Exam Simulation: Test 2 Flashcards

Question

Habit reversal training was originally developed to treat: Select one: A. obsessions and compulsions B. nervous habits and motor tics C. Childhood-Onset Fluency Disorder D. Tourette's syndrome

Answer 1

The correct answer is B. Habit reversal training was originally designed as a treatment for nervous habits and motor tics. It has since been applied to the treatment of a number of other symptoms including stuttering. Answer A: This is not true. Answer C: While habit reversal training is now used as a treatment for this disorder, especially among older children and adults who suffer from stuttering, it was not originally developed specifically to treat this disorder. Answer D: Habit reversal training was not originally developed as a treatment for this specific disorder alone.

Answer 2

The correct answer is C. Habit reversal training incorporates awareness, relaxation, motivation, competing response, and generalization training. 'Decompression' training is not an actual training. Answer A: Competing response training is incorporated into habit reversal training. Answer B: Motivation training is also incorporated. Answer D: Generalization training is incorporated into habit reversal training.

Answer 3

The correct answer is D. The provisional specifier is used when the clinician does not currently have sufficient information for a firm diagnosis but believes the full criteria for the diagnosis will eventually be met. Answer A: This is a term used in diagnostic codes. Answer B: This is also a term used in diagnostic codes. Answer C: This is not a specifier.

Answer 4

The correct answer is B. Between 20% to 30% of children with a Specific Learning Disorder are also diagnosed with ADHD. According to Brier (1994), these children are at a higher risk for antisocial behavior and for arrest and conviction for antisocial behavior. Answer A: This is not true. Answer C: This population's risk level is not as high as children with ADHD and a Specific Learning Disorder. Answer D: According to Brier, children diagnosed with ADHD and a Specific Learning Disorder are at a higher risk level.

Answer 5

The correct answer is A. The DSM-5 provides two codes and one specifier that can be used to indicate diagnostic uncertainty. The provisional label is used as a diagnostic specifier rather than a code. Answer B: The provisional specifier may be used when the clinician does not currently have sufficient information for a firm diagnosis but believes the full criteria for the diagnosis will eventually be met. Answer C: Unspecified disorder is coded when the clinician does not want to indicate the reason why the client's symptoms do not meet the criteria for a specific diagnosis. Answer D: Other specified disorder is coded when the clinician wants to indicate the reason why the client's symptoms do not meet the criteria for a specific diagnosis.

Answer 6

The correct answer is D. Of the alternatives given, this response is most consistent with the requirements of the Standard 2.05 of the Ethics Code and Principle II.7 of the Canadian Code of Ethics for Psychologists.The minimum competence requirements for the administration of psychological tests are not well-defined in the Ethics Code or Standards for Educational and Psychological Testing. However, Standard 2.05 states that "Psychologists who delegate work to employees, supervisees, or research or teaching assistants or who use the services of others, such as interpreters, take reasonable steps to (1) avoid delegating such work to persons who have a multiple relationship with those being served that would likely lead to exploitation or loss of objectivity; (2) authorize only those responsibilities that such persons can be expected to perform competently on the basis of their education, training, or experience, either independently or with the level of supervision being provided; and (3) see that such persons perform these services competently." Answer A: APA's ethical guidelines do not require that psychological tests be administered by licensed professionals only. Answer B: Dr. Jones is, of course, ultimately responsible for the activities of his assistant. However, this is not sufficient. Answer C: The completion of a single course in psychological testing would probably be insufficient training for the administration of psychological tests.

Answer 7

The correct answer is B. Microassaults, microinsults, and microinvalidations are the three forms of microaggression described by D. W. Sue et al. (Racial microaggressions in everyday life: Implications for clinical practice, American Psychologist, 62, 271-286, 2007). Microinequalities is a made-up term. Answer A: Microassaults are "explicit racial derogations characterized primarily by a violent verbal or nonverbal attack meant to hurt the intended victim through name-calling, avoidant behavior or purposeful discriminatory actions" (p. 278). Answer C: Microinvalidation refers to "verbal comments or behaviors that exclude, negate, or nullify the psychological thoughts, feelings, or experiential reality of a person of color" (p. 278). "Color blindness" is a type of microinvalidation. Answer D: Microinsults are "remarks or comments that convey rudeness, insensitivity and demean a person's racial heritage or identity" (p. 278).

Answer 8

The correct answer is D. Transference involves the development on the part of a client of feelings, attitudes, and defenses toward his/her therapist that represents a displacement of feelings toward significant people in the client's past. The analysis of transference helps a client recognize and resolve his/her unconscious conflicts. Answer A: While both are associated with psychoanalysis, transference is not a response to countertransference. While Freud considered transference and its resolution to be desirable, he felt that countertransference (the therapist's feelings, attitudes, and defenses toward the client) should be avoided. Answer B: Even though working through transference helps a client resolve unconscious conflicts, which he/she may resist acknowledging, psychoanalytic theory does not suggest what is stated here. Transference may occur when there is no resistance. Answer C: Transference is not considered to be something that improves the therapeutic alliance but, rather, something that helps the client resolve his/her unconscious conflicts. An important goal of psychoanalysis is to work through transference.

Answer 9

The correct answer is A. Recovery of cognitive functions following head trauma usually follows a set pattern. For example, with regard to retrograde amnesia, the most remote memories return first. Orientation to personal information is recovered first, followed by place and then time. Patients who continue to be disoriented to personal information rarely exhibit orientation to time or place. Answers B, C, & D: Recovery typically involves orientation to personal information, then to place, and finally to time.

Answer 10

The correct answer is A. The most common comorbid symptoms for Tourette's Disorder are obsessions and compulsions and symptoms of ADHD. Answer B & C: While these disorders may co-occur with Tourette's Disorder, they are not the most commonly co-occurring disorders for this syndrome. Answer D: Tourette's syndrome does not lessen one's intelligence.

Answer 11

The correct answer is C. Bandura has provided guidelines for applying social learning theory to the workplace. (See, e.g., R. Wood and A. Bandura, Social cognitive theory of organizational management, Academy of Management Review, 13, 361-384, 1999). Bandura stresses the importance of (1) self-efficacy beliefs; (2) intrinsic motivation; (3) focusing on overt activities and behaviors; and (4) ensuring that people have prerequisite skills. Answer A: Immediate rewards are not necessary. Answer B: Bandura's theory does not suggest this. Answer D: Bandura's research indicated that it is not always necessary for the model to be rewarded in order for an observer to imitate the model's behavior.

Answer 12

The correct answer is C. Mediators facilitate the conflict resolution process. While they may offer suggestions, they do not determine the solution to a problem. Disputants are often inflexible with regard to their own idea of the best solution to a problem, and an important task for a mediator is to increase disputants' flexibility regarding alternatives. One way to achieve this goal is to suggest alternatives. Answers A & B: Mediators may offer suggestions; however, they allow the disputants to choose the solution. Answer D: A mediator may do this initially when conflict and hostility are high, but it's only a temporary role and not a primary one.

Answer 13

The correct answer is A. Phinney and Devich-Navarro (1997) distinguish between six categories of acculturation assimilated, fused, blended bicultural, alternating bicultural, separated, and marginal. The term alternating bicultural refers to having distinct ethnic and American identities. Answer B: This does not define alternating bicultural. Answer C: This describes blended bicultural. Answer D: This does not define any of the six categories of acculturation defined by Phinney and Devich-Navarro.

Answer 14

The correct answer is A. Phinney and Devich-Navarro (1997) distinguish between six categories of acculturation-assimilated, fused, blended bicultural, alternating bicultural, separated, and marginal. Their research with African American and Mexican American adolescents found that the majority described themselves as either blended bicultural, alternating bicultural, or separated. Answers B, C, & D: Of the six categories identified by Phinney and Devich-Navarro, African American and Mexican American adolescents were most likely to identify as blended bicultural, alternating bicultural, or separated.

Answer 15

The correct answer is C. Although the term "triangulation" is probably most associated with Bowen, Minuchin and other family therapists also use this term. Even if you are unfamiliar with Minuchin's use of this term, knowing that he focuses on boundary disturbances and emphasizes the role of stress in family dysfunction would have helped you pick this as the correct response. As noted in the Clinical Psychology chapter of the written study materials, Minuchin describes several types of rigid triads (triangles) that all serve to reduce conflict and stress - i.e., triangulation, detouring, and stable coalition. Answer A: Triangulation is not a positive indicator. Answer B: Triangulation does not improve communication. Answer D: This does not define triangulation.

Answer 16

The correct answer is A. Phinney and Devich-Navarro (1997) proposed a model of acculturation that included six categories of acculturation: assimilated, fused, blended bicultural, alternating bicultural, separated, and marginal. Answer B: Alternating multicultural is not one of the six categories. Answer C: Accommodated is not one of the six categories. Answer D: Blended bicultural is missing from this list, making it incorrect.

Answer 17

The correct answer is B. In the context of testing, "floor" refers to the test's ability to discriminate among examinees at the low end of the score range. To make a diagnosis of Intellectual Disability and distinguish between different levels of severity, you have to be able to discriminate among individuals with low intelligence. This requires adequate "floor" - i.e., the test has to have enough easy items to distinguish between people with different levels of low intelligence. Answer A: Adequate floor has no relevance for intra-individual assessment. Answer C: Adequate floor is not essential when performing advanced placement testing. Answer D: Adequate floor has little relevance for employee readiness assessment.

Answer 18

The correct answer is D. The term visual agnosia refers to the inability to recognize familiar objects by sight. Associative and apperceptive visual agnosia are two types of visual agnosia that you want to be familiar with for the EPPP. This response describes associative visual agnosia, which occurs when visual and language areas become disconnected. Answer A: This is not characteristic of visual agnosia. Answer B: This does not describe associative visual agnosia. Answer C: This response describes the condition known as apperceptive visual agnosia.

Answer 19

The correct answer is D. There is some evidence that, in terms of short-term effects, a combined treatment does not have significant advantages over nicotine replacement therapy alone. However, in terms of long-term abstinence, the combined treatment is best. See R. C. Klesges, K. D. Ward, and M. DeBon, Smoking cessation: A successful behavioral/pharmacologic interface, Clinical Psychology Review, 16(6), 479-496, 1996. Answers A & B: The use of these two therapies conjointly has been found more effective than either therapy alone. Answer C: Administering these treatments conjointly has been found to be more effective regardless of the occurrence of nicotine tolerance.

Answer 20

The correct answer is A. Based on their review of 16 non-Western indigenous practices, Lee, Oh, and Mountcastle (1992) conclude that these practices share three characteristics: First, they rely on community and family networks to care for the disturbed individual. Second, the religious and spiritual practices of the community are integrated into the healing process. Third, the healing process is often conducted by a traditional healer or other respected member of the community. However, a rejection of White cultural norms is not inherently universal. Answer B: Lee at el. found that one important commonality is the incorporation of community and family. Answer C: Integrated spiritual practices was also found to be a unifying factor. Answer D: Inclusion of local healers was found to be a third and final commonality.

Answer 21

The correct answer is C. The aphasias all involve a disruption in language. Conduction aphasia is narrower in terms of symptoms than Broca's aphasia and Wernicke's aphasia. It is the result of damage to the arcuate fasciculus which connects Broca's and Wernicke's areas and involves the symptoms listed in the question. Answer A: Broca's aphasia involves difficulty in producing speech, while Wernicke's aphasia involves impaired comprehension with fluent aphasia. Answer B: Wernicke's aphasia is characterized by impairment in comprehension and fluent aphasia. Answer D: Anomic aphasia is characterized by impairments in the ability to retrieve and label semantic concepts.

Answer 22

The correct answer is D. Curanderismo is a holistic system of healing that is practiced in some Latin American countries and Hispanic American communities in the United States. It is based on the assumption that illness can arise from either natural or supernatural forces that affect physical, emotional, and/or spiritual functioning. Answer A: Ho'oponopono is a traditional Hawaiian spiritual healing ritual for restoring harmony among family members by resolving a current conflict or other interpersonal problem. Answer B: This is a specific culture-bound syndrome. Answer C: This term refers to a traditional feminine gender role common in some Latino cultures.

Answer 23

The correct answer is C. Landrum and Batts (1985) hold that one of the many impacts of racial oppression may be the development of conceptual incarceration which involves the adoption of a White, Anglo-Saxon Protestant worldview and lifestyle. Answer A: This partially defines the split-self syndrome. Answer B: This does not describe conceptual incarceration. Answer D: This describes playing it cool.

Answer 24

The correct answer is B. Delirium is characterized by disorientation and confusion, so an important goal is to provide an environment that decreases disorientation. For example, it is important to reduce distractions and to provide a quiet, well-lit room and constant monitoring. Answer A: Although "adequate stimulation" could be taken to mean stimulation that is appropriate for a disoriented state, this response is not the best answer as it is too vague. Answer C: Neuroleptics may or may not be appropriate, depending on the cause of the Delirium. Answer D: With a delirious patient, you want to provide a consistent environment, so regular visits by different people would probably be contraindicated.

Answer 25

The correct answer is B. According to Yalom, the first stage of group therapy is characterized by attempts to determine the group’s structure and meaning; a stereotyped, restricted, and rational communication style; a search for similarities among group members; and advice seeking and giving. Answer A: During the third stage, group cohesiveness develops. As a result, unity, intimacy, and closeness become the chief concerns; trust and self-disclosure increase; attendance improves, and members show concern whenever a member is absent. Answer C: In the second stage, “each member attempts to establish his or her preferred amount of initiative and power; and gradually a control hierarchy, a social pecking order, emerges” (p. 304). Advice giving is replaced by criticism, judgmental statements, and other negative comments. Answer D: In his book, The Theory and Practice of Group Psychotherapy, Irvin Yalom (1985) describes the first few months of group therapy as involving three formative stages.

Answer 26

The correct answer is A. The research on teacher behaviors is inconsistent and difficult to summarize. However early studies as well as more recent ones do seem to suggest that teachers respond differently to male and female students. Of the responses given, this is the best summary of the research. Males receive more attention from teachers and that attention often fosters better academic achievement. Answer B: The opposite is true. Answers C & D: The general consensus of research has not substantiated these statements.

Answer 27

The correct answer is C. Narcissistic Personality Disorder involves a pervasive pattern of grandiosity, a need for admiration, and a lack of empathy. Answer A: Rapidly changing and shallow expression of emotions are characteristic of Histrionic Personality Disorder. Answer B: Instability in self-image, interpersonal relationships, and mood are characteristic of Borderline Personality Disorder. Answer D: Excessive emotionality and attention seeking are characteristic of Histrionic Personality Disorder.

Answer 28

The correct answer is B. In general, behavioral and cognitive-behavioral techniques have been found most effective for alleviating phobias in both children and adults. Unfortunately, knowing this doesn't help with this question since all of the techniques listed fall into this category. Considering the boy's age may have helped you eliminate at least two of the answers (c and d). This technique has been described by A. M. Graziano and K. C. Mooney (Children and Behavior Therapy, New York, Aldine, 1984), who found it to be an effective treatment for children who fear the dark. Cognitive self-control involves several steps: At bedtime, the child first relaxes, then visualizes a pleasant scene, and then makes self-statements such as "I am brave. I can take care of myself in the dark." This technique is considered a self-control technique since it is administered by the child him/herself (although the parents are also involved in reminding the child to use the technique and in monitoring the child's progress). Answer A: Participant modeling has been found to be more useful for childhood phobias involving animals and dental and medical procedures. Answer C: The use of flooding with children is controversial and is not considered a treatment-of-choice by most authorities. Answer D: Systematic desensitization has generally not been found to be particularly effective with children (see Graziano and Mooney for a review of the literature).

