TEST MODE - Test 3 Flashcards
While treating a client for snake phobia, a therapist handles the snake and then guides the client through a series of steps until she is able to handle the snake herself. This technique is referred to as:
Select one:
A.
symbolic modeling.
B.
participant modeling.
C.
in-vivo desensitization.
D.
overcorrection.
Bandura compared live modeling with participant modeling, symbolic modeling, and desensitization as treatments for snake and other phobias.
a. Incorrect Symbolic modeling would involve watching a filmed model handling a snake and is not the procedure described in the question.
b. CORRECT Studies on observational learning (modeling) have shown that it is most effective when live modeling is combined with having the individual perform the behavior with assistance from the model. This is referred to as participant modeling.
c. Incorrect In-vivo desensitization would probably involve a gradual handling of the snake. However, it would not necessarily involve handling (modeling) by the therapist.
d. Incorrect Overcorrection, an operant technique, is used to decrease an undesirable behavior. It involves requiring the individual to correct the consequences of the undesirable behavior and/or to practice alternative desirable behaviors.
The correct answer is: participant modeling.
A therapist who has adopted an etic perspective:
Select one:
A.
believes that mental disorders may be manifested differently by people from different cultural groups.
B.
believes that mental disorders are manifested in similar ways by all people, regardless of their cultural group.
C.
adopts a psychodynamic model to describe the causes of mental disorders.
D.
adopts a behavioral model to describe the causes of mental disorders.
The terms “etic” and “emic” were originally used by linguists and anthropologists but were subsequently adopted by mental health professionals interested in cross-cultural counseling.
a. Incorrect This describes an emic (“culturally specific”) view of mental disorders.
b. CORRECT A therapist adopting an etic (“culturally universal”) view considers mental disorders to be universal and, therefore, essentially the same in terms of symptoms among individuals from different cultures.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: believes that mental disorders are manifested in similar ways by all people, regardless of their cultural group.
Chomsky’s position on language acquisition is best described as:
Select one:
A.
psychodynamic.
B.
nativist.
C.
behaviorist.
D.
interactionist.
Chomsky proposes that humans are born with an innate capacity to acquire language.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT According to Chomsky, the capacity for language acquisition is due to an innate language acquisition device. His theory is classified as nativist.
c. Incorrect A behaviorist position would propose that language acquisition is due to environmental factors.
d. Incorrect Interactionist theories stress the role of the social context on language acquisition.
The correct answer is: nativist.
You are picnicking in Yellowstone National Park and are approached by a large bear who seems to be interested in your cold cuts. You notice that the bear is two feet taller than you, has long teeth, and is drooling. You decide to run away as fast as you possibly can. Which of the following glands produces the substance that will help you successfully evade the bear?
Select one:
A.
pituitary
B.
adrenal
C.
thyroid
D.
pancreas
The glands of the endocrine system produce chemical substances known as hormones. These are released into the circulatory system, which carries the hormones to their target organs. Hormones have several different purposes and exert their effects in several different ways.
a. Incorrect The pituitary, known as the “master gland,” releases several hormones, many of which regulate and stimulate the production of hormones by other glands.
b. CORRECT The adrenal gland produces a variety of hormones, including epinephrine and norepinephrine, which are involved in mobilizing the body’s reactions in times of stress.
c. Incorrect The thyroid gland produces thyroxin, which regulates general metabolism.
d. Incorrect The pancreas produces insulin, which is involved in the metabolism of sugar.
The correct answer is: adrenal
A large law firm is facing a difficult and involved case. The senior partner asks a group of four lawyers to verbalize all ideas that come into their minds about the case, no matter how absurd the ideas may be. He then asks four other lawyers to do the same thing separately (individually) rather than as a group. The senior partner can expect that:
Select one:
A.
the individual lawyers will come up with the best ideas.
B.
the group of lawyers will come up with the best ideas.
C.
the ideas of the individual lawyers and the group of lawyers will be equally productive.
D.
the ideas of the group of lawyers will be more productive if those ideas are evaluated as they are presented.
The senior partner in this question is using the technique known as “brainstorming,” which is used to help generate new and creative solutions to difficult problems. With brainstorming, individuals are encouraged to verbalize all ideas, no matter how absurd they seem; no person’s ideas can be evaluated by others until the brainstorming session is over; and the elaboration of the ideas of others is encouraged.
a. CORRECT Research on brainstorming generally indicates that individuals brainstorming alone are more productive than the same number of individuals brainstorming as a group. Group effectiveness does improve, however, when group members receive training in brainstorming.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect In brainstorming, the evaluation of ideas as they are presented, rather than afterwards, would hinder the spontaneous, uninhibited production of ideas and thereby defeat the purpose of the technique.
The correct answer is: the individual lawyers will come up with the best ideas.
Research on the attitudes of heterosexuals toward gays and lesbians has found that all of the following are predictive of higher levels of sexual prejudice except:
Select one:
A.
high levels of authoritarianism.
B.
male (versus female) gender.
C.
fundamentalist religious views.
D.
younger (versus older) age.
As noted in the Social Psychology chapter of the written study materials, sexual prejudice has been linked to a number of factors.
a. Incorrect Authoritarianism has been linked to sexual prejudice.
b. Incorrect Heterosexual males exhibit higher levels of sexual prejudice than do heterosexual females, especially toward gays (versus lesbians).
c. Incorrect Fundamentalist religious views are associated with higher levels of sexual prejudice.
d. CORRECT Older age has been linked to higher levels of sexual prejudice.
The correct answer is: younger (versus older) age.
A delusion of the erotomanic type is illustrated by which of the following?
Select one:
A.
A woman is convinced that her pastor at church is madly in love with her even though he has told her that he’s not.
B.
A woman believes that every man she comes into contact with wants to have sexual relations with her.
C.
A man is preoccupied with sexual fantasies about a co-worker who has shown no interest in him.
D.
A man is concerned about reaching orgasm far too quickly even though his wife repeatedly reassures him that he doesn’t have this problem.
A delusion of the erotomanic type involves a false belief that another person, usually of higher status, is in love with the individual.
a. CORRECT Of the situations described, this one comes closest to an erotomanic delusion.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: A woman is convinced that her pastor at church is madly in love with her even though he has told her that he’s not.
When the homogeneity of variance assumption for the analysis of variance is violated, the results of your statistical analysis are least likely to be invalid when:
Select one:
A.
the groups contain the same number of participants.
B.
the DV is measured on an interval or ratio scale.
C.
alpha is increased from .01 to .05.
D.
a between-groups design has been used.
The use of an analysis of variance (or other parametric test) requires that certain assumptions be met. An important assumption is that there is homogeneity of variances among the treatment groups.
a. CORRECT Equal-sized groups help compensate for a violation of the assumption of homogeneity of variances.
b. Incorrect To use an analysis of variance at all, the DV has to be measured on an interval or ratio scale, so this wouldn’t help compensate for heterogeneity of variances.
c. Incorrect Decreasing alpha is preferable when the homogeneity assumption has been violated.
d. Incorrect It is in between-groups research that this is a problem – i.e., heterogeneity is a problem when the different groups have different variances.
The correct answer is: the groups contain the same number of participants.
Quality assurance is least concerned with:
Select one:
A.
cost-effectiveness of services.
B.
availability of services.
C.
client satisfaction with services.
D.
the outcomes of services.
Although quality assurance means different things to different people, in general, it refers to the quality of services.
a. CORRECT Cost effectiveness is the target of utilization review rather than quality assurance (although, in the long-run, improved quality may also reduce costs). Responses b, c, and d all describe factors that contribute to the quality of services.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: cost-effectiveness of services.
Our peripheral vision is mediated by the:
Select one:
A.
anterior occipital lobe.
B.
posterior occipital lobe.
C.
anterior temporal lobe.
D.
posterior temporal lobe.
Knowing that vision is mediated by the occipital lobe would have helped you narrow the choices to responses a and b.
a. CORRECT Peripheral vision is mediated by the anterior occipital lobe, while central vision is mediated by the posterior occipital lobe.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: anterior occipital lobe.
The symptoms of Borderline Personality Disorder are:
Select one:
A.
usually most severe during the early adult years.
B.
usually most severe during middle age.
C.
usually most severe during older adulthood.
D.
stable in terms of severity over the adult years.
Borderline Personality Disorder is characterized by a pervasive pattern of instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, and affect and marked impulsivity.
a. CORRECT Longitudinal studies have confirmed that the symptoms of BPD are ordinarily most severe during the early adulthood years. See, e.g., J. Paris, Implications of long-term outcome research for the management of patients with Borderline Personality Disorder, Harvard Review of Psychiatry, 10(6), 315-323, 2002.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: usually most severe during the early adult years.
Numerous studies have found that social support is a causal contributor to physical and psychological health. Further, research on the “buffering hypothesis” indicates that the critical factor in determining if a person’s health will be adversely affected by stress is whether:
Select one:
A.
the person has a sufficient number of social supports.
B.
the person perceives available supports to be adequate.
C.
the person has previously received support in the past.
D.
the person’s support system is actually adequate.
Research on the “buffering hypothesis” has focused on the individual’s perceived (versus actual) support system.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Most measures of support in the research on the buffering hypothesis have assessed perceived availability of adequate support, and this seems to be the crucial factor in determining whether social support reduces the negative effects of stress.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: the person perceives available supports to be adequate.
The Flynn effect refers to:
Select one:
A.
the tendency for high and low IQ scores to regress to the mean on retesting.
B.
the impact of examiner race on the IQ scores of minority children.
C.
the increase in average IQ over the last century.
D.
the genetic contribution to IQ scores.
Many of the questions on the exam will be straightforward like this one and, as long as you’re familiar with the topic being asked about, you’ll be able to quickly identify the correct answer.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Flynn (1987, 1998) found a gradual increase in IQ in the United States and other industrialized countries during the 20th century. In his recent writings, he has attributed this effect to the replacement of more concrete, experience-based thinking with abstract scientific thinking. See the Psychological Assessment chapter for an update on recent research on the Flynn effect.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: the increase in average IQ over the last century.
