Learning Theory - Domain Quiz

Question 1

Classical extinction occurs when:
Select one:

a. the CS is repeatedly presented alone.
b. the US is repeatedly presented alone.
c. the US and CS are presented simultaneously.
d. the CS is presented after the US.

Answer 1

Extinction refers to the elimination of a conditioned response (CR).

Answer A is correct: Extinction of a CR occurs when the conditioned stimulus (CS) is repeatedly presented without the unconditioned stimulus (US).

The correct answer is: the CS is repeatedly presented alone.

Question 2

Dr. Daniel Daggett presents Stimulus A along with a loud noise so that, eventually, a participant in his study reacts with a startle reaction whenever Stimulus A is presented alone. Dr. Daggett then pairs Stimulus B with Stimulus A so that Stimulus B also elicits a startle reaction when presented alone. This procedure is an example of:
Select one:

a. stimulus generalization.
b. higher-order conditioning.
c. response generalization.
d. shaping.

Answer 2

In this situation, a conditioned (neutral) stimulus is paired with an unconditioned stimulus so that the former eventually elicits a conditioned response. Then a second conditioned (neutral) stimulus is paired with the original conditioned stimulus so that it also elicits the conditioned response.

Answer B is correct: This procedure is referred to as higher-order conditioning and, in the second step, involves treating the original conditioned stimulus like an unconditioned stimulus when is paired with the second conditioned stimulus.

The correct answer is: higher-order conditioning.

Question 3

In one series of studies, Pavlov conditioned dogs to salivate in response to a black square but not in response to a light grey square. Subsequently, when the dogs were shown a medium grey square, they exhibited which of the following?
Select one:

a. overshadowing
b. spontaneous recovery
c. experimental neurosis
d. learned helplessness

Answer 3

This question is describing trials that required dogs to make difficult discriminations.

Answer C is correct: Pavlov found that difficult discriminations produced experimental neurosis – i.e., uncharacteristic behaviors that included extreme restlessness, agitation, and unprovoked aggression. Additional information on experimental neurosis is provided in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.

The correct answer is: experimental neurosis

Question 4

In Watson’s research, Little Albert’s fear of white fur and cotton was the result of:
Select one:

a. spontaneous recovery.
b. higher-order conditioning.
c. stimulus generalization.
d. experimental neurosis.

Answer 4

For the exam, you want to be familiar with all of the terms listed in the answers to this question. These terms are defined in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.

Answer C is correct: Watson used classical conditioning to establish a fear reaction in Little Albert to a white rat. Subsequently, Albert exhibited a great deal of stimulus generalization – i.e., he also exhibited a fear response to other white furry objects.

The correct answer is: stimulus generalization.

Question 5

Rescorla and Wagner (1972) contend that “blocking” occurs because:
Select one:

a. the second neutral stimulus does not provide new information about the US.
b. one neutral stimulus is more salient than the other neutral stimulus.
c. the new neutral stimulus is similar to the original CS.
d. one of the neutral stimuli is “overshadowed” by the US.

Answer 5

Blocking occurs when a new neutral stimulus and an established CS are presented together prior to the US.

Answer A is correct: According to Rescorla and Wagner, the new neutral stimulus does not elicit a CR when presented alone because it provides redundant information and, as a result, an association between that stimulus and the US is not made.

The correct answer is: the second neutral stimulus does not provide new information about the US.

Question 6

To reduce a client’s cigarette smoking, the client is exposed to several treatment sessions in which stale cigarette smoke is blown into his face soon after he begins to smoke a cigarette and this continues until he stops smoking. Eventually, the client feels nauseous whenever he even thinks about smoking. In this situation, the stale cigarette smoke has acted as:
Select one:

a. a conditioned stimulus.
b. an unconditioned stimulus.
c. a negative punisher.
d. a negative reinforcer.

Answer 6

In this situation, two stimuli are being “paired” in order to change the response that is elicited by one of the stimuli. This procedures describes classical conditioning, would eliminates Answers C and D since punishers and reinforcers are associated with operant conditioning.

Answer B is correct: The stale cigarette smoke naturally elicits nausea, so it is the unconditioned stimulus (US).

Answer A is incorrect: The cigarette is the conditioned stimulus (CS) in this situation. By being paired with stale cigarette smoke, it eventually elicits nausea.

Answer C is incorrect: A Skinnerian might describe the stale cigarette smoke as a positive (not negative) punishment, but a Skinnerian would not claim that a new response to smoking had been established, only that the person avoids cigarettes in order to avoid the punishment.

Answer D is incorrect: See explanations above.

The correct answer is: an unconditioned stimulus.

Question 7

Davidson and Parker’s (2001) meta-analysis of the research indicated that the effectiveness of EMDR as a treatment for PTSD is attributable to which of the following?
Select one:

a. positive self-statements
b. lateral eye movements
c. in vivo counterconditioning
d. exposure to feared stimuli in imagination

Answer 7

EMDR was originally developed as a treatment for PTSD but has since been applied to other disorders including panic attacks, depression, and substance use.

Answer D is correct: Based on their meta-analysis of the research, Davidson and Parker concluded that “eye movements are unnecessary and that EMDR may be viewed as an imaginal exposure technique” (2001, p. 2). Additional information about EMDR is provided in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.

The correct answer is: exposure to feared stimuli in imagination

Question 8

In vivo aversion therapy would be most effective as a treatment for which of the following?
Select one:

a. Specific Phobia
b. Paraphilia
c. PTSD
d. Factitious Disorder

Answer 8

In vivo aversion therapy is used to eliminate a maladaptive behavior by pairing that behavior (or stimuli associated with it) with a stimulus that naturally elicits an undesirable response.

Answer B is correct: In vivo aversion therapy is used to treat PARAPHILIAS, ADDICTIONS, and SELF-INJURIOUS BEHAVIOURS. Additional information on this treatment is provided in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.

The correct answer is: Paraphilia

Question 9

In vivo exposure with response prevention (flooding) and implosive therapy are both based on:
Select one:

a. mediated generalization.
b. graded desensitization.
c. counterconditioning.
d. classical extinction.

Answer 9

Flooding and implosive therapy both involve exposing an individual to the CS without the US.

Answer D is correct: Classical extinction is used to extinguish (eliminate) a conditioned response and involves presenting the CS without the US.

Answer A is incorrect: Mediated generalization is another name for stimulus generalization, which involves responding to similar stimuli with the same conditioned response.

Answer B is incorrect: As its name implies, graded desensitization involves a gradual exposure to the feared stimulus. Flooding and implosive therapy both involve exposure to a high intensity stimulus.

Answer C is incorrect: Counterconditioning entails presenting a US that is incompatible with the CS so that the current response (e.g., anxiety) is eventually replaced by the desired response (e.g., relaxation).

The correct answer is: classical extinction.

Question 10

Studies using the dismantling strategy suggest that which of the following is most responsible for the therapeutic benefits of systematic desensitization?
Select one:

a. counterconditioning
b. exposure
c. positive reinforcement
d. blocking

Answer 10

Systematic desensitization was originally developed as an application of counterconditioning, but the research suggests that its beneficial effects are due to a different procedure.

Answer B is correct: The dismantling strategy involves comparing the components of an intervention to determine which components are responsible for the intervention’s effects. Research using this strategy has found that the key component of systematic desensitization is exposure to the feared stimulus (CS) without the US, which results in extinction of the CR.

The correct answer is: exposure

Question 11

When using covert sensitization:
Select one:

a. the CS and US are presented in imagination.
b. the CS and US are presented simultaneously.
c. the least anxiety-arousing stimuli are presented first.
d. the most anxiety-arousing stimuli are presented first.

Answer 11

Covert sensitization is a type of aversive counterconditioning.

Answer A is correct: When using covert sensitization, the CS and US are presented in imagination rather than in vivo (reality).

The correct answer is: the CS and US are presented in imagination.

Question 12

Which of the following treatments combines exposure to a feared stimulus with a psychodynamic interpretation of the fear?
Select one:

a. overcorrection
b. implosive therapy
c. covert sensitization
d. flooding

Answer 12

Of the responses given, only one consists of a combination of behavioral techniques and psychodynamic principles.

Answer B is correct: Implosive therapy combines classical extinction with psychodynamic interpretation. It is often used to treat phobias and to eliminate self-reinforcing behaviors.

Answer A is incorrect: Overcorrection is an operant technique that is usually classified as a type of punishment.

Answer C is incorrect: Covert sensitization is a type of aversive counterconditioning that is conducted in imagination. It does not incorporate psychodynamic interpretation.

Answer D is incorrect: Flooding is a type of in vivo exposure with response prevention that involves exposing the individual to the most anxiety-arousing stimuli for a prolonged period of time.

The correct answer is: implosive therapy

Question 13

When using the procedure known as higher-order conditioning, the first step is to present the CS prior to the US until a CR is established. In the next step:

a. the CS is presented alone until the CR is extinguished
b. the US is presented prior to the CS until the CR is extinguished
c. a second CS is paired with the first CS until the second CS also elicits a CR.
d. the original CS and the second CS are simultaneously presented prior to the US.

Answer 13

Correct answer: C

b. this is backward conditioning.
c. Correct
d. this is blocking.

Question 14

Pavlov produced “experimental neurosis” in his research subjects by:

a. using second-order conditioning.
b. presenting the US prior to the CS.
c. making it impossible for them to escape an aversive stimulus.
d. requiring them to discriminate between very similar stimuli.

Answer 14

Correct answer: D

a. second-order conditioning is the same as higher-order conditioning
b. this is backward conditioning.
c. this is Seligman’s learned helplessness.
d. Correct

Question 15

Which of the following is true about flooding and implosive therapy?

a. They both involve exposure to an aversive unconditioned stimulus.
b. They both lead to extinction of the undesirable response.
c. They are both based on reciprocal inhibition.
d. They are both based on operant conditioning.

Answer 15

Correct answer: B

a. Flooding involves exposure to conditioned stimulus.
b. This accurately describes flooding. Implosive therapy does so with imagination.
c. They’re both based on extinction.
d. Flooding is based on classical conditioning.

Question 16

According to the __________, the relative frequency of responding to an alternative corresponds to the frequency of reinforcement for responding to that alternative.
Select one:

a. law of effect
b. matching law
c. law of contiguity
d. Premack Principle

Answer 16

Although this sentence is difficult to “translate,” it is basically saying that the frequency of responding matches the frequency of reinforcement.

Answer B is correct: The statement in the question defines the matching law (Herrnstein, 1970), which states that the frequency of responding to two or more alternatives (e.g., pressing two or more levers) matches the frequency of being reinforced for doing so.

Answer A is incorrect: According to Thorndike’s law of effect, a behavior that is followed by a “satisfying consequence” will be likely to occur again.

Answer C is incorrect: The law of contiguity states that learning depends on the proximity of stimuli in space and time.

Answer D is incorrect: The Premack Principle is a type of positive reinforcement that involves using a high frequency behavior as a reinforcer for a low frequency behavior.

The correct answer is: matching law

Question 17

A mother finds that, when she yells at her son, the boy stops picking on his little sister for a brief period of time. Over time, the mother finds that she has to yell more and more frequently at the boy to get him to leave his sister alone. The boy is influencing his mother’s behavior (yelling) through:
Select one:

a. negative punishment.
b. positive punishment.
c. negative reinforcement.
d. positive reinforcement.

Answer 17

In this situation, the mother’s yelling is increasing because, when she yells, the boy stops picking on his sister.

Answer C is correct: The mother’s yelling is increasing, which means that it is being reinforced; and it is being reinforced by the removal of her son’s undesirable behavior, which means that it is being negatively reinforced. Additional information about reinforcement and punishment is provided in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.

Answer A is incorrect: By definition, punishment decreases a behavior – but, in this situation, the mother’s behavior is increasing.

Answer B is incorrect: See explanations for Answers A and C.

Answer D is incorrect: Positive reinforcement involves the application (rather than withdrawal) of a stimulus following a behavior.

The correct answer is: negative reinforcement.

Question 18

A mother has been giving her 3-year-old son a hug whenever he says “please” following a request. She decides to stop reinforcing her son in this way. Right after she stops hugging her son, she can expect that the frequency with which he says “please” will:
Select one:

a. quickly decrease.
b. slowly decrease.
c. temporarily increase.
d. stay the same.

Answer 18

Removal of reinforcement following a behavior ordinarily leads to a gradual extinction of that behavior. However, the termination of the behavior is not immediate.

Answer C is correct: When reinforcement for a previously reinforced response is removed, there is often a temporary “extinction burst” (increase in the response) before it begins to decrease.

The correct answer is: temporarily increase.

Question 19

A “scallop” in the cumulative recording is characteristic of which schedule of reinforcement?
Select one:

a. fixed interval
b. fixed ratio
c. variable interval
d. variable ratio

Answer 19

Each intermittent schedule of reinforcement is associated with a different pattern of responding.

Answer A is correct: On a fixed interval (FI) schedule, the subject stops responding once the reinforcement is delivered and then begins responding again toward the end of the interval. This produces a “scallop” in the cumulative recording.