Answer 29

The correct answer is A. Alegria et al. (2007) conducted a national study examining the prevalence of psychiatric disorders across Latino subgroups in the United States. These researchers found that stressors associated with cultural transmutation led to increased rates of psychiatric disorders among US-born, English-language-proficient, and third-generation Latinos. [Alegra M, Mulvaney-Day N, Torres M, Polo A, Cao Z, Canino G. Prevalence of psychiatric disorders across Latino subgroups in the United States. Am J Public Health. 2007 Jan;97(1):68-75. doi: 10.2105/AJPH.2006.087205. Epub 2006 Nov 30.] Answer B: The opposite is true. Answer C: Increased rates were found among third-generation, english-speaking Latino immigrants. Answer D: Increased rates of psychiatric disorders were observed among this population.

Answer 30

The correct answer is A. An informed consent should be obtained prior to providing psychological services to an individual and prior to a subject's participation in research. This question is pretty straightforward. The goal of an informed consent is to protect the recipient of psychological services (or subjects in research studies) by providing them with the information they need to make an informed decision about whether or not to participate. Answer B: Detailing the limitations of confidentiality is only one part of informed consent. Answer C: This does not define the purpose of informed consent. Answer D: This is arguably the least important purpose of informed consent, the most important being protecting client welfare.

Answer 31

The correct answer is D. The term "responsibility" is a key one in this question and may have helped you identify the correct response. According to Glasser, a "success identity" results when one takes responsibility for fulfilling one's own needs and does so in ways that do not interfere with the ability of others to do the same thing. Answer A: The ultimate goal of transactional analysis is to promote client autonomy. Answer B: The goal of Adler's individual psychology is to help clients develop a more adaptive style of life. Answer C: The goal of Kelly's personal construct therapy is to help clients identify and revise or replace maladaptive personal constructs so that they are better able to "make sense" of their experiences.

Answer 32

The correct answer is A. Multicollinearity occurs when predictors in a multiple regression equation correlate highly with one another. When predictors are correlated and the predictors and criterion are administered to different samples and new regression coefficients (beta weights) are derived for each sample, there tends to be a great deal of fluctuation in the size of the weights. (It isn't necessary for you to understand why this is so for the exam -- just know that it is!) Answer B: The actual relationship between the predictors and criterion shouldn't change much from sample to sample as the result of multicollinearity, so the multiple correlation coefficient won't change substantially. Answer C: You may have been able to eliminate this response because it doesn't really make any sense. Answer D: By definition, multicollinearity INCREASES as the correlation between predictors increases.

Answer 33

The correct answer is D. In order to prove negligence, a court must determine that the psychologist's breach of duty was the proximate cause of the person's harm or injury. Answer A: Malpractice does not require reckless disregard. Answer B: Malpractice does not require gross incompetence. Answer C: Malpractice does not require callous disregard.

Answer 34

The correct answer is A. Many states require supervised hours beyond the doctoral degree in order for trainees to become licensed. Because Dr. Perkins is under supervision as she accumulates hours toward licensure, she should provide her clients with the name and contact information of her supervisor. Answer B: If Jessica has obtained her Ph.D. in clinical psychology she may ask her clients to use that title, but she should also explain her status as an unlicensed professional who is under supervision. Answer C: This is not necessary. Answer D: While recording her sessions is a good idea provided she has her clients' informed consent, recording is not required by the APA's Ethics Code.

Answer 35

The correct answer is C. Ethical Standard 7.02 of the Ethics Code addresses this issue. It states, "Psychologists...take reasonable steps to ensure that there is a current and accurate description of the program content...training goals and objectives, stipends and benefits, and requirements that must be met for satisfactory completion...." Answer A: This answer is incorrect. While this is generally a good idea, it is not explicitly required by the Code. Answer B: This answer is incorrect as there would be times when it would not apply, such as when the seminar is covering the history of psychology. Answer D: This answer is incorrect. Although student interests and needs are a consideration when defining course content, they are not the only consideration, and this action is not explicitly required by the Code.

Answer 36

The correct answer is A. This is the best response of those given. In this situation, the psychologist would want to discuss the possible risks of terminating therapy at this time and encourage the client to reconsider her decision. Answer B: Obviously, a client has a right to discontinue treatment. This creates an ethical dilemma, however, when the psychologist believes that termination is ill-advised. Answer C: Although the action described in this response would also be important, it should follow a discussion about the possible consequences of leaving. Answer D: Discussing the risks of terminating therapy at this time and documenting that conversation is the more appropriate decision.

Answer 37

The correct answer is C. Under HIPAA, psychotherapy notes that document or analyze conversations in therapy are kept separate from other patient documentation. Psychologists may choose whether or not to release psychotherapy notes to a client unless state law requires it. See the study manual for more information on how HIPAA views psychotherapy notes. Answer A: This answer is incorrect. Psychotherapy notes are kept separately from information needed to bill insurance. Answer B: Psychotherapy notes are not considered part of the clinical record that is released to clients, unless state law requires it. Answer D: This answer does not accurately describe the role and function of psychotherapy notes under HIPAA.

Answer 38

The correct answer is D. The Publication Manual offers specific recommendations for avoiding bias in language. Saying "a woman who uses a wheelchair" places the person first and correctly uses "woman" rather than "female" as a noun. See the Study Guide for additional information on this topic. Answer A: This answer is incorrect, because it does not use person first language. Answer B: This answer does not use person first language, and it uses "female" as a noun rather than as an adjective. Answer C: While this answer uses person first language, it is incorrect because it refers to a woman as a female.

Answer 39

The correct answer is D. Standard 10.04 states that "in deciding whether to offer or provide services to those already receiving mental health services elsewhere, psychologists carefully consider the treatment issues and the potential client's/patient's welfare. Psychologists discuss these issues with the client patient...and proceed with caution." Answer A: While it is a good idea to have the client sign a release so Dr. Chen could consult with the other therapist, this answer does not reflect what is required by the ethics code. Answer B: The ethics code does not state this. Answer C: This answer does not align with the language in the APA's Ethics Code.

Answer 40

The correct answer is C. Standard 6.04 states that "if the recipient of services does not pay for services as agreed, and if psychologists intend to use collection agencies or legal measures to collect the fees, psychologists first inform the person that such measures will be taken and provide that person the opportunity to make prompt payment." Answer A: While a psychologist may opt to simply write off the unpaid fees, this answer does not address the language used in the APA's Ethics Code. Answer B: The Ethics Code does not recommend this action. Answer D: The psychologist is not required to obtain the client's permission to use a collection agency.

Answer 41

The correct answer is B. Standard 6.05 states that "psychologists may engage in barter for their services only when (1) it is not clinically contraindicated, and (2) the resulting arrangement is not exploitative." Answer A: This answer is incomplete because it does not include the second condition under which psychologists may engage in barter. Answer C: This answer is not part of the conditions included in the APA's Ethics Code. Answer D: The APA's Ethics Code does not include a provision related to communities where barter is a common practice.

Answer 42

The correct answer is C. Standard 10.10 requires psychologists to "terminate therapy when it becomes reasonably clear that the client/patient no longer needs the service, is not likely to benefit or is being harmed by continued service." Answer A: In the event that it is "reasonably clear" a client is not benefiting from further treatment, a psychologist should move toward termination. Answer B: If the client is doing well, and seems to have resolved their concerns, the Ethics Code advises psychologists to move toward termination rather than looking for additional concerns that might come under the purview of treatment. Answer D: This answer is incorrect. The Ethics Code provides clear guidance on this issue.

Answer 43

The correct answer is C. Standard 3.10 notes that when psychologists conduct research they obtain informed consent. However, "for persons who are legally incapable of giving informed consent, psychologists...seek the individual's assent...and obtain appropriate permission from a legally authorized person." In this case, students can provide assent, and parents should provide consent or permission for their child to participate. Answer A: Because the students are not legally authorized to consent, they may provide their assent. Answer B: School personnel are not legally authorized to provide permission on the students' behalf. Answer D: This answer is incorrect, because while parents need to provide permission for their children to participate, the term "assent" refers specifically to the actions of individuals who are legally incapable for giving informed consent.

Answer 44

The correct answer is C. Pope et al.'s (1993) study found that male therapists were more likely to engage in sexual relationships with their clients than female therapists. Answer A: Pope et al.'s (1993) work in this area is often quoted as a means of shedding some light on this question. Answer B: There has been no relationship established between theoretical orientation and a therapist's likelihood of engaging in a sexual relationship with a client. Answer D: There has been no relationship established between a therapist's level of experience and the likelihood of engaging in a sexual relationship with a client.

Answer 45

The correct answer is C. Standard 7.07 states that "psychologists do not engage in sexual relationships with students or supervisees who are in their department, agency, or training center or over whom psychologists have or are likely to have evaluative authority." Answer A: This answer fails to account for the other ways in which the psychologist might oversee the student's work, including through routine performance evaluations, training seminars, and outreach to the community. Answer B: The APA's Ethics Code does not indicate that exceptions are granted provided administrators are aware of the situation. Answer D: This answer is incorrect, because while it may be true he could be accused of sexual harassment, that is not the reason becoming sexually involved with the student is unethical.

Answer 46

The correct answer is B. The EPPP is designed to assist boards "in their evaluation fo the qualifications of applicants for licensure and certification" by assessing "the knowledge that the most recent practice analysis has determined as foundational to the competent practice of psychology" (ASPPB, 2010). Answer A: The EPPP is an assessment of knowledge, and while knowledge is a component of competence, this answer is less accurate than the answer that states the test evaluates knowledge. Answer C: The EPPP does not evaluate training. Answer D: While reasoning is involved in responding to answers on the EPPP, the test is designed as an assessment of knowledge.

Answer 47

The correct answer is D. While the APA's Ethics Code encourages psychologists to resolve ethical violations informally, when "informal resolution appears appropriate," when the violation involves "substantial harm" and is not appropriate for an informal resolution, filing an official complaint is warranted. Sexual misconduct is an offense that involves "substantial harm." Importantly, client confidentiality takes precedence over the need to educate or punish an offending psychologist. Answer A: This answer is incorrect, because sexual misconduct is considered an offense that involves "substantial harm." Answer B: Even though this answer acknowledges the need to protect client confidentiality, it is incorrect because of the severity of the offense. Answer C: This answer is incorrect, because it fails to account for the need to protect the client's confidentiality.

Answer 48

The correct answer is B. Standard 1.06 states "Psychologists cooperate in ethics investigations, proceedings, and resulting requirements of the APA or any affiliated state psychological association to which they belong....Failure to cooperate is itself an ethics violation." Answer A: If Dr. Smith does not respond to APA's Ethics Committee inquiry, she is in violation of her ethical responsibility rather than a legal responsibility. Answer C: This answer is incorrect. The question is asking about Dr. Smith's failure to respond to APA's Ethics Board. This is an ethical problem, rather than a legal one. Answer D: This answer is incorrect. The central concern of this question has to do with Dr. Smith's responding to the APA Ethical Committee's inquiry. Psychologists are required to respond per Standard 1.06.

Answer 49

The correct answer is C. This issue is addressed in Standard 3.05(c) of the APA's Ethics Code and Principle I.26 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 3.05(c) recommends that psychologists avoid multiple relationships. However, it also states that, when psychologists are "to serve in more than one role in judicial or administrative proceedings, at the outset they clarify role expectations and the extent of confidentiality and thereafter as changes occur." In other words, it is acceptable to adopt dual roles in some situations. The acceptability of dual roles in legal proceedings when one role is a fact witness is addressed in the "Guidelines for Child Custody Evaluations in Divorce Proceedings." Answer A: While psychologists want to avoid multiple relationships when possible, it is important to understand the exceptions to this general rule. Answer B: This answer is incorrect. Rather than seeking permission, the psychologist should clarify role expectations with the parties involved. Answer D: This answer is incorrect. See the explanation for Answer C.

Answer 50

The correct answer is B. The APA's Ethics Code specifies the APA may take action against a member after "his or her conviction of a felony, expulsion or suspension from an affiliated state psychological association, or suspension or loss of licensure." Answer A: This answer is incorrect. "Double jeopardy" does not apply. Answer C: The APA does not take action against psychologists who are not members. Answer D: This answer is incorrect. "...the 2001 Rules and Procedures do not guarantee an opportunity for an in-person hearing" when the sanction is less than expulsion, however, this answer is incorrect because it includes nonmembers of APA.

Answer 51

The correct answer is A. The General Principles, as opposed to Ethical Standards, "...guide and inspire psychologists toward the very highest ethical ideals of the profession." Answer B: The General Principles do not define right and wrong behavior. Answer C: This answer is incorrect. The General Principles are vague and overarching rather than explicit in their meaning. Answer D: The General Principles should not be used as a basis for imposing sanctions.

Answer 52

The correct answer is D. The Introduction and Applicability section of the APA's Ethics Code states "Actions that violate the standards of the Ethics Code may also lead to the imposition of sanctions on psychologists or students whether or not they are APA members by bodies other than APA, including state psychological associations, other professional groups, psychology boards, other state or federal agencies, and payors for health services." Answer A: The APA Ethics Committee is not the only entity who may issue sanctions based on violating the ethical responsibilities described in the Ethics Code. Answer B: This answer is incorrect. The aspirational principles are broad statements intended to inspire psychologists to the highest principles. They are not applicable to this question. Answer C: Standards of Practice are not applicable to this question.

Answer 53

The correct answer is C. Standard 1.03 states "If the demands of an organization with which psychologists are affiliated or for whom they are working are in conflict with the Ethics Code, psychologists clarify the nature of the conflict, make known their commitment to the Ethics Code, and take reasonable steps to resolve the conflict...." Answer A: Unless the administrator is a member of APA, the Ethics Committee will not act on the complaint. Even if her supervisor is a member, however, Dr. Freeman should take other steps first to attempt to resolve the issue. Answer B: If the administrator is a licensed professional, it is possible the board may hear the complaint, but again, it would be better for Dr. Freeman to take some initial steps first. Answer D: This answer fails to account for the fact that psychologists have a responsibility to confront policies that are in conflict with their ethical responsibilities.

Answer 54

The correct answer is C. This answer closely aligns with Standard 2.06 which states, "When psychologists become aware of personal problems that may interfere with their performing work-related duties adequately, they take appropriate measures, such as obtaining professional consultation or assistance, and determine whether they should limit, suspend, or terminate their work-related duties." Answer A: Dr. Godfrey might decide to refer some or even all of her clients, but this would not be her first course of action. Answer B: Again, Dr. Godfrey may ultimately decide to find another job, but this answer does not track well with the APA's Ethics Code. Answer D: This answer is incorrect. Dr. Godfrey has a professional responsibility to decide what is in the best interest of her clients in terms of their treatment.

