Lifespan Development - Domain Quiz Flashcards
1
Q
A developmental psychologist investigating the influence of Bronfenbrenner’s mesosystem on child development will focus on:
Select one:
a. factors that affect prenatal development.
b. interactions between home and school.
c. relationships between family members.
d. cultural influences.
A
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the five levels of influence identified by Bronfenbrenner’s ecological model. These are described in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials.
MICRO - immediate env.
MESO - family and school
EXO - broader env., parents’ environments
MACRO - overarching env. influences (cultural beliefs)
CHRONO - env. events over lifespan
Answer B is correct: The mesosystem is comprised of interactions between components of the child’s microsystem and includes interactions between home and school.
The correct answer is: interactions between home and school.
2
Q
Down Syndrome is caused by:
Select one:
a. a dominant gene.
b. two recessive genes.
c. a chromosomal abnormality.
d. an X-linked gene.
A
Down Syndrome is a chromosomal condition that is associated with an intellectual disability, specific facial features, and certain physical abnormalities (e.g., hypotonia, heart defects, and hearing impairment).
Answer C is correct: Down syndrome is most often due to a failure of the 21st pair of chromosomes to split during meiosis, resulting in an extra chromosome 21.
The correct answer is: a chromosomal abnormality.
3
Q
During a “critical period”:
Select one:
a. a behavior changes in the direction of more advanced development regardless of environmental events.
b. a particular aspect of development is most sensitive to environmental circumstances.
c. an organism is unable to respond effectively to the demands of the environment.
d. an organism experiences a severe setback (crisis) in normal development.
A
Although several critical periods have been found for certain aspects of physical development in humans, there is less certainty about their existence for other types of development.
Answer B is correct: Critical periods were originally described by ethologists who found that an organism must be exposed to certain environmental events during specific periods of time for a behavior to develop. As an example, in geese, the critical period for imprinting is two to three days after birth.
The correct answer is: a particular aspect of development is most sensitive to environmental circumstances.
4
Q
Research by Werner and Smith (1982) found that a high-risk baby is least likely to suffer long-term negative consequences if:
Select one:
a. he or she has a higher-than-average IQ.
b. his or her mother doesn’t work outside the home.
c. he or she has a large family.
d. he or she is socially responsive.
A
Werner and Smith’s (1982) identified several protective factors for high risk infants and children. These are described in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials.
Answer D is correct: An easy temperament was found to be one of the protective factors for high-risk children – i.e., those who had good responsivity and communication skills at an early age had better outcomes.
The correct answer is: he or she is socially responsive.
5
Q
Rutter (1985) studied the risk and protective factors that are associated with child psychopathology. His research found that which of the following places a child at greatest risk for behavioral problems?
Select one:
a. chronic health problems during infancy and abusive father
b. early enrollment in daycare and paternal alcoholism
c. paternal psychopathology and emphasis on traditional gender roles
d. severe marital discord and maternal psychopathology
A
Rutter identified six factors that are most predictive of child psychopathology.
Answer D is correct: The six risk factors identified by Rutter are:
SEVERE MARITAL DISCORD LOW SES LARGE FAMILY SIZE or OVERCROWDEDNESS PARENTAL CRIMINALITY MATERNAL PSYCHOPATHOLOGY PLACEMENT OF CHILD OUTSIDE OF HOME
The correct answer is: severe marital discord and maternal psychopathology
6
Q
The most common cause of cerebral palsy is:
Select one:
a. a congenital endocrine dysfunction.
b. brain damage during fetal development.
c. nutritional deficiencies immediately following birth.
d. early exposure to a teratogen that affects the body’s muscles.
A
Cerebral palsy includes a number of neurological disorders that permanently impair the ability to control voluntary muscle movements. In many cases, the exact cause is unknown.
Answer B is correct: Cerebral palsy is the result of brain damage, and, in the majority of cases, the damage occurs prior to birth. One cause of the damage is a lack of oxygen (asphyxia) prior to birth or during the birth process. Other possible causes include exposure to infections, head injury, intracranial hemorrhage, and genetic mutations.
The correct answer is: brain damage during fetal development.
7
Q
The symptoms of fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS):
Select one:
a. are restricted primarily to behavioral problems.
b. are restricted primarily to minor physical abnormalities.
c. are reversible with the appropriate diet following birth.
d. are largely irreversible.
A
The symptoms of fetal alcohol syndrome are related to the amount of alcohol consumed by the woman during her pregnancy.
Answer D is correct: Fetal alcohol syndrome is the most severe form of fetal alcohol spectrum disorder. Its symptoms are, for the most part, irreversible and include facial deformities, intellectual disability, and hyperactivity.
The correct answer is: are largely irreversible.
8
Q
Which of the following is useful for preventing the severe intellectual disability that can accompany phenylketonuria (PKU)?
Select one:
a. a special diet
b. environmental stimulation
c. surgery
d. an antibiotic drug
A
PKU is a recessive gene disorder in which the enzyme that processes the amino acid phenylalanine is missing.
Answer A is correct: The treatment for PKU is a diet that is low in phenylalanine beginning in the first few weeks of life.
The correct answer is: a special diet
9
Q
Most infants can be expected to take their first steps alone at about ____ months of age.
Select one:
a. 9
b. 12
c. 15
d. 18
A
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the major milestones in physical development listed in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials.
Answer B is correct: Most babies take their first steps alone at 10 to 12 months of age.
The correct answer is: 12
10
Q
Results of the recent National Survey on Drug Use and Health found that adolescents are MOST likely to say they have used which of the following in the past month?
Select one:
a. tobacco
b. inhalants
c. marijuana
d. alcohol
A
The National Survey on Drug Use and Health (USDHHS, 2013) collects data on adolescent drug use.
Answer D is correct: Consistent with previous surveys, the 2013 Survey found that alcohol is the most frequently used drug by adolescents. Additional information about the results of this survey is provided in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials.
The correct answer is: alcohol
11
Q
The best conclusion that can be drawn from research on neurogenesis in the human brain is that:
Select one:
a. it does not occur in any area of the adult brain.
b. it occurs in the hippocampus and possibly other areas of the brain.
c. it occurs in the prefrontal cortex but not in other areas of the brain.
d. it occurs throughout the brain until late adulthood.
A
Neurogenesis refers to the development of nerve cells (neurons) in the brain.
Answer B is correct: Until relatively recently, it was believed that new neurons are not formed in the human brain following birth. However, research first on non-human mammals and then humans has found that neurogenesis in adulthood does occur. In humans, the most consistent evidence has been provided for adult neurogenesis in the hippocampus.
The correct answer is: it occurs in the hippocampus and possibly other areas of the brain.
12
Q
The visual cues an infant uses to perceive depth arise in a predictable sequence. Which cue is the last to develop?
Select one:
a. binocular
b. pictorial
c. kinetic
d. intermodal
A
Depth perception depends on sensitivity to Kinetic (motion) cues (1-3 months) Binocular cues (2-4 months) Pictorial cues (5 months)
Answer B is correct: Sensitivity to pictorial cues (e.g., size, texture, shading) is the last to arise at about 5 months of age.
Answer A is incorrect: Sensitivity to binocular cues arises at about 2 to 4 months of age.
Answer C is incorrect: Sensitivity to kinetic cues arises at about 1 to 3 months of age.
Answer D is incorrect: Intermodal sensitivity refers to the ability to combine information from different sensory modalities and is not an ability that contributes to depth perception.
The correct answer is: pictorial
13
Q
Which of the following best describes the results of research on the consequences of early physical maturation for adolescents?
Select one:
a. Boys benefit more from early physical maturation than girls do.
b. Girls benefit more from early physical maturation than boys do.
c. Boys and girls both have positive (but not negative) consequences of early physical maturation.
d. Boys and girls both have negative (but not positive) consequences of early physical maturation.
A
Research comparing on-time, early, and late physical maturation in adolescence has found that their effects differ for boys and girls.
Answer A is correct: The studies have found that early physical maturation is associated with both positive and negative consequences for boys but with mostly negative consequences for girls.
The correct answer is: Boys benefit more from early physical maturation than girls do.
14
Q
According to Piaget, centration, or the tendency to focus on only one aspect of a situation or object while ignoring all others, is characteristic of the _________ stage.
Select one:
a. preconventional
b. conventional
c. preoperational
d. concrete operational
A
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the characteristics of Piaget’s four stages of cognitive development. This information is provided in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials.
Answer C is correct: Piaget described centration as characteristic of the preoperational stage and as one of the reasons why young children cannot conserve.
The correct answer is: preoperational
15
Q
According to Piaget, the source of motivation for cognitive development is:
Select one:
a. elaboration.
b. social acceptance.
c. equilibration.
d. the semiotic function.
A
Piaget proposed that the motivation for cognitive development comes from a drive toward cognitive balance, or equilibrium.
Answer C is correct: Development occurs when a state of disequilibrium brought on by a discrepancy between the person’s current understanding of the world (repertoire of schemas) and reality is resolved through the processes of ASSIMILATION and ACCOMMODATION.
The correct answer is: equilibration.
16
Q
As defined by Piaget, assimilation involves:
Select one:
a. engaging in repetitive or stereotyped actions.
b. shifting from one stage of development to the next.
c. adjusting existing knowledge to better “fit” new information or experiences.
d. incorporating new information into existing knowledge
A
Piaget identified assimilation and accommodation as contributors to cognitive development.
Answer D is correct: Assimilation involves incorporating new information or experiences into existing cognitive schemas.
Answer C is incorrect: Accommodation involves adjusting existing cognitive schemas or developing new schemas to accommodate new information and experiences.
The correct answer is: incorporating new information into existing knowledge.
17
Q
As described by Vygotsky, __________ is a temporary aid provided by one person (the “teacher”) to encourage, support, and assist a lesser-skilled person (the “learner”) acquire a skill or solve a problem.
Select one:
a. scaffolding
b. modeling
c. cuing
d. stimulus control
A
Vygotsky believed that the acquisition of knowledge and behavior takes place as the result of interactions with others.
Answer A is correct: Vygotsky referred to the temporary structure provided by others as scaffolding.
Answer B is incorrect: Although observational learning is an aspect of Vygotsky’s theory, this is not the best answer of those given.
Answer C is incorrect: Cues may be used by teachers, but scaffolding is a better response to this question since it is the term used by Vygotsky.
Answer D is incorrect: Stimulus control occurs when a behavior is brought under the control of certain stimuli.
The correct answer is: scaffolding
18
Q
Children under the age of 9 often have trouble with memory tasks because of their:
Select one:
a. limited memory span.
b. inconsistent use of rehearsal and other memory strategies.
c. lack of understanding of the demands of the task.
d. lack of ability to focus for an extended period on the task.
A
Age-related differences in memory are due, in large part, to differences in the use of memory strategies.
Answer B is correct: The studies have found that, prior to age 9 or 10, children do not use rehearsal and other memory strategies consistently.