The correct answer is: fixed interval

Question 20

During the initial stages of a behavior change intervention, verbal or nonverbal prompts may be needed to evoke the desired behavior. However, after the behavior is established, the prompts should be gradually removed. The gradual removal of prompts is referred to as:
Select one:

a. blocking.
b. shaping.
c. thinning.
d. fading.

Answer 20

For the exam, you want to be familiar with all of the terms listed in the answers to this question. These terms are defined in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.

Answer D is correct: The term “fading” is used to describe the gradual removal of a prompt.

The correct answer is: fading.

Question 21

Escape conditioning becomes avoidance conditioning when:
Select one:

a. a signal is provided that indicates that positive reinforcement will be withheld.
b. a signal is provided that indicates that an aversive stimulus is about to be delivered.
c. the target behavior is positively reinforced.
d. the discriminative stimulus is removed.

Answer 21

Escape and avoidance conditioning are both applications of negative reinforcement. For the exam, you want to be familiar with the difference between them.

Answer B is correct: Avoidance conditioning is more complex than escape conditioning and involves presenting a cue immediately before the aversive stimulus is applied so that the individual can avoid the aversive stimulus by engaging in the target behavior as soon as the cue is presented. Additional information about escape and avoidance conditioning is provided in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.

The correct answer is: a signal is provided that indicates that an aversive stimulus is about to be delivered.

Question 22

In the context of stimulus control, a positive discriminative stimulus:
Select one:

a. signals that a behavior will be reinforced.
b. signals that the individual can choose between two or more reinforcers.
c. is a type of primary reinforcer.
d. is a type of secondary reinforcer.

Answer 22

When the occurrence of a behavior is affected by the presence of a discriminative stimulus, the behavior is said to be under stimulus control.

Answer A is correct: A positive discriminative stimulus indicates that the behavior will be reinforced, while a negative discriminative stimulus indicates that it will not be reinforced.

The correct answer is: signals that a behavior will be reinforced.

Question 23

Thorndike’s research with cats in puzzle boxes provided information about:
Select one:

a. trial-and-error learning.
b. insight learning.
c. generative learning.
d. overlearning.

Answer 23

Thorndike was interested in the slow, trial-and-error nature of the cats’ learning.

Answer A is correct: He concluded that learning was not due to mental events but to connections that develop between stimuli and responses as the result of trial-and-error.

The correct answer is: trial-and-error learning.

Question 24

A chimpanzee pushes a button to turn on a tone. Once the tone sounds, the chimpanzee pulls a lever to turn on a green light. Once the green light is on, the chimpanzee slides a door open to obtain a treat. Which of the following techniques was used to teach this sequence of behaviors to the chimpanzee?
Select one:

a. forward conditioning
b. differential reinforcement
c. shaping
d. chaining

Answer 24

For the exam, you want to be familiar with all of the techniques listed in the answers to this question. These are described in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.

Answer D is correct: Chaining is used to establish a complex sequence of behaviors (i.e., a “behavioral chain”) like the one described in this question.

The correct answer is: chaining

Question 25

An operant technique in which all opportunities for positive reinforcement are made unavailable for a specified period of time following the performance of an undesirable behavior in order to reduce that behavior is known as: Select one: a. response cost. b. overcorrection. c. time-out. d. classical extinction.

Answer 25

For the exam, you want to be familiar with all of the techniques listed in the answers to this question. These are described in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials. Answer C is correct: Time-out is also known as "time-out from positive reinforcement" and involves removing all reinforcement for a specified period of time following a behavior in order to decrease or eliminate that behavior. The correct answer is: time-out.

