-making power within the family.
The correct answer is: Black familial roles may be more flexible than White familial roles.
In the context of structural family therapy, the purpose of “reframing” is to:
Select one:
A.
diffuse blame.
B.
relabel behaviors.
C.
increase specificity.
D.
anchor behaviors.
The correct answer is B.
Even if you’ve never heard of “reframing,” you probably could have guessed that its purpose is to redefine the situation. Specifically, reframing is done in order to help a client see things from a different perspective. It is often used in a paradoxical way—e.g., telling an adolescent that “your parents’ nagging is a sign of their love for you.”
Answer A: Reframing will not necessarily lead to diffusion of blame.
Answer C: Increasing specificity is not the goal of reframing.
Answer D: Reframing does involve redefining behaviors, but it does not involve anchoring behaviors.
The correct answer is: relabel behaviors.
A client who terminated therapy with Dr. Jones several months ago calls to request an appointment because she is now very depressed and is feeling suicidal. In the past couple of months, Dr. Jones has been reducing his practice because he is starting another business. The best course of action in this situation is for Dr. Jones:
Select one:
a.
To provide the woman with several referrals and ask her to call him if none of those turn out to be satisfactory
b.
To see the woman until the crisis has passed and then provide her with appropriate referrals
c.
To provide the woman with several referrals but let her know that he is available by phone in case of an emergency
d.
To explain to the former client that he is no longer accepting clients and refer her to a colleague
This course of action best takes the client’s welfare into account and, therefore, is most consistent with the “spirit” of the Code (see, e.g., Standards 3.04 and 10.09).
The correct answer is: To see the woman until the crisis has passed and then provide her with appropriate referrals
A client you have been seeing in therapy for several sessions tells you that her former therapist made repeated sexual advances toward her and that is why she stopped seeing him. She also says that she doesn’t want you to say anything about it to anyone. The psychologist is someone you see frequently at professional meetings. As an ethical psychologist, you:
Select one:
a.
Inform the client that you are ethically required to report the psychologist to the Ethics Committee or state licensing board
b.
Attempt to resolve the issue informally by talking to the psychologist
c.
Convince the client that it is in her best interests to file a report with the state licensing board herself
d.
Tell the client that you will maintain confidentiality
This response is most consistent with the provisions of Standards 1.04 and 1.05, which require psychologists to give priority to client confidentiality when deciding how to handle knowledge about unethical behavior by a colleague.
The correct answer is: Tell the client that you will maintain confidentiality
A colleague at the mental health clinic where you are employed tells you that one of his clients has admitted to sexually abusing his daughter. The colleague says he is not going to report the abuse since it was mild in nature and the client has expressed remorse, promised not to do it again, and is willing to continue therapy. In addition, he feels that reporting the abuse would be detrimental to the community since the client is a widely-known, well-respected person. You should:
Select one:
a.
contact the appropriate child abuse reporting authority and provide them with information about the abuse but refuse to give them the colleague’s name if they request it
b.
File a complaint against the colleague with APA or the state licensing board
c.
contact the appropriate child abuse reporting authority and provide them with information about the abuse and with the colleague’s name
d.
Attempt to discuss the matter further with the colleague and encourage him to make a report to the appropriate child abuse reporting authority but do not make a report yourself
This issue is addressed by Leland Swenson in Psychology and the Law for the Helping Professions, Brooks/Cole, Pacific Grove, CA, 1997. He states that “Any required reporter who knows that another required reporter has not reported must report the evidence of abuse as well as identify the nonreporter” (p. 413).
The correct answer is: contact the appropriate child abuse reporting authority and provide them with information about the abuse and with the colleague’s name
A licensed psychologist who provides individual and group therapy to adolescents and adults learns that she is HIV+. In terms of ethical requirements, the psychologist:
Select one:
a.
Should refrain from initiating any professional activities that might be adversely affected by her medical condition
b.
Should obtain supervision to ensure that her medical condition does not impair her ability to provide effective services to clients
c.
