Lifespan Development - Domain Quiz Flashcards
A developmental psychologist investigating the influence of Bronfenbrenner’s mesosystem on child development will focus on:
Select one:
a. factors that affect prenatal development.
b. interactions between home and school.
c. relationships between family members.
d. cultural influences.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the five levels of influence identified by Bronfenbrenner’s ecological model. These are described in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials.
MICRO - immediate env.
MESO - family and school
EXO - broader env., parents’ environments
MACRO - overarching env. influences (cultural beliefs)
CHRONO - env. events over lifespan
Answer B is correct: The mesosystem is comprised of interactions between components of the child’s microsystem and includes interactions between home and school.
The correct answer is: interactions between home and school.
Down Syndrome is caused by:
Select one:
a. a dominant gene.
b. two recessive genes.
c. a chromosomal abnormality.
d. an X-linked gene.
Down Syndrome is a chromosomal condition that is associated with an intellectual disability, specific facial features, and certain physical abnormalities (e.g., hypotonia, heart defects, and hearing impairment).
Answer C is correct: Down syndrome is most often due to a failure of the 21st pair of chromosomes to split during meiosis, resulting in an extra chromosome 21.
The correct answer is: a chromosomal abnormality.
During a “critical period”:
Select one:
a. a behavior changes in the direction of more advanced development regardless of environmental events.
b. a particular aspect of development is most sensitive to environmental circumstances.
c. an organism is unable to respond effectively to the demands of the environment.
d. an organism experiences a severe setback (crisis) in normal development.
Although several critical periods have been found for certain aspects of physical development in humans, there is less certainty about their existence for other types of development.
Answer B is correct: Critical periods were originally described by ethologists who found that an organism must be exposed to certain environmental events during specific periods of time for a behavior to develop. As an example, in geese, the critical period for imprinting is two to three days after birth.
The correct answer is: a particular aspect of development is most sensitive to environmental circumstances.
Research by Werner and Smith (1982) found that a high-risk baby is least likely to suffer long-term negative consequences if:
Select one:
a. he or she has a higher-than-average IQ.
b. his or her mother doesn’t work outside the home.
c. he or she has a large family.
d. he or she is socially responsive.
Werner and Smith’s (1982) identified several protective factors for high risk infants and children. These are described in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials.
Answer D is correct: An easy temperament was found to be one of the protective factors for high-risk children – i.e., those who had good responsivity and communication skills at an early age had better outcomes.
The correct answer is: he or she is socially responsive.
Rutter (1985) studied the risk and protective factors that are associated with child psychopathology. His research found that which of the following places a child at greatest risk for behavioral problems?
Select one:
a. chronic health problems during infancy and abusive father
b. early enrollment in daycare and paternal alcoholism
c. paternal psychopathology and emphasis on traditional gender roles
d. severe marital discord and maternal psychopathology
Rutter identified six factors that are most predictive of child psychopathology.
Answer D is correct: The six risk factors identified by Rutter are:
SEVERE MARITAL DISCORD LOW SES LARGE FAMILY SIZE or OVERCROWDEDNESS PARENTAL CRIMINALITY MATERNAL PSYCHOPATHOLOGY PLACEMENT OF CHILD OUTSIDE OF HOME
The correct answer is: severe marital discord and maternal psychopathology
The most common cause of cerebral palsy is:
Select one:
a. a congenital endocrine dysfunction.
b. brain damage during fetal development.
c. nutritional deficiencies immediately following birth.
d. early exposure to a teratogen that affects the body’s muscles.
Cerebral palsy includes a number of neurological disorders that permanently impair the ability to control voluntary muscle movements. In many cases, the exact cause is unknown.
Answer B is correct: Cerebral palsy is the result of brain damage, and, in the majority of cases, the damage occurs prior to birth. One cause of the damage is a lack of oxygen (asphyxia) prior to birth or during the birth process. Other possible causes include exposure to infections, head injury, intracranial hemorrhage, and genetic mutations.
The correct answer is: brain damage during fetal development.