The goodness-of-fit model proposed by Thomas and Chess implies that:
Select one:
A.
adjustment in children is related to the degree of congruence between a child’s basic temperament and his/her parents’ caregiving.
B.
life satisfaction is related to the degree of congruence between a person’s basic personality and his/her chosen lifestyle.
C.
adjustment to marriage is maximized when partners have similar values and goals.
D.
cognitive development is maximized when environmental demands are consistent with the child’s biological maturation.
Thomas and Chess have conducted extensive research on temperament and its consequences.
a. CORRECT Thomas and Chess found that incongruence between a child’s basic temperament and his/her parents’ caregiving behaviors causes or contributes to maladjustment. Their prevention and intervention programs attempt to increase the compatibility of the behaviors of parents and their children.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: adjustment in children is related to the degree of congruence between a child’s basic temperament and his/her parents’ caregiving.
Which of the following neurotransmitters has been implicated in both long-term potentiation and the “excitotoxcity” that is believed to underlie several neurodegenerative disorders?
Select one:
A.
serotonin
B.
acetylcholine
C.
norepinephrine
D.
glutamate
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the major functions and effects of the neurotransmitters listed in the answers to this question.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Glutamate acts as an excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain and spinal cord. It’s known to play a role in learning and memory, including long-term potentiation (LTP) which is a brain mechanism that’s believed to be responsible for the formation of long-term memories. There’s also evidence that excessive glutamate receptor activity (“excitotoxicity”) contributes to stroke-related brain damage, Huntington’s disease, Alzheimer’s disease, and other neurodegenerative disorders.
The correct answer is: glutamate
One criticism of BARS is that:
Select one:
A.
it requires raters to indicate the kinds of behaviors they would expect of ratees rather than the behaviors that they have actually observed.
B.
it requires raters to recall the frequency of critical behaviors over an extended period of time in the past.
C.
there is too much ambiguity with regard to the performance dimensions being measured.
D.
it overemphasizes the subjective features of job performance.
Behaviorally anchored rating scales (BARS) present raters with specific behavioral statements related to different levels of job performance.
a. CORRECT A characteristic of BARS is that the behavioral anchors are usually worded in terms of what could be expected rather than what actually occurred.
b. Incorrect This better describes the problem with behavioral observation scales (BOS).
c. Incorrect The anchors are very specific, so this isn’t a problem.
d. Incorrect This isn’t a problem associated with BARS.
The correct answer is: it requires raters to indicate the kinds of behaviors they would expect of ratees rather than the behaviors that they have actually observed.
Dr. Kairos receives a phone call from the father of a 7-year old girl whom he has been seeing in therapy for several months. The father wants Dr. Kairos to call the child’s school and provide the school psychologist with the results of her recent evaluation of the child’s cognitive functioning. The school psychologist is going to meet with the principal within the hour to discuss the possibility of placing the girl in a special education class. Dr. Kairos should:
Select one:
A.
explain that she cannot provide the information without a signed release of information from the father.
B.
agree to provide the information only if she believes the school psychologist is qualified to interpret it.
C.
agree to provide the information and document the father’s permission to release it to the school psychologist by placing a note in the girl’s file.
D.
agree to provide the information but follow up the phone conversation with a written report to the school psychologist.
The Ethics Code states that consent to reveal confidential information must be obtained, but it does not require that the consent be in writing. However, it would be in the best interests of everyone to document the father’s consent.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Given the “emergency” nature of the situation, this is the best course of action. It is also one that is supported by M. Vasquez in Implications of the 1992 Ethics Code for the practice of individual psychotherapy, Professional Psychology: Research and Practice, 25(4), 321-328, 1994. She states that a “psychologist should document the consent [to disclose confidential information] either through a form signed by the client or in a progress note” (p. 326).
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: agree to provide the information and document the father’s permission to release it to the school psychologist by placing a note in the girl’s file.
While attending a psychology conference, a colleague reports that he has developed a new assessment evaluation for suicide risk. You believe that this test may help you in your clinical practice. However, you learn that this test is labeled, “For Research Purposes Only,” at this time. Given this information, what is the appropriate course of action?
Select one:
A.
You would not use the new test.
B.
You learn as much as possible about this new test, and then use it if it seems appropriate to do so.
C.
You can use the new test if you obtain the appropriate consent from a client before using the new test.
D.
You can use the new test if it is used in conjunction with other data.
Since tests should only be used in the context in which they have been validated, it would not be appropriate to use a test labeled, “For Research Purposes Only,” in the clinical setting.
a. CORRECT You would not use the new test because this test should only be used “For Research Purposes Only.”
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: You would not use the new test.
The most commonly prescribed treatment for moderate to severe obstructive sleep apnea is:
Select one:
A.
tracheostomy.
B.
oral appliances.
C.
adaptive servo-ventilation (ASV).
D.
continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP).
Sleep apnea involves brief, repeated interruptions in breathing during sleep that last for 10 seconds or more. The most common type is obstructive sleep apnea, which is caused by a relaxation of soft tissue at the back of the throat that blocks the passage of air in the nose and throat.
a. Incorrect Tracheostomy is a type of surgery that is sometimes used to alleviate severe forms of sleep apnea when other treatments have failed.
b. Incorrect Oral appliances (e.g., dental appliances that reposition the lower jaw and tongue) are generally less effective than CPAP and are sometimes used to treat mild cases of obstructive sleep apnea.
c. Incorrect ASV is an airflow device that is used to treat central and mixed sleep apnea.
d. CORRECT CPAP involves the use of a nasal mask that produces a continuous flow of air that forces the airways open. It is the most common treatment for moderate to severe obstructive sleep apnea.
The correct answer is: continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP).
According to Fielder’s contingency model of leadership, a low LPC leader focuses on:
Select one:
A.
completing tasks.
B.
maintaining good relationships.
C.
providing satisficing factors.
D.
providing hygiene factors.
According to Fiedler, leaders who describe their least preferred coworker in unfavorable terms are considered task-oriented. They focus on successful completion of the task. However, a high LPC leader describes the least preferred coworker in more pleasant terms and are considered relationship-oriented. A high LPC leader would focus on maintaining good interpersonal relationships.
a. CORRECT See explanation above.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: completing tasks.
Probably the best way to memorize pairs of unrelated words is to:
Select one:
A.
create an acronym.
B.
repeat the word pairs over and over again.
C.
create a visual image that links each word pair.
D.
use the clustering technique.
This is another question that you might have been able to answer correctly on the basis of your own personal experience.
a. Incorrect This is not a good technique for remembering a list of unrelated words.
b. Incorrect Repetition alone is not usually a sufficient memorization strategy.
c. CORRECT Of the methods listed, forming a visual image that links the two words would be the most useful. In general, visual imagery is considered the best memorization technique.
d. Incorrect Clustering is another name for chunking and is used to reduce a large amount of information to a smaller number of “chunks.” It wouldn’t be particularly helpful for memorizing word pairs.
The correct answer is: create a visual image that links each word pair.
The patient known as H.M. underwent a bilateral medial temporal lobectomy as a treatment for severe epilepsy. Following the surgery, he exhibited which of the following?
Select one:
A.
severe expressive aphasia.
B.
severe expressive and receptive aphasia.
C.
extensive loss of remote long-term memories.
D.
an inability to form new memories.
After the surgery, H.M. exhibited a number of memory impairments.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT While H.M.’s short-term and remote long-term memory were intact, he was unable to form new long-term memories and had trouble retrieving information from recent long-term memory.
The correct answer is: an inability to form new memories.
Research investigating the impact of parenting style on the academic achievement of children and adolescents suggests that the effects are:
Select one:
A.
modified by the offspring’s temperament.
B.
modified by the family’s ethnicity/culture.
C.
modified by level of parental education.
D.
not affected by temperament, ethnicity/culture, or parental education.
A number of studies have linked authoritative parenting with the most positive outcomes for children and adolescents.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT This is some evidence that the benefits of authoritative parenting are modified by family ethnicity or culture. For example, L. Sternberg et al. report that the authoritative style is beneficial for the school success of white and Hispanic students but that, for Asian- and African-Americans, this style does not predict school achievement [Ethnic differences in adolescent achievement: An ecological perspective, American Psychologist, 47(6), 723-729, 1992].
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: modified by the family’s ethnicity/culture.
According to Sherif’s social judgment theory, a person’s “latitude of acceptance” is greatest when:
Select one:
A.
the person has high ego-involvement with the target issue.
B.
the person has low ego-involvement with the target issue.
C.
the person has high enjoyment of critical thinking.
D.
the person has low enjoyment of critical thinking.
Sherif’s social judgment theory predicts that a person’s susceptibility to persuasion can be described in terms of three “zones”–latitude of acceptance, latitude of non-commitment, and latitude of rejection.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT The likelihood that a person will be persuaded by an argument that is the opposite of his/her position is maximized when the position advocated by the argument is within the person’s latitude of acceptance. The size of the latitude of acceptance is affected by several factors including the person’s ego-involvement with the issue addressed by the argument–low ego-involvement is associated with a larger latitude of acceptance.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: the person has low ego-involvement with the target issue.
A clinician notices that her client, age 28, experiences frequent periods in which she is very irritable, sensitive, anxious, and self-deprecating; but that, between these times, the client seems to be fairly well-adjusted and even-tempered. When the clinician asks the client about these mood changes, the client says she has always become very moody during the week before her menstrual period. The client’s symptoms are most suggestive of which of the following DSM-5 disorders?
Select one:
A.
Dysmenorrhea
B.
Cyclothymic Disorder
C.
Premenstrual Syndrome
D.
Premenstrual Dysphoric Syndrome
Answer D is correct: More information would be needed to assign a diagnosis of Premenstrual Dysphoric Syndrome. However, of the diagnoses listed in the answers, this one is most consistent with the information provided in the question.
Answer A: Dysmenorrhea is a medical condition that is characterized by physical pain during menstruation.