Question 26

``` A teacher uses verbal reprimands whenever students in his class misbehave in order to reduce their misbehavior. If the reprimands have the desired effect, they are acting as which of the following? Select one: ``` a. positive punishment b. negative punishment c. positive reinforcement d. negative reinforcement

Answer 26

For the exam, you want to be able to distinguish between the different types of punishment and reinforcement so that you can answer questions like this one. Additional information about punishment and reinforcement is provided in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials. Answer A is correct: Verbal reprimands are used to reduce an undesirable behavior and involve applying a stimulus following that behavior -- i.e., they are a form of positive punishment. Answer B is incorrect: Negative punishment involves removing a stimulus following a behavior in order to reduce or eliminate that behavior. Answer C is incorrect: Positive reinforcement involves applying a stimulus following a behavior in order to increase that behavior. Answer D is incorrect: Negative reinforcement involves removing a stimulus following a behavior in order to increase that behavior. The correct answer is: positive punishment

Question 27

Differential reinforcement is best conceptualized as which of the following? Select one: a. a combination of punishment and positive reinforcement b. a combination of extinction and positive reinforcement c. a straightforward application of positive reinforcement d. a straightforward application of negative reinforcement

Answer 27

Differential reinforcement involves reinforcing all behaviors except the target behavior. Answer B is correct: When using differential reinforcement, the individual receives positive reinforcement for desirable behaviors while the target behavior is ignored. In other words, desirable behaviors are positively reinforced while the target behavior is extinguished. An example of differential reinforcement is provided in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials. The correct answer is: a combination of extinction and positive reinforcement

Question 28

"Grandma's rule" -- e.g., "You must eat your string beans before you can go outside to play" -- is most similar to which of the following techniques? Select one: a. Premack Principle b. escape conditioning c. response cost d. negative practice

Answer 28

For the exam, you want to be familiar with all of the techniques listed in the answers to this question. These are described in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials. Answer A is correct: Use of a high-frequency behavior (going out to play) to reinforce a low-frequency behavior (eating string beans) to increase the low-frequency behavior is referred to as the Premack Principle. The correct answer is: Premack Principle

Question 29

In a token economy, the tokens are: Select one: a. back-up reinforcers. b. generalized secondary reinforcers. c. discriminitive stimuli. d. unconditioned stimuli.

Answer 29

A token economy is a structured environment in which desirable behaviors are reinforced with tokens that can be exchanged for desired items, activities, etc. Answer B is correct: Tokens are generalized secondary reinforcers that have value only because they can be exchanged for primary reinforcers. Answer A is incorrect: The items and activities that can be "purchased" with tokens are back-up (primary) reinforcers. Answer C is incorrect: Discriminative stimuli signal whether or not a particular behavior will be reinforced. Answer D is incorrect: Tokens are conditioned (not unconditioned) stimuli since they have no reinforcing value on their own but are reinforcing only because they can be exchanged for desirable items, activities, etc. The correct answer is: generalized secondary reinforcers.

Question 30

The technique known as "overcorrection" consists of: Select one: a. education, behavioral rehearsal, and generalization. b. positive punishment, positive practice, and generalization. c. restitution, positive practice, and physical guidance. d. restitution, behavioral rehearsal, and differential reinforcement.

Answer 30

Overcorrection is usually classified as a type of positive punishment and involves applying a penalty following an undesirable behavior in order to eliminate it. Answer C is correct: Overcorrection consists of two phases -- restitution and positive practice. In addition, it may also require physically guiding the individual through the corrective behaviors. [RPPP] The correct answer is: restitution, positive practice, and physical guidance.

Question 31

You would conduct a functional behavioral assessment to: Select one: a. identify an examinee's strengths and weaknesses with regard to a specific content domain. b. identify the antecedents and consequences that control or maintain a specific behavior. c. determine the expectations of others (e.g., parents or teachers) regarding a child's performance. d. determine the knowledge and skills required to perform a job or task successfully.

Answer 31

As its name implies, a functional behavioral assessment (FBA) is conducted to identify the functions of a behavior. Answer B is correct: An FBA is conducted to identify the environmental factors (antecedents and consequences) that control the target behavior. The correct answer is: identify the antecedents and consequences that control or maintain a specific behavior.

Question 32

A researcher designs a study to investigate college students' expectations regarding their ability to master a new skill, achieve a particular goal, or produce a particular outcome. Apparently, this researcher is interested in which of the following phenomena? Select one: a. locus of control b. need for achievement c. self-actualization d. self-efficacy

Answer 32

For the exam, you want to be familiar with all of the constructs listed in the answers to this question. Answer D is correct: Bandura used the term self-efficacy to refer to an individual's beliefs or expectations regarding his or her ability to perform specific behaviors. For example, a person has high self-efficacy beliefs when she believes that she has the knowledge or skills necessary to successfully complete a particular task. Of the phenomena listed in the answers, self-efficacy best describes the researcher's interest. Answer A is incorrect: Rotter used the term locus of control to refer to a person's beliefs about the factors that control his or her outcomes, and he distinguished between an internal and external locus of control. Answer B is incorrect: McClelland used the term need for achievement to refer to an acquired characteristic that motivates individuals to undertake tasks when there is a moderate probability for successful performance. Answer C is incorrect: As defined by Maslow, self-actualization refers to the full use or development of one's potential. The correct answer is: self-efficacy

Question 33

Bandura's notion of reciprocal determinism is useful for explaining: Select one: a. how a more desirable response can be used to replace an undesirable response. b. how the individual and his or her environment influence each other. c. how learning can occur without being manifested in performance. d. why a behavior is performed without being internally or externally reinforced.

Answer 33

As defined by Bandura, reciprocal determinism refers to the interactions between a person's characteristics, the person's behavior, and the environment. Answer B is correct: Bandura rejected the behavioral view of the environment as a one-way determinant of behavior and proposed, instead, that there is a reciprocal (influential and interactive) relationship between the person's cognitive, affective, and other characteristics, the person's behavior, and the environment. Answer A is incorrect: This answer describes Wolpe's notion of reciprocal inhibition. Answer C is incorrect: Although Bandura believed that learning can occur without being manifested in performance, this is not a prediction or assumption of his notion of reciprocal determinism. Answer D is incorrect: Bandura's social learning theory addresses the role of reinforcement in the acquisition of a behavior, but this part of his theory is not directly relevant to the notion of reciprocal determinism. In addition, the theory states that learning of a behavior can occur without reinforcement but performance of that behavior is more likely when the behavior is reinforced. The correct answer is: how the individual and his or her environment influence each other.

Question 34

Bandura's research on the effects of modeling for treating snake phobia found that which of the following was the most effective strategy? Select one: a. symbolic modeling b. participant modeling c. covert modeling d. vicarious modeling

Answer 34

Bandura's research on observational learning included comparing the effectiveness of several types of modeling. Answer B is correct: Bandura found that participant modeling (observing a model followed by guided participation) was the most effective method for eliminating phobic reactions. Additional information about Bandura's theory and research is provided in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials. The correct answer is: participant modeling

Question 35

From the perspective of the reformulated version of the learned helplessness model, depression results when a person attributes negative events to: Select one: a. external, stable, and global factors. b. external, unstable, and specific factors. c. internal, unstable, and specific factors. d. internal, stable, and global factors.

Answer 35

Abramson et al.'s (1978) reformulated version of the learned helplessness model added attributions for negative events to the original model. Answer D is correct: According to the reformulated version, people who are depressed tend to blame themselves for negative events, believe that negative events will always happen to them, and think that negativity will affect all aspects of their lives -- i.e., they make internal, stable, and global attributions. The correct answer is: internal, stable, and global factors.

Question 36

Kohler's (1925) research with chimpanzees led to his description of which of the following? Select one: a. cognitive maps b. observational learning c. insight learning d. "superstitious" behavior

Answer 36

Kohler's research led him to conclude that learning can be the result of an "aha" experience. Answer C is correct: Kohler proposed that learning can be the result of insight (an "aha" experience) that reflects an internal cognitive restructuring of the environment that allows the organism to achieve its goals. Answer A is incorrect: Tolman concluded that rats in his studies had developed cognitive maps of the mazes they were allowed to explore. Answer B is incorrect: Bandura is associated with observational learning. Answer D is incorrect: Skinner found that accidental, noncontingent reinforcement can lead to "superstitious" behavior. The correct answer is: insight learning

Question 37

Tolman used the notion of "cognitive maps" as support for which of the following? Select one: a. the law of effect b. insight learning c. latent learning d. observational learning

Answer 37

For the exam, you want to be familiar with all of the phenomena listed in the answers to this question. These are described in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials. Answer C is correct: Tolman's notion of cognitive maps was derived from his research in which rats were allowed to explore a maze without being reinforced for doing so. The results indicated that the animals had learned something about the maze -- i.e., they had formed cognitive maps. This led Tolman to conclude that learning can occur without apparent changes or improvements in behavior and he referred to this as latent learning. The correct answer is: latent learning

Question 38

According to Beck (1967, 1984), ideas or images that come without effort and that elicit an emotional reaction are: Select one: a. cognitive distortions. b. automatic thoughts. c. prototypes. d. schemata.

Answer 38

Beck distinguishes between automatic thoughts, cognitive distortions, and cognitive schemas. Answer B is correct: This is an accurate description of automatic thoughts, which occur automatically and elicit an emotional response. Answer A is incorrect: Cognitive distortions are maladaptive ways of processing information and may underlie automatic thoughts. Answer C is incorrect: Prototypes are models that contain the most salient or typical features of an event, object, etc. Answer D is incorrect: Schemata are cognitive structures that guide an individual's perceptions and appraisals. The correct answer is: automatic thoughts.

Question 39

A practitioner of Beck's cognitive therapy uses __________ questions to help clients identify and correct their logical errors and biases. Select one: a. Socratic b. exception c. circular d. scaling

Answer 39

Socratic questioning (dialogue) involves asking questions designed to help the client identify and replace maladaptive beliefs. Answer A is correct: Examples of Socratic questions include "Is there any evidence for this belief?" and "What are the advantages and disadvantages of thinking this way?" Answer B is incorrect: Exception questions are used by solution-focused therapies to help identify times in a client's life that were not problematic. Answer C is incorrect: Circular questions are used by Milan systemic therapists to help family members recognize similarities and differences in their perceptions. Answer D is incorrect: Scaling questions are used by solution-focused therapists to measure changes in attitude, motivation, feelings, etc. The correct answer is: Socratic

Question 40

A therapy client says, "I feel useless and incompetent and, therefore, I must be a worthless, incompetent person." As described by Aaron Beck, this is an example of: Select one: a. selective abstraction. b. overgeneralization. c. personalization. d. emotional reasoning.

Answer 40

For the exam, you want to be familiar with the cognitive distortions listed in the answers to this question. These are described in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials. Answer D is correct: Emotional reasoning occurs when a person believes that things are a certain way because he or she feels they are that way (i.e., "I feel, therefore I am"). The correct answer is: emotional reasoning.

Question 41

Biofeedback is more effective than relaxation training for which of the following? Select one: a. lower back pain b. hypertension c. insomnia d. Raynaud's disease

Answer 41

Researchers have compared the effectiveness of biofeedback and relaxation training for a number of disorders including those listed in the answers to this question. Answer D is correct: As noted in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials, the research has found relaxation training to be as effective or more effective than biofeedback for lower back pain, hypertension, and insomnia. However, thermal biofeedback is more effective for Raynaud's disease. The correct answer is: Raynaud's disease

Question 42

Cognitive preparation, skills acquisition, and application and follow-through are the three overlapping phases of which of the following strategies? Select one: a. problem-solving therapy b. attribution retraining c. stress inoculation d. self-instructional training

Answer 42

For the exam, you want to be familiar with all of the strategies listed in the answers to this question. These are described in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials. Answer C is correct: Stress inoculation was designed to help people deal effectively with stress by enhancing their coping skills. It consists of the three phases listed in this question (cognitive preparation, skills acquisition, and application and follow-through). The correct answer is: stress inoculation

Question 43

In Albert Ellis's A-B-C model, B refers to: Select one: a. behaviors and emotions that occur in response to an antecedent event. b. beliefs about an antecedent event. c. behaviors and emotions that occur in response to beliefs about an antecedent event. d. biological (physiological) responses to an antecedent event.

Answer 43

Ellis's Rational-Emotive Behavior Therapy (REBT) is based on the assumption that emotional and behavioral reactions are the result of a chain of events. Answer B is correct: In Ellis's model, A refers to the antecedent event; B is the person's belief about the antecedent event; and C is the emotional or behavioral consequence (response) to B. The correct answer is: beliefs about an antecedent event.

Question 44

Rehm's self-control therapy focuses on which of the following? Select one: a. self-monitoring, self-evaluation, and self-reinforcement b. self-esteem, self-determination, and self-evaluation c. self-monitoring, self-management, and self-actualization d. self-evaluation, self-determination, and self-acceptance

Answer 44

Rehm's self-control therapy is based on the assumption that deficits in three aspects of self-control can increase a person's vulnerability to depression. Answer A is correct: Self-monitoring, self-evaluation, and self-reinforcement are the three targets of self-control therapy. The correct answer is: self-monitoring, self-evaluation, and self-reinforcement

Question 45

The notion of "collaborative empiricism" is associated with: Select one: a. Ellis. b. Beck. c. Adler. d. Perls.

Answer 45

Collaborative empiricism refers to the collaborative relationship between client and therapist that involves working together to gather data and test the logic of the client's thoughts and beliefs. Answer B is correct: Collaborative empiricism is a key strategy of Beck's cognitive-behavioral therapy. When using this strategy, the therapist and client work together to gather evidence and test hypotheses about the client's beliefs. The correct answer is: Beck.

Question 46

A person with deficits in prospective memory will have trouble: Select one: a. remembering a future meeting with a co-worker. b. remembering what she did on her last birthday. c. recalling how to play the violin after not doing so for several years. d. recalling the information needed to answer this question.

Answer 46

Prospective memory refers to the ability to remember to perform an action in the future. Answer A is correct: A person with deficits in prospective memory would have trouble remembering a future meeting or appointment. Answer B is incorrect: Deficits in episodic memory would affect the ability to recall a personally experienced event that occurred in the past. Answer C is incorrect: Deficits in procedural memory might affect a person's ability to recall how to play a musical instrument. Answer D is incorrect: Deficits in semantic memory might affect the ability to recall the answer to this question. The correct answer is: remembering a future meeting with a co-worker.

Question 47

A research participant remembers a list of unrelated words by envisioning each item in a different location in her living room while memorizing and then recalling the list (e.g., one item on the TV, one under the coffee table, one on the chair). This is referred to as: Select one: a. the keyword method. b. the method of loci. c. the serial position effect. d. elaborative rehearsal.

