Learning Theory - Domain Quiz Flashcards
Classical extinction occurs when:
Select one:
a. the CS is repeatedly presented alone.
b. the US is repeatedly presented alone.
c. the US and CS are presented simultaneously.
d. the CS is presented after the US.
Extinction refers to the elimination of a conditioned response (CR).
Answer A is correct: Extinction of a CR occurs when the conditioned stimulus (CS) is repeatedly presented without the unconditioned stimulus (US).
The correct answer is: the CS is repeatedly presented alone.
Dr. Daniel Daggett presents Stimulus A along with a loud noise so that, eventually, a participant in his study reacts with a startle reaction whenever Stimulus A is presented alone. Dr. Daggett then pairs Stimulus B with Stimulus A so that Stimulus B also elicits a startle reaction when presented alone. This procedure is an example of:
Select one:
a. stimulus generalization.
b. higher-order conditioning.
c. response generalization.
d. shaping.
In this situation, a conditioned (neutral) stimulus is paired with an unconditioned stimulus so that the former eventually elicits a conditioned response. Then a second conditioned (neutral) stimulus is paired with the original conditioned stimulus so that it also elicits the conditioned response.
Answer B is correct: This procedure is referred to as higher-order conditioning and, in the second step, involves treating the original conditioned stimulus like an unconditioned stimulus when is paired with the second conditioned stimulus.
The correct answer is: higher-order conditioning.
In one series of studies, Pavlov conditioned dogs to salivate in response to a black square but not in response to a light grey square. Subsequently, when the dogs were shown a medium grey square, they exhibited which of the following?
Select one:
a. overshadowing
b. spontaneous recovery
c. experimental neurosis
d. learned helplessness
This question is describing trials that required dogs to make difficult discriminations.
Answer C is correct: Pavlov found that difficult discriminations produced experimental neurosis – i.e., uncharacteristic behaviors that included extreme restlessness, agitation, and unprovoked aggression. Additional information on experimental neurosis is provided in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.
The correct answer is: experimental neurosis
In Watson’s research, Little Albert’s fear of white fur and cotton was the result of:
Select one:
a. spontaneous recovery.
b. higher-order conditioning.
c. stimulus generalization.
d. experimental neurosis.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with all of the terms listed in the answers to this question. These terms are defined in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.
Answer C is correct: Watson used classical conditioning to establish a fear reaction in Little Albert to a white rat. Subsequently, Albert exhibited a great deal of stimulus generalization – i.e., he also exhibited a fear response to other white furry objects.
The correct answer is: stimulus generalization.
Rescorla and Wagner (1972) contend that “blocking” occurs because:
Select one:
a. the second neutral stimulus does not provide new information about the US.
b. one neutral stimulus is more salient than the other neutral stimulus.
c. the new neutral stimulus is similar to the original CS.
d. one of the neutral stimuli is “overshadowed” by the US.
Blocking occurs when a new neutral stimulus and an established CS are presented together prior to the US.
Answer A is correct: According to Rescorla and Wagner, the new neutral stimulus does not elicit a CR when presented alone because it provides redundant information and, as a result, an association between that stimulus and the US is not made.
The correct answer is: the second neutral stimulus does not provide new information about the US.
To reduce a client’s cigarette smoking, the client is exposed to several treatment sessions in which stale cigarette smoke is blown into his face soon after he begins to smoke a cigarette and this continues until he stops smoking. Eventually, the client feels nauseous whenever he even thinks about smoking. In this situation, the stale cigarette smoke has acted as:
Select one:
a. a conditioned stimulus.
b. an unconditioned stimulus.
c. a negative punisher.
d. a negative reinforcer.
In this situation, two stimuli are being “paired” in order to change the response that is elicited by one of the stimuli. This procedures describes classical conditioning, would eliminates Answers C and D since punishers and reinforcers are associated with operant conditioning.
Answer B is correct: The stale cigarette smoke naturally elicits nausea, so it is the unconditioned stimulus (US).