Is not obligated to take any special actions or precautions in this situation
d.
should inform her clients of her medical condition “as early as is feasible”
Standard 2.06 requires psychologists to “refrain from initiating an activity when they know or should know there is a substantial likelihood that their personal problems will prevent them from performing their work-related activities in a competent manner.” Personal problems include emotional, social, health-related and other personal issues.
The correct answer is: Should refrain from initiating any professional activities that might be adversely affected by her medical condition
A new client says that she wants to pay for her therapy sessions with cash and that she doesn’t want you to keep a record of the sessions or of her payments. If you agree to this arrangement:
Select one:
a.
You have acted ethically as long as you ascertain that her reasons for making this request are valid
b.
You have acted unethically and possibly illegally
c.
You have acted ethically since it is up to you to decide what to include in your records
d.
You have acted ethically and legally as long as you include her payments as income on your income tax forms
The APA’s Ethics Code and Record Keeping Guidelines require psychologists to maintain adequate records. This not only protects the welfare of the client but also protects the practitioner. In addition, many state laws require that client records be maintained and indicate the minimum information that must be included in such records.
The correct answer is: You have acted unethically and possibly illegally
An expert witness is recognized by the court to be qualified to offer opinions on a specific issue. To qualify as an expert witness, a psychologist must:
Select one:
a.
Have appropriate education, training, and experience.
b.
Have a valid professional license.
c.
Be certified as a forensic psychologist by the ABPP.
d.
Have a relevant doctoral degree from an accredited school.
Feedback
Requirements for expert testimony are provided in state and federal law. For example, Federal Rule of Evidence 702 states: “A witness who is qualified as an expert by knowledge, skill, experience, training, or education may testify in the form of an opinion or otherwise if:
(a) the expert’s scientific, technical, or other specialized knowledge will help the trier of fact to understand the evidence or to determine a fact in issue; (b) the testimony is based on sufficient facts or data; (c) the testimony is the product of reliable principles and methods; and (d) the expert has reliably applied the principles and methods to the facts of the case.”
The correct answer is: Have appropriate education, training, and experience.
A psychologist has received a subpoena from an attorney requesting that she testify in court about a former client and provide the court with records related to the client’s treatment. The psychologist does not have a release from the client to do so. The psychologist should:
Select one:
a.
Not appear in court without a signed release from the client
b.
Testify but refuse to release the records without a court order
c.
Appear in court and claim the privilege on behalf of the client
d.
Testify and release the records as requested
Assuming that the subpoena is valid, the psychologist must appear as requested but should assert the privilege on the client’s behalf.
The correct answer is: Appear in court and claim the privilege on behalf of the client
Dr. A. T. Tester, a licensed psychologist, is scheduled to testify on behalf of the prosecution in a criminal case. He receives a request from the defendant to act as a fact witness. As an ethical psychologist, Dr. Tester should:
Select one:
a.
Agree to act as a fact witness only after clarifying his responsibilities and role expectations with all parties
b.
Agree to do so only if he is able to get permission from the defendant and the plaintiff (or their attorneys) or from the court
c.
Explain to the defendant’s attorney that he cannot do so since this would constitute a dual role, which is prohibited by ethical standards.
d.
Agree to act as a fact witness since this does not conflict with his other role
The Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychology and the Ethics Code both caution against dual (multiple) roles in forensic settings but notes that, in some cases, they are acceptable. However, as noted in the Ethics Code, when a psychologist becomes involved in a dual relationship, he/she should “clarify role expectations and the extent of confidentiality” at the outset and subsequently as changes occur.
The correct answer is: Agree to act as a fact witness only after clarifying his responsibilities and role expectations with all parties
Dr. Opt assists with hiring decisions at the mental health clinic where he works. He recommends that an applicant for a staff psychologist position not be considered because of an unresolved charge of sexual harassment that has been filed against her with the Ethics Committee. Dr. Opt’s recommendation about the psychologist is:
Select one:
a.
Not addressed by the Ethics Code.
b.
Ethical as long as the psychologist is considered when she is acquitted of the charge.
c.