Answer B: While the client’s symptoms are cyclical, they do not meet the diagnostic criteria for Cyclothymic Disorder, which involves alternating periods of hypomanic and depressive symptoms.
Answer C: Premenstrual Syndrome is not a DSM-5 diagnosis.
The correct answer is: Premenstrual Dysphoric Syndrome
Research comparing day, swing, and night shifts has found that:
Select one:
A.
the night shift clearly has the most detrimental impact on both the social life and health of workers.
B.
the night shift has the most detrimental impact on health and may or may not be similar to the swing shift in terms of it negative effects on the social life of workers.
C.
the night shift has the most detrimental impact on the social life of workers but is no different than day and swing shifts in terms of health problems.
D.
the night shift has the most detrimental impact on health but is no different than day or swing shifts in terms of the social life of workers.
Research on the effects of shift work has found that most of the problems experienced by workers are related to a loss of sleep.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT The night shift has been consistently linked to the most health problems, but the literature is inconsistent with regard to its effects on social life: Some studies suggest the effects on social life are worse for the swing shift, while others suggest they’re worse for the night shift or are similar for the two shifts.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: the night shift has the most detrimental impact on health and may or may not be similar to the swing shift in terms of it negative effects on the social life of workers.
The availability heuristic is the tendency to estimate the frequency or likelihood of an event on the basis of:
Select one:
A.
the resemblance of the event to a “typical” case.
B.
information about the event that is most readily retrieved from memory.
C.
the ability to mentally simulate the occurrence of the event.
D.
the magnitude of the “starting point.”
Kahnemann and Tversky (1984) identified four heuristics (mental shortcuts) that people use to quickly form impressions, make decisions, or derive estimates about the likelihood that a certain event will occur.
a. Incorrect The representativeness heuristic involves making judgments on the basis of the typical case. You are relying on this heuristic when you learn that someone you just met is a lawyer and use what you know about lawyers to draw conclusions about his or her characteristics.
b. CORRECT The availability heuristic involves using information that most readily comes to mind or is most salient to make a decision, judgment, or estimate. As an example, you’ll predict that an event is more likely to occur if you are able to recall many examples of its occurrence in the past than if you are able to recall only one example.
c. Incorrect The simulation heuristic involves using mental simulations of an event to determine if an event will happen – i.e., if you can imagine it will happen, you’re more likely to predict that it will happen.
d. Incorrect The anchoring and adjustment heuristic involves using an initial value as the basis for making a judgment. For instance, if the seller of an item says that he usually sells it for $10.00, your offer for the item will be closer to $10.00 than it would have been if the seller said he usually sells it for $7.00.
The correct answer is: information about the event that is most readily retrieved from memory.
Mental health professionals are sometimes called upon to assist the court in assessing a person’s potential for violent behavior. In general, the predictions made by psychologists and psychiatrists yield an abundance of:
Select one:
A.
false negatives.
B.
false positives.
C.
true negatives.
D.
true positives.
According to several authorities, mental health professionals tend to overpredict the potential for violence; i.e., they tend to predict that a person will be violent when, in fact, he/she will not.
a. Incorrect False negatives are individuals who are predicted to be nonviolent but who actually are violent.
b. CORRECT As noted above, mental health professionals tend to overpredict violence. Individuals who are identified as violent but, in reality, are not violent are referred to as “false positives.”
c. Incorrect True negatives are individuals who are predicted to be nonviolent and actually are not.
d. Incorrect True positives are individuals are predicted to be violent and are.
The correct answer is: false positives.
As the result of brain damage, a 37-year-old woman has difficulty regulating the rate, rhythm, pitch, and loudness of her speech. This is referred to as:
Select one:
A.
dysarthria.
B.
dysosmia.
C.
dyspraxia.
D.
dysprosody.
Damage to certain areas in the brain can disrupt the pattern and flow of speech.
a. Incorrect Dysarthria involves problems in articulation.
b. Incorrect Dysosmia is a disorder in the sense of smell.
c. Incorrect Dyspraxia is characterized by severe impairments in writing, drawing, and other tasks requiring fine motor skills.
d. CORRECT Prosody refers to the pattern of stress and intonation in speech. Dysprosody is a characteristic of Broca’s aphasia and other nonfluent aphasias. Although dysprosody has traditionally been linked to right hemisphere damage, its presence in Broca’s aphasia suggests that prosody is also governed, to some degree, by the left hemisphere.
The correct answer is: dysprosody.
As conceptualized in Bronfenbrenner’s (1995) ecological systems theory, the exosystem includes which of the following?
Select one:
A.
elements in the childs environment that change as the result of the passage of time
B.
elements in the most remote layer of the childs environment that influence interactions in all other layers
C.
elements in the larger social system that the child does not have direct contact with but that affect his/her immediate environment
D.
elements in the childs immediate environment that he/she has direct contact with
Bronfenbrenner’s (1995) ecological systems theory views individual development as occurring within a complex system of relationships that are impacted by multiple levels in the environment. The theory distinguishes between five levels: microsystem, mesosystem, exosystem, macrosystem, and chronosystem.
a. Incorrect The chronosystem is the temporal dimension in Bronfenbrenner’s model. It refers to changes over time that impact the individual’s development.
b. Incorrect The macrosystem is the outermost layer and is comprised of overarching environmental influences such as cultural beliefs and practices, economic conditions, and political ideologies.
c. CORRECT The exosystem consists of elements in the broader social environment that affect the child’s immediate environment. It includes the extended family, the parents’ workplace, the school board, community agencies, local industry, and the mass media.
d. Incorrect The microsystem is the child’s immediate environment and includes face-to-face relationships within the home, school, and neighborhood (e.g., the child’s relationships with parents, siblings, peers, and teachers).
The correct answer is: elements in the larger social system that the child does not have direct contact with but that affect his/her immediate environment
Which of the following best describes the impact of pay on motivation from the perspective of equity theory?
Select one:
A.
Pay is important only to the extent that it helps satisfy the employee’s most prepotent need.
B.
An employee’s perception about the fairness of pay is more important than the absolute amount of pay.
C.
An employee’s perception regarding the link between performance and pay influences the impact of pay on motivation.
D.
Pay is an insignificant contributor to an employee’s level of motivation.
Equity theory predicts that motivation and performance are related to a comparison of one’s own input/outcome ratio to the ratio of workers performing a similar job.
a. Incorrect Prepotent needs are not addressed by equity theory.
b. CORRECT The employee’s perceptions about input and outcomes (e.g., pay) are most important.
c. Incorrect This sounds more like expectancy theory.
d. Incorrect Equity theory does not predict that pay is insignificant.
The correct answer is: An employee’s perception about the fairness of pay is more important than the absolute amount of pay.
You receive a phone call from a person who you were intimately (including sexually) involved with for a short period of time. Your relationship ended in a mutually agreeable way and now this person wants to start therapy with you. In terms of the requirements of the Ethics Code:
Select one:
A.
it would be ethical to begin therapy as long as at least two years have passed since the end of the relationship.
B.
it would be ethical to begin therapy as long as it is clear that there is no risk for harm or exploitation.
C.
it would be ethical to begin therapy as long as you discuss the potential for conflicts at the outset and the risk for harm to the client is minimal.
D.
it would not be ethical to begin therapy.
This issue is clearly addressed in the Ethics Code.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Standard 10.07 states “Psychologists do not accept as therapy clients/patients persons with whom they have engaged in sexual intimacies.”
The correct answer is: it would not be ethical to begin therapy.
Restitution and positive practice are components of which of the following interventions?
Select one:
A.
overcorrection
B.
differential reinforcement
C.
negative practice
D.
implosive therapy
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the four interventions listed in the answers to this question. These are described in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.
a. CORRECT Overcorrection is usually classified as a form of punishment and involves applying a penalty following an undesirable behavior in order to reduce or eliminate that behavior. It consists of two phases – restitution and positive practice.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: overcorrection
Regarding self-assessments that are utilized to promote organizational development, what is key when implementing the findings?
Select one:
A.
Stakeholders of the organization are included in the discovery process.
B.
Lower level management of the organization is included in the discovery process.
C.
Only the CEO and executive officers should be included in the discovery process.
D.
Only management should be included in the discovery process.
The correct answer is A. Self-Assessments are appropriate when the objective is organizational development. Implementation of findings is most successful when stakeholders of the organization are included in the discovery process. Answers B, C and D are incorrect as stakeholders of the company include those in all levels of management as well as those who are not in management too.
The correct answer is: Stakeholders of the organization are included in the discovery process.
Expectancy theory predicts that work motivation depends on three beliefs. These include all of the following except:
Select one:
A.
valence.
B.
instrumentality.
C.
expectancy.
D.
consideration.
Expectancy theory is based on the assumption that motivation is a cognitive process involving three beliefs: expectancy, instrumentality, and valence.
a. Incorrect Valence refers to the value the worker places on the outcomes of performance.
b. Incorrect Instrumentality refers to the worker’s beliefs regarding the likelihood that successful job performance will lead to certain outcomes.
c. Incorrect Expectancy refers to the worker’s beliefs about the likelihood that effort will lead to successful performance.
d. CORRECT Consideration is NOT one of the beliefs identified by expectancy theory.
The correct answer is: consideration.
You receive a letter from the Ethics Committee asking for information about a former client who has filed a complaint against her current therapist. You stopped seeing the client over seven years ago. You should:
Select one:
A.
not comply with the Committee’s request initially and claim privilege on behalf of your client.
B.
cooperate with the Committee’s request by sending them the information you believe is relevant to the case.
C.
cooperate with the Committee’s request by sending them the information you believe is relevant to the case after confirming that the client has signed a release.
D.
inform the Committee that the information you have about the client is obsolete and that you’re ethically obligated not to forward it to them.
This situation is addressed by Standard 1.06 of the APA’s Ethics Code.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT When contacted by the Ethics Committee, a psychologist must cooperate fully. However, as noted in Standard 1.06, a psychologist is also obligated to “address any confidentiality issues.” (If you believe the information is obsolete, you should make a note of that when you forward the information to the Committee.)
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: cooperate with the Committee’s request by sending them the information you believe is relevant to the case after confirming that the client has signed a release.