The symptoms of fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS):
Select one:
a. are restricted primarily to behavioral problems.
b. are restricted primarily to minor physical abnormalities.
c. are reversible with the appropriate diet following birth.
d. are largely irreversible.
The symptoms of fetal alcohol syndrome are related to the amount of alcohol consumed by the woman during her pregnancy.
Answer D is correct: Fetal alcohol syndrome is the most severe form of fetal alcohol spectrum disorder. Its symptoms are, for the most part, irreversible and include facial deformities, intellectual disability, and hyperactivity.
The correct answer is: are largely irreversible.
Which of the following is useful for preventing the severe intellectual disability that can accompany phenylketonuria (PKU)?
Select one:
a. a special diet
b. environmental stimulation
c. surgery
d. an antibiotic drug
PKU is a recessive gene disorder in which the enzyme that processes the amino acid phenylalanine is missing.
Answer A is correct: The treatment for PKU is a diet that is low in phenylalanine beginning in the first few weeks of life.
The correct answer is: a special diet
Most infants can be expected to take their first steps alone at about ____ months of age.
Select one:
a. 9
b. 12
c. 15
d. 18
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the major milestones in physical development listed in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials.
Answer B is correct: Most babies take their first steps alone at 10 to 12 months of age.
The correct answer is: 12
Results of the recent National Survey on Drug Use and Health found that adolescents are MOST likely to say they have used which of the following in the past month?
Select one:
a. tobacco
b. inhalants
c. marijuana
d. alcohol
The National Survey on Drug Use and Health (USDHHS, 2013) collects data on adolescent drug use.
Answer D is correct: Consistent with previous surveys, the 2013 Survey found that alcohol is the most frequently used drug by adolescents. Additional information about the results of this survey is provided in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials.
The correct answer is: alcohol
The best conclusion that can be drawn from research on neurogenesis in the human brain is that:
Select one:
a. it does not occur in any area of the adult brain.
b. it occurs in the hippocampus and possibly other areas of the brain.
c. it occurs in the prefrontal cortex but not in other areas of the brain.
d. it occurs throughout the brain until late adulthood.
Neurogenesis refers to the development of nerve cells (neurons) in the brain.
Answer B is correct: Until relatively recently, it was believed that new neurons are not formed in the human brain following birth. However, research first on non-human mammals and then humans has found that neurogenesis in adulthood does occur. In humans, the most consistent evidence has been provided for adult neurogenesis in the hippocampus.
The correct answer is: it occurs in the hippocampus and possibly other areas of the brain.
The visual cues an infant uses to perceive depth arise in a predictable sequence. Which cue is the last to develop?
Select one:
a. binocular
b. pictorial
c. kinetic
d. intermodal
Depth perception depends on sensitivity to Kinetic (motion) cues (1-3 months) Binocular cues (2-4 months) Pictorial cues (5 months)
Answer B is correct: Sensitivity to pictorial cues (e.g., size, texture, shading) is the last to arise at about 5 months of age.
Answer A is incorrect: Sensitivity to binocular cues arises at about 2 to 4 months of age.
Answer C is incorrect: Sensitivity to kinetic cues arises at about 1 to 3 months of age.
Answer D is incorrect: Intermodal sensitivity refers to the ability to combine information from different sensory modalities and is not an ability that contributes to depth perception.
The correct answer is: pictorial
Which of the following best describes the results of research on the consequences of early physical maturation for adolescents?
Select one:
a. Boys benefit more from early physical maturation than girls do.
b. Girls benefit more from early physical maturation than boys do.
c. Boys and girls both have positive (but not negative) consequences of early physical maturation.
d. Boys and girls both have negative (but not positive) consequences of early physical maturation.
Research comparing on-time, early, and late physical maturation in adolescence has found that their effects differ for boys and girls.
Answer A is correct: The studies have found that early physical maturation is associated with both positive and negative consequences for boys but with mostly negative consequences for girls.
The correct answer is: Boys benefit more from early physical maturation than girls do.