Answer A is incorrect: The cigarette is the conditioned stimulus (CS) in this situation. By being paired with stale cigarette smoke, it eventually elicits nausea.
Answer C is incorrect: A Skinnerian might describe the stale cigarette smoke as a positive (not negative) punishment, but a Skinnerian would not claim that a new response to smoking had been established, only that the person avoids cigarettes in order to avoid the punishment.
Answer D is incorrect: See explanations above.
The correct answer is: an unconditioned stimulus.
Davidson and Parker’s (2001) meta-analysis of the research indicated that the effectiveness of EMDR as a treatment for PTSD is attributable to which of the following?
Select one:
a. positive self-statements
b. lateral eye movements
c. in vivo counterconditioning
d. exposure to feared stimuli in imagination
EMDR was originally developed as a treatment for PTSD but has since been applied to other disorders including panic attacks, depression, and substance use.
Answer D is correct: Based on their meta-analysis of the research, Davidson and Parker concluded that “eye movements are unnecessary and that EMDR may be viewed as an imaginal exposure technique” (2001, p. 2). Additional information about EMDR is provided in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.
The correct answer is: exposure to feared stimuli in imagination
In vivo aversion therapy would be most effective as a treatment for which of the following?
Select one:
a. Specific Phobia
b. Paraphilia
c. PTSD
d. Factitious Disorder
In vivo aversion therapy is used to eliminate a maladaptive behavior by pairing that behavior (or stimuli associated with it) with a stimulus that naturally elicits an undesirable response.
Answer B is correct: In vivo aversion therapy is used to treat PARAPHILIAS, ADDICTIONS, and SELF-INJURIOUS BEHAVIOURS. Additional information on this treatment is provided in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.
The correct answer is: Paraphilia
In vivo exposure with response prevention (flooding) and implosive therapy are both based on:
Select one:
a. mediated generalization.
b. graded desensitization.
c. counterconditioning.
d. classical extinction.
Flooding and implosive therapy both involve exposing an individual to the CS without the US.
Answer D is correct: Classical extinction is used to extinguish (eliminate) a conditioned response and involves presenting the CS without the US.
Answer A is incorrect: Mediated generalization is another name for stimulus generalization, which involves responding to similar stimuli with the same conditioned response.
Answer B is incorrect: As its name implies, graded desensitization involves a gradual exposure to the feared stimulus. Flooding and implosive therapy both involve exposure to a high intensity stimulus.
Answer C is incorrect: Counterconditioning entails presenting a US that is incompatible with the CS so that the current response (e.g., anxiety) is eventually replaced by the desired response (e.g., relaxation).
The correct answer is: classical extinction.
Studies using the dismantling strategy suggest that which of the following is most responsible for the therapeutic benefits of systematic desensitization?
Select one:
a. counterconditioning
b. exposure
c. positive reinforcement
d. blocking
Systematic desensitization was originally developed as an application of counterconditioning, but the research suggests that its beneficial effects are due to a different procedure.
Answer B is correct: The dismantling strategy involves comparing the components of an intervention to determine which components are responsible for the intervention’s effects. Research using this strategy has found that the key component of systematic desensitization is exposure to the feared stimulus (CS) without the US, which results in extinction of the CR.
The correct answer is: exposure
When using covert sensitization:
Select one:
a. the CS and US are presented in imagination.
b. the CS and US are presented simultaneously.
c. the least anxiety-arousing stimuli are presented first.
d. the most anxiety-arousing stimuli are presented first.
Covert sensitization is a type of aversive counterconditioning.
Answer A is correct: When using covert sensitization, the CS and US are presented in imagination rather than in vivo (reality).
The correct answer is: the CS and US are presented in imagination.
Which of the following treatments combines exposure to a feared stimulus with a psychodynamic interpretation of the fear?