The correct answer is: inconsistent use of rehearsal and other memory strategies.
19
Q
In response to your concerns about the potential consequences of his recent risk-taking behaviors, a 16-year-old says, “Don’t worry, that can’t happen to me.” According to Elkind, this is a manifestation of which of the following?
Select one:
a. egocentrism
b. internal locus of control
c. foreclosure
d. bootstrapping
A
Elkind (1984) extended Piaget’s work on cognitive development by identifying specific characteristics of adolescent egocentrism.
Answer A is correct: The adolescent described in this question is exhibiting the personal fable, which Elkind described as one of several manifestations of adolescent egocentrism. It is characterized by a sense of invulnerability (e.g, “Nothing bad can happen to me.”)
The correct answer is: egocentrism
20
Q
Studies have found that, when older adults are asked to recall personal events from their lives, they often exhibit a “reminiscence bump.” A recent explanation for this phenomenon is that it is due to which of the following?
Select one:
a. development of the object concept
b. development of a personal sense of identity
c. renewed egocentricism
d. increasing prospective memory
A
The reminiscence bump is the tendency for older adults to have greater recall for events that occurred from about age 10 to 30.
Answer B is correct: Several explanations have been offered for the reminiscence bump. A recent explanation is that it occurs because people develop a sense of identity during these years and events that occurred during this period are more easily recalled because they have been incorporated into the person’s sense of self.
The correct answer is: development of a personal sense of identity
21
Q
Which of the following best describes changes in memory that are associated with normal aging?
Select one:
a. Short-term memory is most adversely affected by increasing age due to a reduced storage capacity.
b. Long-term memory is most adversely affected by increasing age due to a reduced storage capacity.
c. Remote long-term memory is most adversely affected by increasing age due to inadequate retrieval cues.
d. Recent long-term memory is most advesely affected by increasing age due to inadequate encoding strategies.
A
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the age-related changes in memory that are described in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials.
Answer D is correct: The studies have found that the greatest age-related impairment is in recent long-term (secondary) memory and that this is due, in large part, to reduced use of effective encoding strategies.
The correct answer is: Recent long-term memory is most adversely affected by increasing age due to inadequate encoding strategies.
22
Q
For most children, babbling narrows to the sounds of the child’s native language between _____ months of age.
Select one:
a. 3 and 6
b. 6 and 9
c. 9 and 14
d. 14 and 18
A
Answer C is correct: Beginning at six to eight weeks of age, infants produce simple “cooing” sounds that consist mainly of vowels and are usually emitted when the infant is happy and contented. This is followed, at about four months of age, by babbling, which involves the repetition of simple consonant and vowel sounds (e.g., “bi-bi-bi”). Early babbling includes sounds from all languages; but, between nine and 14 months of age, babies narrow their repertoire of sounds to those of their native language.
The correct answer is: 9 and 14
23
Q
Investigators have found that newborns exhibit three types of cries – the hungry (basic) cry, the angry cry, and the pain cry. They have also found that, by _____ months of age, most infants begin to emit a “fussy” or irregular cry.
Select one:
a. 1 to 2
b. 3 to 4
c. 5 to 6
d. 7
A
The “fussy” cry varies in intensity, is less rhythmical than the other cries, and seems to function as a demand for a particular object or action.
Answer A is correct: It is only during the first month of life that crying is purely physiological; i.e., is linked to hunger, anger, or pain. After that, the infant cries in response to environmental stimuli.
The correct answer is: 1 to 2
24
Q
Research on bilingualism suggests that it:
Select one:
a. has detrimental effects on several aspects of children’s cognitive functioning, especially during the elementary school years.
b. has detrimental effects on several aspects of children’s cognitive functioning that persist into adulthood.
c. has beneficial effects on children’s cognitive flexibility and metalinguistic awareness in the elementary school years but that these effects may not persist into adolescence.
d. has no demonstrable effect on cognitive functioning in childhood or adolescence.
A
This is a difficult question since the research findings on this issue have produced somewhat inconsistent results.
Answer C is correct: Bilingualism has been found to have benefits in terms of divergent thinking (including cognitive flexibility) and metalinguistic awareness. However, there is some evidence that these benefits may be temporary and that, in adolescence and adulthood, bilinguals are indistinguishable from monolinguals.
Answer A is incorrect: While there may be some temporary delays in language acquisition, overall, bilingualism seems to have more positive consequences for cognitive functioning than negative ones.
The correct answer is: has beneficial effects on children’s cognitive flexibility and metalinguistic awareness in the elementary school years but that these effects may not persist into adolescence.
25
Studies examining language acquisition in children have shown that the fastest rate of increase in vocabulary typically occurs between the ages of:
Select one:
a. 12 and 18 months.
b. 20 and 26 months.
c. 30 and 36 months.
d. 36 and 42 months.
The fastest rate of vocabulary increase occurs between the ages of 30 and 36 months. During this period, the child's vocabulary increases from 300-400 words to about 1000 words.
Answer C is correct: As noted above, the child's vocabulary more than doubles during this period.
Answer B is incorrect: At 27 months, the child's vocabulary consists of about 300-400 words.
Answer D is incorrect: Between the ages of 36 to 42 months, the child's grammatical accuracy and sentence complexity increases. His or her vocabulary also increases but the rate of increase is not as great as between 30 and 36 months.
The correct answer is: 30 and 36 months.
26
Which of the following is an example of a morpheme?
Select one:
a. un
b. th
c. di-di
d. cuh
For the exam, you want to be able to distinguish between morphemes and phonemes.
Answer A is correct: Morphemes are the smallest unit of sound that has meaning and include words such as "do" and "go" and prefixes and suffixes such as "ful," "un," and "ing."
Answer B is incorrect: Phonemes are the smallest unit of sound understood in a language and include b, v, and th.
The correct answer is: u
27
A 9-year-old is irritable, aggressive, dependent, and low in achievement orientation and self-esteem and has a limited sense of responsibility. Based on this information, you can conclude that his parents are:
Select one:
a. authoritarian.
b. authoritative.
c. permissive.
d. platitudinous.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the parent and child characteristics associated with the four parenting styles identified by Baumrind and her colleagues -- i.e., authoritarian, authoritative, permissive, and rejecting-neglecting. This information is provided in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials.
Answer A is correct: Authoritarian exhibit a high level of demandingness and a low level of warmth. Their offspring are often irritable, aggressive, and dependent and have a limited sense of responsibility and low levels of self-esteem and academic achievement.
The correct answer is: authoritarian.
28
According to Erikson, a desirable outcome of the final stage of psychosocial development is which of the following?
Select one:
a. wisdom
b. individuation
c. generativity
d. commitment
For the exam, you want to be familiar with Erikson's eight stages of psychosocial development, including the outcomes associated with each stage. This information is provided in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials.
Answer A is correct: Erikson's final psychosocial crisis is "ego integrity versus despair," and a positive outcome of this crisis is the development of wisdom and a sense of integrity.
The correct answer is: wisdom
29
According to Kubler-Ross (1969), a person's initial reaction to learning that he or she has a life-threatening illness is most likely to be which of the following?
Select one:
a. anger
b. depression
c. bargaining
d. denial
For the exam, you want to be familiar with Kubler-Ross's five stages of grief so that you can answer questions like this one.
```
DENIAL
ANGER
BARGAINING
DEPRESSION
ACCEPTANCE
```
Answer D is correct: Kubler-Ross concluded that people experience five stages of grief when facing their own death or other important loss -- denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance.
The correct answer is: denial
30
As described by Marcia (1987), an adolescent experiencing "foreclosure" will be most likely to say which of the following about her career goals?
Select one:
a. I don't know what I want to do when I graduate from high school.
b. My dad thinks it's a good idea if I go to medical school and become a doctor like him, so that's what I'm planning to do.
c. My dad wants me to be a doctor but I want to be an actress.
d. I've given this a lot of thought, and I've decided I want to be a teacher.
Marcia (1987) distinguishes between four identity statuses that reflect the degree to which a person is experiencing an identity crisis and is committed to a particular identity.
Answer B is correct: Foreclosure occurs when the individual has accepted a career goal or other aspect of identity that has been recommended by a significant other (often a parent). Additional information about Marcia's identity statuses is provided in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials.
The correct answer is: My dad thinks it's a good idea if I go to medical school and become a doctor like him, so that's what I'm planning to do.
31
A shift in perspective from "time from birth" to "time until death" usually occurs between the ages of:
Select one:
a. 30 and 35.
b. 40 and 45.
c. 50 and 55.
d. 60 and 65.
If you are unfamiliar with the literature on this topic, you may have been able to choose the correct answer to this question by taking a look at your own perceptions or those of family members, friends, clients, etc.
Answer B is correct: According to Levinson (1978), changes that occur during the "mid-life crisis" (typically between the ages of 40 and 45) are often tied to a mental change in the perception of time. The terms used in this question were originally used by Neugarten (1968).
The correct answer is: 40 and 45.
32
Kohlberg's cognitive-developmental theory identifies which of the following as the initial stage of gender-role acquisition?
Select one:
a. gender affirmation
b. gender identity
c. gender constancy
d. gender stability
Kohlberg's cognitive-developmental model identifies three stages of gender-role acquisition -
```
GENDER IDENTITY (2-3)
GENDER STABILITY (4-5)
GENDER CONSTANCY (6-7)
```
Answer B is correct: According to Kohlberg (1969), gender identity is the first stage in the acquisition of gender-role behaviors and occurs at about age 2 to 3. It is followed by gender stability (age 4) and then gender constancy (ages 6 to 7).
The correct answer is: gender identity
33
Thomas and Chess (1977) proposed that maladjustment in children is traceable to:
Select one:
a. exposure to multiple risks during prenatal development and early infancy.
b. a lack of "fit" between the child's temperament and the parents' caregiving behaviors.
c. a combination of biochemical factors and environmental stressors.
d. the parents' lack of knowledge about normal child development.
Thomas and Chess categorized infants on the basis of nine basic temperament qualities and linked these categories to future outcomes.
Answer B is correct: These investigators found that a mismatch between an infant's temperament and the parents' caregiving behaviors was predictive of future behavioral problems.
The correct answer is: a lack of "fit" between the child's temperament and the parents' caregiving behaviors.
34
A child in Piaget's autonomous stage of moral development will base his judgment of whether an act is "right" or "wrong" primarily on:
Select one:
a. the consequences of the act for others.
b. the consequences of the act for the actor.
c. his sympathy for the actor.
d. the actor's intentions.
Piaget distinguishes between two stages of morality -- heteronomous and autonomous.
Answer D is correct: Autonomous morality usually begins at about age 11 and is characterized by an emphasis on the actor's intentions.
Answer A is incorrect: A child in the heteronomous stage judges the "rightness" or "wrongness" of an act on the basis of its consequences -- i.e., the more negative the consequences, the worse the act.
The correct answer is: the actor's intentions.