Sedation (drowsiness) is most likely to be a side effect of which of the following antidepressants?
Select one:
A.
Prozac
B.
Wellbutrin
C.
Zoloft
D.
Pamelor
In general, the tricyclic antidepressants are more sedating than the SSRIs and certain other newer antidepressants.
a. Incorrect Prozac (fluoxetine) is an SSRI and is less likely than Pamelor to produce sedation.
b. Incorrect Wellbutrin (bupropion) is an NDRI and is less likely than Pamelor to produce sedation.
c. Incorrect Zoloft (sertraline) is an SSRI and is less likely than Pamelor to produce sedation.
d. CORRECT Pamelor (nortriptyline) is a tricyclic antidepressant and, of the antidepressants listed in the answers, is most likely to produce sedation.
The correct answer is: Pamelor
Singh and Young (1995) found that, when men were asked to rate women in terms of attractiveness, health, and desirability as a romantic partner, they gave the highest ratings to females with:
Select one:
A.
large breasts and narrow hips.
B.
large breasts and broad hips.
C.
small breasts and narrow hips.
D.
small breasts and broad hips.
If you’re not familiar with Singh and Young’s research, you may have been able to identify the correct answer to this question by considering the women who appear in advertising and men’s magazines.
a. CORRECT D. Singh and R. K. Young found that large breasts, narrow hips and low waist-to-hip ratio were consistently rated by men as more attractive, healthy, and desirable for a romantic relationship [Body weight, waist-to-hip ratio, breasts, and hips: Role in judgments of female attractiveness and desirability for relationships, Ethology and Sociobiology, 16(6), 483-507, 1995].
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: large breasts and narrow hips.
Traditional American Indian social organization and decision-making is best described as:
Select one:
A.
linear.
B.
bilateral.
C.
nuclear.
D.
collateral.
Among American Indians, the family and social network includes both biological and nonbiological members.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT As a group, American Indians place greater emphasis on the family and the tribe than on the self and this is reflected in their social organization and decision-making process, which have been described as “consensual collateral.”
The correct answer is: collateral.
Lawrence Kohlberg describes reasoning in his sixth (last) stage of moral development as involving consideration of universal ethical principles. In contrast, the last stage in Carol Gilligan’s model of moral development emphasizes:
Select one:
A.
avoiding harm to oneself and to others.
B.
sacrificing ones own desires to those of others.
C.
a desire to uphold social contracts.
D.
the ability to take the perspective of others.
Gilligan’s theory of moral development distinguishes between three levels.
a. CORRECT Gilligan’s model describes moral development as progressing from care for self, care for others, to care for everyone including self. This response describes Gilligan’s Level 3.
b. Incorrect This describes Gilligan’s Level 2.
c. Incorrect This does not describe any of Gilligan’s levels of moral development, but does describe Kohlberg’s fifth stage.
d. Incorrect This does not describe any of Gilligan’s levels of moral development.
The correct answer is: avoiding harm to oneself and to others.
Which of the following was responsible for the genesis of Gerald Caplan’s development of mental health consultation?
Select one:
A.
recognition that traditional psychoanalysis was not helpful for many of his clients
B.
recognition that an internal consultant was needed in many organizations to address employees’ mental health problems
C.
recognition that the mental health of many more individuals can be improved through indirect services
D.
recognition that preventive efforts do not target the appropriate populations
Caplan discusses the origins of his mental health consultation in his article, Caplanian mental health consultation: Historical background and current status [Consulting Psychology Journal, 46(4), 2-12, 1994].
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Caplan’s consultation approach grew out of his experiences at residential institutions in Israel in 1949. He quickly recognized that it was not feasible to provide direct services to patients due to their large number and, consequently, developed an indirect approach (consultation) that increased his ability to ensure that patients received adequate treatment.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: recognition that the mental health of many more individuals can be improved through indirect services
As defined in the DSM-5, the essential feature of Delirium is:
Select one:
A.
impaired ability to transfer information from short- to long-term memory.
B.
a disturbance in attention and awareness.
C.
a disturbance in psychomotor behavior.
D.
disorientation.
Answer B is correct: According to the DSM-5, the core features of Delirium are impaired awareness and a disturbance in attention (e.g., impaired ability to focus, sustain, and shift attention).
Answers A, C, and D: Although Delirium may involve impaired memory, a disturbance in psychomotor behavior, and/or disorientation, these symptoms are not essential features of the disorder.
The correct answer is: a disturbance in attention and awareness.
If the relationship between level of anxiety (the independent variable) and number of words recalled (the dependent variable) is nonlinear, which of the following would be most useful for statistically evaluating the relationship between the two variables?
Select one:
A.
ANCOVA
B.
MANOVA
C.
trend analysis
D.
factorial analysis
Answer C is correct: In this situation, there is a quantitative independent variable, and the relationship between the independent and dependent variables is nonlinear. Trend analysis is useful for determining the nature of the relationship between a quantitative IV and a DV and indicates if there is a significant linear, quadratic, cubic, or quartic trend.
Answer A: The ANCOVA is used to statistically remove the effects of an extraneous variable.
Answer B: The MANOVA is used to assess the effects of one or more IVs on two or more DVs.
Answer D: A factorial analysis (e.g., factorial ANOVA) is appropriate when a study has two or more independent variables.
The correct answer is: trend analysis
For a diagnosis of ADHD, the DSM requires:
Select one:
A.
a minimum of six characteristic symptoms for at least six months.
B.
a minimum of eight characteristic symptoms for at least four months.
C.
a minimum of six characteristic symptoms for at least four months.
D.
a minimum of eight characteristic symptoms for at least six months.
The exam does include some straightforward questions like this one.
a. CORRECT A diagnosis of ADHD requires at least six symptoms of inattention and/or six symptoms of hyperactivity/impulsivity for at least six months, resulting in impairment in at least two settings.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: a minimum of six characteristic symptoms for at least six months.
A psychologist should be aware that client records:
Select one:
A.
are protected by law and can never be disclosed without the client’s consent.
B.
are the property of the psychologist and cannot be disclosed without his/her consent.
C.
are the joint property of the psychologist and client and cannot be disclosed without the consent of both.
D.
are not always free from disclosure, regardless of the wishes of the client or the psychologist.
The physical record is ordinarily the property of the psychologist (or organization where the psychologist works), while the information contained in the record is the property of the client.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT - There are situations that require a psychologist to disclose certain information contained in a client’s record (e.g., in cases of known or suspected child abuse), even without the client’s consent. Therefore, this answer is most consistent with ethical guidelines and legal requirements.
The correct answer is: are not always free from disclosure, regardless of the wishes of the client or the psychologist.
Tolman’s demonstration of latent learning suggests that:
Select one:
A.
a student studying algebra in September may not learn algebra until he begins to study geometry.
B.
a student studying algebra will come to a sudden and whole understanding of it.
C.
a student will not learn algebra unless the proper incentive for learning is provided.
D.
a student might appear to know little about algebra until he takes an algebra test.
Tolman demonstrated latent learning in his experiments with rats and mazes. Some rats were allowed to freely explore mazes for ten days, but did not display any proficiency in solving the maze until reinforcement was offered for doing so. This phenomenon suggests that, reinforcement is more of a factor in the performance than the learning of a response.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect A Gestalt learning theorist might say this.
c. Incorrect A person who views learning as a function of operant conditioning (e.g., positive reinforcement) might say this.
d. CORRECT In this case, the student has learned algebra but is not displaying that knowledge until reinforcement (a good grade) is provided for doing so. Therefore, this observation would be congruent with Tolman’s demonstration of latent learning.
The correct answer is: a student might appear to know little about algebra until he takes an algebra test.
The best conclusion about the etiology of Major Depressive Disorder is that:
Select one:
A.
genetic factors play a more substantial role than environmental factors, with a dominant gene being the most likely causal agent.
B.
genetic factors play a more substantial role than environmental factors, with a recessive gene being the most likely causal agent.
C.
genetic factors play a substantial role in only a small number of cases of this disorder.
D.
genetic and environmental factors both play a substantial role in the development of this disorder.
Family, twin, and adoption studies have confirmed a genetic contribution to Major Depressive Disorder. However, these studies have shown that the heritability of this disorder is in the 31 to 42% range, which indicates that environmental factors also play an important role. See, e.g., P. F. Sullivan, M. C. Neale, and K. S. Kendler, Genetic epidemiology of major depression: Review and meta-analysis, American Journal of Psychiatry, 157, 1552-1562, 2000.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Based on their review of the research, Sullivan et al. conclude that Major Depressive Disorder is a complex and heterogeneous condition that results from a combination of genetic and environmental factors. They suggest that a genetic vulnerability to this disorder might be expressed only when the individual is also exposed to certain environmental events.
The correct answer is: genetic and environmental factors both play a substantial role in the development of this disorder.
A job applicant who scores below the cutoff on a selection test and is, therefore, not hired, but who would have actually obtained a satisfactory job performance rating if she had been hired, is best described as a:
Select one:
A.
true positive.
B.
true negative.
C.
false positive.
D.
false negative.
The exam frequently includes a question that requires the ability to distinguish between false positives, false negatives, etc. Keep in mind that it is one’s score on the PREDICTOR that determines if one is a “positive” or a “negative,” and one’s score on the CRITERION that determines if the classification as a positive or negative is “true” or “false.”
a. Incorrect A true positive is someone who has been identified by the predictor as having the target characteristic and, in fact, does have the characteristic.
b. Incorrect A true negative is someone who has been identified by the predictor as not having the target characteristic and, in fact, doesn’t have the characteristic.
c. Incorrect A false positive has been identified by the predictor as having the target characteristic but actually does not have the characteristic.
d. CORRECT A false negative is a person who has been classified by the predictor as a negative (i.e., doesn’t have the target characteristic) but who actually does have the characteristic.
The correct answer is: false negative.
The best way to maximize a research study’s external validity is to:
Select one:
A.
use a parametric (versus nonparametric) statistical test.
B.
set alpha at .01 rather than .05.