According to Piaget, centration, or the tendency to focus on only one aspect of a situation or object while ignoring all others, is characteristic of the _________ stage.
Select one:
a. preconventional
b. conventional
c. preoperational
d. concrete operational
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the characteristics of Piaget’s four stages of cognitive development. This information is provided in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials.
Answer C is correct: Piaget described centration as characteristic of the preoperational stage and as one of the reasons why young children cannot conserve.
The correct answer is: preoperational
According to Piaget, the source of motivation for cognitive development is:
Select one:
a. elaboration.
b. social acceptance.
c. equilibration.
d. the semiotic function.
Piaget proposed that the motivation for cognitive development comes from a drive toward cognitive balance, or equilibrium.
Answer C is correct: Development occurs when a state of disequilibrium brought on by a discrepancy between the person’s current understanding of the world (repertoire of schemas) and reality is resolved through the processes of ASSIMILATION and ACCOMMODATION.
The correct answer is: equilibration.
As defined by Piaget, assimilation involves:
Select one:
a. engaging in repetitive or stereotyped actions.
b. shifting from one stage of development to the next.
c. adjusting existing knowledge to better “fit” new information or experiences.
d. incorporating new information into existing knowledge
Piaget identified assimilation and accommodation as contributors to cognitive development.
Answer D is correct: Assimilation involves incorporating new information or experiences into existing cognitive schemas.
Answer C is incorrect: Accommodation involves adjusting existing cognitive schemas or developing new schemas to accommodate new information and experiences.
The correct answer is: incorporating new information into existing knowledge.
As described by Vygotsky, __________ is a temporary aid provided by one person (the “teacher”) to encourage, support, and assist a lesser-skilled person (the “learner”) acquire a skill or solve a problem.
Select one:
a. scaffolding
b. modeling
c. cuing
d. stimulus control
Vygotsky believed that the acquisition of knowledge and behavior takes place as the result of interactions with others.
Answer A is correct: Vygotsky referred to the temporary structure provided by others as scaffolding.
Answer B is incorrect: Although observational learning is an aspect of Vygotsky’s theory, this is not the best answer of those given.
Answer C is incorrect: Cues may be used by teachers, but scaffolding is a better response to this question since it is the term used by Vygotsky.
Answer D is incorrect: Stimulus control occurs when a behavior is brought under the control of certain stimuli.
The correct answer is: scaffolding
Children under the age of 9 often have trouble with memory tasks because of their:
Select one:
a. limited memory span.
b. inconsistent use of rehearsal and other memory strategies.
c. lack of understanding of the demands of the task.
d. lack of ability to focus for an extended period on the task.
Age-related differences in memory are due, in large part, to differences in the use of memory strategies.
Answer B is correct: The studies have found that, prior to age 9 or 10, children do not use rehearsal and other memory strategies consistently.
The correct answer is: inconsistent use of rehearsal and other memory strategies.
In response to your concerns about the potential consequences of his recent risk-taking behaviors, a 16-year-old says, “Don’t worry, that can’t happen to me.” According to Elkind, this is a manifestation of which of the following?
Select one:
a. egocentrism
b. internal locus of control
c. foreclosure
d. bootstrapping
Elkind (1984) extended Piaget’s work on cognitive development by identifying specific characteristics of adolescent egocentrism.
Answer A is correct: The adolescent described in this question is exhibiting the personal fable, which Elkind described as one of several manifestations of adolescent egocentrism. It is characterized by a sense of invulnerability (e.g, “Nothing bad can happen to me.”)
The correct answer is: egocentrism
Studies have found that, when older adults are asked to recall personal events from their lives, they often exhibit a “reminiscence bump.” A recent explanation for this phenomenon is that it is due to which of the following?
Select one:
a. development of the object concept
b. development of a personal sense of identity
c. renewed egocentricism
d. increasing prospective memory
The reminiscence bump is the tendency for older adults to have greater recall for events that occurred from about age 10 to 30.