Answer 55

The correct answer is B. Note that this question asks which statement is NOT true. Standard 3.10 states "For persons who are legally incapable of giving informed consent, psychologists nevertheless (1) provide an appropriate explanation, (2) seek the individual's assent, (3) consider such persons' preferences and best interests, and (4) obtain appropriate permission from a legally authorized person." Answer A: Informed consent should be documented according to Standard 3.10. Answer C: Informed consent is required in most research studies where participants are involved and always when an experimental treatment is administered. Answer D: Standard 3.10 specifies that informed consent should include information about confidentiality.

Answer 56

The correct answer is D. Standard 8.04 states that when participation in research is required for a course (whether part of a grade or for extra credit), students must be offered alternative activities. Answer A: Instructors must provide students with an alternative and comparable means by which to obtain credit. Answer B: This answer fails to account for the central concern of this question, which is that instructors provide an alternative means of obtaining credit. Answer C: This answer is incorrect. Extra credit is permissible, provided students have an alternative way to earn it besides through participating in research.

Answer 57

The correct answer is A. Sexual harassment is explicitly addressed by Standard 3.02 of the APA's Ethics Code and Principle I.4 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 3.02 of the Ethics Code states that "psychologists do not engage in sexual harassment"; and Principle I.4 of the Canadian Code of Ethics states that psychologists "abstain from all forms of harassment, including sexual harassment." Answer B: This answer is incorrect. Sexual harassment is explicitly addressed in the codes. Answer C: This answer is incorrect as sexual harassment is explicitly prohibited in the ethics codes. Answer D: This answer is incorrect. The ethics codes prohibit sexual harassment explicitly.

Answer 58

The correct answer is D. Being familiar with the exact language of the ethical guidelines would have allowed you to identify the correct response to this question. Standard 7.07 of the APA's Ethics Code and Principle II.28 of the Canadian Code of Ethics prohibit psychologists from becoming involved in sexual relationships with students and supervisees over whom they have evaluative authority. Answer A: Is incorrect, because ethics codes prohibit sexual intimacies with supervisees when there is an evaluative relationship. Answer B: This answer is incorrect as the language specifies that supervisors who have an evaluative role with supervisees should not engage in sexual intimacies. Answer C: This answer is incorrect. Supervisors are prohibited from having sexual intimacies with their supervisees when they are in an evaluative role.

Answer 59

The correct answer is C. This question describes a standard proactive interference study. During the first phase, the experimental group is presented with a list of word pairs (e.g., tall-short) and the control group engages in an unrelated arithmetic task. During the second phase, the experimental and control groups both study the to-be-remembered word pairs (e.g., dog-cat). During the third phase, participants in both groups are asked to recall the word pairs. For the experimental group, the two tasks are similar, and the first list of word pairs interferes with the ability to learn or recall the second list. This is referred to as proactive interference. For the control group, the two tasks are dissimilar, and there is less interference. Consequently, the control group will remember more words than the experimental group. Answer A: It is not true that due to retroactive interference, the control group will recall more word pairs. See explanation for answer C. Answer B: It is not true that due to retroactive interference, the experimental group will recall more word pairs. See explanation for answer C. Answer D: It is not true that due to proactive interference, the control group will recall fewer word pairs. See explanation for answer C.

Answer 60

The correct answer is D. Statistical regression refers to the tendency of extreme scores to regress toward the mean on retesting and may threaten a study's internal validity whenever participants are chosen on the basis of their extreme scores on a pretest. Although statistical regression is typically used in the context of scores obtained by a group of examinees (rather than an individual examinee), of the answers given, it is the best choice. Answer A: Demand characteristic refers to experimental participants forming an interpretation of the experiment's purpose and then changing their behavior accordingly. See explanation for answer D. Answer B: Cohort effect refers to variations in a study over time among subjects who share in common some type or time frame of experience. See explanation for answer D. Answer C: Normal aging effects does not account for this decline in IQ score. See explanation for answer D.

Answer 61

The correct answer is C. Methods of prevention are classified based on the level of intervention. Primary prevention focuses on all members of an identified group. Secondary prevention targets specific individuals who are at high risk. Tertiary prevention intervenes after the incidence of the behavior. The criminal justice system intervenes after an individual engages in a criminal act. Answer A: The criminal justice system provides intervention at the tertiary, not the primary, level of prevention. See explanation for answer C. Answer B: The criminal justice system provides intervention at the tertiary, not the secondary, level of prevention. See explanation for answer C. Answer D: The criminal justice system provides intervention at the tertiary, not the quartiary, level of prevention. See explanation for answer C.

Answer 62

The correct answer is B. In this situation, a program is being developed for a particular population rather than specific individuals from that population. Since this program is aimed at all seniors in the community, it is a primary prevention. Answer A: Bloom (1968) distinguishes between community-wide, milestone, and high-risk preventions. Milestone programs are aimed at people experiencing a transition (e.g., retirement). Answer C: A secondary prevention would be aimed at specific individuals who have been identified as being at high-risk. As originally defined, secondary prevention always involves some kind of screening process to identify individuals. Answer D: A tertiary program is for people who have already suffered mental health problems. Its purpose is to reduce the risk for relapse or a continuation or worsening of the problem.

Answer 63

The correct answer is A. In the late 1970s, the learned helplessness model was expanded to include the role of attributions in the development of depression. (Note that, as described in the Abnormal Psychology chapter of the written study materials, the most recent version of the model places less emphasis on attributions and, instead, focuses on the role of hopelessness.) Answer B: The fundamental attribution bias refers to the tendency to attribute the behavior of others to dispositional factors. Answer C: The "original aversive events model" is a "made-up" term. Answer D: Rehm's self-control model views depression as being the result of problems related to self-monitoring, self-evaluation, and self-reinforcement.

Answer 64

The correct answer is C. Although "fee-splitting" is not explicitly prohibited by the Ethics Code, certain restrictions apply when client fees will be shared. The per patient fee must reflect Dr. Staret's actual costs and can include any costs involved in making a referral. Answer A: This scenario does not involve "fee-splitting" but rather Dr. Staret's actual costs. See explanation for response C. Answer B: This scenario does not involve the issue of "multiple relationships." See explanation for response C. Answer D: A referral fee is acceptable as long as it represents the costs involved in making the referral (e.g., the time Dr. Staret spends preparing a client's file or discussing the case with Dr. Tyro).

Answer 65

The correct answer is D. The term "universal symbols" should have helped you recognize the correct answer to this question. Of the individuals listed, only Jung incorporates the notion of universal symbols into his work. When working with psychotic patients, Jung noticed a great deal of similarity in the content of their delusions and hallucinations, and this led to the development of his theory of archetypes and the collective unconscious. Answer A: Perls did not work with universal symbols in the delusions and hallucinations of psychotic patients. See explanation for answer D. Answer B: Sullivan did not work with universal symbols in the delusions and hallucinations of psychotic patients. See explanation for answer D. Answer C: Adler did not work with universal symbols in the delusions and hallucinations of psychotic patients. See explanation for answer D.

Answer 66

The correct answer is D. In any single-group design involving a before and after comparison, change in status on the DV might be due to the intervention or to an external event that occurred at about the same time the intervention was applied. In other words, the study's internal validity is threatened by history. Answer A: Carryover effects are a problem when two or more levels of an IV are applied to the same participants. Answer B: Statistical regression is a problem when the group or groups have been selected because of their extreme status on the DV or a related variable, which is not the case in this study. Answer C: Selection is a problem in between-groups studies when participants cannot be randomly assigned to the different groups. This is a within-subjects study, so selection is not a threat.

Answer 67

The correct answer is B. In this situation, the students are doing the opposite of what the PTA members want them to do. Psychological reactance occurs when a person feels his or her personal freedom is being threatened and, as a result, does the opposite of what is required or requested. Answer A: Cognitive dissonance refers to a state of discomfort that results when a person has inconsistent attitudes and behaviors. Answer C: The boomerang effect refers specifically to attitude change and involves changing one's attitude in a way that is opposite to that contained in a persuasive communication. Because the boomerang effect refers to attitude change (rather than behavior change), answer B is a better response. Answer D: Deindividuation occurs when a person feels anonymous because of his participation in a group. It can cause a person to act in uncharacteristic ways.

Answer 68

The correct answer is D. Although lithium has been the standard treatment for Bipolar Disorder to reduce mania and mood fluctuations, alternative drugs have been found to be similarly effective. Of the drugs listed, only anticonvulsant drugs (especially carbamazapine and valproate) have been found to be comparable to lithium in their beneficial effects. Answer A: SSRIs is incorrect. See explanation for answer D. Answer B: Antipsychotic drugs is incorrect. See explanation for answer D. Answer C: Benzodiazepines is incorrect. See explanation for answer D.

Answer 69

The correct answer is B. In this situation, the consultant's goal is to help the teacher acquire the skills she needs to deal with ongoing problems in her classroom. In consultee-centered case consultation, the focus in on the consultee's skills, abilities, objectivity, etc. Answer A: In client-centered case consultation, there would be a particular student who would be the focus of the consultation. Answer C: In program-centered administrative consultation, an existing program is the focus. Answer D: In this type of consultation, the consultant helps administrators acquire the skills they need for future program development and implementation.

Answer 70

The correct answer is B. Although the research on the relation between race/ethnicity and Schizophrenia is limited, there is some evidence that African American individuals have a slightly higher rate of Schizophrenia than other groups. And the results of the existing studies suggest that African Americans with other disorders (especially Bipolar Disorder, depression, and alcohol-related organic disorders) are often misdiagnosed as having Schizophrenia because their symptoms include auditory and visual hallucinations. See, e.g., NIMH Epidemiologic Catchment Area Study, reported in American Psychiatric Association, Ethnic Minority Elderly: A Task Force Report of the American Psychiatric Association, Washington, DC, APA, 1994. Answer A: There is no evidence that the higher rate of Schizophrenia found among African American individuals may be due to genetic factors. See explanation for answer B. Answer C: There is no evidence that the higher rate of Schizophrenia found among African American individuals may be due to lower recovery rates. See explanation for answer B. Answer D: There is no evidence that the higher rate of Schizophrenia found among African American individuals may be due to a higher risk for complications during birth. See explanation for answer B.

Answer 71

The correct answer is D. The studies have confirmed that a difference between middle-class African American and White families is that African American families are less rigid with regard to gender roles. Although White middle-class families are generally less rigid about gender roles than they were in the past, this is still considered a characteristic that distinguishes African American and White middle-class families. Answer A: The answer, "are more likely to have a patriarchal structure", is incorrect. See explanation for response D. Answer B: The answer, "are more likely to have a matriarchal structure", is incorrect. See explanation for response D. Answer C: The answer, "are less likely to include members of the extended family", is the opposite of what is true.

Answer 72

The correct answer is B. This is another one of those questions that is difficult to answer because the research is far from consistent. Of the responses given, this is the best one. Males are more likely to do the interrupting, while females are more likely to be the "victims" of interruptions. Answer A: The answer, "in comparison to men, women interrupt others more often", is incorrect. See explanation for response D. Answer C: The answer, "in comparison to men, women interrupt women (but not men) more often", is incorrect. See explanation for response D. Answer D: The answer, "in comparison to women, men interrupt men (but not women) more often", is incorrect. See explanation for response D.

Answer 73

The correct answer is A. This is a difficult question because very few of the existing studies consider the reactions of fathers of children with ADHD. The limited research on this issue suggests that fathers of children with ADHD rate the behaviors of their children as less problematic. For example, E. J. Mash and C. Johnston found that fathers tend to rate the behaviors of children with ADHD as less troublesome than mothers (Parental perceptions of child behavior problems, parenting self-esteem, and mothers' reported stress in younger and older hyperactive and normal children, Journal of Consulting and Clinical Psychology, 51, 86-99, 1983). And, more recently, Singh interviewed 39 mothers and 22 fathers of boys who had received the diagnosis of ADHD and found that only four of the fathers felt their sons' behaviors required medical attention [Boys will be boys: Fathers' perspectives on ADHD symptoms, diagnosis, and drug treatment, Harvard Review of Psychiatry, 11(6), 308-316, 2003]. Answer B: The answer, "tend to rate the behaviors of their son (but not daughter) with ADHD as less problematic than mothers do", is incorrect. See explanation for response D. Answer C: The answer, "tend to rate the behaviors of their daughter (but not son) with ADHD as less problematic than mothers do", is incorrect. See explanation for response D. Answer D: The answer, "tend to rate the child's behaviors as more problematic than mothers do", is incorrect. See explanation for response D.

Answer 74

The correct answer is C. The research on EMDR has not produced entirely consistent results. However, Davidson and Parker's (2001) meta-analysis found that eye movements do not contribute to its effectiveness and that its benefits are due, instead, to exposure to the feared stimulus. These investigators concluded that the treatment has similar effects with and without the inclusion of eye movements. Answer A: The answer, "are the most important contributor to the effectiveness of the treatment", is incorrect. See explanation for response C. Answer B: The answer, "are one of three essential contributors to the effectiveness of the treatment", is incorrect. See explanation for response C. Answer D: The answer, "actually decrease the effectiveness of the treatment", is incorrect. See explanation for response C.

Answer 75

The correct answer is C. As noted in the Clinical Psychology chapter of the written study materials, research by Snowden et al. and others has consistently identified disparities in the utilization rates for some ethnic minority groups when compared to the rates for Whites. Snowden et al.'s data indicate that, in comparison to Whites, African Americans are overrepresented in public inpatient mental health services but are underrepresented in outpatient mental health services. See, e.g., L. R. Snowden, African American service use for mental health problems, Journal of Community Psychology, 27(3), 303-313, 1999. Answer A: The answer, "Compared to Whites, African Americans have higher utilization rates for both inpatient and outpatient mental health services.", is incorrect. See explanation for response C. Answer B: The answer, "Compared to Whites, African Americans have lower utilization rates for both inpatient and outpatient mental health services.", is incorrect. See explanation for response C. Answer D: The answer, "Compared to Whites, African Americans have higher rates for outpatient mental health services but lower rates for public inpatient mental health services.", is incorrect. See explanation for response C.

Answer 76

The correct answer is D. This question requires you to be familiar with Howard et al.'s research on the "dose-dependent effect" of psychotherapy, which is summarized in the Clinical Psychology chapter of the written study materials. K. I. Howard, S. M. Kopta, M. S. Krause, and D. E. Orlinsky found that after the 26th therapy session, 75% of therapy clients included in their study showed a marked improvement in symptoms (The dose-effect relationship in psychotherapy, American Psychologist, 41 159-164, 1986). Answer A: The answer, "inconsistent with earlier research by Howard et al. (1986) which found that only 15% of therapy clients showed substantial improvement after the 26th session.", is incorrect. See explanation for response D. Answer B: The answer, "inconsistent with earlier research by Howard et al. (1986) which found that only 48% of therapy clients showed substantial improvement in symptoms after the 26th session.", is incorrect. See explanation for response D. Answer C: The answer, "inconsistent with earlier research by Howard et al. (1986) which found that nearly 96% of therapy clients showed substantial improvement in symptoms after the 26th session.", is incorrect. See explanation for response D.