Select one:
a. overcorrection
b. implosive therapy
c. covert sensitization
d. flooding
Of the responses given, only one consists of a combination of behavioral techniques and psychodynamic principles.
Answer B is correct: Implosive therapy combines classical extinction with psychodynamic interpretation. It is often used to treat phobias and to eliminate self-reinforcing behaviors.
Answer A is incorrect: Overcorrection is an operant technique that is usually classified as a type of punishment.
Answer C is incorrect: Covert sensitization is a type of aversive counterconditioning that is conducted in imagination. It does not incorporate psychodynamic interpretation.
Answer D is incorrect: Flooding is a type of in vivo exposure with response prevention that involves exposing the individual to the most anxiety-arousing stimuli for a prolonged period of time.
The correct answer is: implosive therapy
When using the procedure known as higher-order conditioning, the first step is to present the CS prior to the US until a CR is established. In the next step:
a. the CS is presented alone until the CR is extinguished
b. the US is presented prior to the CS until the CR is extinguished
c. a second CS is paired with the first CS until the second CS also elicits a CR.
d. the original CS and the second CS are simultaneously presented prior to the US.
Correct answer: C
b. this is backward conditioning.
c. Correct
d. this is blocking.
Pavlov produced “experimental neurosis” in his research subjects by:
a. using second-order conditioning.
b. presenting the US prior to the CS.
c. making it impossible for them to escape an aversive stimulus.
d. requiring them to discriminate between very similar stimuli.
Correct answer: D
a. second-order conditioning is the same as higher-order conditioning
b. this is backward conditioning.
c. this is Seligman’s learned helplessness.
d. Correct
Which of the following is true about flooding and implosive therapy?
a. They both involve exposure to an aversive unconditioned stimulus.
b. They both lead to extinction of the undesirable response.
c. They are both based on reciprocal inhibition.
d. They are both based on operant conditioning.
Correct answer: B
a. Flooding involves exposure to conditioned stimulus.
b. This accurately describes flooding. Implosive therapy does so with imagination.
c. They’re both based on extinction.
d. Flooding is based on classical conditioning.
According to the __________, the relative frequency of responding to an alternative corresponds to the frequency of reinforcement for responding to that alternative.
Select one:
a. law of effect
b. matching law
c. law of contiguity
d. Premack Principle
Although this sentence is difficult to “translate,” it is basically saying that the frequency of responding matches the frequency of reinforcement.
Answer B is correct: The statement in the question defines the matching law (Herrnstein, 1970), which states that the frequency of responding to two or more alternatives (e.g., pressing two or more levers) matches the frequency of being reinforced for doing so.
Answer A is incorrect: According to Thorndike’s law of effect, a behavior that is followed by a “satisfying consequence” will be likely to occur again.
Answer C is incorrect: The law of contiguity states that learning depends on the proximity of stimuli in space and time.
Answer D is incorrect: The Premack Principle is a type of positive reinforcement that involves using a high frequency behavior as a reinforcer for a low frequency behavior.
The correct answer is: matching law
A mother finds that, when she yells at her son, the boy stops picking on his little sister for a brief period of time. Over time, the mother finds that she has to yell more and more frequently at the boy to get him to leave his sister alone. The boy is influencing his mother’s behavior (yelling) through:
Select one:
a. negative punishment.
b. positive punishment.
c. negative reinforcement.
d. positive reinforcement.
In this situation, the mother’s yelling is increasing because, when she yells, the boy stops picking on his sister.
Answer C is correct: The mother’s yelling is increasing, which means that it is being reinforced; and it is being reinforced by the removal of her son’s undesirable behavior, which means that it is being negatively reinforced. Additional information about reinforcement and punishment is provided in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.
Answer A is incorrect: By definition, punishment decreases a behavior – but, in this situation, the mother’s behavior is increasing.
Answer B is incorrect: See explanations for Answers A and C.
Answer D is incorrect: Positive reinforcement involves the application (rather than withdrawal) of a stimulus following a behavior.