Answer 47

For the exam, you want to be familiar with all of the terms listed in the answers to this question. They are described in the section on memory and forgetting in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials. Answer B is correct: The method of loci ("method of places") is a mnemonic device that makes use of visual imagery. The correct answer is: the method of loci.

Question 48

As conceptualized in Baddeley and Hitch's (1974) multi-component model, the ________ is responsible for directing attention to relevant sensory information. Select one: a. cognitive sketchpad b. sensory coding system c. central executive d. episodic buffer

Answer 48

According to the multi-component model, working memory consists of a central executive and three subsystems -- the phonological loop, the visuo-spatial sketchpad, and the episodic buffer. Answer C is correct: The central executive is the primary component of working memory and acts as an "attentional control system." Additional information about this model is provided in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials. The correct answer is: central executive

Question 49

Craik and Lockhart's (1972) levels-of-processing model: Select one: a. describes memory in terms of a "dual store." b. implies that elaborative rehearsal is more effective than maintenance rehearsal. c. focuses on the biological correlates of sensory, short-term, and long-term memory. d. implies that the duration of rehearsal is more important than the depth of rehearsal.

Answer 49

As its name suggests, the levels-of-processing model assumes that memory for information is affected by the depth of processing of that information. Answer B is correct: The levels-of-processing model distinguishes between three levels -- structural, phonemic, and semantic. The deepest and most effective level is the semantic ("meaning") level, and elaborative rehearsal involves encoding information at the semantic level. The correct answer is: implies that elaborative rehearsal is more effective than maintenance rehearsal.

Question 50

Echoic is to iconic as: Select one: a. procedural is to declarative. b. temporary is to permanent. c. external is to internal. d. auditory is to visual.

Answer 50

The terms echoic and iconic provide cues as to what they refer to -- i.e., "echo" suggests sound, while "icon" suggests an image. Answer D is correct: The terms echoic and iconic are used to describe sensory memories and refer, respectively, to memory for auditory stimuli and memory for visual stimuli. The correct answer is: auditory is to visual.

Question 51

In high school, Stuart S. took Spanish for four years and, as a result, became a pretty good speaker of Spanish. During his first year of college, Stuart took French and, at the end of the year, he found that he had trouble remembering many Spanish words. This is best explained by which of the following? Select one: a. retroactive interference b. proactive interference c. anterograde decay d. retrograde decay

Answer 51

For the exam, you want to be able to distinguish between retroactive and proactive interference so that you can answer questions like this one. The Learning Theory chapter includes diagrams that may help you distinguish between them. Answer A is correct: Retroactive interference occurs when something learned in the present interferes with the ability to recall something learned in the past. Answer B is incorrect: Proactive interference occurs when something learned in the past interferes with the ability to learn or recall something learned in the present. Answer C is incorrect: See explanation for Answer A. Answer D is incorrect: See explanation for Answer A. The correct answer is: retroactive interference

Question 52

Sensory memory: Select one: a. holds a very small amount of sensory data for a brief period. b. holds a very small amount of sensory data for a long period. c. holds a large amount of sensory data for a brief period. d. holds a large amount of sensory data for a long period.

Answer 52

The multi-store (information processing) model divides memory into three components -- sensory, short-term, and long-term. Answer C is correct: While sensory memory seems to be able to hold a large amount of incoming sensory information, it does so for no more than a few seconds. The correct answer is: holds a large amount of sensory data for a brief period.

Question 53

Studies on the "serial position effect" have provided information on: Select one: a. primacy and recency effects. b. retrograde and anterograde amnesia. c. echoic and iconic memory. d. proactive and retroactive interference.

Answer 53

The serial position effect is the tendency to recall items at the beginning and end of a list better than items in the middle of the list. Answer A is correct: Enhanced recall of items at the beginning of a list is referred to as the primacy effect, while enhanced recall of items at the end of a list is called the recency effect. The correct answer is: primacy and recency effects.

Question 54

A psychologist who views learning as the result of operant conditioning would likely attribute the acquisition of complex behaviors to which of the following? Select one: A. behavioral chaining B. stimulus substitution C. higher-order conditioning D. stimulus generalization

Answer 54

From the perspective of operant conditioning, new behaviors are acquired as the result of reinforcement. a. CORRECT When using chaining (also known as behavioral chaining), each response in the chain of responses required to learn and perform a complex behavior serves as reinforcement for the previous response in the chain. b. Incorrect Pavlov used the term stimulus substitution to describe the connection between a CS and US - i.e., as the result of this connection, the CS substitutes for the US. c. Incorrect Higher-order conditioning is a form of classical conditioning involving the pairing of a neutral stimulus with a conditioned stimulus so that the neutral stimulus also elicits the conditioned response. d. Incorrect Stimulus generalization is occurring when stimuli similar to the conditioned stimulus also elicit the conditioned response. It explains why behaviors occur in situations outside the context in which they were originally learned. The correct answer is: behavioral chaining

Question 55

"If a child's whining and crying secures his parents' attention, the child is likely to whine and cry again." Which of the following individuals is most likely to agree with this statement? Select one: A. Bandura B. Ebbinghaus C. Watson D. Thorndike

Answer 55

The statement in this question asserts that a behavior followed by a positive (satisfying) consequence will increase. This is a premise of operant conditioning and is referred to as positive reinforcement. a. Incorrect Although Bandura recognizes the role of reinforcement in the acquisition and performance of behavior, his social learning theory proposes that people can acquire behaviors simply by observing others perform those behaviors. In addition, Bandura places more emphasis on the role of internal (versus external) reinforcement. b. Incorrect Ebbinghaus is associated with research on memory and forgetting. c. Incorrect Watson is associated with classical conditioning, not operant conditioning. d. CORRECT The first name that probably came to mind when you read this question was Skinner, but, unfortunately, his name is not one of the answers. However, Thorndike was a predecessor of Skinner and proposed the law of effect, which predicts that behaviors that are followed by satisfying consequences will tend to occur again. The correct answer is: Thorndike

Question 56

In a research study, Variable B is paired with Variable A so that, eventually, the response automatically produced by Variable A is also produced by Variable B. Then, Variable C is paired with Variable B so that it produces the same response. Based on this information, you can conclude that this study was designed to investigate which of the following? Select one: A. pseudoconditioning B. spontaneous recovery C. two-factor learning D. higher-order conditioning

Answer 56

The term "paired with" suggests that this study is investigating some form of classical conditioning - i.e., in classical conditioning, presentation of a conditioned stimulus is paired with presentation of an unconditioned stimulus so that the conditioned stimulus produces a response that is similar to the one produced by the unconditioned stimulus. a. Incorrect In classical conditioning, pseudoconditioning occurs when (1) the neutral stimulus is accidentally paired with the US and, as a result, produces a response similar to the UR or (2) repeated presentation of the US increases the likelihood that the individual will respond to a novel stimulus (not just the US or CS) with a response similar to the UR, especially in the same context in which the US was presented b. Incorrect Spontaneous recovery refers to the return of a classically conditioned response or an operant response following extinction. c. Incorrect Two-factor learning (e.g., avoidance conditioning) combines classical and operant condition, which is not occurring in the study described in this question. d. CORRECT In higher-order conditioning, the initial conditioned stimulus (CS) is treated as an unconditioned stimulus (US) and paired with a neutral stimulus so that the neutral stimulus also produces a conditioned response. This question describes the procedure used in higher-order conditioning. The correct answer is: higher-order conditioning

Question 57

Meichenbaum and Goodman (1971) originally developed self-instructional training as an intervention for: Select one: A. impulsivity. B. schizophrenia. C. depression. D. obesity.

Answer 57

Self-instructional training is a cognitive-behavioral technique that is used to teach people to make positive and helpful self-statements when they encounter problematic situations. a. CORRECT Although self-instructional training has subsequently been used to treat a variety of disorders, it was originally described by D. H. Meichenbaum and J. Goodman as a method for helping children control their impulsive behaviors (Training impulsive children to talk to themselves: A means of developing self-control, Journal of Abnormal Psychology, 1971, 77, 115-126). b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: impulsivity.

Question 58

Emelina E., age 4, has learned that, when she approaches her father while he is watching a football game on TV, her father ignores her, but when she approaches her father while he is watching any other type of TV show, he is willing to talk to and play with her. As a result, Emelina only approaches her father when he is not watching football. Emelina's behavior illustrates which of the following? Select one: A. stimulus fading B. shaping C. stimulus control D. pseudoconditioning

Answer 58

Emelina has learned that she will not be reinforced for approaching her father when he is watching a football game but will be reinforced if she approaches him when he is watching other types of TV shows. a. Incorrect Stimulus fading refers to the gradual elimination of a discriminative stimulus. In this situation, the discriminative stimulus (type of TV show) is not being gradually eliminated. b. Incorrect Shaping is a type of positive reinforcement in which successive approximations to the desired behavior are reinforced. c. CORRECT A behavior is "under stimulus control" when it is more likely to occur in the presence of certain stimuli than in the presence of other stimuli because the stimuli signal whether or not reinforcement for the behavior will be provided. d. Incorrect Pseudoconditioning occurs when a neutral stimulus elicits a response due to the accidental pairing of the stimulus with another stimulus that evokes that response or when repeated exposure to a US increases the likelihood that the individual will respond to a neutral stimulus with a response similar to the UR. The correct answer is: stimulus control

Question 59

Stimulus control is used in the treatment of obesity to: Select one: A. replace the clients pleasurable sensations related to eating with unpleasant sensations. B. ensure that the client is consistently reinforced for appropriate eating behaviors. C. replace eating behaviors with alternative activities. D. limit the client's exposure to events and objects that prompt overeating.

Answer 59

As its name implies, stimulus control involves bringing a behavior under the control of specific stimuli or cues. Stimulus control is a key component of the behavioral treatment of obesity. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT In the behavioral treatment of obesity, stimulus control involves strengthening appropriate cues for eating while weakening inappropriate cues by, for example, having the individual eat only in certain locations and at specific times of the day. The correct answer is: limit the client's exposure to events and objects that prompt overeating.

Question 60

When treating a client with panic disorder, a practitioner of Beck's cognitive-behavioral therapy would initially help the client: Select one: A. identify and rehearse methods for alleviating his/her symptoms. B. understand how symptoms are affecting his/her interpersonal relationships and other aspects of his/her life. C. identify the underlying causes of his/her symptoms. D. see how he/she misinterprets the meaning of his/her symptoms.

Answer 60

As defined by Aaron Beck, the "goals of cognitive-behavior therapy are to correct faulty information processing and to modify dysfunctional beliefs and assumptions that maintain maladaptive behaviors and emotions" (Comprehensive Handbook of Cognitive Therapy, 1989, p. 28). a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT From the perspective of cognitive-behavior therapy, panic disorder stems from "catastrophic misinterpretations" of bodily sensations and mental experiences. Therefore, the first few sessions of therapy focus on clarifying the nature of the client"s symptoms and how he/she misinterprets them. The correct answer is: see how he/she misinterprets the meaning of his/her symptoms.

Question 61

From the perspective of learning theory, phobic anxiety is: Select one: A. elicited by unconditioned (aversive) stimuli or stimuli that have been associated with them. B. elicited by secondary punishing, frustrating, or otherwise aversive stimuli. C. the result of a low level of response-contingent reinforcement. D. the result of accidental pairings between intense levels of internal arousal and reinforcing stimuli.

Answer 61

Knowing that learning theorists consider anxiety to be the result of classical conditioning would have helped you identify the correct response to this question. a. CORRECT The classical conditioning explanation for anxiety is that it is produced by exposure to an unconditioned stimulus that naturally elicits anxiety or, perhaps more often, by exposure to a conditioned stimulus that has been paired with an unconditioned stimulus that naturally elicits anxiety. b. Incorrect The term "secondary" is ambiguous in this response and, therefore, this is not the best answer. Also, as noted above, anxiety can be due to aversive (unconditioned) stimuli or to conditioned stimuli that have been associated with aversive stimuli. c. Incorrect A low level of response-contingent reinforcement has been linked to depression, not to phobic anxiety. d. Incorrect This answer does not accurately describe the learning theory view of phobic anxiety. The correct answer is: elicited by unconditioned (aversive) stimuli or stimuli that have been associated with them.

Question 62

A behavioral psychologist warns that "a single exception can reinstate the target response and may even maintain it for an extended period of time." Apparently, the psychologist is referring to the use of which of the following operant techniques to eliminate an undesirable response? Select one: A. extinction B. shaping C. negative reinforcement D. chaining

Answer 62

The wording of this question implies that the correct answer must be a technique that is used to eliminate a response. a. CORRECT Intermittent reinforcement produces behaviors that are very resistant to extinction. Therefore, when using extinction to eliminate a behavior, all reinforcement for that behavior must be consistently withheld. If the behavior is reinforced even once, the behavior may be reinstated and the extinction process will have to begin again. b. Incorrect Shaping is used to establish a behavior and involves reinforcing successive approximations to the desired behavior. c. Incorrect Negative reinforcement is also used to increase a behavior and involves removing an undesirable consequence when the behavior is performed. d. Incorrect Chaining is used to establish complex behaviors. The correct answer is: extinction

Question 63

Operant extinction would NOT be the treatment-of-choice when: Select one: A. an alternative behavior cannot be identified. B. the behavior has been reinforced on a continuous schedule. C. a temporary increase in the behavior cannot be tolerated. D. the baseline levels of the behavior cannot be established.

Answer 63

Extinction is accomplished by withholding all reinforcement from a previously reinforced behavior. a. Incorrect It would be helpful to be simultaneously reinforcing an alternative behavior, but the absence of an alternative behavior would not rule out the use of extinction. b. Incorrect Behaviors that have been reinforced on a continuous schedule are easier to extinguish than those that have been reinforced on an intermittent schedule. c. CORRECT Extinction often produces an initial "extinction burst" (temporary increase in the target behavior). Consequently, it would be contraindicated when a temporary increase in the behavior cannot be tolerated. d. Incorrect It would be useful to have a baseline reading to determine the effects of the extinction procedure, but the absence of a baseline measure would not rule out the use of extinction. The correct answer is: a temporary increase in the behavior cannot be tolerated.

Question 64

When using operant extinction to decrease or eliminate a previously reinforced behavior, the first thing you will likely observe is: Select one: A. an initial increase in the behavior. B. a sharp reduction in the behavior. C. a gradual decline in the behavior. D. no change in the behavior.

Answer 64

Operant extinction involves removing reinforcement from a previously reinforced behavior in order to reduce or eliminate that behavior. a. CORRECT When using extinction, the withdrawal of reinforcement does not usually result in an immediate cessation of the behavior. Instead, the behavior often becomes more forceful and frequent before it begins to decline in severity or frequency. This phenomenon is referred to as a response (or extinction) burst. b. Incorrect See explanation above. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: an initial increase in the behavior.

Question 65

From the perspective of Beck's cognitive-behavioral therapy, the modification of maladaptive cognitions requires which of the following? Select one: A. a balance of intrinsic and extrinsic reinforcement B. the experience of affective arousal C. an adequate level of self-efficacy D. a sense of personal responsibility