Answer 77

The correct answer is C. High levels of serotonin have been linked to both appetite suppression and anxiety. Reduced caloric intake by those with Anorexia apparently fosters a sense of calm and personal control by lowering serotonin levels. Low levels of serotonin have been linked to depression and apparently contribute to binge eating in Bulimia - i.e., bingeing on sweets and carbohydrates increases serotonin levels and thereby elevates mood. Answer A: The answer, "Low levels of serotonin are believed to precipitate binge eating in Bulimia and starvation in Anorexia.", is incorrect. See explanation for response C. Answer B: The answer, "High levels of serotonin are believed to precipitate binge eating in Bulimia and starvation in Anorexia.", is incorrect. See explanation for response C. Answer D: The answer, "Low levels of serotonin are believed to precipitate starvation in Anorexia while high levels are believed to precipitate binge eating in Bulimia.", is incorrect. See explanation for response C.

Answer 78

The correct answer is D. Piaget distinguished between four stages of cognitive development. The preoperational stage extends from ages 3 to 6 years. Knowing that Piaget described centration as a primary limitation of the preoperational stage would have helped you identify this as the correct answer. Piaget believed that egocentrism is a form of centration - i.e., young children cannot take into account their own point of view and the point of view of another person at the same time. Answer A: Primary circular reactions are characteristic of babies between the ages of 1 and 4 months and involve the repetition of pleasurable actions. Answer B: Transductive thinking is characteristic of the preoperational stage. However, as defined by Piaget, it refers to reasoning characterized by a tendency to move from one particular case to another particular case without taking the general into account (e.g., I had bad thoughts about my mom; she got sick; therefore, my thoughts made her sick). Answer C: Horizontal decalage refers to the inability to transfer one type of conservation to another (e.g., the conservation of substance to weight or volume).

Answer 79

The correct answer is B. Divergent thinking refers to the ability to think flexibly and consider a wide range of solutions. Creativity involves a number of attributes including divergent thinking, open-mindedness, unconventionality, and willingness to take risks. Answer A: Sternberg distinguishes between three types of intelligence - analytic, creative, and practical. Divergent thinking is most associated with creative thinking, not practical intelligence. Answer C: Neuroticism has not been associated with divergent thinking. Answer D: Convergent (rather than divergent) thinking is associated with crystallized intelligence.

Answer 80

The correct answer is C. Lowering the predictor (screening device) cutoff score increases the number of "positives" and decreases the number of "negatives." "Positives" are individuals who are identified by a predictor as having the attribute being assessed - in this case, people who are at risk for drug abuse. Lowering the predictor cutoff increases the number of true and false positives. Answer A: The answer, "increases the number of true positives and true negatives", is incorrect. See explanation for response C. Answer B: The answer, "decreases the number of true positives and true negatives", is incorrect. See explanation for response C. Answer D: The answer, "decreases the number of true and false positives", is incorrect. See explanation for response C.

Answer 81

The correct answer is C. Spontaneous recovery occurs when an extinguished conditioned response recurs without additional conditioning trials. Pavlov found that following extinction trials, dogs in his studies often spontaneously emitted the conditioned response (CR) and he referred to this as spontaneous recovery. Spontaneous recovery is the reason why it is often necessary to conduct multiple extinction sessions in order to eliminate a conditioned response. Answer A: Higher-order conditioning is a procedure where a conditioned stimulus (CS) of one experiment acts as the unconditioned stimulus (US) of another to condition a neutral stimulus. Answer B: Stimulus discrimination refers to an organism's ability to respond to a specific stimulus with a conditioned response, but not to similar stimuli. Answer D: Overshadowing occurs when only one of two neutral stimuli that have been simultaneously paired with an US elicits a CR when presented separately. The stimulus that is more salient to the subject will produce a CR.

Answer 82

The correct answer is D. In this situation, the goal is to eliminate a behavior. Therefore, punishment is the correct choice. If you have to choose between positive and negative punishment as an intervention, negative punishment is generally preferred. Negative punishment involves removing a stimulus following a behavior, and examples of negative punishment are time-out and response cost. Answer A: Positive reinforcement involves applying a stimulus following a behavior in order to increase that behavior. Answer B: Negative reinforcement involves removing a stimulus following a behavior in order to increase that behavior. Answer C: Positive punishment could be used, but it may be considered objectionable for both ethical and practical reasons. Hitting a child, for example, is an example of positive punishment that may be unethical. In practice, positive punishment is not as effective as negative punishment.

Answer 83

The correct answer is C. In contrast to behavioral explanations that attribute learning to classical or operant conditioning, Bandura proposed that people acquire a behavior by observing another individual perform that behavior; that is, they learn vicariously. Answer A: Tolman's model of latent learning proposes that learning can occur without reinforcement and without being manifested in performance improvement. Answer B: Generative learning is one of several approaches to constructivism. Answer D: Kohler proposed that learning can be the result of insight (an "aha" experience) that reflects an internal cognitive restructuring of the environment that allows the organism to achieve its goals.

Answer 84

The correct answer is B. Broadbent's (1958) filter theory of attention was the first comprehensive theory of attention and the first of the "bottleneck" theories. It proposes that a filter (i.e., sensory buffer) selects which incoming message will be further processed or attended to on the basis of the physical properties of the message. Most participants in Broadbent's studies reported the information by one ear then the other ear rather than by the chronological order in which they heard the digits. Broadbent concluded that this proved that the physical properties of the message determined if it was attended to or ignored. In other words, in the dichotic listening task studies, the filter allowed the message from one ear to "pass through" before it allowed the message from the other ear to do so, which explained why participants would report the digits heard in one ear first, followed by the digits heard in the other ear. Answer A: Listeners most often reported the information presented in one ear followed by the information presented in the other ear. Answer C: Listeners were able to report information presented to both ears. Answer D: Listeners were most often able to report all digits presented to them.

Answer 85

The correct answer is C. In a token economy, tokens have value because they can be exchanged for a variety of unconditioned (primary) reinforcers. Tokens are generalized conditioned (secondary) reinforcers that can be exchanged for a variety of unconditioned (primary) reinforcers. Like other conditioned reinforcers, they are reinforcing only because they are associated with primary reinforcers. Answer A: Primary reinforcers are inherently reinforcing and include food, water, and desirable activities. Answer B: In a token economy, the back-up reinforcers are the primary reinforcers that can be "purchased" with tokens. Answer D: This is a distractor, as the term for a primary reinforcer is an unconditioned reinforcer (not a generalized unconditioned reinforcer).

Answer 86

The correct answer is D. Automatic thoughts are surface-level cognitions that contribute to dysfunction and result from maladaptive schema. Answer A: Traits are enduring personality characteristics that describe or determine an individual's behavior across a range of situations. Answer B: Cognitive distortions are systematic errors or biases in information processing and are the link between maladaptive cognitive schemas and negative automatic thoughts. Answer C: Schemas are underlying cognitive structures and rules that consist of core beliefs and determine how individuals categorize and interpret experiences.

Answer 87

The correct answer is A. Backward conditioning involves presenting the unconditioned stimulus (US) before the conditioned stimulus (CS) and is rarely effective, especially in non-human animals. Answer B: The success of classical conditioning is affected by several factors, including the temporal relationship between presentation of the US and the CS. Forward conditioning refers to conditioning that occurs when the CS is presented before the US. Answer C: Trace conditioning is a type of forward conditioning in which the CS is presented and terminated before presenting the US. It is not as effective as delay conditioning. Answer D: Delay conditioning is a type of forward conditioning that involves presenting the CS so that it precedes and overlaps presentation of the US. It is the most effective method for establishing a conditioned response.

Answer 88

The correct answer is D. Retroactive interference refers to conditions in which newly learned information interferes with the recall of previously learned (old) information. Answer A: Retrieval failure is the failure to recall information in the absence of memory cues. Answer B: Trace decay theory states that if memories are not recalled consistently, they will begin to decay and will ultimately be forgotten. Answer C: Proactive interference occurs when previously learned information interferes with the recall of newly learned information.

Answer 89

The correct answer is C. The Yerkes-Dodson Law specifically states that moderate levels of arousal maximize the efficiency of learning and performance, while extremely low and high levels are associated with decreased efficiency. Put another way, the relationship between arousal and learning assumes the shape of an inverted "U." The relationship between arousal and learning is also affected by task difficulty: usually the more difficult the task, the lower the optimal level of arousal. Answer A: The Premack principle is a type of positive reinforcement in which a high frequency behavior is used as the reinforcer for a low frequency behavior. Answer B: The zone of proximal development was coined by Vygotsky to describe the range of learning that includes what children can accomplish by themselves and what they can do with assistance from others (usually adults or experienced peers). Answer D: The James-Lange Theory of emotion posits that emotions occur as a result of physiological reactions to external stimuli.

Answer 90

The correct answer is A. Prospective memory refers to the ability to "remember to remember;" in other words, it refers to the ability to remember to do something in the future. Answer B: Reconstructive memory is the process of recreating an experience or event that has only been partially stored in memory. Answer C: Retrospective memory refers to memory content that is in the past. Answer D: Source memory is the contextual information for where or how an individual came to know what that person remembers.

Answer 91

The correct answer is A. Semantic memory includes general knowledge and is responsible for the storage of facts, rules, and concepts. For example, remembering the rules of conjugating irregular verbs helps with the use of language. Answer B: Procedural memory stores information about how to do things and is used to acquire, retain, and employ perceptive, cognitive, and motor skills. Answer C: Implicit memory refers to memories that are recalled without conscious effort. Procedural memories are usually implicit memories. Answer D: Nondeclarative memory is another term used to refer to implicit memory, or memories that are recalled without conscious effort.

Answer 92

The correct answer is C. As a therapeutic intervention, in vivo exposure involves exposure to real-life events, objects, and/or scenarios. Answer A: In imaginal exposure, an individual mentally confronts a fear or situation by picturing it in one's mind. Answer B: Therapy with virtual reality exposure may incorporate computer graphics, visual displays, and sensory inputs to create an immersive virtual environment. Answer D: Covert sensitization is a type of aversion therapy that uses imagery. Covert sensitization uses counterconditioning in imagination (versus in vivo) in order to reduce or eliminate an undesirable behavior.

Answer 93

The correct answer is B. The question states that the purpose of the conditioning is to decrease the target behavior, so punishment is the correct answer. Negative punishment occurs when a behavior decreases due to removal or cessation of a stimulus following the behavior. The removal of the video game system (stimulus) after the girl's tantrum (target behavior) in order to decrease the behavior is an example of negative punishment (as something is being taken away). Answer A: Positive punishment occurs when a behavior decreases because of the application of a stimulus following the behavior. Answer C: With negative reinforcement, a behavior increases as the result of the withdrawal or termination of a stimulus following the behavior. Answer D: Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior increases because of the stimulus that is applied (or added) following the behavior.

Answer 94

The correct answer is D. Long-term memory can be conceptualized in terms of two basic types or categories - procedural and declarative. As its name implies, procedural memory contains memories for procedures - that is, perceptual, cognitive, and motor skills. Declarative memory (which is subdivided into semantic and episodic memory) contains memories for facts and events. Answer A: The terms echoic and iconic are used to describe sensory memories and refer, respectively, to memory for auditory stimuli and memory for visual stimuli. The terms echoic and iconic provide cues as to what they refer--i.e., "echo" suggests sound, while "icon" suggests an image. Answer B: Declarative memory contains facts, and episodic memory contains events that have been personally experienced. Answer C: Procedural memory is typically implicit, meaning that it does not take conscious effort to recall how to do something. Declarative memory is more often explicit, meaning that it may take conscious effort to retrieve a memory.

Answer 95

The correct answer is C. Functional behavioral analysis is also known as functional behavioral assessment. As its name implies, the analysis involves identifying the function (purpose) of a behavior. From the behavioral perspective, a behavior is controlled by its antecedents and consequences, and its function is defined in terms of those variables. A functional behavioral analysis is conducted to identify the antecedents and consequences that are contributing to or maintaining a behavior. Answer A: Underlying motivations do not fit the behavioral model. Answer B: With operant conditioning, chaining is used to combine a sequence of responses in order to end up with a "behavior chain." Chaining does not involve examining the function of behaviors. Answer D: Program costs and benefits are not relevant to functional analysis.

Answer 96

The correct answer is D. Stress inoculation was designed to help people deal effectively with stress by enhancing their coping skills. It consists of the three phases listed in this question (cognitive preparation, skills acquisition, and application and follow-through). Answer A: Rehm's self-control therapy is based on the assumption that deficits in three aspects of self-control can increase a person's vulnerability to depression. Self-monitoring, self-evaluation, and self-reinforcement are the three targets of self-control therapy. Answer B: Self-instructional training helps impulsive and hyperactive children insert adaptive, self-controlling thoughts between a stimulus situation and their response to that situation. Answer C: Attribution retraining focuses on altering individuals' perceptions of the causes of their problematic behavior.

Answer 97

The correct answer is B. Chaining is believed to account for the acquisition of complex behaviors. It involves the association of responses such that each response acts as a secondary reinforcer and as a discriminative stimulus for the following response. The final reinforcer (the reinforcer that is delivered at the end of the "chain") is a primary reinforcer. Answer A: Shaping involves successive approximations to the desired behavior. Answer C: Differential reinforcement occurs when the target behavior is decreased by reinforcing behaviors other than the target behavior. Answer D: Classical conditioning occurs when a neutral stimulus is repeatedly paired with an unconditioned stimulus so that the neutral (conditioned) stimulus eventually elicits a response similar to the one elicited by the unconditioned stimulus. Chaining is a intervention based on operant conditioning.

Answer 98

The correct answer is B. In this situation, you are removing a stimulus to increase a behavior. Removal of a stimulus (e.g., a restriction) after a behavior in order to increase the behavior is an example of negative reinforcement. Answer A: Positive punishment occurs when a behavior decreases because of the application of a stimulus following the behavior. The question asks what is being used to increase (not decrease) the daughter's behavior, so punishment cannot be the correct answer. Answer C: Response cost is an application of negative punishment that is used to eliminate an undesirable behavior by imposing a penalty or fine (i.e., removing a specific stimulus) whenever the undesirable behavior occurs. Answer D: Shaping is a type of positive reinforcement and involves applying, not removing, a stimulus following a behavior in order to increase that behavior.

Answer 99

The correct answer is B. Time-out involves removing opportunities for reinforcement for a period of time following a behavior to reduce that behavior. Response cost entails removing positive reinforcement (e.g., a desirable activity) following a behavior to eliminate the behavior. Answer A: Operant extinction entails withholding reinforcement from a previously reinforced response in order to eliminate or decrease that response. Time-out is usually classified as a type of negative punishment, but it may be considered a form of extinction if it is the continuous removal of a reinforcer from a previously reinforced response. Response cost is an application of negative punishment and is not considered a form of extinction; therefore, this answer choice is not correct. Answer C: Differential reinforcement combines positive reinforcement with extinction and involves reinforcing alternative behaviors while ignoring the target behavior. Time-out and response cost are both examples of negative punishment and do not utilize differential reinforcement. Answer D: Negative reinforcement is used to increase (not decrease) a behavior.

Answer 100

The correct answer is C. Although Wolpe originally developed systematic desensitization as an application of reciprocal inhibition, research using the dismantling strategy has found that reciprocal inhibition is not the critical component. The dismantling strategy involves comparing the effects of the various components of an intervention by administering different components to different participants. The use of this strategy is to identify the effective components of systematic desensitization has found that the critical component is extinction of the anxiety response through repeated exposure to the CS without the US. Answer A: Reciprocal inhibition is a form of counterconditioning used to replace an undesired response with a desired response. Answer B: Negative reinforcement occurs when a response increases because an aversive stimulus is removed following the response. Answer D: Escape conditioning is a type of negative reinforcement in which a behavior occurs because it allows the individual to escape an undesirable stimulus or event.