35
At approximately ____ months of age, babies begin to show outward signs of jealousy, empathy, and embarrassment.
Select one:
a. 9 to 12
b. 12 to 18
c. 18 to 24
d. 24 to 30
Emotions emerge in a fairly predictable sequence during the first three years of life. This sequence is described in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials.
Answer C is correct: Jealousy, empathy, and embarrassment are self-conscious emotions and are first apparent at about 18 to 24 months of age.
The correct answer is: 18 to 24
36
Child abuse and neglect are most associated with which of the following attachment patterns?
Select one:
a. disorganized or disoriented
b. distant or disengaged
c. insecure or avoidant
d. insecure or ambivalent
Children who have been maltreated often exhibit disorganized, contradictory behaviors in the presence of their caregivers - e.g., they might reach out for the caregiver while backing away.
Answer A is correct: Mary Main, a student of Ainsworth, found that about 80% of maltreated children exhibit a disorganized/disoriented attachment pattern.
The correct answer is: disorganized or disoriented
37
During Kohlberg's postconventional stage, moral judgments are based on:
Select one:
a. democratically determined laws or universal ethical principles.
b. rules and laws established by a legitimate authority.
c. the direct consequences of the act.
d. a desire to obtain social approval.
Kohlberg distinguished between three levels of moral development that each include two stages. The characteristics of these levels and stages are described in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials.
Answer A is correct: The postconventional level is the third (and final) level in Kohlberg's model and includes two substages -- Morality of Contract, Individual Rights, and Democratically Accepted Laws and Morality of Individual Principles of Conscience.
Answer B is incorrect: Rules and laws established by a legitimate authority are of concern for individuals in the second stage of the conventional level.
Answer C is incorrect: The consequences of the act are of concern for individuals in the preconventional level.
Answer D is incorrect: A desire to obtain social approval is of concern for individuals in the first stage of the conventional level.
The correct answer is: democratically determined laws or universal ethical principles.
38
Harlow and Zimmerman's (1959) study of attachment in rhesus monkeys indicated that _______________ is the critical variable in mother-infant attachment.
Select one:
a. contact comfort
b. feeding
c. drive reduction
d. infant temperament
Harlow and Zimmerman compared the role of contact comfort and feeding on attachment in infant rhesus monkeys.
Answer A is correct: The results of their research indicated that contact (tactile) comfort was more important than feeding for the development of attachment. Their research was subsequently applied to attachment in human infants.
The correct answer is: contact comfort
39
If you are developing an intervention to reduce aggressiveness in children and you are basing it on the work of G. R. Patterson and his colleagues (1992), a primary component of the intervention will be:
Select one:
a. training parents in child management skills.
b. empathy training for the children.
c. solution-focused therapy for the parents.
d. group therapy for the children and the parents.
Patterson et al.'s family interaction model proposes that children learn aggressive behaviors from their parents who use harsh discipline and reward their children's aggressiveness with approval and attention.
Answer A is correct: The intervention developed by Patterson and his colleagues for aggressive children focuses on the parents and, in particular, on their child management skills.
The correct answer is: training parents in child management skills.
40
Research using the "strange situation" found that, after being left by her mother with a stranger, a baby exhibiting insecure or avoidant attachment:
Select one:
a. becomes highly distressed.
b. acts confused and disoriented.
c. ignores her mother when she returns.
d. clings to her mother when she returns.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the maternal behaviors and infant responses associated with the four patterns of attachment. These are described in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials.
Answer C is correct: An insecure or avoidant infant shows little distress when separated from his or her mother and will avoid or ignore her when she returns.
The correct answer is: ignores her mother when she returns.
41
Separation from her mother is likely to have the fewest negative consequences for a baby if it occurs when the baby is between ______ months of age.
Select one:
a. 0 and 3
b. 6 and 8
c. 9 and 12
d. 14 and 16
Signs of attachment to a caregiver are not apparent until about six months of age.
Answer A is correct: Separation from the caregiver prior to six months of age (especially during the first three months) is less likely to have negative consequences than a separation that occurs after six months of age.
The correct answer is: 0 and 3
42
According to Carstensen's (1993) socioemotional selectivity theory, most older adults prefer social relationships:
Select one:
a. with people of their own social status.
b. with people who have had similar life experiences.
c. that provide them with emotional intimacy.
d. that provide them with opportunities for new exeriences.
An assumption underlying Carstensen's theory is that social goals have two primary functions -- the acquisition of knowledge and the regulation of emotion.
Answer C is correct: Socioemotional selectivity theory predicts that social goals correspond to perceptions of TIME LEFT in life as being LIMITED or UNLIMITED. According to this theory, older adults perceive time as limited and, consequently, tend to prefer emotionally close social relationships.
The correct answer is: that provide them with emotional intimacy.
43
A child is most likely to exhibit behavioral and psychological problems following the divorce of his parents if:
Select one:
a. he lives with his father rather than his mother.
b. his parents have joint custody.
c. his parents frequently argue in front of him.
d. his mother adopts an authoritative parenting style.
A child's adjustment to the divorce of his or her parents has been linked to a number of factors. Additional information on this topic is provided in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials.
Answer C is correct: One of the more consistent findings of the research is that children have fewer problems when their parents are able to control their anger and keep fights in front of the children to a minimum.
The correct answer is: his parents frequently argue in front of him.
44
It is not until the age of ___ that most children understand that, when the "bad guy" is shot on television, he is not really dead.
Select one:
a. 3
b. 5
c. 7
d. 10
Some investigators interested in the impact of television on children have attempted to determine when children become able to distinguish fact from fantasy.
Answer C is correct: The studies have found that it is not until about age seven that children understand that TV characters are actors who are playing roles.
The correct answer is: 7
45
Research on teacher feedback suggests that teachers:
Select one:
a. no longer treat boys and girls differently.
b. criticize boys more and help girls more.
c. criticize girls more and help boys more.
d. criticize and help boys more than girls.
The research has consistently found that teachers tend to respond differently to boys and girls.
Answer D is correct: The studies have shown that teachers continue to not only provide more feedback to boys and criticize boys more often but also provide different types of feedback and criticism to boys and girls. Additional information on this issue is provided in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials.
The correct answer is: criticize and help boys more than girls.
46
Research on the outcomes of parental divorce for children has identified a "sleeper effect," which refers to the tendency of:
Select one:
a. boys to show a decrease in negative outcomes as they reach adolescence.
b. girls to show an increase in negative outcomes as they reach adolescence.
c. boys and girls to show a decrease in negative outcomes as they reach early adulthood.
d. boys and girls who show the most severe outcomes immediately after the divorce to show an increase in negative outcomes over time and vice versa.
Research on the outcomes of divorce for boys and girls have found that, in some cases, the outcomes change over time.
Answer B is correct: In the context of the effects of divorce on children, the term "sleeper effect" refers to the tendency of girls who do not initially show significant negative effects of the divorce to develop a number of problems in adolescence, including increased noncompliance and conflict with their mothers, antisocial behaviors, decreased self-esteem, and difficulties related to sexual behavior.
The correct answer is: girls to show an increase in negative outcomes as they reach adolescence.
47
Studies comparing children of lesbian and heterosexual mothers suggests that children of lesbian mothers:
Select one:
a. are more likely to have problems related to gender role identity and behavior.
b. are more likely to be homosexual themselves.
c. are more susceptible to psychosocial problems.
d. are comparable in adjustment to children of heterosexual mothers.
Studies investigating the effects of parental sexual orientation on children's adjustment have found that the nature of the parent-child relationship is more important than a parent's sexual orientation.
Answer D is correct: The studies have found that children of homosexual and heterosexual parents are fairly indistinguishable in terms of psychosocial adjustment, gender identity development, and sexual orientation.
The correct answer is: are comparable in adjustment to children of heterosexual mothers.
48
Tyrone and Tyree are 9-year-old twins. Their mother has worked as a bank teller since they were two years old. In comparison to children whose mothers do not work outside the home, you would expect Tyrone and Tyree to:
Select one:
a. be less securely attached to their mother.
b. have higher levels of performance on cognitive tests.
c. exhibit delays in the development of gender constancy.
d. have fewer gender-role stereotypes.
The impact of maternal employment on child development has been found to be affected by several factors including the gender of the child and the family's socioeconomic status.
Answer D is correct: One of the more consistent findings about maternal employment is that the children of working mothers have more flexible ideas about what behaviors are acceptable for males and females.
Answer B is incorrect: Maternal employment has been associated with positive outcomes for cognitive development for boys from low-SES families but possibly negative outcomes for boys from higher-SES families.
The correct answer is: have fewer gender-role stereotypes.
49
Which of the following is most likely to be an accurate description of the relationship between two sisters, ages 14 and 16?
Select one:
a. emotionally intense
b. somewhat distant but egalitarian
c. conflictual and resentful
d. competitive and aggressive
The studies have found that sibling relationships vary over the course of childhood and adolescence in a fairly predictable way. Information on this issue is provided in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials.
Answer B is correct: In adolescence, siblings spend less time together, their relationship becomes less emotionally intense and more distant, and the friction between them usually declines as they begin to view one another as equals.
The correct answer is: somewhat distant but egalitarian
50
Two-word sentences are characteristic of the speech of children at ________ months of age.
Select one:
A. 8 to 12
B. 12 to 18
C. 18 to 24
D. 26 to 32
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the major language milestones described in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Two-word sentences are referred to as telegraphic speech, which is characteristic of children between the ages of 18 and 24 months and consists of the most important words (e.g., "my doll" and "give cake").
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: 18 to 24
51
```
Carol Gilligan (1982) criticized Kohlberg's theory of moral development on the ground that it is:
Select one:
```
A. less applicable to females than to males.
B. less applicable to members of minority groups than to Whites.
C. more applicable to highly educated individuals than to those with less education.
D. more applicable to religious than to nonreligious individuals.
Gilligan points out that Kohlberg's original research participants were males and argues that, as a result, his theory of moral development is more applicable to males than to females.
a. CORRECT Based on her research, Gilligan concludes that the moral judgments of females are often influenced by concerns related to caring, compassion, and responsibility to others.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: less applicable to females than to males.
52
In her longitudinal study of high-risk infants, Werner (1993) found that positive outcomes for these infants were most associated with:
Select one:
A. small family size.
B. good physical health.
C. precocious physical development.
D. an easy temperament.
Werner (1993) identified several factors that contribute to resilience in high-risk infants.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Werner concludes that resilience is most associated with (1) fewer stressors following birth, (2) stable support from a parent or other caregiver, and (3) an easy temperament.
The correct answer is: an easy temperament.
53
According to Daniel Levinson's (1986) Seasons of a Man's Life model, the mid-life transition is characterized by which of the following?
Select one:
A. following the dream
B. formulation of the dream
C. re-evaluation of the dream
D. realization of the dream
Levinson's model identifies several stages and transitional periods. Additional information about Levinson's stages and transitions is presented in the Lifespan Development chapter.