C.
select participants who are homogeneous with regard to the target characteristic.
D.
randomly select research participants from the target population.
External validity refers to the generalizability of the results of a research study.
a. Incorrect A parametric test increases statistical power, but it doesn’t increase the generalizability of the research results.
b. Incorrect A smaller alpha will reduce the probability of making a Type I error, but it will not increase the generalizability of the study’s results.
c. Incorrect Narrowing the range of participants in terms of the target characteristic would limit the generalizability of the results. For example, if the target characteristic is self-esteem and the study includes only people with average self-esteem, it would not be possible to generalize the study’s results to people with high and low self-esteem.
d. CORRECT The best way to maximize the generalizability of a study’s results is to randomly select participants from the population so that the sample of participants is representative of the population in terms of all relevant characteristics.
The correct answer is: randomly select research participants from the target population.
When a therapist is a trainee and his or her supervisor has legal responsibility for treatment being provided by the therapist, the therapist must:
Select one:
A.
obtain a waiver of confidentiality from a client prior to discussing the case with his/her supervisor.
B.
let a client know that he/she is a student intern and that a supervisor will be reviewing the case.
C.
let a client know that he/she is a student intern and provide the client with the supervisor’s name.
D.
let a client know that he/she is a student intern and introduce the client to the supervisor.
This issue is covered by Standard 4.01 of the Ethics Code.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Standard 4.01 requires that clients be informed whenever a therapist’s work will be supervised and, moreover, that the client be given the supervisor’s name when “the supervisor has legal responsibility for the case.”
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: let a client know that he/she is a student intern and provide the client with the supervisor’s name.
For a DSM-5 diagnosis of Binge-Eating Disorder, an individual must have engaged in binge-eating, on average:
Select one:
A.
once a week for at least one month.
B.
once a week for at least three months.
C.
twice a week for at least one month.
D.
twice a week for at least three months.
Answer B is correct: For this diagnosis, the DSM-5 requires binges to have occurred, on average, once a week for a minimum of three months.
Answers A, C, and D: See explanation for answer B.
The correct answer is: once a week for at least three months.
Dr. Cal Amity is asked to provide crisis intervention services to individuals who were affected by a tornado that destroyed many homes in a nearby community. Dr. Amity has not had experience providing assistance to people who have been traumatized by a natural disaster, but there is no one else in the area who has experience and is available to see these individuals. As an ethical psychologist, Dr. Amity should:
Select one:
A.
provide services only if he is supervised by another professional who has adequate training.
B.
provide services to these individuals but stop when the crisis has ended or other services become available.
C.
provide services to these individuals but use only interventions that he has experience using.
D.
refuse to provide the services.
This situation is addressed by Standard 2.02 of the APA’s Ethics Code.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Standard 2.02 states that, in emergency situations, a psychologist may provide services to individuals for whom other mental health services are not available and for which the psychologist does not have necessary training in order to ensure that the individuals receive necessary services. However, the psychologist must discontinue providing services when the emergency has ended or when appropriate services become available.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: provide services to these individuals but stop when the crisis has ended or other services become available.
A student receives a T score of 64 on a problem-solving test, a T score of 45 on a verbal reasoning test, and a T score of 32 on a test of quantitative reasoning. Each test’s standard error of measurement is equal to 3. Based on this information, you can conclude that:
Select one:
A.
the student is much better at problem-solving than at verbal reasoning and quantitative reasoning.
B.
the student has failed the quantitative reasoning test.
C.
the student scored above the mean on the problem-solving test.
D.
the student did twice as well on the problem-solving test as on the quantitative reasoning test.
T scores are norm-referenced scores, which means that they provide information only on a person’s standing in the norm group.
a. Incorrect It is only possible to conclude that, compared to other people, the student is best in problem-solving. It is not possible to make comparisons across the different tests.
b. Incorrect To determine whether the student has failed the test, a cutoff score would have to be established.
c. CORRECT The T score distribution has a mean of 50 and a standard deviation of 10. Consequently, it is possible to conclude that the student’s raw score on the problem-solving test is above the mean.
d. Incorrect T scores cannot be compared in this way since they do not represent a ratio scale of measurement.
The correct answer is: the student scored above the mean on the problem-solving test.
The Solomon four-group design is used to evaluate the effects of pretesting on a research study’s:
Select one:
A.
internal validity only.
B.
external validity only.
C.
internal and external validity.
D.
statistical conclusion validity.
When using the Solomon four-group design, the pretest is treated as an independent variable so that its effects on a study’s internal and external validity can be evaluated (i.e., so that it can be determined if taking a pretest affects subjects’ performance on the posttest and/or affects how subjects react to the treatment).
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT When using this design, subjects are randomly assigned to one of four groups: Group #1 takes the pretest, is exposed to the treatment, and takes the posttest; Group #2 takes the pretest, is not exposed to the treatment, and takes the posttest; Group #3 is exposed to the treatment and takes the posttest; and Group #4 takes the posttest only.
d. Incorrect Statistical conclusion validity refers to the validity of conclusions made about the relationship between variables based on the results of the statistical analysis. Statistical conclusion validity is threatened, for example, if an assumption for the statistical test was violated.
The correct answer is: internal and external validity.
After playing the role of a child abuser in a feature film, a well-known and formerly well-liked actor begins receiving a lot of “hate mail.” The writers of these letters are exhibiting which of the following?
Select one:
A.
psychological reactance
B.
the fundamental attribution error
C.
the availability bias
D.
defensive attribution
In this situation, the actor’s role as a child abuser is apparently being viewed as a reflection of the actor’s actual tendencies.
a. Incorrect Psychological reactance is the tendency to do the opposite of what you are asked to do, especially when the request seems to be threatening your personal freedom.
b. CORRECT There is a natural tendency to make dispositional (versus situational) attributions about a person’s behavior, which is what seems to be happening in this case; i.e., the writers of the hate mail are assuming that the actor played the role of a child abuser because he is a child abuser, not because he got paid to play the role.
c. Incorrect The availability bias refers to the tendency to estimate the likelihood of an event happening based on the instances that come quickly or easily to mind.
d. Incorrect A defensive attribution is an attribution of causality that is made specifically to relieve one’s anxiety.
The correct answer is: the fundamental attribution error
When using empirical criterion keying to construct a structured personality test, items included in the test are those that:
Select one:
A.
have high correlations with some items but low correlations with other items.
B.
have been identified by subject matter experts as measuring the traits identified by a specific personality theory.
C.
have been found to accurately distinguish between people who do and do not possess the traits measured by a scale or subtest.
D.
have been systematically evaluated and chosen on the basis of a set of predetermined rules.
Several methods are used to construct structured personality tests.
a. Incorrect This response refers to the factor-analytic method of test construction.
b. Incorrect This response describes the theoretical method of test construction.
c. CORRECT The word “criterion” in empirical criterion keying refers to criterion groups, which are people who do and do not possess the trait being measured. Items that discriminate between the groups are included in the test’s scales or subtests.
d. Incorrect This response is vague and could apply to empirical criterion keying as well as to the theoretical and factor-analytic methods. Therefore, it’s not the best answer.
The correct answer is: have been found to accurately distinguish between people who do and do not possess the traits measured by a scale or subtest.
Kirkpatrick (1983) identifies four levels of rigor in the evaluation of training programs. According to his model, which of the following represents the highest level of evaluation?
Select one:
A.
reaction criteria
B.
results criteria
C.
behavioral criteria
D.
learning criteria
Several experts have addressed the issue of training program evaluation and place the various methods in a hierarchical order. One of these hierarchies is offered Kirkpatrick (1983), who distinguishes between four levels: reaction criteria, learning criteria, behavioral criteria, and, at the top, results criteria.
a. Incorrect Trainees’ impressions of and reactions to the training program are considered the “lowest” level of rigor.
b. CORRECT Measures indicating the contribution of training to the organization’s objectives are at the top of Kirkpatrick’s hierarchy. These measures include cost and turnover reductions, increases in overall productivity, and increases in profits.
c. Incorrect Behavioral criteria are second to the top and include measures of an individual trainee’s on-the-job performance. (Note that some experts consider measures of transfer-of-training to be the “highest” level of evaluation.)
d. Incorrect Learning criteria are the second level and include written exams and performance tests given at the end of training.
The correct answer is: results criteria
The assessment of patients with Alzheimer’s disease is an ongoing process due to the degenerative nature of the disease and the consequent need to alter the nature of the treatment plan. During the 4th or 5th year of the disorder, an assessment is most likely to find which of the following?
Select one:
A.
deficits in new learning with remote memory mildly to moderately impaired; anomia; sadness
B.
severe impairments in recent and remote memory; fluent aphasia; indifference or irritability; restlessness
C.
severe impairments in memory and executive functioning; motor rigidity; confusion and delusions
D.
severely disturbed intellectual functioning; limb rigidity and flexion posture; apathy; seizures
As noted in the Abnormal Psychology chapter of the written study materials, the progression of Alzheimer’s disease can be described in terms of three stages.
a. Incorrect These symptoms are more common during the first two to three years (first stage).
b. CORRECT These are characteristic symptoms during the 3rd through 10th years (middle stage).
c. Incorrect These are symptoms of the third stage (8 to 12 years).
d. Incorrect These are third stage symptoms (in addition, seizures are not necessarily associated with this disorder).
The correct answer is: severe impairments in recent and remote memory; fluent aphasia; indifference or irritability; restlessness
A structural family therapist’s interventions when working with a triangulated family will be designed to:
Select one:
a.
foster insight in order to establish more appropriate hierarchies and boundaries.
b.
create stress in order to unbalance the family’s homeostasis.
c.
dilute the tension between family members in order to reduce triangulation.
d.
alter the family’s implicit and explicit rules in order to increase differentiation.
As its name suggests, structural family therapy is concerned with restructuring the family.
a. Incorrect - See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT - Before the family’s structure can be altered, its homeostatic state must be unbalanced so that family members are more susceptible to change. This is accomplished by interjecting some type of stress into the family.
c. Incorrect - See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect - See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: create stress in order to unbalance the family’s homeostasis.