Consistent with the provisions of the Ethics Code.
d.
A violation of the provisions of the Ethics Code.
This response is most consistent with Standard 1.08 (Unfair Discrimination Against Complainants and Respondents) of the Ethics Code, which states that “Psychologists do not deny persons employment, advancement, admissions to academic or other programs, tenure, or promotion, based solely upon their having made or their being the subject of an ethics complaint.”
The correct answer is: A violation of the provisions of the Ethics Code.
Dr. S. Swapper is starting a program for adolescents who are experiencing peer problems. She tells the editor of the local newspaper that his adolescent daughter (who is unpopular with her peers) can attend the program for free if the editor writes an article about the program for the paper. This is:
Select one:
a.
Unethical because the Ethics Code explicitly prohibits this type of arrangement
b.
Ethically dubious but not covered by the Ethics Code
c.
Ethical as long as Dr. Swapper doesn’t tell the editor what to put in the article
d.
Ethical as long as the arrangement doesn’t compromise Dr. Swapper’s objectivity when working with the editor’s daughter
Standard 5.02 explicitly prohibits psychologists from compensating employees of the press for publicity about the psychologist and his/her work in a news item.
The correct answers are: Ethical as long as the arrangement doesn’t compromise Dr. Swapper’s objectivity when working with the editor’s daughter, Unethical because the Ethics Code explicitly prohibits this type of arrangement
During a court-ordered evaluation of a defendant to determine her competence to stand trial, she reveals information to you that confirms her guilt. You should:
Select one:
a.
include only information relevant to the defendant’s competence in the evaluation report
b.
Not provide the court with any information from the evaluation until the defendant signs a release
c.
Include the information in the evaluation report since privilege is waived in this situation
d.
Use your discretion in determining what to include in the evaluation report
In this situation, the defendant is protected by laws that prohibit the use of evaluation data to determine a defendant’s guilt without his/her consent.
The correct answer is: include only information relevant to the defendant’s competence in the evaluation report
During the initial session with a therapy client, the client tells Dr. Goodenough that she and her husband are having “marital problems” and that she thinks they may need couples counseling. As the client describes her husband, Dr. Goodenough realizes that she had an affair with him 15 years ago in graduate school, long before he married the client. Dr. Goodenough’s best course of action would be to:
Select one:
a.
See the couple in therapy only if she feels her previous relationship will not interfere with her objectivity
b.
Not see the wife or the couple in therapy and make a referral to another therapist
c.
See the wife in individual therapy and refer them to another therapist for marital counseling
d.
Make an appointment with the husband to discuss the matter with him before setting up a couples session
This is covered by Standard 10.07, which prohibits psychologists from providing therapy to former sexual partners. In addition, providing therapy to the wife only would violate Standard 3.06, which states that psychologists refrain from engaging in professional activities when “personal, scientific, professional, legal, financial, or other interests or relationships could reasonably be expected to (1) impair their objectivity, competence, or effectiveness in performing their functions as psychologists.”
The correct answer is: Not see the wife or the couple in therapy and make a referral to another therapist
Of the cases processed by the APA’s Ethics Committee as the result of revocation of a psychologist’s license by a state licensing board, the most common underlying cause for the loss of licensure is which of the following?
Select one:
a.
practicing outside the boundaries of one’s competence
b.
Confidentiality
c.
Sexual misconduct
d.
Nonsexual dual relationship
Loss of licensure is the most frequent reason for complaints processed by the APA’s Ethics Committee, and sexual misconduct is the most common underlying cause of the loss of licensure. See, K. S. Pope and M. J. T. Vasquez, Ethics in psychotherapy and counseling, New York, Wiley, 2007.
The correct answer is: Sexual misconduct
Requiring students in an introductory psychology class to participate in a university sponsored research project as a requirement for the class is ethical only when: Select one:
a.
The research is conducted by or under the guidance of a faculty member
b.
Students are made aware of the requirement prior to enrolling in the class
c.
The research exposes students to “minimal risk”
d.