Answer B is correct: Several explanations have been offered for the reminiscence bump. A recent explanation is that it occurs because people develop a sense of identity during these years and events that occurred during this period are more easily recalled because they have been incorporated into the person’s sense of self.
The correct answer is: development of a personal sense of identity
Which of the following best describes changes in memory that are associated with normal aging?
Select one:
a. Short-term memory is most adversely affected by increasing age due to a reduced storage capacity.
b. Long-term memory is most adversely affected by increasing age due to a reduced storage capacity.
c. Remote long-term memory is most adversely affected by increasing age due to inadequate retrieval cues.
d. Recent long-term memory is most advesely affected by increasing age due to inadequate encoding strategies.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the age-related changes in memory that are described in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials.
Answer D is correct: The studies have found that the greatest age-related impairment is in recent long-term (secondary) memory and that this is due, in large part, to reduced use of effective encoding strategies.
The correct answer is: Recent long-term memory is most adversely affected by increasing age due to inadequate encoding strategies.
For most children, babbling narrows to the sounds of the child’s native language between _____ months of age.
Select one:
a. 3 and 6
b. 6 and 9
c. 9 and 14
d. 14 and 18
Answer C is correct: Beginning at six to eight weeks of age, infants produce simple “cooing” sounds that consist mainly of vowels and are usually emitted when the infant is happy and contented. This is followed, at about four months of age, by babbling, which involves the repetition of simple consonant and vowel sounds (e.g., “bi-bi-bi”). Early babbling includes sounds from all languages; but, between nine and 14 months of age, babies narrow their repertoire of sounds to those of their native language.
The correct answer is: 9 and 14
Investigators have found that newborns exhibit three types of cries – the hungry (basic) cry, the angry cry, and the pain cry. They have also found that, by _____ months of age, most infants begin to emit a “fussy” or irregular cry.
Select one:
a. 1 to 2
b. 3 to 4
c. 5 to 6
d. 7
The “fussy” cry varies in intensity, is less rhythmical than the other cries, and seems to function as a demand for a particular object or action.
Answer A is correct: It is only during the first month of life that crying is purely physiological; i.e., is linked to hunger, anger, or pain. After that, the infant cries in response to environmental stimuli.
The correct answer is: 1 to 2
Research on bilingualism suggests that it:
Select one:
a. has detrimental effects on several aspects of children’s cognitive functioning, especially during the elementary school years.
b. has detrimental effects on several aspects of children’s cognitive functioning that persist into adulthood.
c. has beneficial effects on children’s cognitive flexibility and metalinguistic awareness in the elementary school years but that these effects may not persist into adolescence.
d. has no demonstrable effect on cognitive functioning in childhood or adolescence.
This is a difficult question since the research findings on this issue have produced somewhat inconsistent results.
Answer C is correct: Bilingualism has been found to have benefits in terms of divergent thinking (including cognitive flexibility) and metalinguistic awareness. However, there is some evidence that these benefits may be temporary and that, in adolescence and adulthood, bilinguals are indistinguishable from monolinguals.
Answer A is incorrect: While there may be some temporary delays in language acquisition, overall, bilingualism seems to have more positive consequences for cognitive functioning than negative ones.
The correct answer is: has beneficial effects on children’s cognitive flexibility and metalinguistic awareness in the elementary school years but that these effects may not persist into adolescence.
Studies examining language acquisition in children have shown that the fastest rate of increase in vocabulary typically occurs between the ages of:
Select one:
a. 12 and 18 months.
b. 20 and 26 months.
c. 30 and 36 months.
d. 36 and 42 months.
The fastest rate of vocabulary increase occurs between the ages of 30 and 36 months. During this period, the child’s vocabulary increases from 300-400 words to about 1000 words.
Answer C is correct: As noted above, the child’s vocabulary more than doubles during this period.
Answer B is incorrect: At 27 months, the child’s vocabulary consists of about 300-400 words.
Answer D is incorrect: Between the ages of 36 to 42 months, the child’s grammatical accuracy and sentence complexity increases. His or her vocabulary also increases but the rate of increase is not as great as between 30 and 36 months.