Naasir N. states that he often can’t keep himself from falling asleep during the day and, as a result, has injured himself several times at work and recently started taking the bus to work because he’s afraid he’ll fall asleep while driving. He says that he often experiences weakness in his legs right before he falls asleep during the day and has vivid, sometimes frightening dreams just before he wakes up. Naasir says that he likes to have a few beers in the evening and on weekends but that this seems to increase his daytime sleepiness. He reports that he has very vivid dreams at night and usually wakes up several times each night but is able to quickly fall asleep again. Based on these symptoms, the most likely diagnosis for Naasir is:
Select one:
A.
sleep apnea.
B.
alcohol-induced sleep disorder.
C.
primary hypersomnia.
D.
narcolepsy.
Naasir is exhibiting sleep attacks with cataplexy (weakness in his legs) and hypnopompic hallucinations (vivid dreamlike hallucinations on awakening).
a. Incorrect Sleep apnea is a breathing-related sleep disorder that involves an episodic cessation of breathing that may or may not be due to an upper airway obstruction.
b. Incorrect Naasir’s daytime sleep attacks and cataplexy are not characteristic of alcohol-induced sleep disorder.
c. Incorrect Naasir’s symptoms are more characteristic of narcolepsy than of primary hypersomnia, which involves more persistent daytime sleepiness (rather than discrete sleep attacks), few or no dreams during daytime naps, an absence of cataplexy, and fewer disturbances in nocturnal sleep.
d. CORRECT Naasir’s daytime sleep attacks are characteristic of narcolepsy, which can be exacerbated by alcohol and is often accompanied by frequent awakening and vivid dreams at night.
The correct answer is: narcolepsy.
Which of the following tests would be most useful for assessing the intelligence of a 12-year-old child with limited English language proficiency?
Select one:
A.
Raven’s Standard Progressive Matrices
B.
Slosson Intelligence Test
C.
Bayley Scales
D.
Cognitive Abilities Test
For the exam, you want to be familiar with all of the tests listed in the answers to this question. Additional information about them is provided in the Psychological Assessment chapter of the written study materials.
a. CORRECT Raven’s Standard Progressive Matrices can be administered without the use of language, and it doesn’t require language to respond to test items. It is appropriate for individuals age six and older.
b. Incorrect The Slosson Intelligence Test is a screening test of intelligence and is not appropriate for individuals with limited language proficiency.
c. Incorrect The Bayley Scales are used to assess infant development.
d. Incorrect The Cognitive Abilities Test (CogAT) is measure of reasoning ability that is often used to determine a student’s eligibility for placement in a gifted/talented program.
The correct answer is: Raven’s Standard Progressive Matrices
Research on visual imagery has linked it to which of the following structures of the brain?
Select one:
A.
putamen
B.
hippocampus
C.
reticular formation
D.
basal ganglia
Research by G. Kreiman, C. Koch, and I. Fried (Imagery neurons in the human brain, Nature, 408, 357-361, 2000) has linked visual imagery to medial temporal lobe structures.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT The medial temporal lobe includes the hippocampus, amygdala, entorhinal cortex, and the parahippocampal gyrus.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: hippocampus
__________ biofeedback has been found to be useful for treating migraine headache, essential hypertension, Raynaud’s disease, and certain types of pain including intermittent claudication associated with diabetes.
Select one:
A.
Thermal
B.
Respiratory
C.
Brain wave activity
D.
Muscle tension
Knowing that thermal biofeedback is an effective treatment for Raynaud’s disease would have helped you identify the correct answer even if you’re not familiar with its effectiveness for the other conditions listed in this question.
a. CORRECT Thermal (peripheral skin-temperature) biofeedback provides information on blood flow and is a useful treatment for a number of circulatory disorders including those listed in this question.
b. Incorrect Respiratory biofeedback is used as a treatment for asthma and other conditions that involve problems related to breathing.
c. Incorrect Electroencephalograph (EEG) biofeedback provides information on brain wave activity and is used to treat insomnia, epilepsy, and several other neurological disorders.
d. Incorrect Electromyography (EMG) biofeedback provides feedback on muscle tension and is used to treat tension headaches, bruxism, back and neck pain, and incontinence.
The correct answer is: Thermal
Social psychology theory predicts which of the following with regard to a client’s attraction to his or her therapist?
Select one:
A.
The client will be unable to communicate effectively when he/she is attracted to the therapist.
B.
If the therapist is aware of the attraction, he or she will be less effective.
C.
The client will be more resistant to therapy when he/she is attracted to the therapist.
D.
The client will be more susceptible to the therapist’s attempts at influence when he/she is attracted to the therapist.
Research on interpersonal attraction suggests that a client who is attracted to his or her therapist will be more susceptible to the therapist’s attempts at influence.
a. Incorrect Attraction is more likely to facilitate communication.
b. Incorrect This has not been found by research on interpersonal attraction.
c. Incorrect This is the opposite of what is true.
d. CORRECT Research on interpersonal attraction has indicated that people tend to be more highly influenced by people they are attracted to.
The correct answer is: The client will be more susceptible to the therapist’s attempts at influence when he/she is attracted to the therapist.
The stages of change (transtheoretical) model identifies two factors as the primary predictors of successful transition from one stage to the next. These are:
Select one:
A.
perceived self-efficacy and decisional balance.
B.
locus of control and level of commitment.
C.
motivation and persuasibility.
D.
outcome expectancies and outcome value.
The stages of change model identifies several factors that impact a person’s willingness to alter a problematic behavior.
a. CORRECT These are the two factors that are identified by the stages of change model as predictors of movement from one stage to the next. Perception of self-efficacy refers to the belief that one is capable of taking the steps needed to change, while decisional balance refers to the balance between the perceived pros and cons of changing. The cons of changing outweigh the pros during the precontemplation and contemplation stages; the cons and pros are about equal during the preparation stage; and the pros outweigh the cons during the action and maintenance stages.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: perceived self-efficacy and decisional balance.
A number of studies have found that African American patients are less likely than White patients to complete advance directives. This research also indicates that this is due to:
Select one:
A.
a low level of trust in the health care system.
B.
concerns about “bringing bad luck”.
C.
reliance on family members to make end-of-life decisions.
D.
the belief that advance directives violate cultural or religious values.
Several studies have found a relationship between race/ethnicity and end-of-life decisions. See, e.g., J. Kwak and W. E. Haley, Current research findings on end-of-life decision making among racially or ethnically diverse groups, The Gerontologist, 45(5), 634-641, 2005.
a. CORRECT- African American patients are less likely than White patients to complete advance directives, and this seems to be due primarily to lack of knowledge and/or mistrust in the healthcare system, with the latter being attributable to previous personal experiences and awareness of past abuses by healthcare providers (e.g., the Tuskegee syphilis study).
b. Incorrect- Concerns about “bringing bad luck” may account for the unwillingness of some Chinese adults to complete advance directives.
c. Incorrect- Reliance on family members to make end-of-life decisions has not been identified as a reason why African American patients are reluctant to complete advance directives.
d. Incorrect- There is some evidence that Native Americans may reject advance directives because they violate cultural values and beliefs (e.g., they are counter to the preference for avoiding negative thoughts and actions).
The correct answer is: a low level of trust in the health care system.
A 31-year old male client presents with delusions and auditory hallucinations. His wife says that his symptoms developed soon after the sudden death of his mother nearly three weeks ago. The tentative diagnosis is:
Select one:
A.
Schizophrenia.
B.
Schizophreniform Disorder.
C.
Brief Psychotic Disorder.
D.
Schizoaffective Disorder.
Answer C is correct: The diagnosis of Brief Psychotic Disorder requires the presence of one or more of four characteristic symptoms with at least one symptom being delusions, hallucinations, or disorganized speech and with symptoms being present for at least one day but less than one month. Symptoms often develop after exposure to an overwhelming stressor but this is not required for the diagnosis.
Answer A: A diagnosis of Schizophrenia requires the presence of at least two active-phase symptoms for at least one month with at least one symptom being delusions, hallucinations, or disorganized speech plus continuous signs of the disorder for at least six months.
Answer B: Schizophreniform Disorder has symptoms that are similar to those of Schizophrenia but with a duration between one and six months.
Answer D: Schizoaffective Disorder is the appropriate diagnosis when the individual has a history of concurrent symptoms of Schizophrenia and a manic or major depressive episode with at least two weeks without prominent mood symptoms.
The correct answer is: Brief Psychotic Disorder.
For a DSM-5 diagnosis of Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder, the onset of symptoms must be prior to ___ years of age.
Select one:
A.
6
B.
10
C.
12
D.
18
Answer B is correct: The diagnosis of Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder cannot be assigned for the first time before an individual is six years old or after he/she is 18 years old, and the age of onset must be before age 10.
Answers A, C, and D: See explanation for answer B.
The correct answer is: 10
Kagan’s (1966) research on cognitive style found that, in general, students who have a reflective style and take time to consider a question posed by a teacher before answering it:
Select one:
A.
usually have a lower IQ and lower levels of achievement than children who answer questions quickly.
B.
usually have lower self-efficacy beliefs than children who answer questions quickly.
C.
are less likely to answer questions correctly than are children who answer quickly.
D.
are more likely to answer questions correctly than are children who answer quickly.
Kagan distinguished between two cognitive styles - reflective and impulsive - and found that they were related to academic performance. See, e.g., J. Kagan, Reflection-impulsivity: The generality and dynamics of conceptual tempo, Journal of Abnormal Psychology, 71, 17-24, 1966.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Kagan and others have found that children who have a reflective style are more likely to answer questions correctly and to experience more success on school-related tasks than are children who have an impulsive style. Kagan also referred to these styles as “cognitive tempo”, and he found that they’re not necessarily associated with intellectual ability.
The correct answer is: are more likely to answer questions correctly than are children who answer quickly.
Which of the following is generally considered to be most important in the early development of attachment between an infant and his or her caretaker?