FORMULATION (17-22)
FOLLOWING (22-28)
REALISATION (33-45)
RE-EVALUATION (40-45)
a. Incorrect Following the dream (goal or vision for the future) is characteristic of the "entry life structure for early adulthood" stage, which occurs from ages 22 to 28.
b. Incorrect Formulation of the dream is characteristic of the "early adult transition," which occurs from age 17 to 22.
c. CORRECT The mid-life transition occurs between the ages of 40 and 45 and is characterized by a realization that the dream is not satisfying and/or will not be accomplished.
d. Incorrect Realization of the dream is characteristic of the "culmination of early adult life structure" stage, which occurs from ages 33 to 45
The correct answer is: re-evaluation of the dream
54
Syntactic bootstrapping is useful for understanding how children:
Select one:
A. learn how to pronounce new words.
B. narrow the possible meanings of new words.
C. learn how words are combined to form a sentence.
D. distinguish between similarly sounding words.
In the context of language acquisition, bootstrapping refers to mechanisms that children use to facilitate language acquisition. The various types of bootstrapping are described in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Syntactic bootstrapping refers to a child's use of syntactical knowledge to learn the meaning of new words.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: narrow the possible meanings of new words.
55
A __________ is a restricted interval of time during which a particular kind of learning or experience must occur in order for development to proceed normally.
Select one:
A. sensitive period
B. critical period
C. refractory period
D. incubation period
Researchers interested in early development distinguish between critical and sensitive periods.
a. Incorrect A sensitive period is an interval of time when certain behaviors are more easily learned or acquired or when the organism is especially receptive to certain types of experience. Sensitive periods are more flexible than critical periods.
b. CORRECT A critical period is a limited period of time in which certain learning or experiences must occur in order for normal development to take place. There is evidence that, in humans, there is a critical period for language acquisition.
c. Incorrect The term refractory period is used to describe the interval of time after orgasm during which another orgasm is not possible.
d. Incorrect Incubation period has several meanings. One definition is the time interval between exposure to a disease and the development of symptoms of that disease.
The correct answer is: critical period
56
The most common symptoms of congenital cytomegalovirus (CMV) are:
Select one:
A. immunologic abnormalities and delayed physical and cognitive development.
B. hyperactivity, irritability, and irregular sleep and feeding habits.
C. retarded physical growth, facial deformities, and hyperactivity.
D. intellectual disabilities and hearing and visual impairments.
Congenital cytomegalovirus (CMV) occurs when a type of herpes virus is passed from an infected pregnant woman to her fetus through the placenta.
a. Incorrect These are signs of HIV infection in childhood.
b. Incorrect These symptoms are associated with prenatal malnutrition but not with congenital CMV.
c. Incorrect These are some of the symptoms of fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS), which is the most severe form of fetal alcohol spectrum disorder (FASD).
d. CORRECT These are the most common symptoms of congenital CMV.
The correct answer is: intellectual disabilities and hearing and visual impairments.
57
Raymond is a high-energy four-year old who is always asking questions and likes to help with everything. A problem, however, is that when Raymond starts helping one family member, he is often distracted by other activities and may run off to help another member of the family with whatever he or she is doing. Raymond also likes to pretend that he's one of his favorite characters on TV and can often be seen trying to "arrest" his younger brother or save his friends from an imaginary "bad guy." In terms of Erikson's stages of psychosocial development, Raymond appears to be in which stage of development?
Select one:
A. autonomy vs. shame and doubt
B. initiative vs. guilt
C. trust vs. mistrust
D. industry vs. inferiority
Erikson identified eight stages of psychosocial development that encompass the lifespan. According to Erikson, each stage is characterized by a psychosocial crisis that must be appropriately resolved in order for healthy growth and maturation to occur. The stages and their outcomes are described in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials.
Trust vs. Mistrust (0-1)
Autonomy vs. Shame (1-3)
Initiative vs. Guilt (4-5)
Industry vs. Inferiority (6-7)
a. Incorrect Autonomy vs. shame is the second stage of psychosocial development and occurs between the ages of 1 and 3 years.
b. CORRECT The stage of initiative vs. guilt begins around age three. It is characterized by increasing locomotion, imagination, curiosity, and exploration. Raymond's age and behavior suggest that he is in this stage.
c. Incorrect The stage of trust vs. mistrust is the first stage of psychosocial development.
d. Incorrect Industry vs. inferiority is the fourth stage of psychosocial development and usually begins at around age six.
The correct answer is: initiative vs. guilt
58
Adults aged 70 and older usually report the largest number of memories for events that occurred in the 10-year period prior to being evaluated. For these individuals, the next largest number of memories is for events that occurred when they were between the ages of:
Select one:
A. 1 and 15.
B. 10 and 30.
C. 25 and 45.
D. 30 and 50.
The research has shown that older adults typically recall recent and remote events better than intermediate events.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT The term "reminiscence bump" is used to refer to the greater memory for events that occurred during adolescence and early adulthood.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: 10 and 30.
59
Infantile amnesia refers to:
Select one:
A. the inability of children to develop declarative memories until 10 to 12 months of age.
B. the inability of children to develop memories for autobiographical events until 3 or 4 years of age.
C. the inability of adolescents and adults to recall events they experienced prior to 3 or 4 years of age.
D. the inability of adults to accurately recall when their infants achieved major developmental milestones.
Infantile amnesia refers to the inability to recall events that occurred prior to about age 3 or 4.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect Children under the age of 3 form autobiographical memories. However, many of these memories are "lost" in subsequent years.
c. CORRECT Although early research suggested that infantile amnesia is absolute, subsequent studies indicate that older children, adolescents, and adults are often able to recall some events that took place prior to age 3 or 4.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: the inability of adolescents and adults to recall events they experienced prior to 3 or 4 years of age.
60
Information processing theories of cognitive development focus on:
Select one:
A. developmental stages.
B. mental rules and strategies.
C. social interactions.
D. critical periods.
Information processing theories conceptualize the human mind as a computer.
a. Incorrect In contrast to Piagetians, information processing theorists are not interested in stages of cognitive development.
b. CORRECT Information processing theorists focus on mental operations and view cognitive development as due to changes in mental capacity and increasing sophistication in the use of relevant rules and strategies.
c. Incorrect Social interactions are central to Vygotsky's sociocultural theory but are not a focus for information processing theorists.
d. Incorrect Information processing theorists view development as continuous and do not propose that it occurs only during critical periods.
The correct answer is: mental rules and strategies.
61
According to Noam Chomsky's nativist theory, language is largely the result of:
Select one:
A. innate factors.
B. operant conditioning.
C. parental modeling.
D. cognitive development.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the characteristics of the nativist, behaviorist, and interactionist approaches to language development, which are described in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials.
a. CORRECT Chomsky proposed an innate language acquisition device that consists of language rules and that allows children to acquire language just by being exposed to it.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: innate factors.
62
According to Michael Rutter (1979), an increased risk for psychopathology in children and adolescents is associated with which of the following factors?
Select one:
A. low socioeconomic status, large family size, and maternal psychopathology
B. large family size, paternal psychopathology, and difficult temperament
C. maternal psychopathology, low socioeconomic status, and racial/ethnic minority status
D. low socioeconomic status, single-parent family, and racial/ethnic minority status
Rutter's indicators for psychopathology are:
```
LOW SES
MARITAL DISCORD
LARGE FAMILY SIZE/OVERCROWDING
PATERNAL CRIMINALITY
MATERNAL PSYCHIATRIC DISORDER
FOSTER CARE PLACEMENT
```
[M. Rutter, Protective factors in children's responses to stress and disadvantage, in M. W. Garmezy and M. Rutter (eds.), Stress, Coping, and Development in Children (Vol. 3), McGraw-Hill, NY, 1979].
a. CORRECT These are three of the six risk factors identified by Rutter.
b. Incorrect Paternal psychopathology and difficult temperament are not risk factors identified by Rutter.
c. Incorrect Racial/ethnic minority status was not identified by Rutter as a risk factor.
d. Incorrect Single-parent family and racial/ethnic minority status are not risk factors identified by Rutter.
The correct answer is: low socioeconomic status, large family size, and maternal psychopathology
63
Recent surveys suggest that, for women, which of the following characteristics are associated with a high risk for divorce?
Select one:
A. marrying at an older age and coming from a single-parent home
B. marrying at a younger age and having a child within 7 months of marriage
C. having a lower level of education and marrying at an older age
D. having a higher level of education and cohabitating with the partner prior to marriage
Surveys have identified a number of demographic characteristics that are associated with risk for divorce, and these are summarized in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect Although women who come from a single-parent home are at higher risk for divorce, marrying at an older age is associated with a lower risk.
b. CORRECT Marrying at a younger age and having a child before marriage or within 7 months of marriage is associated with a higher risk for divorce.
c. Incorrect Although having a lower level of education is associated with a higher risk for divorce, marrying at an older age is not.
d. Incorrect Although cohabitating with the partner prior to marriage is associated with a higher risk for divorce, a higher level of education is not.
The correct answer is: marrying at a younger age and having a child within 7 months of marriage
64
```
An infant (6-12 months of age) would be most likely to do which of the following first?
Select one:
```
A. pull him/herself to standing by holding onto the furniture.
B. show separation anxiety
C. pretend that a wood cylinder is a cup
D. say her first word
To answer this question, you must be familiar with the developmental milestones that occur during the first 6 to 12 months of life.
a. Incorrect Children typically pull themselves to a standing position by holding onto the furniture by 9 to 10 months of age.
b. CORRECT Separation anxiety usually first appears between the ages of 6 to 8 months of age.
c. Incorrect Symbolic play usually begins around 11 to 12 months of age.
d. Incorrect Children usually say their first recognizable words at about 12 months of age.
The correct answer is: show separation anxiety
65
An increased risk for juvenile delinquency is most associated with which of the following parenting styles?
Select one:
A. authoritarian
B. authoritative
C. permissive/nondirective
D. rejecting/neglecting
Several parental behaviors have been linked to an increased risk for juvenile delinquency.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT A consistent finding about antisocial behavior in adolescents is that it is predicted by low parental warmth, high parental conflict, and inconsistent discipline. Of the parenting styles listed in the answers, these parental behaviors are most characteristic of the rejecting/neglecting style.
The correct answer is: rejecting/neglecting
66
The outer limit of Vygotsky's zone of proximal development is defined as:
Select one:
A. what a child can do with the assistance of an adult or more capable peer.
B. what the child can do with maximal effort and motivation.
C. the limitations determined by the child's current biological maturation.
D. the limitations determined by the child's current level of psychosocial development.
The "zone of proximal development" is a key concept in Vygotsky's theory of cognitive development.
a. CORRECT As described by Vygotsky, the zone of proximal development refers to the gap between what the child can currently do alone and what he/she can do with the assistance of a more skilled person.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: what a child can do with the assistance of an adult or more capable peer.