Answer 65

As described in the section on cognitive-behavioral interventions in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials, Beck's approach is based on the assumption that certain conditions must be met for relevant cognitions to become accessible and modifiable. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT According to Beck, the modification of dysfunctional cognitions "can only occur if the patient is engaged in the problematic situation and experiences affective arousal" (A. T. Beck and M. Weishaar, Cognitive therapy, in A. Freeman, et al., eds., Comprehensive Handbook of Cognitive Therapy, New York, Plenum Press, 1989, p. 29). c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: the experience of affective arousal

Question 66

As described in the multi-store model, __________ memory is the aspect of memory that is involved in the recall of information acquired within the past few hours to days. Select one: A. working B. sensory C. long-term D. prospective

Answer 66

The multi-store model of memory divides it into three components: sensory, short-term, and long-term memory. Additional information about the multi-store model is provided in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials. a. Incorrect Working memory is part of short-term memory and is responsible for the temporary storage and manipulation of information (e.g., remembering a phone number until you have dialed it). b. Incorrect Sensory memory stores sensory information for very brief periods (up to several seconds). c. CORRECT Information acquired in the past few hours to days is stored in recent long-term memory. d. Incorrect Prospective memory refers to the ability to "remember to remember" (e.g., to remember a future appointment). The correct answer is: long-term

Question 67

The "tip-of-the-tongue" phenomenon is believed to be due to which of the following? Select one: A. trace decay B. inadequate retrieval cues C. retroactive interference D. attention deficits

Answer 67

The tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon refers to the sense that you know something (e.g., a song or movie title) but aren't able to recall it. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT One theory of the tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon is that it is due to a lack of cues that would faciliate retrieving information that is stored in long-term memory. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: inadequate retrieval cues

Question 68

The assumption underlying the use of implosive therapy for treating a phobia is that: Select one: A. extinction of a conditioned response occurs when positive reinforcement for that response is repeatedly withheld. B. extinction of a conditioned response occurs when the CS is repeatedly presented without the US. C. consistent application of an aversive stimulus following a response results in elimination of that response. D. pairing a maladaptive response with an alternative adaptive response eliminates the maladaptive response.

Answer 68

Implosive therapy uses classical extinction to eliminate an undesirable anxiety response. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT Implosive therapy involves having the client repeatedly imagine a feared stimulus (CS) in the absence of the stimulus (US) that initially evoked the fear in order to eliminate the conditioned fear response. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: extinction of a conditioned response occurs when the CS is repeatedly presented without the US.

Question 69

The keyword method is most useful for: Select one: A. remembering word pairs. B. remembering a long list of unrelated words. C. recalling the order of mathematical operations. D. mastering spatial relationships.

Answer 69

The keyword method is mnemonic device that involves forming an image that links two words. For example, to remember that ranidae is the scientific term for common frogs, you might create an image of a frog sitting in the rain under an umbrella. Additional information on mnemonic devices is provided in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials. a. CORRECT The keyword method is useful for learning pairs of words such as the English and Spanish equivalents for words or the capitals of states. b. Incorrect An acronym is more useful for learning lists of unrelated words. c. Incorrect The pegword method is useful for recalling ordered information. d. Incorrect The keyword method is not useful for mastering spatial relationships. The correct answer is: remembering word pairs.

Question 70

You are hired by an organization to develop an incentive program for salespeople. The personnel manager suggests that employees be given a bonus every time their monthly sales exceed their previous month's sales by at least 10%. However, you decide to give each salesperson a bonus after every sixth sale which means that most salespeople will receive a bonus every six to eight weeks. Your incentive program represents which schedule of reinforcement? Select one: A. variable interval B. variable ratio C. fixed interval D. fixed ratio

Answer 70

An important thing to notice when reading this question is that it is asking about the schedule you are recommending. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT In this situation, the delivery of reinforcement depends on the number of responses, with reinforcement being given for every sixth response (i.e., after every sixth sale). This represents a fixed ratio schedule. (Don't be misled by the statement "every six to eight weeks." It is the number of responses, not the time interval that determines when salespeople will receive a bonus.) Additional information on the schedules of reinforcement is provided in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials. The correct answer is: fixed ratio

Question 71

According to the levels of processing model of memory, words and other information may be encoded at different levels, with _______ processing being the deepest level. Select one: A. orthographic B. phonemic C. semantic D. perceptual

Answer 71

Craik and Lockhart's (1972) levels of processing model proposes that the level (depth) of processing of information affects how well that information is retained. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Craik and Lockhart distinguished between shallow and deep processing. According to their theory, shallow processing (processing words on the basis of their phonemic or orthographic characteristics) is less effective than deep processing (processing words at the semantic or meaning-based level). d. Incorrect Perceptual processing includes orthographic and phonemic processing, which are shallow levels. The correct answer is: semantic

Question 72

Research investigating the usefulness of modeling for treating specific phobias has found that which of the following methods is generally most effective? Select one: A. covert modeling B. symbolic modeling C. participant modeling D. vicarious modeling

Answer 72

Bandura and others have compared the effectiveness of different types of modeling for reducing phobias and other anxiety responses. a. Incorrect When using covert modeling, the individual is asked to imagine someone else engaging in the target behavior. b. Incorrect Symbolic modeling involves observing models indirectly - e.g., in films, videotapes, or books. c. CORRECT When using participant modeling, the model first engages in the target behavior (or an aspect of it) and then prompts the individual to engage in the same behavior. The research has found that participant modeling is the most effective form of modeling for treating phobias. d. Incorrect Vicarious (overt) modeling involves observing others successfully perform the target behavior. Vicarious modeling plus guided participation (i.e., participant modeling) is more effective for treating phobias than is vicarious modeling alone. The correct answer is: participant modeling

Question 73

When conducting a study to investigate the phenomenon known as "blocking," you will: Select one: A. present the CS prior to the US; then, once the CR is established, present the US prior to the CS. B. present the CS prior to the US; then, once the CR is established, present the CS prior to a second US. C. present the CS prior to the US; then, once the CR is established, present the original CS simultaneously with a second CS prior to the US. D. present the CS prior to the US; then, once the CR is established, present a second CS prior to the original CS.

Answer 73

Blocking occurs when two different conditioned stimuli are paired with the unconditioned stimulus. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT This is the procedure that is used to investigate blocking. Apparently, when this procedure is used, the second CS never becomes associated with the US and does not elicit a CR. One explanation for blocking is that it occurs because the second CS does not provide information beyond what is already provided by the original CS. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: present the CS prior to the US; then, once the CR is established, present the original CS simultaneously with a second CS prior to the US.

Question 74

Meichenbaum and Jaremko's (1982) stress inoculation is best described as a type of: Select one: A. coping skills training. B. crisis intervention. C. aversive counterconditioning. D. habit reversal training.

Answer 74

Stress inoculation is a cognitive-behavioral strategy that involves teaching clients the cognitive and behavioral skills they need to cope with future stressful situations. a. CORRECT During the course of stress inoculation, the client learns to distinguish between ineffective and effective thoughts, actions, etc. and is taught alternative cognitive and behavioral skills that lead to effective coping in stressful situations. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: coping skills training.

Question 75

Socratic dialogue and collaborative empiricism are most associated with which of the following therapeutic approaches? Select one: A. Kelly's personal construct therapy B. Glasser's reality therapy C. Ellis's rational-emotive behavioral therapy D. Beck's cognitive-behavioral therapy

Answer 75

Only one of the approaches listed in the answers conceptualizes therapy as involving collaborative empiricism and uses Socratic dialogue as a method for encouraging collaboration between the therapist and client. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Beck's cognitive-behavioral therapy is referred to as collaborative empiricism because it is founded on a collaborative therapist-client relationship that involves testing hypotheses about the client's beliefs and assumptions. Socratic dialogue is an important aspect of cognitive-behavioral therapy and is used to help the client question and challenge his/her underlying beliefs, obtain disconfirming evidence for those beliefs, and identify alternative beliefs. The correct answer is: Beck's cognitive-behavioral therapy

Question 76

Charging telephone customers for using directory assistance to obtain phone numbers in order to decrease their use of directory assistance is an application of which of the following? Select one: A. Premack Principle B. overcorrection C. negative reinforcement D. negative punishment

Answer 76

In this situation, money is being taken away following a behavior (use of directory assistance) in order to decrease that behavior. a. Incorrect The Premack Principle is a type of positive reinforcement and is used to increase a behavior. b. Incorrect Overcorrection involves having the individual engage in alternative behaviors (e.g., "fixing" the consequences of the undesirable behavior and/or practicing appropriate behaviors) whenever he/she performs the undesirable behavior. c. Incorrect Negative reinforcement is used to increase a behavior and involves removing an undesirable stimulus when that behavior is performed. d. CORRECT Negative punishment occurs when the removal of a stimulus following a behavior decreases the behavior. If you're having trouble distinguishing between positive and negative reinforcement and punishment, the summary table included in the section on principles of operant conditioning in the Learning Theory chapter may be helpful. The correct answer is: negative punishment

Question 77

When using punishment to modify behavior, habituation is most likely to be a problem when: Select one: A. the intensity of the punishment is gradually increased over time. B. the individual is given brief vacations from punishment. C. different methods of punishment are alternately applied to the target behavior. D. the use of punishment is restricted to one or two (versus numerous) behaviors.

Answer 77

In the context of punishment, habituation refers to a reduction in the effectiveness of punishment. a. CORRECT Gradually increasing the intensity of punishment over time (i.e., beginning with a weak form of punishment and then gradually increasing its intensity) increases the likelihood that habituation will occur. In contrast, the methods listed in answers b, c, and d are useful for reducing habituation. See, e.g., D. C. Lerman and C. M. Vorndran, On the status of knowledge for using punishment: Implications for treating behavior disorders, Journal of Applied Behavior Analysis, 2002, 35, 431-464. b. Incorrect See explanation above. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: the intensity of the punishment is gradually increased over time.

Question 78

The use of shaping to establish a complex behavior depends on which of the following? Select one: A. desensitization B. positive reinforcement C. alternate response training D. higher-order conditioning

Answer 78

Shaping is based on operant conditioning and involves reinforcing successive approximations to the target (desired) behavior. a. Incorrect The term desensitization has several meanings depending on the context, but it is not relevant to the process of shaping. b. CORRECT When using shaping to establish a new behavior, responses that come closer and closer to the desired behavior are successively reinforced. c. Incorrect Alternate response training involves training the individual to engage in a response that interferes with or is incompatible with the target (undesirable) response. d. Incorrect Higher-order conditioning is a type of classical (not operant) conditioning and is not a component of shaping. The correct answer is: positive reinforcement

Question 79

Which of the following is responsible for your ability to remember to call your friend next week in order to wish her a "happy birthday"? Select one: A. prospective memory B. meta-memory C. episodic memory D. working memory

Answer 79

If you're not familiar with the type of memory being asked about in this question, you may have been able to identify the correct answer through the process of elimination. a. CORRECT Prospective memory refers to the ability to "remember to remember" - i.e., to remember to do something in the future. b. Incorrect Meta-memory refers to awareness and understanding of one's own memory processes. It includes the ability to know what memory strategies to use for specific tasks. c. Incorrect Episodic (autobiographical) memory is the aspect of long-term memory that is responsible for the storage of personally experienced events. d. Incorrect Working memory is the aspect of short-term memory that is used to perform certain mental tasks (e.g., to solve a simple arithmetic problem "in your head"). The correct answer is: prospective memory

Question 80

Secondary reinforcers: Select one: A. are applied after a primary reinforcer. B. are applied on an intermittent schedule. C. have inherent (innate) reinforcing value. D. acquire their reinforcing value through conditioning.

Answer 80

Behaviorists distinguish between primary and secondary reinforcers. a. Incorrect This answer does not accurately describe the use of secondary reinforcers. b. Incorrect Secondary reinforcers may be applied on a continuous or intermittent schedule. c. Incorrect Primary reinforcers have inherent reinforcing value. d. CORRECT This answer describes secondary reinforcers, which are also known as conditioned reinforcers because they acquire their reinforcing value through their association with primary reinforcers (i.e., as the result of being "paired with" primary reinforcers). Money is a secondary reinforcer that has value only because it enables us to purchase primary reinforcers. The correct answer is: acquire their reinforcing value through conditioning.

Question 81

To maximize the effectiveness of overcorrection, its restitution and positive practice phases are often combined with: Select one: A. differential reinforcement. B. activity scheduling. C. physical guidance. D. stimulus control.

Answer 81

To ensure that the person actually performs the behaviors required during the restitution and positive practice phases of overcorrection, "extra help" is sometimes needed. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT It may be necessary to physically guide the person through the behaviors required during restitution and/or positive practice when the person is resistant to perform them on his/her own. Because physical guidance may be necessary, overcorrection is contraindicated for children who have experienced abuse or who are more physically powerful than the person administering the treatment. Additional information on overcorrection is provided in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: physical guidance.

Question 82

You are using in vivo aversive counterconditioning to reduce a client's consumption of alcohol. To maximize the effectiveness of the treatment, the aversive stimulus (electric shock) should be applied: Select one: A. when the drink is first presented to the client. B. right before the client takes a drink. C. just as the client begins drinking. D. immediately after the client has finished a drink.

Answer 82

Aversive counterconditioning is a type of classical conditioning, and classical conditioning is most effective when a "delay" procedure is used. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect This describes backward conditioning, which is usually ineffective. c. CORRECT Delay conditioning involves applying the CS before the start of the US so that presentation of the two stimuli overlaps and both are terminated together. Of the various types of forward conditioning, delay conditioning is usually most effective. d. Incorrect This sounds like trace conditioning, which is ordinarily less effective than delay conditioning. Additional information on delay, trace, and backward conditioning is provided in the Learning Theory chapter of the wirtten study materials. The correct answer is: just as the client begins drinking.

Question 83

A key factor in distinguishing between implicit and explicit memory is: Select one: A. the duration of the memory. B. the sensory system(s) involved in the initial processing of the information. C. the type of encoding used to transfer the information from short- to long-term memory. D. the degree to which recall of the information involves conscious awareness.

Answer 83