Answer 101

The correct answer is D. The Premack principle is an application of positive reinforcement. When using the Premack principle, a high probability behavior is used to reinforce a low probability behavior in order to increase the frequency of the low probability behavior. It is also known as "Grandma's Rule" (e.g., "you can go out and play [a highly desired behavior] once you've cleaned your room [a less desired behavior]."). Answer A: The reinforcer only elicits the desired behavior because it is contingent upon the desired behavior being performed (e.g., a student studies for an hour because only then are they permitted to play video games). Answer B: The reinforcer (i.e., the high-frequency, desirable behavior) must be applied consistently. Answer C: The reinforcer is a naturally-reinforcing behavior, not conditioned.

Answer 102

The correct answer is C. Iconic memory is an aspect of sensory memory that stores visual stimuli. Sperling was studying iconic memory. Answer A: A flashbulb memory is a vivid and detailed image of what a person was doing at the time a dramatic event occurred, and it is a specific type of episodic memory. Answer B: Semantic memory is the aspect of long-term memory that includes general knowledge. Answer D: Echoic memory is the aspect of sensory memory that stores auditory stimuli.

Answer 103

The correct answer is C. Erikson proposed that the primary developmental task of adolescence is the achievement of a coherent identity. Healthy identity development during adolescence is a precursor of intimacy in romantic relationships during emerging adulthood and lays the foundation for healthy adult relationships. Answer A: Autonomy is found in the 2nd stage of Erikson's stages of psychosocial development. During this stage, children acquire a degree of self-reliance and self-confidence if allowed to develop at their own pace but may begin to doubt their ability to control themselves and their world if parents are overcritical, overprotective, or inconsistent. Answer B: Generativity is in Erikson's 8th stage of psychosocial development and is the positive goal of middle adulthood. This not only includes procreation but also of creativity and fulfilling one's full parental and social responsibilities toward the next generation. This is in contrast to narrow interest in the self, or self-absorption. Answer D: Found in Erikson's 8th stage of psychosocial development, ego integrity vs. despair, the individual reflects on the life they lived and may develop either integrity (i.e., a sense of satisfaction in having lived a good life and the ability to approach death with equanimity) or despair (i.e., a feeling of bitterness about opportunities missed and time wasted, and a dread of approaching death).

Answer 104

The correct answer is B. The preoperational stage occurs from ages 2-7, and is characterized by the development of the symbolic (semiotic) function, which is an extension of representational thought and permits the child to learn through the use of language, mental images, and other symbols. Answer A: The sensorimotor stage occurs from birth-2 years and involves the child learning about objects and other people through engaging with them and taking in sensory information from these interactions. Answer C: In the concrete operational stage, typically occurring from ages 7 to 11, children are capable of mental operations, which are logical rules for transforming and manipulating information. Answer D: The formal operational stage (age 11+) the youth is able to think abstractly and is capable of hypothetico-deductive reasoning.

Answer 105

The correct answer is A. This statement is false. Although skills associated with the formal operational stage can emerge as early as age 11, not everyone reaches this stage, and for those who do reach this stage, there is still great variation among adolescents using formal operational thought. Answer B: This is a true statement. Later adolescent years and early young adulthood is characterized by more use of formal operational abilities. Answer C: Because there are individual differences involved in adolescent growth and development, there is also great variation in the use of formal operational thought. Answer D: It not clear whether people's skills in formal operational thought increases with age.

Answer 106

The correct answer is B. Gilligan (1982) noted that Kohlberg's original research participants were males and as a result, his theory is not as applicable to females whose moral judgments are influenced less by concerns about justice and individual rights and more by concerns related to caring, compassion, and responsibility to others. Answer A: Gilligan postulated an ethic of care, not Kohlberg. Answer C: This is the opposite of their theories. Kohlberg focused on justice, whereas Gilligan focused on care. Answer D: This is the opposite of their theories. Gilligan focused more on the concept of caring and responsibility to others, whereas Kohlberg focused on justice and the individual.

Answer 107

The correct answer is D. Permissive (indulgent) parents are warm and caring but make few demands and are nonpunitive. They allow their children to make their own decisions about what chores to complete, when to go to bed, etc. The children of these parents tend to be immature, impulsive, self-centered, easily frustrated, and low in achievement and independence. Answer A: This is not a parenting style described by Baumrind. Answer B: Authoritative parents combine rational control with responsivity. Although they set clear rules and high standards for their children, they rely on reasoning, praise, explanations, and other inductive techniques to gain compliance, and they encourage independence. Answer C: Authoritarian parents exhibit a high degree of demandingness and low responsivity. They impose absolute standards of conduct, stress obedience, and use physical punishment, threats, deprivation, and other power assertive techniques to gain compliance.

Answer 108

The correct answer is B. This is the only attachment style listed that is not an insecure attachment. Adults are classified as autonomous on the AAI when they give coherent descriptions of their childhood relationships with their parents. These adults tend to have children who exhibit a secure attachment in the strange situation. Answer A: Adults are classified as dismissing on the AAI when they provide a positive description of their childhood relations with their parents, but the descriptions are either not supported or are contradicted by specific memories. Children of these adults often exhibit an avoidant attachment pattern. Answer C: Adults are categorized as preoccupied on the AAI when they become very angry or confused when describing their childhood relationships with parents or seem passively preoccupied with a parent. Their children most often exhibit a resistant/ambivalent attachment pattern. Answer D: Individuals with an unresolved/disorganized attachment exhibit trauma resulting from unresolved loss or abuse.

Answer 109

The correct answer is C. Individuals demonstrating resiliency were intelligent, had high quality parenting, and came from a higher socioeconomic status. Whether they were well-traveled or not, did not play a role in their resilience. Answer A: This was a characteristic found in Masten's research. Answer B: This factor was found in Masten's resiliency research. Answer D: Masten identified that individuals from a higher socioeconomic status were more resilient.

Answer 110

The correct answer is D. Children with secure attachment styles are more receptive to parental influence because they have fostered a warm relationship while setting boundaries. They rely on reasoning, praise, explanations, and other inductive techniques to gain compliance, and they encourage independence. Answer A: This is one of the core features of an authoritative parenting style. Answer B: This is central to an authoritative parenting style. Answer C: Authoritative parents encourage independence.

Answer 111

The correct answer is A. Healthy attachments are the basis for healthy relationships in adulthood. Individuals with a secure attachment are most likely to have successful interpersonal relationships than individuals with insecure attachment styles. Answer B: A secure attachment is more likely to be a protective factor than a risk factor for alcohol and other substance use. Answer C: Transitioning from a family focus to a peer focus is typical in adolescent development and a secure attachment style is not going to make an adolescent more likely to spend time with their parents. Because Christy has a secure attachment, she is better situated to successfully explore peer relationships and development positive interpersonal relationships. Answer D: High grades are a result of a secure attachment. There are many factors that may impact someone's grades.

Answer 112

The correct answer is C. Children with dismissing/avoidant attachment styles interact very little with their caregiver, show little distress when they leave and avoid or ignore them when they return. Parents of avoidant children can be very impatient and unresponsive or, at the other extreme, provide their children with too much stimulation. Answer A: Laissez-faire is a French term meaning "to let people do as they please." Related to attachment and parenting, laissez-faire parenting refers to the permissive or indulgent style of parenting where parents are warm and caring but place few demands on the child. Answer B: These children exhibit fear of their caregivers, a dazed or confused facial expression, and a variety of other disorganized attachment behaviors. Children with this type of attachment have typically experienced trauma or abuse. Answer D: Permissive (indulgent) parents are warm and caring but make few demands and are nonpunitive. In this scenario, Cameron's parents place few demands on him, but he lacks the warmth and caring aspect to be a permissive parenting situation.

Answer 113

The correct answer is D. Because Scott has an avoidant attachment, he will meet Brittany's attempts to seek comfort with impatience and pull further away from her. Scott needs space in his relationship because his model for relationships growing up is centered around distance, avoidance, and a lack of warmth and comfort. Answer A: This is most characteristic of someone with a secure attachment. Answer B: While Scott may be annoyed with this question, he is also in need of space. Based on the options provided, this would not be the best response. Answer C: This is most characteristic of someone with a secure attachment.

Answer 114

The correct answer is A. The macrosystem is comprised of such overarching environmental influences as cultural beliefs and practices, economic conditions, and political ideologies. Answer B: The exosystem consists of elements in the broader environment that affect the child's immediate environment and includes the parents' workplace, the school board, community agencies, local industry, and the mass media. Answer C: The mesosystem refers to interactions between components of the microsystem, such as the influence of family factors on the child's behavior at school. Answer D: The chronosystem consists of environmental events occurring over an individual's lifespan and impact the individual in ways that depend on their circumstances and developmental stage.

Answer 115

The correct answer is C. This type of thinking is reflective of the most basic form of moral reasoning, according to Kohlberg. Individuals in the preconventional stage have a Punishment and Obedience Orientation where the the goodness or badness of an act depends on its consequences. For individuals at this stage, the right course of action is the one that allows them to avoid punishment. Answer A: This represents moral reasoning in the postconventional stage where moral reasoning is based on individual rights and justice. Answer B: This represents thinking in the conventional stage. Answer D: This represents thinking in the conventional stage. Specifically, the "Good Boy/Good Girl" Orientation posits that the right action is the one that is liked or approved of by others.

Answer 116

The correct answer is C. Although both Melanie and Erin will likely be in a formal operational stage of thought, meaning they will develop skills in thinking abstractly and hypothetical-deductive reasoning, Melanie is still an adolescent whereas Erin is in her mid-20s.The range of life experiences combined with cognitive and socio-emotional development will allow Erin to think more broadly, whereas Melanie's limited experiences, emerging formal operational skills, and egocentric focus (consistent with adolescence) will narrow her scope and result in more restricted views. Answer A: Actually, the opposite is true. Melanie would be more likely to view the world in narrow terms because of her developmental level. Answer B: Melanie will be less realistic in her thinking than Erin. Melanie is still developing formal operational skills and her egocentric focus at this stage of development (i.e., the personal fable & the imaginary audience) will be barrier to more realistic thinking. Answer D: Erin will actually be more realistic, whereas Melanie would be more idealistic.

Answer 117

The correct answer is A. Authoritarian parents exhibit a high degree of demandingness and low responsivity. They impose absolute standards of conduct, stress obedience, and use physical punishment, threats, deprivation, and other power assertive techniques to gain compliance. Answer B: Authoritative parents combine rational control with responsivity. Although they set clear rules and high standards for their children, they rely on reasoning, praise, explanations, and other inductive techniques to gain compliance, and they encourage independence. Answer C: Rejecting-neglecting (uninvolved) parents exhibit low levels of responsivity and demandingness, and they may be overtly hostile toward their children. Answer D: Permissive (indulgent) parents are warm and caring but make few demands and are nonpunitive. They allow their children to make their own decisions about what chores to complete, when to go to bed, etc.

Answer 118

The correct answer is C. Both Piaget and Vygotksy emphasized the role of teachers as someone who can facilitate cognitive growth and development. Vygotsky highlighted the role of scaffolding in assisting children with advancing to the next level and promoting self-regulatory learning. Piaget viewed the teacher as an organizer who guides stimulating plans and provides opportunities for children to experience disequilibrium, which fosters curiosity and adaptation. Answer A: Although Piaget appreciated the role of active interaction for opportunities to promote disequilibrium and subsequent growth, social interaction is more central to Vygotsky's school of thought than Piaget's. Answer B: This is Piaget's concept and is not a view that Vygotsky shared. Answer D: This is not a thought that Vygotsky and Piaget shared. With both theories, the child was an active learner and adults/teachers are more like guides who provide experiences that foster growth and development.

Answer 119

The correct answer is D. A hallmark of cognitive aging is slowed processing speed, or a decrease in the rate at which people perform perceptual, motor, and decision making tasks. Answer A: This is true. As individuals age, their processing speed slows. Answer B: Processing speed has been linked to good performance on cognitive tasks so much so, that it is a factor in determining cognitive functioning or intelligence. Answer C: This is true. There are modifications and strategies that individuals can use to compensate for slower processing speed.

Answer 120

The correct answer is B. Adolescents exhibiting diffusion have not yet experienced an identity crisis or explored alternatives and are not committed to an identity. This is reflected in Josh's lack of interest in pursuing career options. Answer A: Identity moratorium occurs when an adolescent experiences an identity crisis and actively explores alternative identities. Answer C: Adolescents are in the state of foreclosure when they haven't experienced a crisis but have adopted an identity (occupation, ideology, etc.) that has been imposed by the same-sex parent or other person. Answer D: Adolescents who have resolved the identity crisis by evaluating alternatives and committing to an identity are "identity achieved."

Answer 121

The correct answer is C. Kohlberg's research was limited to mid-Western, individualistic culture, which resulted in excluding concepts like interdependence, social harmony, and the role of cultural socialization in non-Western settings. As a result, Kohlberg's theory of moral development was not as universal as he once posited because it did not account for moral concepts from diverse cultures. Answer A: Because of differences in moral concepts and values in different cultures, Kohlberg's stages were not as universal as originally thought. Answer B: Kohlberg's research focused on Western philosophical beliefs and values, so his scoring system is not universal for all cultures and highly depends on the culture's values and moral concepts. Answer D: Because of differences in moral concepts and values in different cultures, Kohlberg's stages are not easily applied or appropriate to apply to diverse cultures.

Answer 122

The correct answer is C. Solving algebra problems requires the ability to think abstractly, deductively reason, and engage in hypothetical thought processes, which are all skills developed in the formal operational stage in youth 11 years old and greater. Answer A: Third and fourth graders are still in the concrete operational stage and would experience great difficulty with the abstract cognitive processes associated with algebra, even with support. Answer B: Neither third nor fourth graders would be able to complete the worksheet as they are still in the concrete operational stage and lack the abstract thinking skills needed. Answer D: The problem is that their thinking is too concrete rather not being able to think concretely enough. They would have difficulty with abstract reasoning and hypothetical situations.

Answer 123

The correct answer is B. Epigenetics emphasizes the interaction of genes and the environment. In other words, whether or not a certain trait or characteristic is expressed is in part due to genetics and partly shaped through life experiences. Answer A: Luck or chance does not play a role in whether a certain trait or characteristic is expressed. Answer C: While one's race may shape how they experience the world and how their world impacts them, this is not the determining factor in gene expression. Answer D: While one's gender may play a role in how an individual experiences the world and how their world impacts them, this is not the determining factor in gene expression.

Answer 124

The correct answer is D. Rejecting-neglecting (uninvolved) parents exhibit low levels of responsivity and demandingness, and they may be overtly hostile toward their children. The characteristics of rejecting-neglecting parents resemble those predictive of juvenile delinquency. Answer A: Permissive (indulgent) parents are warm and caring but make few demands and are nonpunitive. They allow their children to make their own decisions about what chores to complete, when to go to bed, etc. Answer B: Authoritarian parents exhibit a high degree of demandingness and low responsivity. They impose absolute standards of conduct, stress obedience, and use physical punishment, threats, deprivation, and other power assertive techniques to gain compliance. Answer C: Authoritative parents combine rational control with responsivity. Although they set clear rules and high standards for their children, they rely on reasoning, praise, explanations, and other inductive techniques to gain compliance, and they encourage independence.