67
Studies comparing children who are actively rejected or neglected by their peers have found that:
Select one:
A. children who are actively rejected have worse outcomes.
B. children who are neglected have worse outcomes.
C. children who are actively rejected or neglected have similar outcomes.
D. children who are actively rejected or neglected have different short-term outcomes but similar long-term outcomes.
The research has shown that being actively rejected by peers is associated with worse outcomes than is being neglected by peers.
a. CORRECT Children who are actively rejected by peers exhibit a number of negative social behaviors, while those who are neglected are relatively well-adjusted. In addition, neglected children are more likely to experience an improvement in their peer status when they change social groups (e.g., change schools).
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: children who are actively rejected have worse outcomes.
68
Which of the following is LEAST likely to be one of a child's first words?
Select one:
A. fall
B. bye-bye
C. cold
D. cookie
A child's first words are most likely to be social or functional expressions such as hi, bye-bye, or thanks; names for objects that are permanent, familiar, and usually movable such as dada or blanket; and action words such as push or fall.
a. Incorrect "Fall" is an action word and is likely to be a first word.
b. Incorrect "Bye-bye" is a social expression and is likely to be one of a child's first words.
c. CORRECT Words representing sensations or feelings such as "cold" are likely to appear later in the child's linguistic development.
d. Incorrect "Cookie" is the name for a permanent, familiar, and movable object and is the type of word that is likely to be one of a child's first words.
The correct answer is: cold
69
Niche-picking is the tendency:
Select one:
A. of parents to provide their child with experiences that encourage the development of the child's genetic predispositions.
B. of a child's genetic predispositions to evoke certain reactions from parents and others.
C. of children to seek experiences that are consistent with their genetic predispositions.
D. of a child's genotype to restrict his or her phenotype to a small number of possible outcomes.
Scarr (1992) distinguishes between three types of genotype-environment correlation that help explain how heredity influences the types of environment a person is exposed to.
a. Incorrect This answer describes a passive genotype-environment correlation.
b. Incorrect This answer describes evocative genotype-environment correlation.
c. CORRECT This answer describes active genotype-environment correlation, which is also known as niche picking.
d. Incorrect This answer describes canalization.
The correct answer is: of children to seek experiences that are consistent with their genetic predispositions.
70
Longitudinal studies of children who attended Head Start programs have found that:
Select one:
A. early IQ gains and improvements in academic achievement persist into adolescence and early adulthood.
B. early IQ gains decline but improvements in academic achievement persist into adolescence.
C. early improvements in academic achievement decline by adolescence but initial IQ gains persist into adulthood.
D. attendees are indistinguishable from nonattendees on measures of IQ and academic achievement by adolescence.
Longitudinal research has found that the short- and long-term effects of Head Start and similar compensatory education programs differ.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT While early research on Head Start found that it has positive effects on IQ, subsequent longitudinal studies found that IQ gains usually decline over time but that beneficial effects on academic achievement and success persist into adolescence and early adulthood. Additional information on the results of research on Head Start is provided in the Lifespan Development chapter.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: early IQ gains decline but improvements in academic achievement persist into adolescence.
71
The brain is only about 25% of its adult weight at birth but, by about _______ months of age, it has reached 80% of its adult weight.
Select one:
A. 6
B. 12
C. 24
D. 48
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the major milestones of brain development that are described in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT By two years of age, the brain has achieved about 80% of its adult weight. The growth of the brain during the first two years of life is due less to the addition of new neurons than to an increase in their size and interconnections and the formation of glial cells.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: 24
72
The studies have generally shown that children have the most difficulty adjusting to the remarriage of their parents when they are in ________ at the time of remarriage.
Select one:
A. preschool
B. elementary school
C. early adolescence
D. late adolescence
Hetherington (1993) and others have found that children's adjustment to parental remarriage is affected by several factors including the child's age.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Hetherington concludes that individuals in early adolescence have the most difficulty adapting to the remarriage of a parent because the introduction of a stepparent at this time may exacerbate the normal adjustment problems associated with this age.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: early adolescence
73
The Montessori Method is based on the assumption that the acquisition of knowledge and skills depends primarily on:
Select one:
A. exposure to sensory stimuli.
B. exposure to age-appropriate didactic instruction.
C. observational learning.
D. operant conditioning.
The Montessori Method was originally developed for children with an intellectual disability but has also been found to be an effective form of instruction for other students as well.
a. CORRECT Maria Montessori believed that learning is accomplished primarily through the senses and, therefore, advocated incorporating instructional techniques that make use of multiple sensory modalities.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: exposure to sensory stimuli.
74
Research investigating father-child attachment suggests that it depends most on:
Select one:
A. nurturance and caregiving.
B. authority.
C. play activities.
D. maternal absence.
Fathers and their children often develop a strong bond, but the behaviors that contribute to father-child attachment differ from those that are most important for mother-child attachment.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT The research indicates that the father-child bond is related more to the father"s role as "playmate" than to nurturance and caregiving, which underlie the mother-child bond.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: play activities.
75
A baby with ________ attachment is mildly upset when separated from his/her mother and then actively seeks contact with her when she returns.
Select one:
A. insecure/ambivalent
B. insecure/avoidant
C. secure
D. stable
Research on early attachment has identified four basic attachment patterns - secure, insecure/ambivalent, insecure/avoidant, and disorganized/disoriented. A description of the characteristics of each pattern is provided in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect A baby with insecure/ambivalent attachment is very distressed when separated from his/her mother but is angry and resistant to contact when she returns.
b. Incorrect A baby with insecure/avoidant attachment shows little distress when separated from his/her mother and ignores or avoids her when she returns.
c. CORRECT The behavior described in this question is characteristic of babies with secure attachment.
d. Incorrect Stable is not one of the four types of attachment patterns identified by researchers.
The correct answer is: secure
76
Harlow and Zimmerman (1959) found that which of the following is most critical for the development of attachment?
Select one:
A. drive reduction
B. response-contingent reinforcement
C. contact comfort
D. sensitivity to infant signals
Harlow and Zimmerman (1959) compared the role of contact comfort and feeding in the development of attachment in infant rhesus monkeys.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Harlow and Zimmerman found that contact (tactile) comfort was more important than feeding for the development of attachment. Their research was subsequently applied to attachment in human infants.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: contact comfort
77
Research investigating the effects of early physical maturation in adolescence has found that, in general:
Select one:
A. it is associated with positive (but not negative) consequences for boys and girls.
B. it is associated with negative (but not positive) consequences for boys and girls.
C. it is associated with a combination of positive and negative consequences for girls but mostly negative consequences for boys.
D. it is associated with a combination of positive and negative consequences for boys but mostly negative consequences for girls.
Research comparing on-time, early, and late physical maturation in adolescence has found that their effects differ for boys and girls.
a. Incorrect See explanation for answer d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for answer d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for answer d.
d. CORRECT This is the best overall conclusion that can be drawn from the research on early physical maturation. Early maturation has been linked to both positive and negative consequences for boys but mostly negative consequences for girls.
The correct answer is: it is associated with a combination of positive and negative consequences for boys but mostly negative consequences for girls.
78
Separation from a parent or other primary caregiver for several weeks is least likely to have an adverse impact on a child's current level of distress and subsequent adjustment when the child is between _____ months of age at the time of the separation.
Select one:
A. 0 and 6
B. 7 and 11
C. 12 and 16
D. 17 and 22
Although attachment between a child and primary caregivers begins to develop in the first months of life, prolonged separation during the first six months does not ordinarily produce severe or long-term distress.
a. CORRECT Studies on early separation from parents or other primary caregivers has shown that it has the least detrimental effects on the child when it occurs prior to six months of age.
b. Incorrect Beginning at 6 or 7 months, infants show clear signs of attachment to certain people (often the mother) and exhibit a great deal of distress when separated from them.
c. Incorrect See explanation for responses a and b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for responses a and b.
The correct answer is: 0 and 6
79
The research has most consistently found that neurogenesis in adulthood occurs in which of the following areas of the brain?
Select one:
A. hippocampus
B. cerebellum
C. hypothalamus
D. caudate nucleus
Neurogenesis is the term used to describe the development of nerve cells (neurons) in the brain.
a. CORRECT Until relatively recently, it was believed that new neurons are not formed in the human brain following birth. However, research on non-human mammals and then humans has found that neurogenesis in adulthood does occur. In humans, the most consistent evidence has been provided for adult neurogenesis in the hippocampus.
b. Incorrect See explanation for answer a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for answer a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for answer a.
The correct answer is: hippocampus
80
The relationship of preadolescent siblings is best described as:
Select one:
A. distant/aloof.
B. conflictual/hostile.
C. affectionate and supportive.
D. close and conflictual.
Even if you're unfamiliar with the research, it makes sense that preadolescent relationships (or any relationship for that matter!) would involve a mixture of positive and negative aspects.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT The research indicates that sibling relationships often involve contradictions, but the combination of closeness and conflict seems to be particularly characteristic of siblings during preadolescence. Additional information on the nature of sibling relationships during the course of childhood and adolescence is included in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials.
The correct answer is: close and conflictual.
81
Research investigating the deficits in recent long-term memory associated with increasing age indicates that these deficits are most often attributable to:
Select one:
A. decreased storage capacity.
B. reduced use of encoding strategies.
C. impaired concentration and attention.
D. impaired comprehension.
Recent long-term memory is the aspect of memory that is most affected by normal aging.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT The studies have found that a reduced use of effective encoding strategies is the primary cause of age-related deficits in recent long-term memory and that older adults benefit from training in the use of memory strategies.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: reduced use of encoding strategies.
82
When asked if he has thought about college, Hakaru H., age 16, says, "My parents want me to be a lawyer, so I'm planning to go to law school." According to Marcia, Hakaru is exhibiting which of the following?
Select one:
A. identity moratorium
B. identity diffusion
C. identity achievement
D. identity foreclosure
Marcia distinguishes between four identity statuses that reflect the degree to which the individual has experienced an identity crisis and is committed to an identity.
a. Incorrect Identity moratorium occurs when the individual is experiencing an identity crisis and is actively exploring alternative identities.
b. Incorrect Identity diffusion occurs when the individual has not yet experienced an identity crisis and is not committed to a particular identity.
c. Incorrect Identity achievement occurs when the individual has resolved the identity crisis and is committed to an identity.
d. CORRECT Identity foreclosure occurs when the individual has not experienced an identity crisis but has chosen an identity (e.g., career) that has been imposed by others.
The correct answer is: identity foreclosure
83
Children ages 7 to 9 years of age are most likely to say that:
Select one:
A. people on TV can see into their homes.
B. people who die on TV are really dead.
C. people in TV shows are actors.
D. people on TV aren't alive.
Researchers interested in the impact of television on children have attempted to determine the degree to which children of different ages distinguish between fact and fantasy.
a. Incorrect The belief that people can see into their homes is characteristic of children ages 3 and 4.
b. Incorrect The belief that people who die on TV are really dead is also characteristic of younger children.
c. CORRECT Children begin to understand that characters on television are actors who are playing roles by 7 to 9 years of age.
d. Incorrect Children ages 7 to 9 understand that people on TV aren't the characters they are playing, but they don't believe that the people on TV "aren't alive."