Researchers interested in long-term memory often distinguish between implicit and explicit memory. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Recalling information from explicit memory requires conscious awareness and intentional or deliberate effort, while recall from implicit memory is automatic (done without conscious awareness or intentional or deliberate effort). The correct answer is: the degree to which recall of the information involves conscious awareness.

Question 84

Research on the serial position effect has found that if participants are asked to recall a list of words immediately after reading the list, they are better able to remember the words: Select one: A. from the middle of the list than the words from the beginning or end of the list. B. from the middle and end of the list than the words from the beginning of the list. C. from the beginning and middle of the list than the words from the end of the list. D. from the beginning and end of the list than the words from the middle of the list.

Answer 84

In studies investigating the serial position effect, participants are presented with a list of words to remember and asked to recall the words in any order either immediately after reading the list or following a brief delay after reading the list. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT When participants recall the words immediately after reading the list, more words from the beginning and end of the list are recalled than words from the middle of the list. This is apparently because words at the beginning of the list have been transferred to long-term memory while words at the end of list are still in short-term memory. Additional information about the results of research on the serial position effect is provided in the Learning Theory chaper of the written study materials. The correct answer is: from the beginning and end of the list than the words from the middle of the list.

Question 85

Whenever Bahir B., age 5, has tantrums in his kindergarten class, his teacher removes him from all opportunities for reinforcement by having him sit in a small empty room adjacent to the classroom for ten minutes. The teacher is using which of the following techniques to reduce Bahir's tantrums? Select one: A. positive punishment B. negative reinforcement C. time-out D. overcorrection

Answer 85

Interventions based on operant conditioning increase behaviors through reinforcement or decrease behaviors through punishment or extinction. a. Incorrect Positive punishment involves applying a stimulus following a behavior in order to decrease the occurrence of that behavior. In the situation described in this question, opportunities for reinforcement are being removed following the behavior. b. Incorrect Negative reinforcement involves removing a stimulus following a behavior in order to increase the occurrence of that behavior. The goal in this case is to decrease a behavior. c. CORRECT Time-out involves removing an individual from all possible sources of positive reinforcement for a brief period of time following the occurrence of a behavior in order to decrease that behavior. Time-out is usually classified as a type of negative punishment. d. Incorrect Overcorrection involves having the individual engage in alternative behaviors after performing the undesirable behavior (i.e., returning the environment to its previous condition and/or practicing correct behaviors). The correct answer is: time-out

Question 86

Meta-analyses of research on EMDR (eye movement desensitization and reprocessing) suggest that its effectiveness for alleviating the symptoms of PTSD is attributable to which of the following? Select one: A. imaginal exposure B. higher-order conditioning C. relaxation training D. fixed visual attention

Answer 86

EMDR was originally developed as a treatment for PTSD and combines rapid lateral eye movements (which purportedly trigger adaptive neurophysiological information-processing mechanisms) with exposure and other techniques. a. CORRECT Studies using a dismantling strategy or comparing EMDR to exposure-based treatments have generally confirmed that the essential component of EMDR is exposure to the feared stimulus in imagination rather than lateral eye movements. See, e.g., S. Taylor et al., Comparative efficacy, speed, and adverse effects of three PTSD treatments: Exposure therapy, EMDR, and relaxation, Journal of Clinical and Consulting Psychology, 2003, 72, 330-338. b. Incorrect See explanation above. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: imaginal exposure

Question 87

Masaaki M. has not yet learned to distinguish between a cow and a horse. When he sees a cow, he sometimes says "horse" and he sometimes calls a horse a "cow." To help him learn the difference between these two animals, Masaaki's parents make the sounds "moo" or "neigh," as appropriate, whenever the boy encounters a cow or horse. Masaaki's parents are using which of the following techniques? Select one: A. shaping B. prompting C. chaining D. thinning

Answer 87

For the exam, you want to be familiar with the four techniques listed in the answers to this questions, and additional information on these techniques is provided in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials. a. Incorrect Shaping is used to help an individual acquire a complex behavior and involves reinforcing successive approximations to the target behavior. b. CORRECT Prompting involves providing an individual with appropriate cues to help elicit the desired behavior. In this situation, "moo" and "neigh" are acting as cues. c. Incorrect When using chaining to establish a complex behavior consisting of a sequence of responses, each response acts as reinforcement for the previous response and as a discriminative stimulus for the next response. d. Incorrect Thinning is the process of gradually reducing the frequency of reinforcement (e.g., of switching from a continuous to an intermittent schedule of reinforcement). The correct answer is: prompting

Question 88

In 1989, Abramson, Metalsky, and Alloy revised the 1978 learned helplessness theory of depression. In their revision, _________ is conceptualized as a proximal and sufficient cause of depressive symptoms. Select one: A. non-contingent reinforcement B. a depressogenic cognitive style C. an external locus of control D. a sense of hopelessness

Answer 88

L. Y. Abramson, G. I. Metalsky, and L. B. Alloy's revised learned helplessness model proposes that a sense of hopelessness is a proximal and sufficient cause of depression [Hopelessness depression: A theory-based subtype of depression, Psychological Review, 1989, 96(2), 358-372]. a. Incorrect Non-contingent reinforcement is not identified as a cause of depression in Abramson et al.'s theory. b. Incorrect These investigators do not identify a depressogenic cognitive style as a cause of depression. c. Incorrect An external locus of control is not identified as a cause of depression by these investigators. d. CORRECT Abramson, Metalsky, and Alloy identify a sense of hopelessness as a proximal cause because, in the chain of events leading to depression, it is at the end of the chain; and as a sufficient cause because the presence of hopelessness is sufficient to cause depressive symptoms. The correct answer is: a sense of hopelessness

Question 89

The various intermittent schedules of reinforcement are associated with different response patterns. Which of the following schedules and patterns is incorrectly matched? Select one: A. variable ratio: stable rates of responding with high resistance to extinction B. variable interval: smooth, stable rates of responding with moderate to low resistance to extinction C. fixed ratio: post-reinforcement response pauses with moderately high resistance to extinction D. fixed interval: smooth but slow rates of responding with moderate resistance to extinction

Answer 89

The specific intermittent schedule of reinforcement used influences how quickly an operant behavior is acquired and how well it is maintained. Note that this question is asking for the schedule that is incorrectly matched with its description. a. Incorrect When using a variable ratio schedule, reinforcement is provided after a variable number of responses. This schedule produces stable rates of responding and responses that are highly resistant to extinction. b. Incorrect Use of a variable interval schedule involves providing reinforcement after random or variable time intervals. It produces stable rates of responding and low to moderate resistance to extinction. c. Incorrect Use of a fixed ratio schedule entails consistently providing reinforcement after a fixed number of correct responses. It produces a steady rate of responding with a brief pause following delivery of the reinforcer and moderately high resistance to extinction. d. CORRECT When using a fixed interval schedule, reinforcement is provided after a fixed interval of time as long as the response occurred at least once during that interval. It produces a "scalloped" (not smooth) response pattern characterized by brief pauses in responding following reinforcement and low resistance to extinction. The correct answer is: fixed interval: smooth but slow rates of responding with moderate resistance to extinction

Question 90

When using covert sensitization to treat a sexual fetish, the fetish object acts as a(n): Select one: A. primary reinforcer. B. secondary reinforcer. C. unconditioned stimulus. D. conditioned stimulus.

Answer 90

The goal of covert sensitization is to eliminate a response by replacing it with an incompatible response. a. Incorrect A primary reinforcer is rewarding because of its inherent value. Food is a primary reinforcer for a hungry organism. b. Incorrect A secondary reinforcer acquires its reinforcing value through its pairing with a primary reinforcer. Money is an example of a secondary reinforcer: It is valuable only because it can be exchanged for primary reinforcers. c. Incorrect When using covert sensitization to reduce an undesirable behavior, the aversive stimulus is the unconditioned stimulus. d. CORRECT When using covert sensitization, the target stimulus (in this case the fetish object) is paired in imagination with an aversive stimulus. Eventually, the target stimulus elicits the same unpleasant response as the aversive stimulus and, as a consequence, will be avoided. In this situation, the CS is the target stimulus, while the US is the aversive stimulus. The correct answer is: conditioned stimulus.

Question 91

In a study on learning and memory, participants in the experimental group learned two lists of nonsense syllables (first List A, then List B) and were then asked to recall List A. Participants in the control group also learned List A but, instead of learning List B, were asked to count backward from 10 numerous times before being asked to recall List A. Results of the study indicated that participants in the control group recalled more words from List A than did participants in the experimental group. These results are best explained by which of the following? Select one: A. proactive interference B. retroactive interference C. trace decay D. serial position effect

Answer 91

The purpose of the study described in this question was apparently to investigate how subsequent experience affects prior learning. a. Incorrect Proactive interference occurs when prior learning interferes with subsequent (new) learning. b. CORRECT Retroactive interference occurs when subsequent learning interferes with prior learning and is most likely to occur when the subsequent and prior learning are similar in terms of content. In the study described in this question, participants in the experimental group learned a second list of nonsense syllables after learning the first list and were then asked to recall the first list. In contrast, participants in the control group engaged in an unrelated task after learning the original list to ensure that they did not continue to rehearse the list prior to testing. Because control group participants recalled more words from List A than did participants in the experimental group, the results confirmed that retroactive interference contributes to forgetting. c. Incorrect Trace decay theory predicts that forgetting is due to the passage of time and, therefore, that participants in the two groups would have similar levels of recall. d. Incorrect The serial position effect does not explain the results of this study. It refers to the tendency to recall the first and last items in a list better than items in the middle of the list. The correct answer is: retroactive interference

Question 92

In Albert Ellis's A-B-C model, B refers to: Select one: A. beliefs about an event. B. behaviors that occur in response to an event. C. biological predispositions. D. baseline rates of responding.

Answer 92

Ellis's rational-emotive behavior therapy is based on the assumption that behavioral and emotional reactions to events are due to beliefs about those events rather than to the events themselves. a. CORRECT Ellis depicts the relationship between antecedent events, beliefs about those events, and reactions to those events in terms of an A-B-C model, where A represents the antecedent event, B represents beliefs about the event, and C represents the behavioral or emotional consequence of the beliefs. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: beliefs about an event.

Question 93

As an initial intervention with a client who has received a diagnosis of Major Depressive Disorder, a practitioner of Beck's cognitive-behavioral therapy is most likely to do which of the following? Select one: A. work with the client to develop a hierarchy of depression-inducing situations B. have the client maintain a record of his/her automatic thoughts during the following week C. conduct a functional analysis to determine the clients explanation for his/her symptoms D. ask the client to identify exceptions to his/her typical depression-inducing events

Answer 93

Beck's cognitive-behavioral approach attributes depression to irrational thoughts about oneself, the future, and the world. a. Incorrect Developing a hierarchy is not part of Beck's treatment for depression. b. CORRECT For practitioners of Beck's cognitive-behavioral therapy, depression is the result of dysfunctional thoughts. Consequently, an initial focus of treatment is on identifying those thoughts - especially automatic thoughts, which are habitual, unconscious self-statements that have a strong emotional component. c. Incorrect A functional analysis is not a technique used by practitioners of Beck's cognitive-behavioral therapy. d. Incorrect Identifying exceptions sounds like a strategy used by solution-focused therapists. The correct answer is: have the client maintain a record of his/her automatic thoughts during the following week

Question 94

Sensate focus was developed by Masters and Johnson (1970) as a technique for reducing performance anxiety related to sexual intercourse. If viewed as a behavioral technique, sensate focus is best described as a form of: Select one: A. classical extinction. B. operant extinction. C. counterconditioning. D. covert sensitization.

Answer 94

Sensate focus involves pairing pleasurable sensations with performance anxiety in order to reduce the latter. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Counterconditioning is based on the principles of classical conditioning and involves pairing two incompatible responses in order to eliminate one of the responses. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: counterconditioning.

Question 95

From a behavioral perspective, phobic reactions to benign objects or events are acquired when those objects or events become associated with a stimulus that naturally produces a fear response. In other words, phobic reactions are due to: Select one: A. negative reinforcement. B. negative punishment. C. stimulus generalization. D. classical conditioning.

Answer 95

There are several explanations for the phobic reactions. The explanation provided in this question is consistent with the Pavlovian view. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT According to the Pavlovian (classical conditioning) explanation for phobias, a fear response to a previously neutral object or event is a classically conditioned response in which fear is attached to the neutral stimulus (the CS) through its pairing with a stimulus that naturally elicits fear (the US). The correct answer is: classical conditioning.

Question 96

Although he was unable to carry out his plans, John Watson outlined several methods for removing Little Albert's classically-conditioned fear reaction to white rats. One plan involved repeatedly confronting Albert with a white rat without the loud noise in order to produce extinction of his fear response. This technique now underlies the behavioral treatment known as: Select one: A. covert sensitization. B. flooding. C. response cost. D. stress inoculation.

Answer 96

The intervention described in this question involves exposing Little Albert to the feared object in vivo (in "real life"). a. Incorrect When using covert sensitization, the target stimulus is paired in imagination with an aversive stimulus. Eventually, the target stimulus elicits the same unpleasant response as the aversive stimulus and, as a consequence, will be avoided. b. CORRECT Flooding (which is now more commonly referred to as in vivo exposure with response prevention) involves the extinction of a conditioned response through prolonged exposure to the conditioned stimulus without the unconditioned stimulus. c. Incorrect Response cost involves removing a specific reinforcer following a behavior in order to decrease that behavior. d. Incorrect Stress inoculation is used to help people deal with stressful events by improving their coping skills. The correct answer is: flooding.

Question 97

Lewinsohn's behavioral model proposes a causal link between ______________ and depression. Select one: A. a lack of reinforcement from the environment B. accidental external reinforcement for depressogenic behaviors C. a high need for perfectionism D. chronic physical and psychological stress

Answer 97

Lewinsohn's (1974) behavioral model is based on operant conditioning and focuses on the consequences of behavior. a. CORRECT Lewinsohn attributes depression primarily to a low rate of response-contingent reinforcement and proposes that, when a person's behaviors are not reinforced, those behaviors are extinguished and the person is at increased risk for pessimism, low self-esteem, and other symptoms associated with depression. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a. The correct answer is: a lack of reinforcement from the environment

Question 98

Images and sounds are maintained in sensory memory for: Select one: A. an indefinite period of time. B. minutes to days, depending on the depth of encoding. C. about 60 to 90 seconds. D. less than 5 seconds.

Answer 98

Sensory memory provides very brief storage of incoming sensory input. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Sensory memory includes a separate store for each sense, and the duration of sensory memory varies somewhat, depending on the sense. For iconic (visual) memories, the duration is about .5 to 1.0 seconds; for echoic (auditory) memories, the duration is up to 4 or 5 seconds. The correct answer is: less than 5 seconds.