Answer 125

The correct answer is A. The epigenetic explanation describes the relationship between genetic and environmental influences as bidirectional and ongoing. From this perspective, each stage of development is affected by previous genetic, neural, behavioral, and environmental interactions and, in turn, affects future interactions. Answer B: Epigenetics involves the interaction between genes and environment, but this answer only addresses genetically inherited ability. Answer C: Epigenetics involves the interaction between genes and environment, but this answer only reflects the impact of environment. Answer D: Epigenetics does not address the role of luck development.

Answer 126

The correct answer is C. The imaginary audience is the belief that one is always the center of attention or that all eyes are on them. Answer A: The personal fable is the belief that one is special and unique, so much so that no one can understand what the adolescent is going through or that they are so special that the rules don't apply to them or they won't incur the same consequences as others. Answer B: Two sub-sets or characteristics of the personal fable are the invulnerability aspect, not the vulnerability aspect and feelings of uniqueness. Answer D: While egocentrism is at the core of the personal fable and the imaginary audience and it may appear that adolescents hold these beliefs with delusional intensity, delusional egocentrism isn't a concept posited by David Elkind.

Answer 127

The correct answer is A. Transcortical aphasia is caused by lesions outside Broca's and Wernicke's areas that disconnect these areas from other regions of the brain. If the damage isolates only Broca's area, then transcortical motor aphasia results. If the lesion isolates only Wernicke's area, the result is transcortical sensory aphasia, which involves deficits in comprehension, anomia, and fluent (but meaningless) speech with unimpaired repetition. Answer B: Global aphasia is caused by widespread brain injury involving both Broca's and Wernicke's areas as well as other areas in the left frontal, temporal and parietal lobes. This type of aphasia is characterized by extensive disruption in the ability to produce and understand language. Answer C: Damage to the arcuate fasciculus produces conduction aphasia. As a result, anomia, paraphasia, and impaired repetition occur. Answer D: Broca's aphasia is caused by damage to Broca's area and is characterized by poorly articulated speech, dysprosody, and frequently omitted conjunctions, pronouns, and prepositions. Other difficulties include anomia, repeating phrases, and producing spoken and written language.

Answer 128

The correct answer is B. Cognitive appraisal theory is a theory of emotions, which states that an individual's evaluative judgment (or appraisal) of a situation, event or object determines or contributes to his/her emotional response. Answer A: James-Lange theory stresses the importance of peripheral factors and proposes that emotions represent perceptions of bodily reactions to sensory stimuli. Answer C: The Cannon-Bard theory places greater emphasis on the brain mechanisms that mediate emotion. It proposes that emotional and bodily reactions to stimuli occur simultaneously as a result of the thalamic stimulation of the cortex and the peripheral nervous system. Answer D: The two-factor theory describes the subjective emotional experience as the consequence of a combination of physiological arousal and cognitive interpretation of that arousal and the environmental context in which it occurs.

Answer 129

The correct answer is C. Androgens are a group of hormones that play a role in male traits and reproductive activity. The principle androgens are testosterone and androstenedione. Answer A: Progesterone is a female sex hormone that is produced in the ovaries following ovulation each month. It plays a critical role in the menstrual cycle and the maintenance of pregnancy. Answer B: Estrogens are hormones that are important for sexual and reproductive development, mainly in women. Estrogen helps develop and maintain both the reproduction system and female characteristics in addition to contributing to cognitive health, bone health, and aiding in the function of the cardiovascular system. Answer D: Estradiol's main function is to mature and then maintain the reproductive system. During the menstrual cycle, increased estradiol levels cause the maturation and release of the egg, as well as the thickening of the uterus lining to allow a fertilized egg to implant.

Answer 130

The correct answer is C. A cluster headache involves burning, non-throbbing pain that occurs in clusters (one or more a day) over a two or three month period. Answer A: A tension headache is characterized by non-throbbing pain, usually on both sides of the head, at the back of the neck, and/or in the facial area. It often feels like a band of pressure or tightness around the head. Answer B: Sinus headaches are experienced as tension or a throbbing ache. The pain is usually most severe first thing in the morning and is worsened by bending forward. Answer D: A migraine headache is a severe, recurrent throbbing headache that usually affects one side of the head and is often accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and sensitivity to light, noise, and odors. The pain is made worse by bending forward, lifting, or making jarring motions.

Answer 131

The correct answer is D. Cushing's syndrome (hypercortisolism) is a condition caused by excess cortisol in the body. Symptoms often include weight gain, bone loss, and high blood pressure. Additionally, irregular or absent menstrual periods and/or thicker or more visible body and facial hair may be experienced by women (hirsutism). Answer A: Myasthenia gravis is a neuromuscular disorder that causes weakness in the skeletal muscles. This occurs when communication between nerve cells and muscles becomes impaired. Answer B: Guillain-Barre Syndrome is a rare autoimmune disorder in which an individual's immune system damages the nerves, causing muscle weakness and sometimes paralysis. Symptoms include difficulty walking steadily, muscle weakness, severe lower back pain, loss of bladder control, paralysis, and difficulty breathing. Answer C: Multiple sclerosis is a disease of the central nervous system that disrupts the flow of information with the brain and between the brain and the body. Symptoms can cause problems with vision, balance, muscle control, and other basic body functions.

Answer 132

The correct answer is B. Mitosis is a cellular process that replicates chromosomes and produces two identical nuclei in preparation for cell division. Mitosis is usually immediately followed by the equal division of the cell nuclei and other cell contents into two daughter cells. Answer A: Neurogenesis is the mitotic division of nonneuronal cells to produce neurons. Answer C: Differentiation is the process of cells becoming specialized as they change from one cell type to another. Answer D: Synaptogenesis is the establishment of synaptic connections as axons and dendrites grow.

Answer 133

The correct answer is C. Ultradian rhythms refer to a rhythmic biological event whose period is shorter than that of a circadian rhythm, usually from several minutes to several hours. Answer A: Circannual is a derivative of the word circadian. It means occurring on an annual basis. Answer B: An infradian cycle is one that lasts longer than 24 hours, such as weekly, monthly, or seasonally. Answer D: Circadian rhythms are 24-hour cycles that are part of the body's internal clock, running in the background to carry out essential processes and functions. An example is the sleep-wake cycle.

Answer 134

The correct answer is C. Esketamine (the active S isomer of ketamine) has been FDA approved to treat depression and acute suicidal risk. It is a nasal spray that is tightly regulated and monitored by treatment facilities and pharmacies. It is a glutamate NMDA antagonist that takes effect within minutes to hours of administration. Answer A: Amitriptyline (Elavil) is a tricyclic antidepressant that should be avoided when suicide risk is high. This medication is considered when chronic pain is present with or without depression. Answer B: Doxepin is also a tricyclic antidepressant that is used to treat chronic hives, depression, and sleeping difficulties. Answer D: Isocarboxazid (Marplan) is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) used to treat masked depression (e.g., hypochondriasis), dysthymia, and other highly treatment resistant depressions.

Answer 135

The correct answer is A. Agranulocytosis is a serious side effect (not considered extrapyramidal) that can occur with antipsychotic medications. It is a drug-induced blood disorder that is characterized by a severe reduction in the number of white blood cells in the circulating blood. Answer B: Akathisia is an extrapyramidal side effect of antipsychotic medication. It is an uncontrolled sense of inner restlessness and is often mistaken for anxiety. Akathisia can be alleviated with anticholinergic agents. Answer C: Tardive dyskinesia is generally a late-onset extrapyramidal side effect that is often irreversible. Symptoms include involuntary sucking and smacking movements with the mouth and lips and can include chorea in the trunk and extremities. Answer D: Acute dystonias are muscle spasms and prolonged muscular contractions, usually in the head and neck. These can be resolved quickly with intramuscular anticholinergic agents or treated prophylactically with oral anticholinergics.

Answer 136

The correct answer is C. Ideomotor apraxia is characterized by the inability to carry out a simple motor activity, either in response to verbal command (e.g., smile) or copying someone else's gesture, even though this same activity is readily performed spontaneously. Answer A: Ideational apraxia is an impairment in carrying out a sequence of actions, although each step can be done correctly. Patients with this type of apraxia have difficulty carrying out instructions for a sequence of acts, but they can do each of these tasks in isolation. Answer B: Spasticity is a markedly increased rigidity in response to the forced movement of the limbs. Answer D: Flaccid paralysis is a loss of reflexes below the level of transection of the spinal cord.

Answer 137

The correct answer is A. Negative symptoms refer to an abnormality that results from normal functions that have been lost, for example, slow and impoverished thought and speech, emotional and social withdrawal, or blunted affect. Answer B: Dissociative thinking is a condition, seen in schizophrenia, that is characterized by disturbances of thought and difficulty relating events properly. Answer C: Positive symptoms refer to abnormal behavioral states that have been gained; examples include hallucinations, delusions, and excited motor behaviors. Answer D: A delusion is a false belief that is strongly held in spite of contrary evidence.

Answer 138

The correct answer is D. If only one member of the pair of twins exhibits a trait, the pair is described as discordant. Answer A: Concordant refers to any trait that is seen in both individuals of a pair of twins. Answer B: Dizygotic refers to twins derived from separate eggs (fraternal twins). Such twins are no more closely related genetically than are other full siblings. Answer C: Monozygotic refers to twins derived from a single fertilized egg (identical twins). Such individuals have the same genotype.

Answer 139

The correct answer is C. Phencyclidine (PCP) is a potent psychotomimetic. In other words, PCP produces phenomena strongly resembling both the positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia. Answer A: Clozapine is an atypical neuroleptic that selectively blocks serotonin and dopamine receptors. Answer B: Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) is an antipsychotic drug that is a dopamine antagonist. Injecting this medication provides rapid relief from amphetamine psychosis. Answer D: Reserpine is a drug that causes the depletion of monoamines and can lead to depression.

Answer 140

The correct answer is B. The dual-trace hypothesis states that the formation of memory involves first a relatively brief transient memory storage process followed by a stable change in the nervous system. Answer A: The multiple-trace hypothesis states that a given memory is encoded in different ways at different times after a learning process. Implicit in this hypothesis is the idea that memory must be transferred from one encoding scheme to another to become permanent. Answer C: Hypofrontality hypothesis states that schizophrenia may reflect the underactivation of the frontal lobes. Answer D: Dopamine hypothesis states that schizophrenia results from either excessive levels of synaptic dopamine or excessive postsynaptic sensitivity to dopamine.

Answer 141

The correct answer is A. Individuals with Williams syndrome can speak freely and fluently with a normal vocabulary. They are likely unable to draw simple images, arrange colored blocks, or tie shoelaces. Answer B: Surface dyslexia is acquired dyslexia in which the individual seems to attend only to the fine details of reading. Answer C: Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) is a brain disorder that leads to dementia and death caused by improperly folded by prion proteins. This is the human equivalent to mad cow disease. Answer D: Cushing's syndrome is a condition in which levels of adrenal glucocorticoids are abnormally high.

Answer 142

The correct answer is C. Astereognosis is also known as tactile agnosia if it only affects one hand. It is the inability to identify objects by feel only, in the absence of input from the visual system. Answer A: Aphagia is the refusal to eat, which is often related to damage to the lateral hypothalamus. Answer B: Ataxia is an impairment in the direction, extent, and rate of muscular movement, often caused by cerebellar pathology. Answer D: Apraxia is an impairment in the ability to begin and execute skilled voluntary movements, without muscle paralysis.

Answer 143

The correct answer is: C. Conduction is the passage of a nerve impulse along a nerve fiber. Answer A: Depolarization is the reduction of the membrane potential of a cell from its normal resting state. Answer B: Action potential is the brief electrical impulse that provides the basis for conduction of information along an axon. Answer D: Synaptic transmission is the transmission of information from one nerve cell to another, is usually chemically mediated, and occurs when the action potential reaches the axon terminal.

Answer 144

The correct answer is D. Hydrocephalus is the buildup of fluid in the ventricles deep within the brain. The excess fluid increases the size of the ventricles and puts pressure on the brain. Answer A: Alzheimer's disease is a degenerative brain disease that disrupts processes vital to neurons and their networks, including communication, metabolism, and repair. Answer B: Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is a rapidly progressive, invariably fatal neurodegenerative disorder believed to be caused by an abnormal isoform of a cellular glycoprotein known as prion protein. Answer C: Parkinson's disease is a neurodegenerative disorder that affects dopamine-producing (dopaminergic) neurons in the substantia nigra.

Answer 145

The correct answer is D. The parasympathetic branch is involved in the conservation of energy and is active during digestion and periods of rest and relaxation. Answer A: There is not a branch of the nervous system called the somatic branch. There is, however, part of the parasympathetic nervous system called the somatic nervous system. This area consists of sensory nerves that carry information from the body's sense receptors to the CNS and motor nerves that carry information from the CNW to the skeletal muscles. Answer B: The sympathetic branch is associated with arousal and the expenditure of energy. Answer C: There is not an area of the nervous system that is termed the skeletal branch, however, the human skeletal system consists of bones, cartilage, ligaments, and tendons.

Answer 146

The correct answer is C. The reticular formation plays a role in states of consciousness like alertness and sleep. This structure has some control over which sensory signals reach the cerebrum and conscious attention. Answer A: The basal ganglia are involved in planning, organizing, and coordinating voluntary movement. Damage to the basal ganglia cells may cause problems controlling speech, movement, and posture. Answer B: The thalamus is involved in motor activity, language, and memory. Damage to the thalamus can result in difficulty concentrating, difficulty sleeping, and problems processing sensory information. Answer D: The cingulate cortex surrounds the corpus callosum and is involved in attention, emotion, and the perception and subjective experience of pain. Damage to this area may result in cognitive, emotional, and behavioral disorders.

Answer 147

The correct answer is B. Pseudodepression occurs when damage to the mediofrontal area occurs and produces mesial frontal apathetic syndrome. Individuals with this syndrome often describe symptoms of being bored or lacking in motivation. Answer A: Damage to the orbitofrontal area causes orbitofrontal disinhibition syndrome, also known as pseudopsychopathy. This disorder involves emotional lability, distractibility, poor impulse control, and impaired social insight. Answer C: Damage to the dorsolateral area results in dorsal convexity dysexecutive syndrome, which is characterized by impaired judgment, planning, and organization. Individuals with this syndrome tend to be concrete and perseverative, have trouble learning from experience, neglect hygiene, and maybe apathetic. Answer D: Asomatognosia is the failure to recognize parts of one's own body.

Answer 148

The correct answer is B. The fornix is part of the limbic system that acts as the output tract of the hippocampus. The primary role of the fornix is to transmit information from the hippocampus to the mammillary bodies and the anterior nuclei of the thalamus. Answer A: The cingulate gyrus is a strip of limbic cortex that lies along the lateral walls of the groove separating the cerebral hemispheres. It is involved in processing emotions and behavior regulation. Answer C: The Golgi apparatus is a complex of vesicles and folded membranes within the cytoplasm involved in secretion and intracellular transport. Answer D: The lateral nucleus is a nucleus of the amygdala that receives sensory information from the neocortex, thalamus, and hippocampus and sends projections to the basal, accessory basal, and central nucleus of the amygdala.