The correct answer is: 30 and 36 months.
Which of the following is an example of a morpheme?
Select one:
a. un
b. th
c. di-di
d. cuh
For the exam, you want to be able to distinguish between morphemes and phonemes.
Answer A is correct: Morphemes are the smallest unit of sound that has meaning and include words such as “do” and “go” and prefixes and suffixes such as “ful,” “un,” and “ing.”
Answer B is incorrect: Phonemes are the smallest unit of sound understood in a language and include b, v, and th.
The correct answer is: u
A 9-year-old is irritable, aggressive, dependent, and low in achievement orientation and self-esteem and has a limited sense of responsibility. Based on this information, you can conclude that his parents are:
Select one:
a. authoritarian.
b. authoritative.
c. permissive.
d. platitudinous.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the parent and child characteristics associated with the four parenting styles identified by Baumrind and her colleagues – i.e., authoritarian, authoritative, permissive, and rejecting-neglecting. This information is provided in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials.
Answer A is correct: Authoritarian exhibit a high level of demandingness and a low level of warmth. Their offspring are often irritable, aggressive, and dependent and have a limited sense of responsibility and low levels of self-esteem and academic achievement.
The correct answer is: authoritarian.
According to Erikson, a desirable outcome of the final stage of psychosocial development is which of the following?
Select one:
a. wisdom
b. individuation
c. generativity
d. commitment
For the exam, you want to be familiar with Erikson’s eight stages of psychosocial development, including the outcomes associated with each stage. This information is provided in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials.
Answer A is correct: Erikson’s final psychosocial crisis is “ego integrity versus despair,” and a positive outcome of this crisis is the development of wisdom and a sense of integrity.
The correct answer is: wisdom
According to Kubler-Ross (1969), a person’s initial reaction to learning that he or she has a life-threatening illness is most likely to be which of the following?
Select one:
a. anger
b. depression
c. bargaining
d. denial
For the exam, you want to be familiar with Kubler-Ross’s five stages of grief so that you can answer questions like this one.
DENIAL ANGER BARGAINING DEPRESSION ACCEPTANCE
Answer D is correct: Kubler-Ross concluded that people experience five stages of grief when facing their own death or other important loss – denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance.
The correct answer is: denial
As described by Marcia (1987), an adolescent experiencing “foreclosure” will be most likely to say which of the following about her career goals?
Select one:
a. I don’t know what I want to do when I graduate from high school.
b. My dad thinks it’s a good idea if I go to medical school and become a doctor like him, so that’s what I’m planning to do.
c. My dad wants me to be a doctor but I want to be an actress.
d. I’ve given this a lot of thought, and I’ve decided I want to be a teacher.
Marcia (1987) distinguishes between four identity statuses that reflect the degree to which a person is experiencing an identity crisis and is committed to a particular identity.
Answer B is correct: Foreclosure occurs when the individual has accepted a career goal or other aspect of identity that has been recommended by a significant other (often a parent). Additional information about Marcia’s identity statuses is provided in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials.
The correct answer is: My dad thinks it’s a good idea if I go to medical school and become a doctor like him, so that’s what I’m planning to do.
A shift in perspective from “time from birth” to “time until death” usually occurs between the ages of:
Select one:
a. 30 and 35.
b. 40 and 45.
c. 50 and 55.
d. 60 and 65.
If you are unfamiliar with the literature on this topic, you may have been able to choose the correct answer to this question by taking a look at your own perceptions or those of family members, friends, clients, etc.
Answer B is correct: According to Levinson (1978), changes that occur during the “mid-life crisis” (typically between the ages of 40 and 45) are often tied to a mental change in the perception of time. The terms used in this question were originally used by Neugarten (1968).
The correct answer is: 40 and 45.
Kohlberg’s cognitive-developmental theory identifies which of the following as the initial stage of gender-role acquisition?