Question 99

Within the Pavlovian paradigm, experimental neurosis is the result of: Select one: A. unavoidable aversive stimuli. B. difficult discriminations. C. accidental conditioning. D. higher-order conditioning.

Answer 99

Experimental neurosis was exhibited by dogs in Pavlov's research when they were presented with stimuli very similar to the original CS. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT When required to make difficult discriminations between the CS and stimuli very similar to it, the normally docile animals in Pavlov's studies became very agitated. Pavlov referred to this as experimental neurosis. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: difficult discriminations.

Question 100

Rehm's (1977) self-control therapy for depression focuses on which the following? Select one: A. beliefs about the self, the world, and the future B. thoughts, feelings, and actions C. knowledge, skills, and attitudes D. self-monitoring, self-evaluation, and self-reinforcement

Answer 100

Rehm's self-control therapy focuses on three aspects of self-control that contribute to depression. These aspects are described in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT According to Rehm, deficits in self-monitoring, self-evaluation, and self-reinforcement increase a person's vulnerability to depression. The correct answer is: self-monitoring, self-evaluation, and self-reinforcement

Question 101

A behavior that has been reinforced on which of the following schedules is most resistant to extinction? Select one: A. fixed ratio B. variable ratio C. fixed interval D. variable interval

Answer 101

Each of the intermittent schedules of reinforcement is associated with different rates of acquisition and extinction. Additional information about these schedules is provided in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study mateirals. a. Incorrect The acquisition of a response is rapid when using a fixed ratio schedule of reinforcement. However, because the relationship between responding and reinforcement is predictable, extinction is faster for this schedule than for the variable ratio schedule. b. CORRECT A variable ratio schedule produces behaviors that are most resistant to extinction because, when using this schedule, the relationship between responding and reinforcement is unpredictable. c. Incorrect The rate of extinction is faster with this schedule than with the variable ratio schedule. d. Incorrect The rate of extinction is faster with this schedule than with the variable ratio schedule. The correct answer is: variable ratio

Question 102

_________ research with chimpanzees led to his conclusion that the performance of a new behavior may be the result of insight learning. Select one: A. Kohler's B. Tolman's C. Watson's D. Thorndike's

Answer 102

For the exam, you want to be familiar with the four individuals listed in the answers to this question (see the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials). a. CORRECT Kohler's research led him to conclude that learning is not just the result of trial-and-error or reinforcement but involves cognitive restructuring, which he referred to as insight learning. b. Incorrect Tolman is associated with latent learning. c. Incorrect Watson used classical conditioning to establish a phobia in a young child. d. Incorrect Thorndike developed the law of effect after observing that cats were more likely to repeat a behavior if they were reinforced for engaging in that behavior. The correct answer is: Kohler's

Question 103

Which of the following is an example of negative reinforcement? Select one: ``` A. A child continues to misbehave in class because of the negative attention he gets from his teacher whenever he does so. B. A husband stops smoking because, whenever he smokes, his children and wife berate him and tell him hes going to die from lung cancer. C. A student stops misbehaving in class because his teacher makes him sit in the corner for 10 minutes whenever he misbehaves. D. A graduate student smokes cigarettes in order to alleviate anxiety he feels about his ability to receive good grades in his classes. ```

Answer 103

Negative reinforcement occurs when the removal of a stimulus following a behavior increases the likelihood that the behavior will be repeated. a. Incorrect This is an example of positive reinforcement: The child's misbehavior is continuing because a stimulus is applied (the teacher pays attention to him) whenever he does so. b. Incorrect This is an example of positive punishment. c. Incorrect This is an example of a time-out, which is a form of negative punishment. d. CORRECT In this situation the student's smoking continues because smoking removes (alleviates) anxiety. The correct answer is: A graduate student smokes cigarettes in order to alleviate anxiety he feels about his ability to receive good grades in his classes.

Question 104

Which of the following interventions does NOT use classical extinction to eliminate an undesirable anxiety response? Select one: A. covert sensitization B. graduated exposure C. flooding D. implosive therapy

Answer 104

When using classical extinction to eliminate an anxiety response, the individual is exposed to the anxiety-arousing stimulus (which is assumed to be a conditioned stimulus) in the absence of the unconditioned stimulus. a. CORRECT Covert sensitization uses counterconditioning to eliminate undesirable self-reinforcing behaviors (e.g., drug use, paraphilias). Of the interventions listed in the answers, only covert sensitization is not based on classical extinction and is not used to eliminate an anxiety response. b. Incorrect Graduated exposure involves exposing the individual to anxiety-arousing stimuli in a gradual way - i.e., by beginning with stimuli that produce the least amount of anxiety and then gradually progressing to stimuli that evoke higher levels of anxiety. c. Incorrect Flooding, which is also known as in vivo exposure with response prevention, involves exposing the individual to fear-arousing stimuli while preventing him/her from making his/her usual avoidance response. d. Incorrect Implosive therapy involves exposing the individual to fear-arousing stimuli in imagination. The correct answer is: covert sensitization

Question 105

When using classical extinction to eliminate a learned (conditioned) response: Select one: A. the CS is presented before the US. B. the CS is presented without the US. C. the CS is presented after the US. D. the US is presented without the CS.

Answer 105

Knowing that classical conditioning involves pairing a CS with a US so that the CS produces a response (CR) that is similar to the UR would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT In classical conditioning, a CS (conditioned stimulus) elicits a CR (conditioned response) as a result of its pairing with a US (unconditioned stimulus). To extinguish the CR, the CS is repeatedly presented without the US. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: the CS is presented without the US.

Question 106

When using reinforcement to establish a new behavior, the most effective approach is to begin with a continuous schedule of reinforcement and then, when the behavior has reached the desired level, to switch to an intermittent schedule. The process of switching from a continuous to an intermittent schedule is referred to as: Select one: A. fading. B. desensitizing. C. thinning. D. blocking.

Answer 106

This question is asking for the term that is used to describe reducing the proportion of reinforcement. a. Incorrect Fading refers to the gradual removal of a prompt. b. Incorrect Desensitizing is not the term used to describe reducing the proportion of reinforcement. c. CORRECT This question provides an example of the technique known as thinning (or schedule thinning). d. Incorrect Blocking is a classical conditioning term and occurs when two different conditioned stimuli are paired with the unconditioned stimulus. The correct answer is: thinning.

Question 107

Once John Watson established Little Albert's phobic reaction to white rats, Albert displayed _______ by exhibiting a fear response to other white furry objects. Select one: A. experimental neurosis B. spontaneous recovery C. response generalization D. stimulus generalization

Answer 107

Answer D is correct. For the exam, you want to be familiar with all of the terms listed in the answers to this question, and these terms are described in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials. Stimulus generalization occurs when, following classical conditioning, the individual responds to stimuli similar to the conditioned stimulus with a conditioned response. The correct answer is: stimulus generalization

Question 108

In his studies on memory and forgetting, Ebbinghaus: Select one: A. used hungry cats as research subjects. B. used himself as the research subject. C. had volunteers memorize word pairs. D. had volunteers think aloud while solving complex problems.

Answer 108

Ebbinghaus was among the first to conduct empirical studies on human memory. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT Ebbinghaus was the participant in his own research, which involved memorizing lists of nonsense syllables and subsequently recalling the words to evaluate retention. His research led to the identification of learning and forgetting curves. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: used himself as the research subject.

Question 109

Which of the following best describes "backward conditioning"? Select one: A. It involves presentation of the unconditioned stimulus prior to presentation of the conditioned stimulus and is rarely effective. B. It involves presentation of the unconditioned stimulus prior to presentation of the conditioned stimulus and is very effective when the stimuli are similar in kind. C. It involves presentation of the conditioned stimulus prior to presentation of the unconditioned stimulus and is effective only when the two stimuli occur naturally in that order. D. It involves presentation of the reinforcer prior to the target behavior and is effective only when the reinforcer is highly desirable.

Answer 109

The term backward conditioning is associated with classical conditioning and involves presenting the US (unconditioned stimulus) prior to the CS (conditioned stimulus). a. CORRECT To establish a CR (conditioned response), the CS must be presented before or at the same time as the US. Backward conditioning - in which the US is presented prior to the CS - is not an effective strategy. b. Incorrect See explanation above. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: It involves presentation of the unconditioned stimulus prior to presentation of the conditioned stimulus and is rarely effective.

Question 110

Bandura's social learning theory posits that: Select one: A. people can acquire behaviors without actually performing them. B. reinforcement is unnecessary for learning to occur. C. learning reflects a series of internal S-R connections. D. learning is facilitated when the individual is provided with adequate "social scaffolding."

Answer 110

Bandura's social learning theory is distinguished from behavioral theories by its recognition of the role of cognitive (covert) factors in learning. a. CORRECT Bandura distinguished between learning and performance and proposed that people can learn (acquire) behaviors without actually performing them by observing others perform those behaviors. b. Incorrect Although Bandura downplays the importance of external reinforcement, he does not entirely abandon the idea that reinforcement enhances the acquisition and performance of behaviors. c. Incorrect S-R connections are not part of Bandura's theory. d. Incorrect Scaffolding is an element of Vygotsky's sociocultural theory of cognitive development. The correct answer is: people can acquire behaviors without actually performing them.

Question 111

When using higher-order conditioning to establish a conditioned response: Select one: A. a US serves as a CS. B. a US serves as a UR. C. a UR serves as a CR. D. a CS serves as a US.

Answer 111

Higher-order conditioning is a type of classical conditioning. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT In higher-order conditioning, a conditioned stimulus (CS) is paired with a neutral stimulus so that the neutral stimulus also elicits the conditioned response. In this situation, the CS is acting as a US (unconditioned stimulus) when it is paired with the neutral stimulus. An example of higher-order conditioning is provided in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials. The correct answer is: a CS serves as a US.

Question 112

A person who argues that "all psychopathology has a similar set of underlying dysfunctional beliefs" is most likely sympathetic with the views of: Select one: A. Beck. B. Ellis. C. Glasser. D. Meichenbaum.

Answer 112

The term "dysfunctional beliefs" should have pointed to Ellis as the correct response. a. Incorrect An important distinction between Beck and Ellis is that the former views each mental disorder as being characterized by a unique set of faulty cognitions, while the latter assumes that all disorders derive from the same set of basic irrational beliefs. b. CORRECT Ellis's assumption that all disorders can be attributed to the same set of irrational beliefs is considered by some to be a shortcoming of his approach. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: Ellis.

Question 113

The mother of a teen-age girl complains that all her daughter wants to do is talk on the telephone and that, as a result, the girl is not studying and her grades have been declining. The psychologist suggests that the daughter adhere to a schedule that allows her to talk on the telephone only after she has studied for a specified amount of time. The psychologist is recommending that the mother use which of the following strategies? Select one: A. overcorrection B. Premack Principle C. response cost D. flooding

Answer 113

The psychologist is suggesting that the mother use a high probability behavior (talking on the telephone) to reinforce a low probability behavior (studying). Note that the goal of the intervention is to increase studying and not to decrease talking on the telephone. a. Incorrect Overcorrection is used to decrease a behavior and involves having the client correct the ill-effects of the target behavior and practice more appropriate behaviors. b. CORRECT The Premack Principle is a type of positive reinforcement in which a high frequency behavior is used to reinforce, and thus increase, a low frequency behavior. c. Incorrect Response cost is used to reduce a behavior and involves removing a positive reinforcer each time the target behavior is performed. d. Incorrect Flooding involves exposing a person to a conditioned stimulus without the unconditioned stimulus so that the conditioned response is extinguished. The correct answer is: Premack Principle

Question 114

A person consistently avoids an object that produces a classically conditioned anxiety response because avoidance is: Select one: A. positively reinforced. B. negatively reinforced. C. a conditioned response. D. an unconditioned response.

Answer 114

According to the two-factor theory of learning, the development of a phobic response is the result of a combination of classical and operant conditioning. This question is asking about the avoidance behavior, which is the aspect of a phobic response that is the result of operant conditioning. a. Incorrect Positive reinforcement does increase a behavior but involves the application of a stimulus following the behavior. b. CORRECT In this situation, the person's avoidance behaviors allow him/her to reduce or alleviate anxiety. In other words, avoidance behaviors occur because they are being negatively reinforced. c. Incorrect The phobia (anxiety reaction) is the result of classical conditioning but the avoidance behavior is the result of operant conditioning. Consequently, the avoidance behavior is not a conditioned (or unconditioned) response. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: negatively reinforced.

Question 115

Prior to taking an important test, Delwood D. feels very anxious and, on the basis of this anxiety, concludes that he's not prepared for the test and will fail it. Delwood is exhibiting which of the following? Select one: A. polarized thinking B. demanding expectations C. catastrophizing D. emotional reasoning

Answer 115

Delwood is exhibiting a cognitive distortion that involves making a judgment on the basis of his emotions. a. Incorrect Polarized (dichotomous) thinking involves seeing things as either "black or white." b. Incorrect Demanding expectations are beliefs that there are rules or laws that must always be obeyed. c. Incorrect Catastrophizing involves believing that an event will have catastrophic consequences when, in fact, it's more likely that the consequences will be minor. Although Delwood is, in a sense, catastrophizing, answer d is a better response because his conclusions about the test are derived from his emotional state. d. CORRECT Emotional reasoning is what it sounds like - i.e., concluding that what you feel must be the truth. The correct answer is: emotional reasoning

Question 116

Pavlov concluded that spontaneous recovery provided support for which of the following assumptions? Select one: A. Regardless of the number of conditioning trials, the CR is always weaker than the UR. B. Extinction trials suppress (rather than eliminate) a conditioned response. C. Negative punishment is more effective than positive punishment for suppressing an undesirable behavior. D. Learning (but not performance) can occur without positive reinforcement.

Answer 116

Spontaneous recovery refers to the re-emergence of a conditioned response following extinction trials without additional conditioning trials. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT According to Pavlov, the spontaneous re-emergence of a conditioned response after it has been extinguished suggests that extinction trials suppress the conditioned response rather than eliminate it. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for resopnse b. The correct answer is: Extinction trials suppress (rather than eliminate) a conditioned response.

Question 117

Research confirming which of the following provides support for the encoding specificity principle? Select one: A. Elaborative rehearsal is more effective than maintenance rehearsal. B. Retroactive interference has a greater impact on recent (versus remote) memories. C. Recognition memory is ordinarily better than recall memory. D. Most memory loss is consistent with the typical forgetting curve.

Answer 117

The encoding specificity principle (Tulving & Thomson, 1973) predicts that the ability to recall information is improved when the same cues are available at encoding and retrieval. a. Incorrect Although this is true (elaborative rehearsal is more effective), it does not support the encoding specificity principle. b. Incorrect Research indicating that retroactive interference has a greater impact on recent memories supports the consolidation theory of memory. c. CORRECT The research has consistently found that recognition memory is better than recall memory, and this has been attributed to the fact that recognition items provide more cues than do recall items (i.e., there is greater overlap between the information in the test items and the information contained in the memory trace). This finding is consistent with the encoding specificity principle. d. Incorrect Research showing that most memory loss is consistent with the typical forgetting curve supports the consolidation theory of memory. The correct answer is: Recognition memory is ordinarily better than recall memory.