The correct answer is: people in TV shows are actors.
84
Klinefelter syndrome is due to:
Select one:
A. a dominant gene.
B. a recessive gene.
C. a chromosomal deletion.
D. an extra chromosome.
Klinefelter syndrome is due to a chromosomal abnormality that affects males only.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Men with Klinefelter syndrome have an extra X chromosome. Symptoms of this disorder include low testosterone levels and infertility, breast development, and reduced body and facial hair.
The correct answer is: an extra chromosome.
85
An individual's phenotype:
Select one:
A. is attributable solely to his or her genetic inheritance.
B. refers to characteristics that are determined by environmental factors.
C. is determined by a combination of genetic and environmental factors.
D. refers to the unobservable factors that contribute to development.
Researchers interested in the relative contributions of genetics and environment to human characteristics distinguish between genotype and phenotype.
a. Incorrect Genotype refers to the individual's genetic endowment.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Phenotype refers to observable characteristics that are attributable to the individual's genotype (genetic make-up) and environment.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: is determined by a combination of genetic and environmental factors.
86
As described by Piaget, the concrete operational stage extends from ages:
Select one:
A. birth to 2 years.
B. 2 to 7 years.
C. 7 to 11 years.
D. 11 to 15 years.
Piaget distinguished between four stages of cognitive development:
SENSORIMOTOR (0-2)
PREOPERATIONAL (2-7)
CONCRETE OPERATIONAL (7-11)
FORMAL OPERATIONAL (11+)
. Note that the exact age at which each stage begins varies, depending on the individual's experiences. However, of the age ranges listed, only one is most associated with the concrete operational stage.
a. Incorrect The sensorimotor stage extends from birth to 2 years of age.
b. Incorrect The preoperational stage extends from 2 to 7 years of age.
c. CORRECT Piaget's concrete operational stage extends from 7 to 11 years of age.
d. Incorrect The formal operational stage extends from 11 years on.
The correct answer is: 7 to 11 years.
87
According to Kubler-Ross (1969), which of the following is ordinarily an individual's first response to learning that he/she has a life-threatening illness?
Select one:
A. anger
B. bargaining
C. denial
D. depression
Kubler-Ross (1969) proposed that people progress through a predictable sequence of stages when facing their own death or other serious loss.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT The five stages, in order, are: denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance. The characteristics of these stages are described in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: denial
88
Adults who are classified as __________ on the Adult Attachment Interview describe their childhood relationships with parents using positive terms, but their specific childhood memories contradict or do not support these positive descriptions.
Select one:
A. autonomous
B. preoccupied
C. dismissing
D. distant
The Adult Attachment Interview (AAI) assesses the examinee's childhood relationships with his/her mother and father and categorizes the examinee's attachment style as autonomous, preoccupied, or dismissing.
a. Incorrect Examinees classified as AUTONOMOUS provide coherent descriptions of their childhood relationships.
b. Incorrect Examinees classified as PREOCCUPIED become very angry or confused when describing their childhood relationships with parents and may be preoccupied with a parent.
c. CORRECT Examinees classified as DISMISSING provide inconsistent and incoherent descriptions of their childhood relationships with parents.
d. Incorrect Distant is not one of the AAI categories.
The correct answer is: dismissing
89
Research by Taddio and Katz (2005) found that exposure to painful medical procedures during infancy:
Select one:
A. had no effect on subsequent responsivity to pain for both full-term and preterm infants.
B. increased subsequent responsivity to pain for full-term infants but not for preterm infants.
C. reduced subsequent responsivity to pain for full-term infants but not for preterm infants.
D. reduced subsequent responsivity to pain for both full-term and preterm infants.
This is a difficult question because it requires you to be familiar with the results of a specific research study. Fortunately, you won't encounter too many questions like this one on the exam.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT While some studies have found that early exposure to painful medical procedures increases subsequent sensitivity to pain, research by Taddio and Katz (2005) suggests that this may be true only for full-term infants.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: increased subsequent responsivity to pain for full-term infants but not for preterm infants.
90
Research on gender differences in conversation style indicates that, when compared to men, women:
Select one:
A. talk for longer periods of time.
B. ask more questions.
C. interrupt more often.
D. make more eye contact.
Research has identified several consistent gender differences in conversation style.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Women are more likely to ask questions during a conversation, and men tend to talk for longer periods of time, interrupt more frequently, and make more eye contact.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: ask more questions.
91
With regard to gender and biological vulnerability, the research has most consistently supported which of the following?
Select one:
A. Males are more vulnerable than females with regard to physical health.
B. Females are more vulnerable than males with regard to physical health.
C. Males and females are similarly vulnerable with regard to physical health.
D. While females are more vulnerable than males during the prenatal and postnatal periods, males are subsequently more vulnerable than females with regard to physical health.
The commonly held belief that males are biologically more vulnerable than females has been supported by the research.
a. CORRECT The greater vulnerability of males is fairly consistent throughout the lifespan. For example, more males are stillborn or spontaneously aborted and are subsequently more vulnerable to physical and mental disorders that have been linked to biological factors.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: Males are more vulnerable than females with regard to physical health.
92
A newly developed program to reduce aggression in children is based on the work of Patterson and his colleagues. Consequently, it most likely includes which of the following?
Select one:
A. providing the child with opportunities for catharsis
B. training parents in effective child management skills
C. increasing the child's self-monitoring skills
D. habit reversal training for the child
Patterson's model of aggression in children takes into account characteristics of the environment, the child, and the parent. However, the primary focus is on the behavior of parents, and his intervention targets the parents' childrearing skills.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Patterson's parent management training focuses on parenting skills and, among other things, teaches parents alternative disciplinary techniques.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: training parents in effective child management skills
93
Which aspect of long-term memory is usually the first to be adversely affected by increasing age?
Select one:
A. sensory
B. semantic
C. procedural
D. episodic
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the effects of normal aging on memory that are described in the Lifespan Development chapter so that you can answer questions like this one on the licensing exam.
a. Incorrect This answer should have been easy to eliminate since sensory memory is not a type of long-term memory.
b. Incorrect Semantic memory is less affected by normal aging than is episodic memory.
c. Incorrect Procedural memory is relatively unaffected by normal aging.
d. CORRECT Episodic memory is memory for personally experienced events and is the first aspect of long-term memory that shows age-related declines.
The correct answer is: episodic
94
As defined by Piaget, a __________ circular reaction occurs when a baby explores the characteristics of familiar objects by deliberately using them in new ways.
Select one:
A. reflexive
B. primary
C. secondary
D. tertiary
According to Piaget, much of the cognitive development that occurs during the sensorimotor stage is the result of circular reactions, in which the child repeats or reproduces a pleasurable or interesting experience.
a. Incorrect Piaget considered reflexes to be the "building blocks" of cognitive development from birth to 1 month.
b. Incorrect Primary circular reactions predominate from ages 1 to 4 months. They involve simple motor habits that center around the baby's own body (e.g., thumb sucking).
c. Incorrect Secondary circular reactions predominate from ages 4 to 8 months and are actions involving other people or objects.
d. CORRECT Tertiary circular reactions predominate from ages 12 to 18 months and involve varying an original or usual action on an object to see what happens.
The correct answer is: tertiary
95
When developing an intervention for children with behavioral problems, you are focusing on Bronfenbrenner's "microsystem." This means that you are targeting:
Select one:
A. the behavioral problems themselves.
B. the children's families.
C. the parents' support systems.
D. community resources.
Bronfenbrenner distinguishes between five interacting systems in describing the environmental influences on development -
```
MICROSYSTEM (child's family)
MESOSYSTEM
EXOSYSTEM (parents' support systems)
MACROSYSTEM
CHRONOSYSTEM
```
Additional information about these systems is provided in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect The target behaviors themselves are not addressed in Bronfenbrenner's model.
b. CORRECT The child's family is a primary aspect of the microsystem (i.e., of the child's immediate environment).
c. Incorrect The parents' support systems are part of the exosystem.
d. Incorrect Community resources are also part of the exosystem.
The correct answer is: the children's families.
96
According to Erikson, the successful outcome of the final stage of psychosocial development is:
Select one:
A. accomplishment.
B. personal control.
C. wisdom.
D. identity.
Ego integrity versus despair is the final stage in Erikson's theory of psychosocial development.
a. Incorrect A sense of accomplishment is the successful outcome of the generativity vs. stagnation stage which occurs in mid-adulthood.
b. Incorrect A sense of personal control is the successful outcome of the autonomy vs. shame and doubt stage which occurs from about ages 1 to 3.
c. CORRECT Wisdom and integrity are the outcomes of successful resolution of the psychosocial crises of the final ego integrity vs. despair stage.
d. Incorrect A coherent sense of identity is the successful outcome of the identity vs. role confusion stage which occurs in adolescence.
The correct answer is: wisdom.
97
To study social referencing, a developmental psychologist would most likely use:
Select one:
A. an habituation task.
B. pattern recognition.
C. a mobile.
D. the visual cliff.
Social referencing refers to relying on the emotional response of another person (e.g., caregiver) to decide how to respond in an ambiguous situation.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Of the techniques listed in the answers, the visual cliff is the only one that has been used to study social referencing. Research using this technique has found that a baby's willingness to cross the visual cliff depends on his/her mother's facial expression.
The correct answer is: the visual cliff.
98
Which of the following aspects of memory is likely to show the greatest age-related decline?
Select one:
A. sensory memory
B. memory span
C. recent long-term memory
D. remote long-term memory
Research has confirmed a predictable pattern in age-related declines in memory and other cognitive abilities, and the major changes are described in the Lifespan Development chapter.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Recent long-term (secondary) memory is most affected by increasing age, followed by working memory. The other aspects of memory listed in the answers are relatively unaffected by increasing age.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: recent long-term memory
99
Ron attends a rally organized to oppose gun control. When asked why he is against gun control, Ron states, "Well, the law says people have the right to own a gun, and everybody in my hometown has a gun." Kohlberg would say that Ron is at which level of moral development?
Select one:
A. preconventional
B. conventional
C. postconventional
D. autonomous
Kohlberg distinguishes between three levels of moral development (pre-conventional, conventional, and post-conventional) that each consist of two stages. For the exam, you want to be familiar with the three levels and six stages so that you can answer questions like this one (see the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials).
a. Incorrect Preconventional moral judgments are typical of children aged 4 through 10 and reflect a desire to avoid punishment and satisfy their own needs.
b. CORRECT The conventional level of moral development is characterized by support for and adherence to existing social rules and laws.
c. Incorrect Moral judgments at the post-conventional level are based on social contracts, democratically accepted laws, and individual principles of conscience.
d. Incorrect Autonomous is one of Piaget's stages of moral development.