Select one:
A.
pleasant tactile stimulation of the infant by the caretaker
B.
satiation of the infant’s hunger by the caretaker
C.
provision of a structured, nonchanging environment by the caretaker
D.
provision of consistent auditory stimulation by the caretaker’s voice
Familiarity with Harlow and Harlow’s (1969) research would have helped you answer this question. In their studies, infant monkeys were reared in isolation or with one of two types (wire mesh or cloth) of surrogate mothers. Results indicated that tactile contact is the crucial element in the development of attachment: Infant monkeys consistently preferred cloth mothers to wire mothers even when food was given via the wire mother.
a. CORRECT This response is consistent with the Harlow and Harlow research and other primate and nonprimate research.
b. Incorrect While the need to satiate an infant’s hunger is crucial, Harlow and Harlow found that young monkeys consistently preferred the cloth mother, regardless of which mother provided food.
c. Incorrect The provision of a structured environment does not appear to be crucial to an infant’s development of attachment.
d. Incorrect Consistent auditory stimulation is not the most crucial factor in the early development of attachment.
The correct answer is: pleasant tactile stimulation of the infant by the caretaker
During your first session with Mr. and Mrs. Desvelo, Mr. Desvelo says his wife has insisted that he get “some help” with his sleep problems. Mrs. Desvelo states that she’s awakened by his frightening screams at least once a week, usually a few hours after they go to sleep, and that this is having a negative effect on her mood and their relationship. Mr. Desvelo has no history of trauma or substance abuse, and he says he recently had a physical and his health is good. In response to your questions, Mrs. Desvelo tells you that her husband sometimes wakes up when he screams and seems agitated but usually goes right back to sleep and doesn’t respond to her attempts to calm him; and Mr. Desvelo says that, in the morning, he has no memory of the episode and usually can’t recall having had any dreams. Mr. Desvelo’s symptoms are most suggestive of which of the following DSM-5 diagnoses?
Select one:
A.
Nightmare Disorder
B.
Sleep Terror Disorder
C.
Rapid Eye Movement Sleep Behavior Disorder
D.
Non-Rapid Eye Movement Sleep Arousal Disorder
Answer D is correct: A person with Non-Rapid Eye Movement Sleep Arousal Disorder, sleep terror type experiences sleep terror episodes that are usually accompanied by a panicky scream. The person shows signs of autonomic arousal, usually does not fully awaken, is unresponsive to the efforts of others to comfort him/her, rarely remembers any dreams he/she may have had, and has amnesia for the episode on awakening in the morning.
Answer A: A person with Nightmare Disorder awakens easily and completely and reports having had a vivid dream involving a threat to survival or security.
Answer B: Sleep Terror Disorder is not a DSM-5 diagnosis.
Answer C: Rapid Eye Movement Sleep Behavior Disorder involves episodes of arousal during REM sleep that are usually associated with vocalizations and/or complex motor behaviors that are consistent with the person’s dream. Upon awakening, the person is alert and oriented.
The correct answer is: Non-Rapid Eye Movement Sleep Arousal Disorder
Scores on a predictor that will be used to estimate job performance rating range from 0 to 200. If the predictor’s cutoff score is raised from 130 to 150, this will have which of the following effects?
Select one:
A.
increase the number of true positives
B.
increase the number of true positives and true negatives
C.
decrease the number of false positives
D.
decrease the number of false positives and false negatives
Drawing a scatterplot (like the one in the Test Construction materials) would have helped you recognize the correct answer to this question.
a. Incorrect Raising the predictor cutoff decreases the number of true and false positives.
b. Incorrect Raising the predictor cutoff decreases the number of true positives and increases the number of true negatives.
c. CORRECT All positives (true and false) are decreased and all negatives (true and false) are increased by raising the predictor cutoff.
d. Incorrect The number of false negatives increases.
The correct answer is: decrease the number of false positives
Test-retest reliability would be the most appropriate method of determining the reliability of a test if the test is designed to assess which of the following?
Select one:
A.
general intelligence
B.
mood
C.
state anxiety
D.
reading level
A test-retest reliability coefficient is obtained by correlating scores on a test with scores on the same test when the same set of examinees retakes it. A test-retest reliability coefficient is most appropriately used with traits that are stable over time. Otherwise, any variance in scores between administrations of the test may reflect the natural change in the trait rather than the test’s lack of reliability.
a. CORRECT Of the traits listed, general intelligence is probably least likely to change significantly over time. Thus, scores on intelligence tests should not change over time and a reliable (accurate and consistent) intelligence test will yield similar scores even when administered at different times.
b. Incorrect Mood is not a stable trait. Since a reliable measure of mood can conceivably yield different scores at different times, the test-retest reliability coefficient will likely underestimate the true reliability of a mood assessment measure.
c. Incorrect See explanations for responses a and b.
d. Incorrect See explanations for responses a and b.
The correct answer is: general intelligence
To use the Taylor-Russell tables to evaluate a new selection test, you need information about which of the following?
Select one:
A.
predictor cutoff, criterion cutoff, and hit rate
B.
base rate, hit rate, and selection ratio
C.
base rate, selection ratio, and validity coefficient
D.
base rate, hit rate, and predictor cutoff
The Taylor-Russell tables are used to estimate a predictor’s “positive hit rate.”
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT To find an estimated hit rate using these tables, it is necessary to have three pieces of information: the base rate, the selection ratio, and the predictor’s validity coefficient.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: base rate, selection ratio, and validity coefficient
According to Kohlberg, moral development is directly related to:
Select one:
A.
changes in cognitive skills.
B.
changes in cognitive skills and social perspective-taking.
C.
changes in cognitive skills and socioemotional status.
D.
changes in identity status.
Kohlberg focused on the relationship between cognitive development and moral development, and he viewed social perspective-taking as an aspect of cognitive development that influences moral judgments.
a. Incorrect This is only partially correct.
b. CORRECT As noted above, Kohlberg included social perspective-taking in his theory of moral development. For example, a shift from Stage 2 to Stage 3 reflects a shift from a concrete individualistic perspective to a perspective of the individual in relationships with other people.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: changes in cognitive skills and social perspective-taking.
A number of investigators have attempted to identify the factors that reduce the likelihood that a woman will seek or remain in substance abuse treatment. Of the factors that have been studied, which of the following has most often been identified as a primary barrier to substance-abuse treatment for women?
Select one:
A.
child and childcare concerns
B.
sexual harassment from male counselors
C.
denial of a substance abuse problem
D.
a perception that treatment is ineffective
This is a difficult question since all of the factors listed in the answers have been identified as barriers to the treatment of women for substance abuse. However, only one of the factors is consistently cited by experts as a primary or most frequently mentioned barrier.
a. CORRECT The research has confirmed that women with substance abuse problems are more likely than men to be caring for dependent children; and factors related to children are frequently cited by women as barriers to substance abuse treatment: Many women are concerned about custody issues (i.e., that their children will be taken away from them); others are concerned about childcare while they receive treatment. With regard to the latter, a recent United Nations report on substance abuse treatment concludes that a “lack of childcare is probably the most consistent factor restricting women’s treatment access identified in the literature” [United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime, Substance abuse treatment and care for women: Case studies and lessons learned, New York, United Nations, 2004, p. 18].
b. Incorrect Although sexual harassment of women has been identified as a problem at some treatment centers, it is not the factor that has “most often” been identified as a barrier to treatment.
c. Incorrect Women are more likely to express shame and guilt about their substance abuse than to deny that they have an abuse problem.
d. Incorrect Concerns about treatment effectiveness may deter some women from seeking treatment for substance abuse problems, but this factor has not been identified as a primary barrier to treatment. In fact, there is evidence that women who have received treatment describe it as being effective [e.g., L. Nelson-Zlupko et al., Women in recovery: Their perceptions of treatment effectiveness, Journal of Substance Abuse Treatment, 13(1), 51-59, 1996].
The correct answer is: child and childcare concerns
The most common side effects of the benzodiazepines are:
Select one:
A.
unsteadiness, insomnia, and agitation.
B.
drowsiness, dizziness, and sedation.
C.
sleeplessness, light-headedness, and headache.
D.
confusion, agitation, and hallucinations.
The benzodiazepines are anti-anxiety drugs that are used to treat anxiety, agitation, insomnia, and other disorders.
a. Incorrect These side effects are less common than those listed in response b.
b. CORRECT These are common side effects of the benzodiazepines.
c. Incorrect These are not side effects of the benzodiazepines.
d. Incorrect These side effects may occur but are rare.
The correct answer is: drowsiness, dizziness, and sedation.
Regular use of morphine or other opioid can quickly result in the development of tolerance and dependence. When this occurs, abrupt cessation of the drug produces a withdrawal syndrome that is characterized by:
Select one:
A.
blackouts and seizures.
B.
flu-like symptoms.
C.
rebound anxiety and rebound insomnia.
D.
delirium tremens.
Morphine withdrawal closely resembles a moderately severe case of the flu.
a. Incorrect Blackouts and seizures are not characteristic of the withdrawal syndrome associated with morphine.
b. CORRECT Common withdrawal symptoms include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal and muscle cramps, runny nose and eyes, chills, and insomnia.
c. Incorrect Rebound anxiety and rebound insomnia are associated with withdrawal from a benzodiazepine. (“Rebound” occurs when the initial symptom - i.e., the symptom for which the drug was prescribed - returns in a more severe form when the drug is withdrawn.)
d. Incorrect Delirium tremens (confusion and visual hallucinations) are severe symptoms that may result from abrupt withdrawal from alcohol.
The correct answer is: flu-like symptoms.
_____________________ is a client-centered counseling approach that facilitates behavior change by helping clients explore and resolve their ambivalence about change.
Select one:
A.
Solution-focused therapy
B.
Motivational interviewing
C.
Reality therapy
D.
Transactional analysis
Of the therapies listed in the answers, only one is based on a client-centered approach and specifically targets a client’s ambivalence.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT The description in this question is consistent with the description of motivational interviewing provided by its founders, S. Rollnick and W. Miller. According to these investigators, ambivalence is “the principal obstacle to be overcome in triggering change” (What is motivational interviewing?, Behavioral and Cognitive Psychotherapy, 23, 325-334, 1995).