Select one:
a. gender affirmation
b. gender identity
c. gender constancy
d. gender stability
Kohlberg’s cognitive-developmental model identifies three stages of gender-role acquisition -
GENDER IDENTITY (2-3) GENDER STABILITY (4-5) GENDER CONSTANCY (6-7)
Answer B is correct: According to Kohlberg (1969), gender identity is the first stage in the acquisition of gender-role behaviors and occurs at about age 2 to 3. It is followed by gender stability (age 4) and then gender constancy (ages 6 to 7).
The correct answer is: gender identity
Thomas and Chess (1977) proposed that maladjustment in children is traceable to:
Select one:
a. exposure to multiple risks during prenatal development and early infancy.
b. a lack of “fit” between the child’s temperament and the parents’ caregiving behaviors.
c. a combination of biochemical factors and environmental stressors.
d. the parents’ lack of knowledge about normal child development.
Thomas and Chess categorized infants on the basis of nine basic temperament qualities and linked these categories to future outcomes.
Answer B is correct: These investigators found that a mismatch between an infant’s temperament and the parents’ caregiving behaviors was predictive of future behavioral problems.
The correct answer is: a lack of “fit” between the child’s temperament and the parents’ caregiving behaviors.
A child in Piaget’s autonomous stage of moral development will base his judgment of whether an act is “right” or “wrong” primarily on:
Select one:
a. the consequences of the act for others.
b. the consequences of the act for the actor.
c. his sympathy for the actor.
d. the actor’s intentions.
Piaget distinguishes between two stages of morality – heteronomous and autonomous.
Answer D is correct: Autonomous morality usually begins at about age 11 and is characterized by an emphasis on the actor’s intentions.
Answer A is incorrect: A child in the heteronomous stage judges the “rightness” or “wrongness” of an act on the basis of its consequences – i.e., the more negative the consequences, the worse the act.
The correct answer is: the actor’s intentions.
At approximately ____ months of age, babies begin to show outward signs of jealousy, empathy, and embarrassment.
Select one:
a. 9 to 12
b. 12 to 18
c. 18 to 24
d. 24 to 30
Emotions emerge in a fairly predictable sequence during the first three years of life. This sequence is described in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials.
Answer C is correct: Jealousy, empathy, and embarrassment are self-conscious emotions and are first apparent at about 18 to 24 months of age.
The correct answer is: 18 to 24
Child abuse and neglect are most associated with which of the following attachment patterns?
Select one:
a. disorganized or disoriented
b. distant or disengaged
c. insecure or avoidant
d. insecure or ambivalent
Children who have been maltreated often exhibit disorganized, contradictory behaviors in the presence of their caregivers - e.g., they might reach out for the caregiver while backing away.
Answer A is correct: Mary Main, a student of Ainsworth, found that about 80% of maltreated children exhibit a disorganized/disoriented attachment pattern.
The correct answer is: disorganized or disoriented
During Kohlberg’s postconventional stage, moral judgments are based on:
Select one:
a. democratically determined laws or universal ethical principles.
b. rules and laws established by a legitimate authority.
c. the direct consequences of the act.
d. a desire to obtain social approval.
Kohlberg distinguished between three levels of moral development that each include two stages. The characteristics of these levels and stages are described in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials.
Answer A is correct: The postconventional level is the third (and final) level in Kohlberg’s model and includes two substages – Morality of Contract, Individual Rights, and Democratically Accepted Laws and Morality of Individual Principles of Conscience.
Answer B is incorrect: Rules and laws established by a legitimate authority are of concern for individuals in the second stage of the conventional level.
Answer C is incorrect: The consequences of the act are of concern for individuals in the preconventional level.
Answer D is incorrect: A desire to obtain social approval is of concern for individuals in the first stage of the conventional level.
The correct answer is: democratically determined laws or universal ethical principles.
Harlow and Zimmerman’s (1959) study of attachment in rhesus monkeys indicated that _______________ is the critical variable in mother-infant attachment.
Select one:
a. contact comfort
b. feeding
c. drive reduction
d. infant temperament
Harlow and Zimmerman compared the role of contact comfort and feeding on attachment in infant rhesus monkeys.