The correct answer is: conventional
100
According to Gottman and Levenson (2000), which of the following factors contributes most to a lasting marriage?
Select one:
A. the couples maturity level.
B. the couples access to social support.
C. the couples ability to resolve conflicts in their relationship.
D. the couples level of compatibility in terms of need fulfillment.
In their longitudinal research, Gottman and his colleagues investigated the factors that contribute to marital dissolution. Additional information about their research is provided in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Gottman's cascade theory of marital dissolution predicts that a couple's ability to resolve inevitable conflicts is the key to a lasting relationship.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: the couples ability to resolve conflicts in their relationship.
101
As defined by Vygotsky, "scaffolding" refers to:
Select one:
A. biological maturation.
B. the use of effective memory strategies.
C. attachment to caregivers.
D. assistance from more skilled individuals.
Scaffolding is a key concept in Vygotsky's theory of cognitive development.
a. Incorrect Although Vygotsky recognized the role of biological maturation in cognitive development, scaffolding refers to social factors.
b. Incorrect Assistance within the zone of proximal development might include modeling effective memory strategies, but this is not the best answer of those given.
c. Incorrect Attachment is not a focus of Vygotsky's theory.
d. CORRECT Vygotsky proposed that scaffolding helps the child progress within the zone of proximal development. It refers to the temporary support and assistance that adults and more knowledgeable and skilled peers provide to a learner and includes modeling appropriate responses, simplifying a task so that it is more achievable, and providing instructions and cues.
The correct answer is: assistance from more skilled individuals.
102
According to Piaget, when making moral judgments about a behavior, children in the autonomous stage:
Select one:
A. focus on the consequences of the behavior only.
B. focus on rules that are relevant to the behavior.
C. consider their own emotional reactions to the behavior.
D. consider the intentions of the actor.
Piaget distinguished between two stages of moral development: heteronomous and autonomous.
a. Incorrect Focusing on the consequences of an action is characteristic of the heteronomous stage.
b. Incorrect Focusing on relevant rules is more characteristic of the heteronomous than the autonomous stage.
c. Incorrect Considering their own moral reactions is not characteristic of the autonomous stage.
d. CORRECT The autonomous stage begins by age 10 or 11. Children in this stage base their judgments of behavior primarily on the intentions of the actor.
The correct answer is: consider the intentions of the actor.
103
Sarah and Eve are served liver for dinner. Sarah screams, "Now there's more!" when hers is cut up into bite-size pieces. Eve says, "No, there's not! It's just the same." In terms of Piaget's stages of cognitive development:
Select one:
A. Sarah is in the preoperational stage.
B. Eve is in the sensorimotor stage.
C. Sarah is in the concrete operational stage.
D. Eve is in the preoperational stage.
Piaget distinguished between four stages of cognitive development:
SENSORIMOTOR
PREOPERATIONAL
CONCRETE OPERATIONAL
FORMAL OPERATIONAL
a. CORRECT Sarah appears to be in the preoperational stage since she is unable to conserve and, thus, believes there is more liver on her plate when it is cut into small pieces. In contrast, Eve can conserve and is, therefore, in the concrete (or perhaps formal) operational stage.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: Sarah is in the preoperational stage.
104
Code-switching is associated with:
Select one:
A. semantic bootstrapping.
B. hypothetico-deductive reasoning.
C. encoding in long-term memory.
D. bilingualism.
Code-switching refers to the alternation between languages during a conversation.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Code switching is used by bilingual speakers for several purposes - e.g., to establish rapport with a listener or to better communicate one's attitude toward the listener.
The correct answer is: bilingualism.
105
Research has shown that teachers criticize boys more than girls and that:
Select one:
A. girls receive more praise and positive feedback than boys do.
B. boys receive more praise for ability but girls receive more praise for effort.
C. boys receive more praise for effort but girls receive more praise for ability.
D. boys and girls both receive more praise for effort than for ability.
While boys receive more criticism from teachers overall, patterns of criticism (and praise) differ for boys and girls.
a. Incorrect Many teachers seem to take the "good behavior" of girls for granted; and, consequently, it is not generally true that girls receive more praise than boys do.
b. CORRECT Patterns of criticism and praise by teachers are usually gender-related: Boys are praised more by teachers for their ability, while girls are more likely to receive praise for their effort.
c. Incorrect This is the opposite of what is true.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: boys receive more praise for ability but girls receive more praise for effort.
106
Babies of mothers who frequently used cocaine while pregnant:
Select one:
A. are lethargic and nonresponsive and have significant cognitive impairments and motor delays.
B. are irritable and restless, have an exaggerated startle response and high-pitched cry, and are difficult to soothe.
C. have hearing and other sensory impairments, slowed reactions to external stimuli, and poor muscle tone.
D. cry infrequently and have lower-than-normal respiratory and heart rates and moderate to severe mental retardation.
Cocaine use by pregnant women increases the risk for spontaneous abortion and stillbirth; and, for babies who survive, it is associated with several physical and behavioral abnormalities.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Infants of mothers who used cocaine during pregnancy often have a low birthweight, a piercing cry, and an exaggerated startle response; are irritable and hypersensitive; and do not respond in normal ways to the sound and sight of caregivers.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: are irritable and restless, have an exaggerated startle response and high-pitched cry, and are difficult to soothe.
107
Mr. and Mrs. Wolff bring their 17-month old son, Walter, to you for an evaluation because they are concerned that he has not yet started walking or talking. You should:
Select one:
A. reassure the parents that Walter is developing within normal limits.
B. refer the family to a physician for an evaluation of Walter.
C. administer an appropriate developmental screening device.
D. obtain a thorough family history.
Being familiar with the major developmental milestones would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT At 17 months of age, most children are talking and walking, so Walter's developmental delays may be indicative of a serious problem. Referral to a physician to help pinpoint the causes of Walter's delays would be the appropriate course of action. Administering a screening test (response c) is not the best action in this case since the boy's delays are clearly significant.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: refer the family to a physician for an evaluation of Walter.
108
According to Kohlberg, a person in the sixth (final) stage of moral development is guided in his or her moral judgments primarily by:
Select one:
A. laws and legally binding contracts.
B. universally applicable ethical principles.
C. cultural standards and rules.
D. religious doctrine.
Kohlberg's theory of moral development includes three levels, with each level consisting of two stages. Knowing that the name of the sixth stage is the "morality of individual principles of conscience" would have enabled you to identify the correct answer.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT In the sixth stage of development, moral judgments are based on self-chosen principles that are considered universal in application.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: universally applicable ethical principles.
109
In the context of divorce, the "sleeper effect" refers to:
Select one:
A. the gradual deterioration of the custodial parents childrearing skills following the divorce.
B. the gradual deterioration of the parent-child relationship following the divorce.
C. a delay in the emergence of problematic behaviors in children following the divorce of their parents.
D. the gradual decline in problematic behaviors in children following the divorce of their parents.
Research by Wallerstein (2000) and others has shown that, at least for some children, parental divorce has substantial long-term consequences.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT The research has found that, for some children, the negative impact of divorce is not apparent until the child reaches adolescence or early adulthood. Initially, this "sleeper effect" was found for girls who seemed well-adjusted as children following the divorce of their parents but were at increased risk for antisocial behaviors, low self-esteem, and early sexual activity during adolescence and negative attitudes toward marriage as adults. More recent research suggests that some boys also exhibit a sleeper effect.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: a delay in the emergence of problematic behaviors in children following the divorce of their parents.
110
Which of the following individuals coined the term "identity crisis"?
Select one:
A. Freud
B. Mahler
C. Marcia
D. Erikson
The term "identity crisis" is now used by a number of psychologists (especially those interested in adolescent development), but it was coined by Erikson.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Erikson coined the term "identity crisis" and described it as the most important psychosocial crisis faced by human beings. He also identified adolescence as the time when the search for an identity is most intense.
The correct answer is: Erikson
111
Of the senses, _______ is least well-developed at birth.
Select one:
A. vision
B. audition
C. taste
D. smell
The infant's senses develop rapidly in the first few months of life.
a. CORRECT Of the senses, vision is least well-developed at birth. In terms of visual acuity, newborns see at 20 feet what an adult with normal vision sees at 200 feet.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: vision
112
According to Erikson, at age two, the primary psychosocial task is to develop ___________, and failure to successfully accomplish this task leads to ___________.
Select one:
A. an ego identity; identity diffusion
B. a capacity for industry; a sense of inferiority
C. a sense of basic trust; suspicion and mistrust
D. a sense of autonomy; doubt and shame
Erikson identified eight stages of psychosocial development that are each characterized by a different psychosocial conflict. For the exam, you want to be familiar with the names of the stages, the ages at which they occur, and the outcomes associated with each stage (see the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials).
a. Incorrect This is characteristic of the identity vs. identity confusion stage which occurs in adolescence.
b. Incorrect This is characteristic of the industry vs. inferiority stage which occurs from ages 6 to 11 years.
c. Incorrect This is characteristic of the basic trust vs. mistrust stage which occurs from birth to 1 year of age.
d. CORRECT Erikson's autonomy vs. shame and doubt stage occurs from 1 to 3 years of age. Successful resolution of the conflicts of this stage results in a sense of self-control (autonomy), while failure leads to shame and doubt.
The correct answer is: a sense of autonomy; doubt and shame
113
Studies comparing the children of lesbian and heterosexual mothers suggest that children of lesbian mothers:
Select one:
A. have delays in gender identity development.
B. are more likely to have a gender identity disorder.
C. are more susceptible to psychological and social maladjustment.
D. are comparable in adjustment to children of heterosexual mothers.
Overall, research comparing the effects of being raised by heterosexual versus lesbian mothers has shown that the parents' childrearing skills and other factors are more important than their sexual orientation.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Recent reviews of the research have consistently found that children of lesbian and heterosexual parents do not differ in any consistent way with regard to psychological adjustment, interpersonal relationships, gender identity, or sexual orientation.
The correct answer is: are comparable in adjustment to children of heterosexual mothers.
114
Habituation-dishabituation research has demonstrated that, at about ___ months of age, infants begin to exhibit recognition memory for a visual stimulus for up to 24 hours following presentation of the stimulus.
Select one:
A. 3
B. 6
C. 9
D. 11
Researchers use several techniques to study memory in infants including habituation-dishabituation.
a. CORRECT By three months of age, infants habituate to visual stimuli - i.e., they show a decreased response to the second presentation of a stimulus for periods up to 24 hours. This is interpreted as indicating that the infant recognizes the stimulus.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: 3
115
Ainsworth's "strange situation" is used primarily to investigate:
Select one:
A. memory in children.
B. attachment in infants.
C. personality in adults.
D. temperament in infants.
This is an easy question as long as you have Ainsworth and/or her strange situation linked to the study of attachment.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Ainsworth developed the strange situation as a method for studying the quality of attachment in infants. It involves a series of events in which the child is separated from and reunited with his/her caregiver. For the exam you want to be familiar with the patterns of attachments Ainsworth and her colleagues identified using the strange situation (see the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials).