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: Motivational interviewing
The establishment of comparable worth depends on the use of:
Select one:
A.
a neutral job evaluation procedure.
B.
a valid needs analysis procedure.
C.
an unbiased job analysis procedure.
D.
an unbiased personnel selection procedure.
According to the principle of comparable worth, men and women who perform jobs that require similar levels of education, training, and skills should receive similar compensation.
a. CORRECT Knowing that a job evaluation is used to establish comparable worth would have helped you identify this as the correct answer. For a job evaluation procedure to be useful for this purpose, it must be unbiased (gender-neutral). However, there is evidence that the job evaluation procedures used to establish comparable worth are themselves gender-biased.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: a neutral job evaluation procedure.
The wife of an alcoholic is told she is “co-dependent.” This means that she:
Select one:
A.
also has a drinking problem.
B.
overtly or covertly supports her husband’s drinking.
C.
is happy only when her husband is not drinking.
D.
exaggerates the impact and severity of her husband’s problem.
The term co-dependent was originally applied to people who are emotionally involved with alcoholics, but is now more widely used to refer to people who support any addiction of another person.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Definitions of co-dependence vary from author to author, but this description comes closest to most currently accepted definitions. Co-dependents overtly or covertly support, and thereby help maintain, the addiction of another person.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. (Note that, while there may be some truth to responses c and d in some cases, they do not describe co-dependence as accurately as response b.)
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: overtly or covertly supports her husband’s drinking.
Fiedler and Garcia’s (1987) cognitive resource theory predicts that the relationship between leader intelligence and leader effectiveness is moderated by:
Select one:
A.
the leader’s stress level.
B.
the leader’s self-efficacy beliefs.
C.
the employees’ motivation.
D.
the employees’ experience.
F. E. Fiedler and J. E. Garcia’s cognitive resource theory (CRT) attempts to explain the low correlations that have been found between leader intelligence and leader performance (New approaches to leadership: Cognitive resources and organizational performance, New York, Wiley, 1987).
a. CORRECT According to CRT, the impact of a leader’s experience and intelligence on the leader’s performance is moderated by the leader’s level of stress. It predicts that (1) a leader’s intellectual ability correlates positively with performance in low-stress situations but negatively in high-stress situations and (2) a leader’s experience correlates negatively with performance in low-stress situations but positively in high-stress situations.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: the leader’s stress level.
Without rehearsal, information is held in short-term memory for a brief period of time. According to interference theory this is due to which of the following?
Select one:
A.
a limited capacity
B.
insufficient consolidation
C.
inadequate memory cues
D.
the decay of memory traces over time
Trace decay theory and interference theory are the primary theories of forgetting in short-term memory.
a. CORRECT With regard to short-term memory, interference refers to the displacement of items in memory by more recently perceived information and is attributable to the limited capacity of short-term memory. Note that this type of interference is sometimes referred to as “interference through displacement.”
b. Incorrect With regard to memory, the term consolidation is usually used to describe the process by which short-term memories are converted to long-term memories and is not used to explain why information is held in short-term memory for only a brief period of time.
c. Incorrect Inadequate memory cues have been identified as a cause of the inability to retrieve information from long-term memory.
d. Incorrect Trace decay theory has been used to explain loss of both short- and long-term memories and refers to the gradual fading of memories over time.
The correct answer is: a limited capacity
A psychologist is hired to perform a court-ordered evaluation of a defendant in a criminal case. The psychologist discusses the purpose of the evaluation with the defendant who then says he does not want to cooperate. According to the Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychology (APA, 2012), the psychologist should:
Select one:
A.
remind the defendant that he has no choice since the evaluation is court-ordered.
B.
refuse to conduct the evaluation unless he obtains an informed consent from the defendant.
C.
refuse to conduct the evaluation unless he obtains an informed consent from either the defendant or the defendant’s attorney.
D.
postpone the evaluation and advise the defendant to contact his attorney.
The best course of action is addressed in Paragraph 6.03.02 of the Specialty Guidelines.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT When an evaluation is court-ordered, it is not necessary to obtain an informed consent. However, the subject of the evaluation should be informed of its purpose. If he/she does not want to be evaluated, the psychologist “may consider a variety of options including postponing the examination, advising the examinee to contact his or her attorney, and notifying the retaining party about the examinee’s unwillingness to proceed.”
The correct answer is: postpone the evaluation and advise the defendant to contact his attorney.
The duration of sensory memory is:
Select one:
A.
milliseconds to seconds.
B.
several seconds to several minutes.
C.
days to years.
D.
essentially infinite.
Sensory memory is the aspect of memory that initially receives incoming signals from the senses. Although the capacity of sensory memory is very large, its duration of is very brief.
a. CORRECT The duration of sensory memory corresponds approximately to the time that a stimulus is initially perceived, which ranges from a fraction of a second to a few seconds.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: milliseconds to seconds.
After several sessions with her therapist, a client starts acting toward the therapist as though he were the client’s father. Assuming that the therapist is a practitioner of Gestalt therapy, he is most likely to respond to this transference by:
Select one:
A.
ignoring it.
B.
temporarily assuming the role of the client’s father.
C.
helping the client see the difference between her transference and reality.
D.
helping the client understand how her past relationship with her father is affecting her current relationships with men.
Gestalt therapy, unlike psychanalytic psychotherapy, focuses on the here-and-now rather than on the past. Thus, a Gestalt therapist is not likely to encourage a client’s transference which brings an outside (and often past) relationship into the current therapeutic situation.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT In Gestalt therapy, when a client exhibits transference, the therapist helps the client “come to his senses” by enabling him to “see and experience in vivid concrete detail the discrepancies between transference fantasies and reality … to cut for a moment through the filtering fog of fantasy which he maintains around himself and experience the reality of the person who sits across from him” (J. Fagan and I. Shepherd, Gestalt therapy now, Palo Alto: Science and Behavior Books, 1970, pp. 123-4).
d. Incorrect See explanation for response “c”.
The correct answer is: helping the client see the difference between her transference and reality.
Dr. Fran Flummox is asked by the plaintiff’s attorney to serve as an expert witness on behalf of the plaintiff in a malpractice suit. The attorney asks Dr. Flummox if she would be willing to waive her usual fee and accept a proportion of the anticipated settlement instead. As an ethical psychologist, Dr. Flummox:
Select one:
A.
may agree to do so because accepting a contingent fee is acceptable in this situation.
B.
should agree to do so only if the contingent fee will represent the fair market value of her services.
C.
should agree to do so only if she determines that accepting the contingent fee is in the best interests of the plaintiff.
D.
should refuse to do so because psychologists should avoid accepting contingent fees in this situation.
This issue is addressed in Paragraph 5.02 of the APA’s Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychology.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Of the responses given, this one is most consistent with the requirements of Paragraph 5.02, which states: “Forensic practitioners seek to avoid undue influence that might result from financial compensation or other gains. Because of the threat to impartiality presented by the acceptance of contingent fees and associated legal prohibitions, forensic practitioners strive to avoid providing professional services on the basis of contingent fees.”
The correct answer is: should refuse to do so because psychologists should avoid accepting contingent fees in this situation.
Which of the following research designs would be useful for controlling the effects of a potential confounding organismic variable on the results of a research study when participants’ scores on that variable are known at the beginning of the study?
Select one:
A.
counterbalanced
B.
randomized block
C.
Solomon four-group
D.
nonequivalent groups
For the licensing exam, you want to be familiar with the four research designs listed in the answers to this question.
a. Incorrect A counterbalanced design is used to control carryover (order) effects and involves administering different levels of an independent variable to different participants or groups of participants in a different order.
b. CORRECT The randomized block design is used to control the effects of a (confounding) extraneous variable by ensuring that groups are equivalent with regard to that variable prior to the beginning of the study. It involves “blocking” (grouping) participants in terms of their status on that variable and then randomly assigning participants in each block to one of the treatment groups. When using this method, the extraneous variable is treated as another independent variable and the data are analyzed using the randomized block ANOVA.
c. Incorrect The Solomon four-group design is a special type of factorial design that is used to control (evaluate) the effects of pretesting on post-test scores.
d. Incorrect The nonequivalent groups design is a quasi-experimental research design that is used when intact groups must be used (i.e., when participants cannot be randomly assigned to different treatment groups). There is no information provided in the question that suggests that participants with different levels of the extraneous variable could not be randomly assigned to treatment groups, so this is not the best answer of those given.
The correct answer is: randomized block
A practitioner of motivational interviewing would most likely emphasize use of which of the following in therapy?
Select one:
A.
paradoxical techniques that foster resistance
B.
techniques that help the therapist communicate empathy
C.
confrontational techniques that address the client’s excuses and irresponsibilities
D.
techniques that help the client identify “problem exceptions”
The primary goal of motivational interviewing is to help clients resolve their ambivalence about change. To do so, it relies primarily on a client-centered approach.
a. Incorrect Paradoxical techniques designed to foster resistance are often used by practitioners of family therapy (especially strategic family therapists) but are not commonly used by practitioners of motivational interviewing.
b. CORRECT Empathy is a key element of motivational interviewing. Methods used by the therapist to communicate empathy include simple reflection, double-sided reflection, amplified reflection, and summary statements.
c. Incorrect Confrontational techniques that address a client’s excuses and irresponsibilities are used by reality therapists.
d. Incorrect Techniques that help the client identify exceptions to his/her problems are used by solution-focused therapists.
The correct answer is: techniques that help the therapist communicate empathy
Left-right confusion is most likely to be caused by a lesion in the:
Select one:
A.
corpus callosum.
B.
basal forebrain.
C.
left parietal region.
D.
right occipital region.
Left-right confusion (disorientation) is one of the symptoms of Gerstmann’s syndrome, which also includes acalculia, agraphia, and finger agnosia.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Left-right confusion is ordinarily caused by lesions in the left angular gyrus, which is located near the boundary between the parietal and temporal lobes.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: left parietal region.