Answer A is correct: The results of their research indicated that contact (tactile) comfort was more important than feeding for the development of attachment. Their research was subsequently applied to attachment in human infants.
The correct answer is: contact comfort
If you are developing an intervention to reduce aggressiveness in children and you are basing it on the work of G. R. Patterson and his colleagues (1992), a primary component of the intervention will be:
Select one:
a. training parents in child management skills.
b. empathy training for the children.
c. solution-focused therapy for the parents.
d. group therapy for the children and the parents.
Patterson et al.’s family interaction model proposes that children learn aggressive behaviors from their parents who use harsh discipline and reward their children’s aggressiveness with approval and attention.
Answer A is correct: The intervention developed by Patterson and his colleagues for aggressive children focuses on the parents and, in particular, on their child management skills.
The correct answer is: training parents in child management skills.
Research using the “strange situation” found that, after being left by her mother with a stranger, a baby exhibiting insecure or avoidant attachment:
Select one:
a. becomes highly distressed.
b. acts confused and disoriented.
c. ignores her mother when she returns.
d. clings to her mother when she returns.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the maternal behaviors and infant responses associated with the four patterns of attachment. These are described in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials.
Answer C is correct: An insecure or avoidant infant shows little distress when separated from his or her mother and will avoid or ignore her when she returns.
The correct answer is: ignores her mother when she returns.
Separation from her mother is likely to have the fewest negative consequences for a baby if it occurs when the baby is between ______ months of age.
Select one:
a. 0 and 3
b. 6 and 8
c. 9 and 12
d. 14 and 16
Signs of attachment to a caregiver are not apparent until about six months of age.
Answer A is correct: Separation from the caregiver prior to six months of age (especially during the first three months) is less likely to have negative consequences than a separation that occurs after six months of age.
The correct answer is: 0 and 3
According to Carstensen’s (1993) socioemotional selectivity theory, most older adults prefer social relationships:
Select one:
a. with people of their own social status.
b. with people who have had similar life experiences.
c. that provide them with emotional intimacy.
d. that provide them with opportunities for new exeriences.
An assumption underlying Carstensen’s theory is that social goals have two primary functions – the acquisition of knowledge and the regulation of emotion.
Answer C is correct: Socioemotional selectivity theory predicts that social goals correspond to perceptions of TIME LEFT in life as being LIMITED or UNLIMITED. According to this theory, older adults perceive time as limited and, consequently, tend to prefer emotionally close social relationships.
The correct answer is: that provide them with emotional intimacy.
A child is most likely to exhibit behavioral and psychological problems following the divorce of his parents if:
Select one:
a. he lives with his father rather than his mother.
b. his parents have joint custody.
c. his parents frequently argue in front of him.
d. his mother adopts an authoritative parenting style.
A child’s adjustment to the divorce of his or her parents has been linked to a number of factors. Additional information on this topic is provided in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials.
Answer C is correct: One of the more consistent findings of the research is that children have fewer problems when their parents are able to control their anger and keep fights in front of the children to a minimum.
The correct answer is: his parents frequently argue in front of him.
It is not until the age of ___ that most children understand that, when the “bad guy” is shot on television, he is not really dead.
Select one:
a. 3
b. 5
c. 7
d. 10
Some investigators interested in the impact of television on children have attempted to determine when children become able to distinguish fact from fantasy.
Answer C is correct: The studies have found that it is not until about age seven that children understand that TV characters are actors who are playing roles.
The correct answer is: 7
Research on teacher feedback suggests that teachers:
Select one:
a. no longer treat boys and girls differently.
b. criticize boys more and help girls more.
c. criticize girls more and help boys more.
d. criticize and help boys more than girls.
The research has consistently found that teachers tend to respond differently to boys and girls.
Answer D is correct: The studies have shown that teachers continue to not only provide more feedback to boys and criticize boys more often but also provide different types of feedback and criticism to boys and girls. Additional information on this issue is provided in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials.
The correct answer is: criticize and help boys more than girls.