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: attachment in infants.
116
Sandra Bem's (1984) theory of gender role identity development emphasizes which of the following?
Select one:
A. psychosexual crises
B. rewards and punishments
C. early object relations
D. gender schemas
The exam occasionally includes a question that requires you to recognize the name and work of a specific theorist or researcher, and this is an example of this type of question.
a. Incorrect Psychosexual crises are a focus of Freud's theory of gender-role identity development.
b. Incorrect Rewards and punishments are not central to Bem's theory.
c. Incorrect The role of early object relations in the development of a gender identity is of concern to feminist object relations theorists.
d. CORRECT Bem's gender schema theory combines social learning theory and cognitive-developmental theory and focuses on the role of gender schemas, which are cognitive structures of masculinity and femininity that influence how the child interprets the world. Additional information on the most commonly cited theories of gender role identity development (including Bem's theory) is presented in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials.
The correct answer is: gender schemas
117
According to Piaget, children begin to intentionally lie (make false statements) at about ___ years of age.
Select one:
A. 2
B. 5
C. 7
D. 10
Piaget believed that young children lie spontaneously (unintentionally) and that children do not begin to intentionally lie until age 7 or 8.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT This answer is consistent with Piaget's conclusions. Note, however, that subsequent research suggests that children as young as age 3 or 4 intentionally lie.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: 7
118
A key accomplishment of Piaget's preoperational stage is the emergence of:
Select one:
A. conservation.
B. the object concept.
C. formal operations.
D. the symbolic function.
According to Piaget, the preoperational stage is characterized by the development of the symbolic (semiotic) function, which permits language use, symbolic play, and deferred imitation.
a. Incorrect Conservation refers to knowledge that physical properties of objects remain invariant with transformations that do not involve addition or subtraction. Such knowledge is acquired between the ages of 7 and 11 years during the concrete operational period.
b. Incorrect The object concept develops during the sensorimotor stage, which is characteristic of children from birth to two years.
c. Incorrect Formal operations are characteristic of the final (formal operational) stage of cognitive development.
d. CORRECT The ability for symbolic representation, which is necessary for language use, symbolic play, and deferred imitation, develops during the preoperational stage, which is characteristic of children ages 2 through 7.
The correct answer is: the symbolic function.
119
To reduce aggressive behavior in a highly aggressive preschooler, the best approach is to:
Select one:
A. consistently punish aggressiveness.
B. ignore the child's aggressive behaviors and reinforce him/her for engaging in alternative prosocial behaviors.
C. allow the child to "vent" his/her aggression in a safe way.
D. help the child recognize the consequences of his/her behavior and identify alternative behaviors.
The research on this issue is not entirely consistent. In general, however, the results do not deviate too much from what might be expected.
a. Incorrect While there is some evidence that consistent forms of discipline (punishment) are effective, the effectiveness of discipline seems to depend on several factors. For example, consistent discipline has beneficial effects on aggression when the child identifies with the person who is applying it. In addition, harsh punishment (consistent or inconsistent) tends to increase aggressiveness. Consequently, this is not the best answer.
b. Incorrect Ignoring aggressive behaviors is usually ineffective; and reinforcing prosocial behaviors is more useful for instilling prosocial behaviors than for reducing aggressiveness.
c. Incorrect The "catharsis hypothesis" does not seem to be valid.
d. CORRECT There is evidence that fostering empathy (e.g., by helping the child recognize the consequences of his/her behavior for the target of the aggression) and helping the child identify alternative behaviors is useful, especially for younger children.
The correct answer is: help the child recognize the consequences of his/her behavior and identify alternative behaviors.
120
Which of the following describes the Moro reflex?
Select one:
A. A baby's toes fan out and upward when the soles of her feet are tickled.
B. A baby turns his head in the direction of a light touch on his cheek or lip.
C. A baby flings his arms and legs outward and then toward his body in response to a loud noise.
D. A baby makes walking movements when held upright while her feet touch a flat surface.
Knowing that the Moro reflex is also known as the startle reflex would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
a. Incorrect This describes the Babinski reflex.
b. Incorrect This describes the rooting reflex.
c. CORRECT This accurately describes the Moro reflex.
d. Incorrect This describes the stepping reflex.
The correct answer is: A baby flings his arms and legs outward and then toward his body in response to a loud noise.
121
Research investigating the effects of maternal employment has found that, when compared to children of non-working mothers, children of working mothers:
Select one:
A. have more problems in their social relationships.
B. have more egalitarian concepts about gender roles.
C. receive less attention and affection from their mothers.
D. have substantially lower levels of academic achievement.
The effects of maternal employment on children are mediated by several factors.
a. Incorrect The effects of maternal employment on social adjustment seem to be related to gender and SES: Some studies suggest that girls benefit in terms of social adjustment when their mothers work outside the home, while boys (especially middle-class boys) may exhibit some problems in social relationships (e.g., they are at higher risk for "acting-out" behaviors).
b. CORRECT A consistent finding of the research is that children with working mothers have more egalitarian views about gender roles and less traditional stereotypes of male and female activities than do children with mothers who are full-time homemakers.
c. Incorrect The research has generally found that maternal employment is not associated with a decrease in the time that mothers spend with their children or with the affection that mothers give their children.
d. Incorrect There is evidence that the effects of maternal employment on children's academic achievement are related to SES: Some studies have found that maternal employment is associated with higher academic achievement for boys from low-income families but lower academic achievement for boys from higher-income families.
The correct answer is: have more egalitarian concepts about gender roles.
122
By about 8 to 12 months of age, babies actively seek a toy that is shown to them prior to being hidden from view. According to Piaget, this ability is due to the development of:
Select one:
A. working memory.
B. metamemory.
C. object attachment.
D. the object concept.
You're likely to encounter a couple of exam questions on Piaget's stages of cogitive development, so you'll want to be familiar with the names of the stages, the ages at which they occur, and the major milestones that occur during each stage, which are described in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT This question describes the ability to recognize that objects continue to exist even when they are no longer in view. Piaget referred to this ability as the object concept (or object permanence) and found that it begins to develop between 8 and 12 months of age.
The correct answer is: the object concept.
123
Presbyopia refers to loss of:
Select one:
A. far vision.
B. near vision.
C. color vision.
D. depth perception.
Presbyopia occurs when the lens of the eye loses its ability to focus. Many people begin to experience presbyopia in their mid-40s.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT People with presbyopia have difficulty focusing on objects that are close.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: near vision.
124
The research suggests that play in childhood:
Select one:
A. is best described as an imitation of adult behavior.
B. contributes to many aspects of development.
C. is essentially a form of entertainment.
D. helps children develop rule-governed behaviors.
Although play, by definition, does not have a purpose, the research has found that it serves important functions for both humans and animals.
a. Incorrect This describes sociodramatic play and does not apply to all types of play.
b. CORRECT Current theories about play during childhood regard it as important for a child"s physical, intellectual, social, and emotional development.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect This is true about some types of play only and, therefore, is not the best answer of those given.
The correct answer is: contributes to many aspects of development.
125
Maternal malnutrition has the most severe consequences for the developing brain of the fetus when it occurs:
Select one:
A. from conception to first month of prenatal development.
B. from the first month to third month of prenatal development.
C. from the third month to sixth month of prenatal development.
D. from the sixth month to ninth month of prenatal development.
Prenatal malnutrition has its most severe impact, especially on the fetus's brain, during the later stages of prenatal development.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT The brain grows most rapidly during the final trimester, and prenatal malnutrition during this period is associated with a low brain weight and abnormalities in the organization of the brain's neurons.
The correct answer is: from the sixth month to ninth month of prenatal development.
126
Which of the following best describes the symptoms of fetal alcohol spectrum disorder (FASD)?
Select one:
A. Most symptoms are alleviated by proper nutrition in the first few months following birth.
B. Symptoms gradually recede during the first few years of life, although some behavioral symptoms may persist into adulthood.
C. Behavioral symptoms are no longer apparent by adolescence, but physical signs persist into adulthood.
D. Most symptoms are irreversible and persist into adulthood.
As its name implies, fetal alcohol spectrum disorder is caused by prenatal exposure to alcohol and affects multiple areas of development.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT The severity of the symptoms of FASD depends on the degree of prenatal exposure to alcohol. However, regardless of their severity, most symptoms are irreversible.
The correct answer is: Most symptoms are irreversible and persist into adulthood.
127
The original research on the self-fulfilling prophecy effect (Rosenthal and Jacobson, 1968) examined how:
Select one:
A. adolescents expectations about their academic performance affected their actual performance.
B. teachers expectations about the academic performance of children affected the childrens actual performance.
C. physicians diagnoses affected the health-related behaviors of patients with chronic illnesses.
D. the social context affects the way that people interpret the behaviors of others.
The self-fulfilling prophecy (Rosenthal) effect predicts that other people's expectations about our performance affects our actual performance.
a. Incorrect This does not describe the self-fulfilling prophecy effect.
b. CORRECT Rosenthal and Jacobson (1968) found that grade school teachers' expectations about students had a self-fulfilling prophecy effect - i.e., when teachers were told that the test scores of some students indicated they would be "academic spurters" (even though the students had been randomly selected), those students had unusual gains in academic performance, apparently because they were treated differently by the teachers.
c. Incorrect This does not describe the self-fulfilling prophecy effect.
d. Incorrect This sounds like Rosenhan's pseudopatient study.
The correct answer is: teachers expectations about the academic performance of children affected the childrens actual performance.
128
Two-year-old Mayen uses the word "juice" to refer to all of the beverages that she drinks. This is an example of:
Select one:
A. overextension.
B. overgeneralization.
C. expansion.
D. extension.
Children make a number of predictable errors during the process of language acquisition.
a. CORRECT Overextension occurs when a child uses a word to describe a wider range of objects or events than is appropriate.
b. Incorrect Overgeneralization occurs when the child extends grammatical rules to words that are an exception to the rule (e.g., adds "ed" to "go" to form the past tense).
c. Incorrect Expansion refers to an adult's response to a child's utterance that elaborates on what the child has said.
d. Incorrect It is overextension (not extension) that describes Mayen's inappropriate use of the word "juice."
The correct answer is: overextension.
129
Auditory localization:
Select one:
A. develops gradually in the first six months of life.
B. is present to some degree at birth but then seems to disappear between the ages of 2 and 4 months and then reappears.
C. is present to some degree at birth but then seems to disappear between the ages of 9 and 12 months and then reappears.
D. is not evident in the first few months of life but develops gradually and is not fully developed until 24 months of age.
Auditory localization refers to ability to orient toward the direction of a sound.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Although auditory localization is apparent soon after birth, it seems to disappear between 2 and 4 months of age, and then reappears and improves during the rest of the first year of life.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: is present to some degree at birth but then seems to disappear between the ages of 2 and 4 months and then reappears.