Answer 149

The correct answer is D. Lazarus's secondary appraisal involves people's evaluation of their resources and options for coping. One aspect of secondary appraisal is a person's evaluation of who should be held accountable. Answer A: The term tertiary appraisal is not part of Lazarus's cognitive appraisal theory. Answer B: Primary appraisal refers to a person's evaluation of a situation as irrelevant, positive-benign, or stressful about his or her well-being. The outcome of a primary appraisal depends on the individual's beliefs, values, and expectations. Answer C: Re-appraisal occurs when the person monitors the situation and, as needed, modifies the primary and/or secondary appraisals.

Answer 150

The correct answer is A. Serotonin syndrome is potentially life-threatening precipitated by the use of serotonergic drugs. This syndrome consists of a combination of mental status changes, neuromuscular hyperactivity, and autonomic hyperactivity. Answer B: A potentially fatal side effect of antipsychotic drugs is neuroleptic malignant syndrome. This syndrome is characterized by a rapid onset of motor, mental, and autonomic symptoms including muscle rigidity, tachycardia, hyperthermia, and altered consciousness. Answer C: Agranulocytosis is a marked decrease in certain types of white blood cells resulting from the use of atypical antipsychotics. Answer D: Hyperphagia, or polyphagia, is an abnormally strong sensation of hunger or desire to eat, often leading to or accompanied by overeating. This issue does not subside after eating and often leads to a rapid intake of excessive quantities of food.

Answer 151

The correct answer is B. Alarm reaction occurs in response to stress. As a result of epinephrine being released, the body's glucose level rises, and heart and respiration rates accelerate, thereby increasing the body's energy level. Answer A: The resistance stage occurs if the stress persists. In this stage, breathing and heart rates return to normal levels, but the hypothalamus signals the pituitary gland to release adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). Answer C: With prolonged stress, the exhaustion stage begins. The pituitary gland and the adrenal cortex lose their ability to maintain elevated hormone levels, and physiological processes start to break down. Fatigue, depression, and illness (e.g., ulcers, essential hypertension) or, in extreme cases, death, may occur. Answer D: Extinction is a behavioral term that refers to the eventual elimination of undesirable behaviors.

Answer 152

The correct answer is A. The diagnosis of Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) incorporates a number of techniques and informants. The assessment often begins with a broad-band scale that assesses general behavioral and psychological functioning and helps distinguish ADHD from other disorders. These include the Behavioral Assessment System for Children, Second Edition (BASC-2) and the Child Behavior Checklist (CBCL). Answer B: The Attention Deficit Disorders Evaluation Scales, Third Edition (ADDES-III) includes a list of symptoms that parallel those presented in the DSM for ADHD. However, this measure falls into the category of narrow-band scales, which are used to obtain detailed information on the individual's symptoms to confirm the diagnosis and facilitate treatment planning and evaluation. Answer C: The Conners' Continuous Performance Test (CPT) is a narrow-band scale used to obtain detailed information on the individual’s symptoms to confirm the diagnosis and facilitate treatment planning and evaluation. The CPT-3 is used to evaluate changes in attention over time. Answer D: The ADHD Rating Scale-IV is also a narrow-band scale, which includes a list of symptoms that parallel those presented in the DSM for this disorder.

Answer 153

The correct answer is C. Self-referenced scores are provided by ipsative scales, which permit intraindividual comparisons (i.e., comparisons of an examinee's score on one scale with his/her scores on other scales). Answer A: Content-referenced scores are the same as criterion-referenced scores and permit interpreting an examinee's test performance in terms of what the examinee can do or knows with regard to a clearly defined content domain. Answer B: Criterion-referenced scores are also known as domain-referenced and content-referenced scores and permit interpreting an examinee's test performance in terms of what the examinee can do or knows with regard to a clearly defined content domain or in terms of performance or status on an external criterion. Answer D: Norm-referenced scores, such as percentile ranks and standard scores, permit comparisons between an examinee's test performance and the performance of individuals in the norm group.

Answer 154

The correct answer is A. Although males and females do not differ significantly in terms of average performance on IQ tests, there are some gender-related differences in specific abilities. Males are noted to outperform females on measures of certain spatial and math skills, with spatial skills showing the largest gender gap. Although there is evidence that these differences may have a biological basis, some investigators point out that environmental factors also play a role, noting that boys are encouraged to spend more time than girls engaged in activities that develop related skills. Answer B: Investigators have determined females do better than males on some measures of verbal ability, especially during the school years, and are less likely than males to have a reading disability. Answer C: Investigators have noted that gender differences in intellectual abilities tend to be small. Answer D: Researchers investigating gender differences in intellectual abilities indicated that these differences have declined in recent years.

Answer 155

The correct answer is D. The Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt Test, Second Edition (Bender-Gestalt II) is a brief measure of visual-motor integration for individuals ages 3 and older and is used as a measure of visual-motor development and screening tool for neuropsychological impairment. Research has indicated that performance on the measure is affected by education and that the measure is useful for assessing school readiness in first graders, predicting academic achievement, and identifying emotional problems and learning disabilities. Answer A: The Bender-Gestalt is not considered to be accurate for identifying personality characteristics or for making psychiatric diagnoses. Answer B: Research on the previous version of the Bender-Gestalt indicated that performance is affected by education but not by drawing ability. Answer C: While research has shown that performance scores do correlate with intelligence, the correlation decreases significantly after age 10. In fact, after age 10, most individuals with average intelligence scores obtain perfect or near perfect scores on the Bender-Gestalt.

Answer 156

The correct answer is C. The Beck Scale for Suicidal Ideation consists of 21 items that describes various aspects of suicidal ideation (e.g., suicidal plans, deterrents to suicide, attitudes toward suicide) which the examinee rates in terms of severity. While the client appears to be experiencing symptoms of depression and anxiety, she also appears to be experiencing suicidal ideation. In general, risk of harm to self, others, and the general public is a priority to assess before the end of first session. Out of the choices given, a clinician would most benefit from utilizing the Beck Scale for Suicidal Ideation because it assesses various aspects of suicidal ideation that influence severity of risk and can be administered quickly. Answer A: The Beck Depression Inventory-II consists of 21 items that address the mood, cognitive, behavioral, and physical aspects of depression. While the Beck Depression Inventory can be quickly administered and assesses the presence of suicidal ideation, it does not provide a thorough assessment of suicide risk. Answer B: The Beck Hopelessness Scale was based on research showing that hopelessness is an accurate predictor of suicidal ideation and behavior. It contains 20 true-false items that assess the person's negative beliefs about the future. While the measure would give insight into the client's experience of hopelessness, it would not provide clarity regarding the severity of the client's current suicide risk. Answer D: Structured interviews are data collection methods that typically involve a fixed number of close-ended questions. While you would be able to further assess the client's previously endorsed symptoms as well as assess for suicidal ideation and severity of risk, the measure could be very time consuming.

Answer 157

The correct answer is D. The Halstead-Reitan (H-R) is used to detect the presence of brain damage and determine its severity and possible location in individuals ages 15 and older. Interpretation of an examinee's performance on the H-R involves considering performance on the individual tests as well as overall performance, which is summarized by calculating the Halstead Impairment Index (HII). The HII ranges in value from 0 to 1.0, with a score of 0 to 0.2 suggesting normal functioning, 0.3 to 0.4 mild impairment, 0.5 to 0.7 moderate impairment, and 0.8 to 1.0 severe impairment. Answer A: The HII does not have a superior classification. Answer B: The HII does not have a limited classification. Answer C: The severe classification of the HII ranges from 0.8 to 1.0.

Answer 158

The correct answer is A. The Luria-Nebraska Neuropsychological Battery was standardized using a sample of individuals with neurological impairment. Answer B: Standardization of the Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale, Fifth Edition was stratified to match the 2000 U.S. Census in terms of gender, ethnicity/culture, geographic region, and socioeconomic level. Answer C: Standardization of the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory-2 approximated the 1980 U. S. Census in terms of age, gender, race/ethnicity, and social class. Answer D: Standardization of the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale, Fourth Edition was stratified to match 2005 U.S. Census data in terms of age, gender, race/ethnicity, geographic region, and education.

Answer 159

The correct answer is A. Direct Observation, also known as "observational study", is a method of collecting evaluative information in which the evaluator watches the participant in their usual environment without altering that environment. Direct observation is used when other data collection procedures, such as surveys and questionnaires are not effective. Structured direct observations are most appropriate when standardized information needs to be gathered, and result in quantitative data. Answer B: This is not a form of direct observation. Answer C: This response refers to unstructured direct observation. Answer D: This is not a form of direct observation.

Answer 160

The correct answer is A. Researchers have identified several factors that are associated with cognitive decline in later adulthood, including declining processing speed, physical health, and disuse. While nutrition may significantly influence, physical health, it does not directly impact cognitive decline. Thus, nutrition is not the best answer. Answer B: Physical health is a factor influential in cognitive decline in later adulthood. One health factor that is particularly important is cardiovascular functioning, which has an impact on information processing speed and other cognitive functions. Answer C: Researchers have proposed that, at least for some older adults, declines in cognitive ability are due to disuse and are therefore, reversible with relatively simple training and practice. Answer D: Declining processing speed is a factor influential in the presentation of cognitive decline in later adulthood. Many items and tasks included in cognitive ability tests emphasize speed of information processing, and, consequently, observed age-related declines on those tests may be due to the fact that people over 50 experience a decline in the efficiency and speed with which they manipulate information. Older examinees typically do better when they are given as much time as they need to complete cognitive tasks.

Answer 161

The correct answer is D. The Columbia Mental Maturity Scale-Third Edition (CMMS) is a test of general reasoning ability for children ages 3:6 through 9:11. A unique feature of the CMMS is that it does not require verbal responses or fine motor skills. The test consists of 92 cards that contain 3, 4, or 5 drawings; and, for each card, the examinee is required to indicate the drawing that does not belong with the others. Answer A: The Haptic Intelligence Scale is for individuals who are blind or partially sighted. It makes use of tactile stimuli and includes six subtests: Digit Symbol, Object Assembly, Block Design, Object Completion, Pattern Board, and Bead Arithmetic. As the test requires fine motor skills, this response is incorrect. Answer B: The Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test-Fourth Edition (PPVT-4) measures receptive vocabulary. Thus, this response is incorrect. Answer C: The Cognitive Abilities Test (CogAT) measures an examinee's reasoning abilities in three areas that are linked to academic success -- verbal, quantitative and nonverbal. As this reasoning assessment includes assessment of verbal ability, this response is incorrect.

Answer 162

The correct answer is A. The Halstead-Reitan (H-R) is used to detect the presence of brain damage and determine its severity and possible location in individuals ages 15 and older. The core tests included in the H-R were found to differentiate between normal controls and individuals with brain damage and assess a variety of functions including memory, concentration, abstract reasoning, language, visual-motor integration, and manual dexterity. Answer B, C, and D: The core tests included in the H-R assess a variety of functions including memory, concentration, abstract reasoning, language, visual-motor integration, and manual dexterity.

Answer 163

The correct answer is B. Computers are used not only to administer tests but also provide scoring and interpretation of test results. With regard to administration, computer-assisted test administration can act as an alternative to standard testing or provide adaptive testing. When using computer adaptive testing (CAT), the computer tailors the test to an individual examinee by choosing subsequent items based on the examinee's previous answers. The primary advantages of CAT are its precision and efficiency. Answer A: Dynamic assessment involves an interactive approach and deliberate deviation from standardized testing procedures to obtain additional information about the examinee and/or determine if the examinee is likely to benefit from assistance or instruction. Answer C: Functional behavioral assessment refers to a type of behavioral assessment that entails determining the function or purpose of a behavior by identifying its antecedents and consequences. Answer D: Computer adaptive testing is a type of computer-assisted assessment. As computer adaptive testing is a more specific response, computer-assisted assessment is not the BEST response.

Answer 164

The correct answer is C. According to social judgment theory, a message is likely to be more persuasive when it expresses a position neither clearly acceptable nor clearly objectionable to the target person. Answers A, B, and D: The message will be more persuasive when it declares a position neither totally acceptable nor totally objectionable to the target person.

Answer 165

The correct answer is B. Conformity is simply a change in one's beliefs or behaviors in the direction of those of others. Answers A, C, D: These are not correct terms for the definition provided in the question.

Answer 166

The correct answer is D. The three components of attitudes are affect, behavior, and cognition. Personality is not thought of as a component of attitudes. Answers A, B, and C: These are identified as the three components of attitudes.

Answer 167

The correct answer is A. Superordinate goals are established in order to allow opposing sides to work toward a common goal, thus reducing hostilities. Answers B, C, and D: These are not legitimate categories of goals.

Answer 168

The correct answer is C. Self-verification theory sounds like what it is--we tend to prefer receiving feedback from others that verifies our own self-evaluations. Answers A, B, and D: These answers to not describe self-verification theory.

Answer 169

The correct answer is D. The base-rate fallacy involves paying particular attention to quite specific information in making judgments and evaluations, while ignoring general (base-rate) information. Answers A, B, and C: The correct answer is general information.

Answer 170

The correct answer is A. Affect, behavior, and cognition are the three components of attitudes. Answers B, C, and D: The three components listed best describe attitudes.

Answer 171

The correct answer is A. Under certain conditions, women and men have been found to react differently to crowding situations. Answers B, C, D: These answers do not reflect what research on crowding has shown regarding gender differences.

Answer 172

The correct answer is B. Social equity theory is concerned with the fairness in the exchange of goods, services, time, and effort. Someone who feels under-rewarded will feel distress and attempt to restore equity in the relationship. Answers A, C, and D: These answers are not predicted by social equity theory.

Answer 173

The correct answer is D. A cognitive bias is systematic pattern of deviation from rationality in judgment which influences one's behavior in the world. Answers A, B, and C: These do not describe the concept of cognitive bias.

Answer 174

The correct answer is B. Hindsight bias refers to the tendency to see events as more predictable than they are; "I knew it all along." Answers A, C, and D: These answers do not accurately describe the scenario in the question. It is best described by the hindsight bias.

Answer 175

The correct answer is A. The three assumptions for the use of the Pearson r or other correlation coefficients are: linearity, an unrestricted range on scores for both variables, and homoscedasticity. Answer B: One of the the assumptions requires an unrestricted range on scores for both variables instead of a restricted range of scores. If there is a restriction in range (if the people are homogeneous), the Pearson r is likely to be an underestimate. Answer C: One of the the assumptions requires homoscedasticity and not heteroscedasticity. Violation of the assumption of homoscedasticity does not necessarily result in a coefficient that is too low or too high but produces a coefficient that does not represent the full range of scores. Answer D: One of the the assumptions requires homoscedasticity and not heteroscedasticity and requires an unrestricted range of scores for both variables.

Answer 176

The correct answer is A. Experimental research helps the researcher minimize the effects of random error in subjects, procedures, and measuring instruments by allowing them to control experimental conditions and procedures. Answer B: Conducting post-hoc analyses would not control for random error that has already been introduced during the study itself. Answer C: Conducting multiple studies in hopes of identifying and accounting for random error as the studies progress is not the most effective way to control for random error. The best way to control for random error is through the use of a true experimental design. Answer D: Conducting statistical techniques like an ANCOVA could control for an identified extraneous variable (a source of systematic error) by equalizing all subjects with regard to their status on that variable. However, it would not be the most effective method for addressing random error.