Research on the outcomes of parental divorce for children has identified a “sleeper effect,” which refers to the tendency of:
Select one:
a. boys to show a decrease in negative outcomes as they reach adolescence.
b. girls to show an increase in negative outcomes as they reach adolescence.
c. boys and girls to show a decrease in negative outcomes as they reach early adulthood.
d. boys and girls who show the most severe outcomes immediately after the divorce to show an increase in negative outcomes over time and vice versa.
Research on the outcomes of divorce for boys and girls have found that, in some cases, the outcomes change over time.
Answer B is correct: In the context of the effects of divorce on children, the term “sleeper effect” refers to the tendency of girls who do not initially show significant negative effects of the divorce to develop a number of problems in adolescence, including increased noncompliance and conflict with their mothers, antisocial behaviors, decreased self-esteem, and difficulties related to sexual behavior.
The correct answer is: girls to show an increase in negative outcomes as they reach adolescence.
Studies comparing children of lesbian and heterosexual mothers suggests that children of lesbian mothers:
Select one:
a. are more likely to have problems related to gender role identity and behavior.
b. are more likely to be homosexual themselves.
c. are more susceptible to psychosocial problems.
d. are comparable in adjustment to children of heterosexual mothers.
Studies investigating the effects of parental sexual orientation on children’s adjustment have found that the nature of the parent-child relationship is more important than a parent’s sexual orientation.
Answer D is correct: The studies have found that children of homosexual and heterosexual parents are fairly indistinguishable in terms of psychosocial adjustment, gender identity development, and sexual orientation.
The correct answer is: are comparable in adjustment to children of heterosexual mothers.
Tyrone and Tyree are 9-year-old twins. Their mother has worked as a bank teller since they were two years old. In comparison to children whose mothers do not work outside the home, you would expect Tyrone and Tyree to:
Select one:
a. be less securely attached to their mother.
b. have higher levels of performance on cognitive tests.
c. exhibit delays in the development of gender constancy.
d. have fewer gender-role stereotypes.
The impact of maternal employment on child development has been found to be affected by several factors including the gender of the child and the family’s socioeconomic status.
Answer D is correct: One of the more consistent findings about maternal employment is that the children of working mothers have more flexible ideas about what behaviors are acceptable for males and females.
Answer B is incorrect: Maternal employment has been associated with positive outcomes for cognitive development for boys from low-SES families but possibly negative outcomes for boys from higher-SES families.
The correct answer is: have fewer gender-role stereotypes.
Which of the following is most likely to be an accurate description of the relationship between two sisters, ages 14 and 16?
Select one:
a. emotionally intense
b. somewhat distant but egalitarian
c. conflictual and resentful
d. competitive and aggressive
The studies have found that sibling relationships vary over the course of childhood and adolescence in a fairly predictable way. Information on this issue is provided in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials.
Answer B is correct: In adolescence, siblings spend less time together, their relationship becomes less emotionally intense and more distant, and the friction between them usually declines as they begin to view one another as equals.
The correct answer is: somewhat distant but egalitarian
Two-word sentences are characteristic of the speech of children at ________ months of age.
Select one:
A. 8 to 12
B. 12 to 18
C. 18 to 24
D. 26 to 32
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the major language milestones described in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Two-word sentences are referred to as telegraphic speech, which is characteristic of children between the ages of 18 and 24 months and consists of the most important words (e.g., “my doll” and “give cake”).
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: 18 to 24
Carol Gilligan (1982) criticized Kohlberg's theory of moral development on the ground that it is: Select one:
A. less applicable to females than to males.
B. less applicable to members of minority groups than to Whites.
C. more applicable to highly educated individuals than to those with less education.
D. more applicable to religious than to nonreligious individuals.
Gilligan points out that Kohlberg’s original research participants were males and argues that, as a result, his theory of moral development is more applicable to males than to females.
a. CORRECT Based on her research, Gilligan concludes that the moral judgments of females are often influenced by concerns related to caring, compassion, and responsibility to others.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: less applicable to females than to males.