Students are given a choice of an alternative assignment
This answer is most consistent with the requirements of Standard 8.04(b) of the Ethics Code, which states that, “when research participation is a course requirement or an opportunity for extra credit, the prospective participant is given the choice of equitable alternative activities.”
The correct answer is: Students are given a choice of an alternative assignment
The Ethics Code requires that a psychologist discuss with a new therapy client the issue of fees and policy regarding the provision of information to an insurance company:
Select one:
a.
Prior to the first consultation
b.
As early as is feasible
c.
During the first session
d.
When the psychologist deems it appropriate
This is addressed in Standard 10.01, which states that, “when obtaining informed consent to therapy as required in Standard 3.10, Informed Consent, psychologists inform clients/patients as early as is feasible in the therapeutic relationship about the nature and anticipated course of therapy, fees, involvement of third parties, and limits of confidentiality.” Similar language is included in Standard 6.04.
The correct answer is: As early as is feasible
The police arrive at your office with an arrest warrant for one of your clients. They tell you that they need the client’s most recent address and telephone number. You should:
Select one:
a.
Tell them you will have to get a signed waiver from the client before you can release any information about him
b.
Not give them any information about the client
c.
Make a copy of the warrant for your files before providing them with the information they request
d.
Provide them with the information they request since they have a warrant
Before providing information about a client (including the fact that he/she is a client), the psychologist would have to be provided with a search warrant, court order, or signed release from the client.
The correct answer is: Not give them any information about the client
Towne is the only mental health professional in Micropolis, population 912, and the next town is 105 miles away. She finds that some of her clients have problems that are outside her area of training. Dr. Towne should:
Select one:
a.
Refuse to see the clients until she receives adequate training
b.
Obtain supervision or consultation by telephone
c.
See the clients only if they are in a crisis situation
d.
Use only interventions that she already has experience using
Although the Ethics Code requires psychologists to provide only services within the boundaries of their competence, there are exceptions. It is, for instance, perfectly acceptable for psychologists to acquire new skills and to treat new problems – but only when appropriate supervision or consultation are obtained. This is a difficult situation, but response d is the best given the circumstances and the alternatives provided in the responses.
The correct answer is: Obtain supervision or consultation by telephone
Vicarious liability is most likely to be an issue when a psychologist is acting in the role of:
Select one:
a.
Faculty member
b.
Supervisor
c.
Mentor
d.
Advocate
When a psychologist is liable for the actions of his/her supervisee or employee, this is referred to as vicarious liability.
The correct answer is: Supervisor
When a research study might cause participants pain, deception:
Select one:
a.
Is acceptable only if it is justified by the study’s “prospective value”
b.
Is prohibited if the pain is physical but not if it is psychological in nature
c.
Is ordinarily prohibited whether it is physical or psychological in nature
d.
Is acceptable only if no alternative methods for obtaining the data are available
This response is most consistent with Standard 8.07(b), which states that “Psychologists do not deceive prospective participants about research that is reasonably expected to cause physical pain or severe emotional distress.”
The correct answer is: Is ordinarily prohibited whether it is physical or psychological in nature
Which of the following best describes requirements regarding the acceptance of contingent fees as provided in the Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychology (APA, 2011)?
Select one:
a.
Psychologists should seek to avoid providing professional services to a party in a legal proceeding on the basis of contingent fees
b.
Psychologists may provide services to a party in a legal proceeding on the basis of contingent fees only when the amount of the fees is “reasonable and consistent with current standards”
c.
Psychologists are prohibited from providing professional services to a party in a legal proceeding on the basis of contingent fees only when doing so represents an unacceptable dual relationship
d.
Psychologists may provide services to a party in a legal proceeding on the basis of contingent fees
This issue is addressed in Paragraph 5.02 of the Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychology (APA, 2011), which states that “forensic practitioners strive to avoid providing professional services on the basis of contingent fees.”
The correct answer is: Psychologists should seek to avoid providing professional services to a party in a legal proceeding on the basis of contingent fees