Answer 177

The correct answer is A. When a multiple correlation coefficient and multiple regression equation are tried on another sample, the size of the correlation coefficient tends to shrink due to regression toward the mean of the original sample. When the correlation coeffecient shrinks, the accuracy of the equation also declines. Answer B: The predictive accuracy of the regression equation would decrease not increase. Answer C: The size of the correlation coefficient would decrease due to regression toward the mean of the original sample. Answer D: The size of the correlation coefficient would decrease due to regression toward the mean of the original sample and this would also result in a decrease in predictive accuracy.

Answer 178

The correct answer is D. If you can recall that about 68% of scores fall between +1.0 and -1.0 standard deviations from the mean, that 95% fall between +2.0 and -2.0 standard deviations from the mean, and that 99% fall between +3.0 and -3.0 standard deviations from the mean, you should be able to identify the correct answer to these types of questions. In a normal distribution, a percentile rank of 97.5 is equivalent to a z-score of about +2.0. Knowing that 50% of scores fall below the mean and that 47.5% of scores fall between the mean and the score that is 2 standard deviations above the mean would also helped you with identifying the correct answer to this question. Answer A: A percentile rank of 2.5 is equivalent to a z-score of about -2.0. Answer B: A percentile rank of 50.0 is equivalent to a z-score of 0. Answer C: A percentile rank of 84 is equivalent to a z-score of +1.0.

Answer 179

The correct answer is D. The Mann-Whitney U test is the nonparametric alternative to the t-test for independent samples. It is used to compare differences between two independent groups when the dependent variable is either ordinal or continuous, but not normally distributed. Answer A: The Kruskall-Wallis test is the nonparametric alternative to the one-way ANOVA with one IV, with two or more independent groups. Answer B: The Friedman test is the nonparametric alternative to the one-way ANOVA with repeated measures. It is used to test for differences between groups when the dependent variable being measured is ordinal. Answer C: The Wilcoxon matched pairs or signed rank test is used when a study includes two correlated (matched) groups and the difference scores on the DV for pairs of subjects are converted to ranks. It is the nonparametric alternative to the t-test for correlated samples.

Answer 180

The correct answer is B. The use of any statistical test requires that the data are measured on a particular scale and that certain assumptions are met. An assumption for the chi-square test is that observations are independent, which means that each individual can appear in only one category. In this study, people who lived in the community in both 2010 and 2020 would appear in two categories, which would violate this assumption. Answer A: A multiple-sample chi-square test can be used when a study includes two or more independent variables. Answer C: Random assignment is not an assumption for the chi-square test. Answer D: The data does violate the assumption of independence, but random assignment is not an assumption for the chi-square test.

Answer 181

The correct answer is C. When the results of an inferential statistical test indicate that the obtained sample value lies in the rejection region of the sampling distribution, the study's results are statistically significant; therefore, you would reject the null hypothesis and the retain the alternative hypothesis. Answer A: This is the opposite of what you should do. When the results of a study are statistically significant (the obtained sample value lies in the sampling distribution's rejection region), you would retain the alternative hypothesis and reject the null hypothesis. Answer B: There is no evidence to suggest that the obtained sample statistic in the question was artificially inflated due to sampling error. Answer D: There isn't enough information to suggest the use of an incorrect statistical test.

Answer 182

The correct answer is D. The alternative hypothesis states the opposite of the null hypothesis and is expressed in a way that implies that the independent variable does have an effect. When the alternative hypothesis is nondirectional, you would use a two-tailed test. When the alternative hypothesis is directional, you would use a one-tailed test. Answer A: Alpha is used to define the size of the rejection region. When a two-tailed test is used, the rejection region is equally divided between the two tails of the sampling distribution. However, you do not use alpha to determine which tailed test to use. Answer B: A one-tailed test is more powerful than a two-tailed test when used appropriately, but power is not used to determine whether a one- or two-tailed test should be conducted. Answer C: The null hypothesis is stated in a way that implies that the independent variable does not have an effect on the dependent variable. It is not used to determine which tailed test to use.

Answer 183

The correct answer is C. The Kruskal-Wallis test is a rank-based nonparametric test that can be used to determine if there are statistically significant differences between two or more groups of an independent variable on a continuous or ordinal dependent variable. In this example, level of anxiety is the IV with 3 levels measured on a nominal scale and the DV is the students' exam performance measured on a continuous 0-100 scale. Answer A: A one-sample t-test is used to compare data collected on a sample to a known population mean. Answer B: The chi-square test is a nonparametric statistical test used with nominal data or data being treated as nominal data and is used when the study includes one variable. Answer D: The Wilcoxon test is used when a study includes two correlated (matched) groups and the scores on the DV for pairs of subjects are converted to ranks.

Answer 184

The correct answer is B. Statistical power refers to the probability that the test correctly rejects a null hypothesis. Answer A: Statistical significance helps quantify whether a result is likely due to chance or to some factor of interest. Answer C: Internal validity refers to the extent to which a cause-and-effect relationship established in a study cannot be explained by other factors. In other words, the changes in the IV, produced change in the DV and it wasn't due to chance or other factors. Answer D: Clinical significance is the practical importance of a treatment effect or whether it has a real genuine and noticeable effect on daily life.

Answer 185

The correct answer is A. A matched-pairs t-test is used to compare data from the same subjects under different conditions. Answer B: The t-test for independent samples is used to compare means from two independent groups. In this scenario, data collected for baseline and treatments phases are on the same group of students. Answer C: The multiple-sample chi-square test is used when a descriptive or experimental study includes two or more variables and the data to be analyzed are measured on a nominal scale. Answer D: The Kruskal-Wallis can be used when a study includes two or more independent groups and the data to be analyzed are ranks.

Answer 186

The correct answer is D. In the scenario described, a researcher is comparing an obtained sample mean to a known population mean. The student's t-test for single samples is the statistical test used when a study includes only one group and the sample mean will be compared to a known population mean. In this situation, the population is acting as a no-treatment control group. Answer A: The Mann Whitney U is the nonparametric alternative to a t-test of independent samples and is appropriate when a study includes two independent groups and data on the dependent variable are reported in terms of ranks. The data in this scenario are continuous, so a parametric test is more appropriate, there is only one group, and the researcher is comparing a sample mean to a known population mean, so the student's t-test for single samples is most appropriate. Answer B: The t-test for correlated (related) samples is used when the two means to be compared have come from correlated groups. It is the appropriate test for a study using a within-subjects design in which a single group of subjects will be compared to itself before and after the IV has been applied. Answer C: The chi-square test is a nonparametric statistical test used with nominal data (or data that are being treated as nominal data) and is used when the study includes one variable. This study involves comparing a sample mean to a known population mean for scores obtained an an achievement test which are continuous data.

Answer 187

The correct answer is B. The underlying logic of a factorial ANOVA is that variability between groups is "partitioned" even further than a one-way ANOVA so that F-ratios are obtained for the main effects of each IV and their interaction(s). With the one-way ANOVA, we only calculate variability for the main groups. Answer A: Both the one-way and the factorial ANOVAs are appropriate for DVs on an interval OR ratio scale. The number of IVs will be a determining factor for whether a one-way ANOVA (one IV; two or more independent groups) or a factorial ANOVA (two or more IVs; independent groups) is used. Answer C: This is not a distinguishing factor between one-way and factorial ANOVAs, and both types of ANOVA are held to the same assumptions for normality, homogeneity, etc. Answer D: The one-way ANOVA is used when there is one independent variable, not two or more. When a study includes two or more independent variables, a factorial ANOVA is more appropriate.

Answer 188

The correct answer is C. The relationship between Type I and Type II errors is inverse, so as the probability of making a Type-I error increases, the probability of making a Type-II errors decreases, and vice versa. If you think of a Type I error as a false positive, and a Type II error as a false negative, in its most basic form, then the relationship is clearer. Answer A: The relationship is an inverse relationship, not a positive correlation. Answer B: While they are related to significance level and power, they are also inversely related rather than independent from one another. Answer D: They have an inverse relationship rather than no relationship. As the chances of making a Type I error increases, the chances of making a Type II error decreases and vice versa.

Answer 189

The correct answer is A. Factor analysis is used to determine the underlying factors (attributes) that are assessed by a set of test items, subtests, or other measures. It is a technique used to reduce a large number of variables into fewer numbers of factors by extracting the maximum common variance from all variables. Answer B: Cluster analysis is used to group people or objects into a smaller number of mutually exclusive and exhaustive subgroups (clusters) based on their similarities. Answer C: Multi-trait multimethod matrix is used to evaluate a measure's construct validity and provides information on the test's convergent and divergent validity. The multitrait-multimethod matrix is used to assess construct (convergent and divergent) validity. Answer D: Cross validation refers to the tendency for the size of the correlation coefficient to shrink and the predictive accuracy of the regression equation to decrease whenever a multiple correlation coefficient and multiple regression equation are used (cross-validated) on another sample.

Answer 190

The correct answer is C. A monotrait-heteromethod coefficient indicates the correlation between the same trait being measured with different methods. It provides information about a test's convergent validity. Answer A: A heterotrait-heteromethod coefficient provides information about a test's divergent validity. Answer B: A heterotrait-monomethod coefficient also provides information about a test's divergent validity. Answer D: The monotrait-monomethod coefficient provides information about a test's reliability.

Answer 191

The correct answer is B. When the reliability coefficient is equal to .81, this means that 81% of variability in test scores reflects true score variability and 19% reflects measurement error. Answers A, C, & D are incorrect.

Answer 192

The correct answer is A. Specificity refers to the correct identification of true negatives--i.e., the percent of cases in the validation sample who do not have the characteristic being screened for and were accurately identified by the predictor as not having that characteristic. Answer B: Sensitivity refers to the correct identification of true positives. Answers C & D are incorrect.

Answer 193

The correct answer is D. Kuder-Richardson Formula 20 (KR-20) is an alternative to coefficient alpha when items are scored dichotomously (right or wrong), which would be the case for true/false items. Answer A: The Spearman-Brown formula is used to determine the impact of lengthening a test on its reliability. Answer B: The coefficient of concordance is a measure of inter-rater reliability for three or more raters when ratings are ranks. Answer C: Cohen's kappa statistic is used to measure inter-rater reliability and corrects for chance agreement.

Answer 194

The correct answer is D. Knowing the formula for the standard error of measurement would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. The standard error of measurement equals the standard deviation times the square root of one minus the reliability coefficient. When a test's reliability coefficient is equal to +1.0 (the highest reliability coefficient possible), there is no error in measurement and the standard error of measurement equals zero. At the other extreme, when the test's reliability coefficient is equal to 0, the standard error of measurement equals the standard deviation of the test scores. Answers A, B, & C are incorrect.

Answer 195

The correct answer is B. A personnel director would most likely raise the predictor cutoff to decrease the number of false positives since these individuals would "cost the company money" (i.e., they would be hired on the basis of their test scores but would be unsuccessful on the job). Answer A: Raising the predictor cutoff scores would decrease the number of true positives. Answer C: Although raising the predictor cutoff score increases the number of false negatives, this would not be considered desirable in most situations. A personnel director would not want to increase the number of people who are rejected (not hired) on the basis of their selection test scores but would have been successful on the job if they had been hired. Answer D: Raising the predictor cutoff increases the number of true negatives.

Answer 196

The correct answer is C. The validity coefficient usually "shrinks" on cross-validation because the chance factors operating in the original sample are not all present in the cross-validation sample. Answer A: Criterion deficiency refers to the degree to which an actual criterion fails to overlap with the conceptual criterion. Answer B: In test construction, the correction for attenuation is used to estimate what a predictor's validity coefficient would be if the predictor and/or the criterion were perfectly reliable. Answer D: Criterion contamination refers to the bias introduced into a person's criterion score as a result of the scorer's knowledge of the person's performance on the predictor.

Answer 197

The correct answer is C. Since no test is completely reliable, any test score may be in error (i.e., may not reflect the examinee's "true" test score). Consequently, the best strategy is to interpret the examinee's score in terms of a confidence interval. The standard error of measurement is an index of error and is used to construct an interval in which an examinee's true test score is likely to fall given his or her obtained test score. Answer A: Reliability is a measure of the extent to which a test consistently measures the attribute assessed by the test. A reliability coefficient is interpreted directly as the proportion of variability in obtained test scores that reflects true score variability. Answer B: Validity refers to a test's accuracy. The validity coefficient indicates the extent to which a test measures what is designed to measure. Answer D: The standard error of estimate is used to construct a confidence interval around an estimated (predicted) score.

Answer 198

The correct answer is B. Criterion-referenced interpretation involves interpreting scores in terms of a prespecified standard. A percentage score is a type of criterion-referenced score and reflects the proportion of the test content that an examinee answers correctly. Answer A: A T-score is a type of standard score, and standard scores are norm-referenced scores that indicate how well an examinee did in terms of standard deviation units from the mean score of the norm group. Answer C: Percentile ranks are also norm-referenced scores. A percentile rank indicates the percent of examinees in the norm group who obtained a lower score. In this example, 60% of the examinees scored lower on the college entrance exam than the student. Answer D: This is another example of a norm-referenced interpretation, as the student's test score is compared to scores obtained by other students in her class (the normative sample). The student's score is above average in her class; however, her score may be considered average or below average if the normative sample were to change.

Answer 199

The correct answer is C. For the exam, you want to be familiar with the relationship of z-scores, T-scores, WAIS-IV IQ scores, and Standard Nines (stanines) in a normal distribution so that you can answer questions like this one. A z-score is two standard deviations above the mean and represents the highest norm-referenced score from the answer choices provided. Answer A: A percentile rank of 95 is approximately one and one-half standard deviations above the mean. Answer B: A Stanine score of 7 is approximately one standard deviation above the mean. Answer D: A T-score of 40 is one standard deviation below the mean.

Answer 200

The correct answer is A. Criterion contamination refers to the bias introduced into a person's criterion score as a result of the scorer's knowledge of the person's performance on the predictor. For example, if a manager knows employees' predictor scores when rating their job performance, the ratings may be affected by the knowledge. The best way to avoid criterion contamination is to ensure the individual who is rating people on a criterion measure is not familiar with their performance on the predictor. Answer B: This describes concurrent validity, or the collection of criterion data prior to or at about the same time as data on the predictor. Answer C: When two equivalent forms of a test are administered and the two sets of scores are correlated, the resulting coefficient is known as the alternate forms reliability coefficient or the coefficient of equivalence. This is a measure of reliability, not validity. Answer D: To evaluate a predictor's incremental validity, the first step is to use data collected in a validity study to construct a scatterplot. Incremental validity refers to the degree to which a test improves decision-making accuracy, and it is not used to decrease criterion contamination.

Answer 201

The correct answer is B. A test's reliability is affected by a number of factors including the likelihood that test items can be answered correctly by chance alone (guessing). The greater the likelihood that examinees can choose the correct answer by guessing, the lower the reliability. Answer A: As the probability of correctly guessing answers decreases, the reliability coefficient increases (not decreases). Answer C: As the probability of correctly guessing answers increases, the reliability coefficient decreases (not increases). Answer D: Success on a test due to guessing diminishes the reliability of a test.