Question 118

Research using the "dismantling strategy" to identify the key component of systematic desensitization has generally found that its effectiveness for alleviating anxiety is due primarily to: Select one: A. exposure to anxiety-evoking situations. B. counterconditioning. C. acquisition of an alternative (incompatible) response. D. satiation.

Answer 118

When using the "dismantling strategy," different components of treatment are administered to different participants so that the effectiveness of the components can be compared. a. CORRECT Although Wolpe developed systematic desensitization as an application of reciprocal inhibition (counterconditioning), research using the dismantling strategy has found that it is actually exposure to the CS without the US that accounts for the effectiveness of this technique. Additional information on systematic desensitization and the dismantling strategy is provided in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials. The correct answer is: exposure to anxiety-evoking situations.

Question 119

Tommy Tyrant, a bright four-year-old, has learned that if he starts crying as soon as his mother begins to yell at him for misbehaving, his mother will stop yelling and will play with him instead, which is what Tommy wanted in the first place. In this situation, the mother's yelling is acting as: Select one: A. a discriminative stimulus. B. an unconditioned stimulus. C. a conditioned response. D. a primary reinforcer.

Answer 119

In the situation described in this question, the mother's yelling is serving as a cue that signals to Tommy that crying will result in reinforcement. a. CORRECT A discriminative stimulus is a cue (antecedent) that signals that a particular response will be followed by a reinforcer. b. Incorrect An unconditioned stimulus naturally elicits the target response without learning or conditioning trials. c. Incorrect A conditioned response is a response that occurs in the presence of a stimulus (the conditioned stimulus) as the result of pairing of that stimulus with an unconditioned stimulus. d. Incorrect The mother's yelling is not acting as a reinforcer for Tommy's behavior. Instead, it is her attention that has reinforcing value for Tommy. The correct answer is: a discriminative stimulus.

Question 120

When using aversive counterconditioning as a treatment for cocaine use, cocaine would be the: Select one: A. conditioned stimulus. B. unconditioned stimulus. C. positive reinforcer. D. negative reinforcer.

Answer 120

Aversive counterconditioning involves pairing a stimulus (US) that produces an aversive response (UR) with the undesirable stimulus (CS) so that the undesirable stimulus alone elicits an aversive response (CR). a. CORRECT In the example given in this question, cocaine would be the CS while the US would be electric shock or other aversive stimulus. b. Incorrect See explanation above. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: conditioned stimulus.

Question 121

A mother yells at her 4-year old son every time he runs while he is in the house. She quickly notices that her son's running is increasing in frequency despite her reprimands. Apparently, the boy's increased running is the result of: Select one: A. negative reinforcement. B. positive reinforcement. C. punishment. D. second-order conditioning.

Answer 121

In the situation described in this question, the increase in the boy's behavior is apparently due to the stimulus (the mother's yelling) that is applied after he engages in the behavior. a. Incorrect Negative reinforcement occurs when the removal of a stimulus following a behavior increases that behavior. b. CORRECT Positive reinforcement is occurring when a behavior increases because it is followed by the application of a stimulus. Note that this example illustrates the fact that a positive reinforcer doesn't have to be considered positive or pleasant by everyone. c. Incorrect Punishment decreases a behavior. Although the mother intends for her yelling to act as punishment, it is acting as reinforcement. d. Incorrect Second-order conditioning occurs when presentation of the original conditioned stimulus is paired with a neutral stimulus so that presentation of the neutral stimulus eventually produces a conditioned response. Second-order conditioning is not relevant to the situation described in this question. The correct answer is: positive reinforcement.

Question 122

A functional behavioral assessment (FBA) is conducted to identify _______ variables. Select one: A. controlling B. moderator C. dependent D. organismic

Answer 122

A functional behavioral assessment is conducted to identify the factors that are maintaining or controlling an undesirable behavior. a. CORRECT FBA is used to identify the factors (antecedents and consequences) that are controlling the target behavior so that those factors can be altered. b. Incorrect See explanation above. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above. The correct answer is: controlling

Question 123

Which of the following is an example of self-monitoring? Select one: A. A young man who is overweight is asked to keep a daily record of all the food that he eats. B. A high school student must complete her homework before she watches television (an activity she enjoys). C. A college student who wants to study more begins studying in the same location every day. D. A child with ADHD is taught to give himself instructions to slow down while solving math problems.

Answer 123

Self-monitoring is a self-control technique that involves recording information about the target behavior. a. CORRECT Asking an overeater to keep a record of the food he eats to obtain information about his eating behavior is an example of self-monitoring. b. Incorrect The Premack Principle involves using a high frequency behavior as a positive reinforcer for a low frequency behavior in order to increase the low frequency behavior. c. Incorrect Stimulus control involves bringing a person's behavior under the control of certain stimuli (cues). d. Incorrect Self-instruction involves training the individual to give him/herself instructions while performing a task to enhance task performance. The correct answer is: A young man who is overweight is asked to keep a daily record of all the food that he eats.

Question 124

Edward Tolman is best known for his research on ________ learning. Select one: A. discovery B. observational C. latent D. insight

Answer 124

Tolman believed that learning could occur without being manifested in performance - i.e., that learning could be latent. a. Incorrect Bruner was a major contributor to knowledge about discovery (inquiry) learning. b. Incorrect Bandura conducted research on observational learning. c. CORRECT Tolman's research with rats in mazes indicated that the rats had learned the maze (i.e., had formed "cognitive maps") without exhibiting that learning until they were reinforced for doing so. He referred to this as latent learning. Additional information on latent learning is provided in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials. d. Incorrect Kohler conducted research on insight learning. The correct answer is: latent

Question 125

EMG frontalis biofeedback is considered by a number of authorities to be the treatment-of-choice for tension (muscle contraction) headaches. However, some research suggests that which of the following interventions is as effective, if not even more effective, than EMG feedback for this type of headache? Select one: A. thermal feedback B. relaxation training C. alternate response training D. covert sensitization

Answer 125

Several techniques have been found to be as effective as or more effective than EMG biofeedback for alleviating tension headaches. a. Incorrect Thermal (temperature) feedback has been found to be an effective treatment for migraine headaches but not for tension headaches. b. CORRECT A number of studies have found relaxation training to be as effective as (or even more effective than) EMG biofeedback for tension headaches. c. Incorrect Alternate response training is a self-control technique that is used primarily to alleviate anxiety. d. Incorrect When using covert sensitization to eliminate an undesirable behavior, the target stimulus is paired in imagination with an aversive stimulus so that the target stimulus elicits the same unpleasant response as the aversive stimulus and, as a consequence, will be avoided. The correct answer is: relaxation training

Question 126

Whenever four-year-old William W. whines, his parents try to ignore him. Occasionally, however, William's mother or father picks him up when he whines, and, as a result, William's whining has increased. The increase in William's whining is due to which of the following? Select one: A. differential reinforcement B. response generalization C. intermittent reinforcement D. response discrimination

Answer 126

William's whining is being reinforced whenever his parents pick him up after he begins to whine. a. Incorrect Differential reinforcement involves reinforcing behaviors other than the target one in order to decrease that behavior. b. Incorrect Response generalization occurs when a CS produces responses similar to the CR. c. CORRECT William's parents are reinforcing the boy's whining on an intermittent schedule, which is producing an increase in his behavior. d. Incorrect Response discrimination is the opposite of response generalization and occurs when the individual responds to the CS with a specific response (the original CR). The correct answer is: intermittent reinforcement

Question 127

Betsy B., age 9, is given a quarter by her parents each time she practices her violin and another quarter each time she completes her homework. If Betsy's parents stop paying her for completing her homework, they are most likely to find that Betsy: Select one: A. spends less time doing homework and less time practicing the violin. B. spends less time doing homework but more time practicing the violin. C. spends less time doing homework but about the same amount of time practicing the violin. D. spends about the same amount of time doing homework but more time practicing the violin.

Answer 127

Betsy has received reinforcement for two different behaviors, but the reinforcement for one behavior will be terminated. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT This question is asking about "positive behavioral contrast," which occurs when reinforcement for one behavior is withdrawn while reinforcement for another behavior is continued. In this situation, the behavior that is no longer reinforced will decrease, while the behavior that continues to be reinforced will increase. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. The correct answer is: spends less time doing homework but more time practicing the violin.

Question 128

Which of the following is an example of semantic memory? Select one: A. remembering that you have a doctors appointment next Monday B. remembering what you did on your last birthday C. remembering the definition of semantic memory D. remembering how to ride a bicycle after not doing so for several years

Answer 128

Semantic memory refers to memory for facts, concepts, and other types of information that are independent of time and context. a. Incorrect Remembering a future appointment is an example of prospective memory, which is usually classified as a separate aspect of long-term memory or as part of episodic memory. b. Incorrect Remembering what you did on your last birthday is an example of episodic memory. c. CORRECT Definitions are stored in semantic memory. d. Incorrect Remembering how to ride a bicycle is an example of procedural memory. The correct answer is: remembering the definition of semantic memory

Question 129

Which of the following types of biofeedback has been found to be most effective for the treatment of Raynaud's disease? Select one: A. EEG B. GSR C. thermal D. respiration

Answer 129

Knowing that Raynaud's disease involves a constriction of blood vessels in the extremities would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. a. Incorrect EEG (electroencephalogram) biofeedback provides information about brain activity and has not been found useful for treating Raynaud's disease. b. Incorrect GSR (galvanic skin response) biofeedback has been found useful for treating stress, anxiety, ADHD, and stuttering. c. CORRECT Thermal (temperature) biofeedback has been found to be an effective treatment for a number of circulatory disorders, including Raynaud's disease. d. Incorrect Respiration biofeedback provides information on breathing rate and is used to treat anxiety, asthma, and hyperventilation. The correct answer is: thermal

Question 130

To make sure that the housekeeper you hired does a good job, you decide to pay him for each chore he does well rather than giving him an hourly or weekly salary. You have apparently been influenced by which of the following individuals? Select one: A. Pavlov B. Skinner C. Wolpe D. Tolman

Answer 130

This question is asking, "Which of the following individuals would recommend clearly linking reinforcement to the behavior that is being reinforced?" a. Incorrect Pavlov is associated with classical conditioning, which involves pairing a conditioned stimulus with an unconditioned stimulus so that the conditioned stimulus alone produces a response similar to the response produced by the unconditioned stimulus. This type of conditioning is not relevant to this situation. b. CORRECT Skinner believed that behavior is determined by the consequences that follow it and that, when a behavior is reinforced, it increases. According to the principles of Skinner's operant conditioning, clearly linking reinforcement to performance of the behavior (e.g., by providing reinforcement immediately after the behavior) is one way to maximize the effectiveness of reinforcement. c. Incorrect Wolpe is probably most associated with systematic desensitization, which is based on the principles of classical conditioning. d. Incorrect Tolman is best known for his research on rats in mazes, which led to his idea of cognitive maps and his cognitive theory of learning. The correct answer is: Skinner

Question 131

Research has confirmed that behavioral techniques that reduce or eliminate a behavior are more effective when they are combined with techniques that increase alternative behaviors. This probably explains why __________ is often an effective intervention. Select one: A. differential reinforcement B. response cost C. covert sensitization D. negative practice

Answer 131

Of the interventions listed in the responses, only one involves eliminating an undesirable behavior while establishing more desirable behaviors. a. CORRECT Differential reinforcement not only uses extinction to eliminate an undesirable behavior but also reinforces the individual for engaging in alternative behaviors. b. Incorrect Response cost is a type of negative punishment and is used to eliminate a behavior. c. Incorrect Covert sensitization is a classical conditioning technique used to eliminate an undesirable behavior. d. Incorrect When using negative practice, the individual is asked to repeatedly perform the undesirable behavior. Ideally, this will give the individual greater control over the behavior or, alternatively, lead to habituation or satiation. The correct answer is: differential reinforcement

Question 132

All of the following techniques are based on principles of classical conditioning except: Select one: A. systematic desensitization. B. covert sensitization. C. response cost. D. implosive therapy.

Answer 132

Note that this question is asking which technique is NOT based on classical conditioning. Additional information on the techniques listed in the answers to this question is provided in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials. a. Incorrect Systematic desensitization involves pairing an anxiety-arousing stimulus with a stimulus that naturally produces relaxation (or other response that is incompatible with anxiety) so that the anxiety-arousing stimulus no longer produces anxiety. b. Incorrect Covert sensitization is a type of aversive counterconditioning that involves pairing the CS and US in imagination. c. CORRECT Response cost is a type of negative punishment (operant conditioning) that involves removing a reinforcer following a behavior to reduce or eliminate that behavior. d. Incorrect Implosive therapy combines classical extinction with psychodynamic principles. The correct answer is: response cost.

Question 133

You witness a four-car collision on your way to work and find yourself thinking about the incident frequently during the next several weeks. Which aspect of your long-term memory is responsible for your memory of the accident? Select one: A. implicit memory B. semantic memory C. episodic memory D. sensory memory

Answer 133

In this situation, you are recalling a personally experienced event. a. Incorrect Implicit memory is memory that occurs automatically (without conscious effort). b. Incorrect Semantic memory is memory for the meaning of words and concepts. c. CORRECT Episodic memory is memory for episodes (events) that have been personally experienced. d. Incorrect Sensory memory refers to brief impressions formed by input from the senses. The correct answer is: episodic memory

Question 134

A _________ stimulus signals that performance of a behavior will result in reinforcement. Select one: A. conditioned B. unconditioned C. discriminative D. second-order

Answer 134

This question is asking which type of stimulus affects the occurrence of an operant response. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT A discriminative stimulus (SD) is an environmental event or condition that signals that reinforcement (or punishment) is contingent on the performance of a particular response. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. The correct answer is: discriminative stimulus

Question 135

Using a tachistoscope, a researcher flashes a rectangle containing 12 letters of the alphabet to a participant for 50 milliseconds and then asks the participant to say what he or she has just seen. Apparently, the researcher is investigating which of the following? Select one: A. flashbulb memory B. recognition memory C. iconic memory D. echoic memory

Answer 135

In the study described in this question, participants are asked to recall a visual image. a. Incorrect Flashbulb memories are vivid memories of surprising, emotional events. b. Incorrect Recognition memory refers to the ability to recall information from long-term memory when given appropriate cues. c. CORRECT Iconic memory is an aspect of sensory memory and refers to memory for visual images (icons). d. Incorrect Echoic memory refers to auditory sensory memory. The correct answer is: iconic memory