The correct answer is: negative reinforcement.
A mother has been giving her 3-year-old son a hug whenever he says “please” following a request. She decides to stop reinforcing her son in this way. Right after she stops hugging her son, she can expect that the frequency with which he says “please” will:
Select one:
a. quickly decrease.
b. slowly decrease.
c. temporarily increase.
d. stay the same.
Removal of reinforcement following a behavior ordinarily leads to a gradual extinction of that behavior. However, the termination of the behavior is not immediate.
Answer C is correct: When reinforcement for a previously reinforced response is removed, there is often a temporary “extinction burst” (increase in the response) before it begins to decrease.
The correct answer is: temporarily increase.
A “scallop” in the cumulative recording is characteristic of which schedule of reinforcement?
Select one:
a. fixed interval
b. fixed ratio
c. variable interval
d. variable ratio
Each intermittent schedule of reinforcement is associated with a different pattern of responding.
Answer A is correct: On a fixed interval (FI) schedule, the subject stops responding once the reinforcement is delivered and then begins responding again toward the end of the interval. This produces a “scallop” in the cumulative recording.
The correct answer is: fixed interval
During the initial stages of a behavior change intervention, verbal or nonverbal prompts may be needed to evoke the desired behavior. However, after the behavior is established, the prompts should be gradually removed. The gradual removal of prompts is referred to as:
Select one:
a. blocking.
b. shaping.
c. thinning.
d. fading.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with all of the terms listed in the answers to this question. These terms are defined in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.
Answer D is correct: The term “fading” is used to describe the gradual removal of a prompt.
The correct answer is: fading.
Escape conditioning becomes avoidance conditioning when:
Select one:
a. a signal is provided that indicates that positive reinforcement will be withheld.
b. a signal is provided that indicates that an aversive stimulus is about to be delivered.
c. the target behavior is positively reinforced.
d. the discriminative stimulus is removed.
Escape and avoidance conditioning are both applications of negative reinforcement. For the exam, you want to be familiar with the difference between them.
Answer B is correct: Avoidance conditioning is more complex than escape conditioning and involves presenting a cue immediately before the aversive stimulus is applied so that the individual can avoid the aversive stimulus by engaging in the target behavior as soon as the cue is presented. Additional information about escape and avoidance conditioning is provided in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.
The correct answer is: a signal is provided that indicates that an aversive stimulus is about to be delivered.
In the context of stimulus control, a positive discriminative stimulus:
Select one:
a. signals that a behavior will be reinforced.
b. signals that the individual can choose between two or more reinforcers.
c. is a type of primary reinforcer.
d. is a type of secondary reinforcer.
When the occurrence of a behavior is affected by the presence of a discriminative stimulus, the behavior is said to be under stimulus control.
Answer A is correct: A positive discriminative stimulus indicates that the behavior will be reinforced, while a negative discriminative stimulus indicates that it will not be reinforced.
The correct answer is: signals that a behavior will be reinforced.
Thorndike’s research with cats in puzzle boxes provided information about:
Select one:
a. trial-and-error learning.
b. insight learning.
c. generative learning.
d. overlearning.
Thorndike was interested in the slow, trial-and-error nature of the cats’ learning.
Answer A is correct: He concluded that learning was not due to mental events but to connections that develop between stimuli and responses as the result of trial-and-error.
The correct answer is: trial-and-error learning.
A chimpanzee pushes a button to turn on a tone. Once the tone sounds, the chimpanzee pulls a lever to turn on a green light. Once the green light is on, the chimpanzee slides a door open to obtain a treat. Which of the following techniques was used to teach this sequence of behaviors to the chimpanzee?
Select one:
a. forward conditioning
b. differential reinforcement
c. shaping
d. chaining
For the exam, you want to be familiar with all of the techniques listed in the answers to this question. These are described in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.
Answer D is correct: Chaining is used to establish a complex sequence of behaviors (i.e., a “behavioral chain”) like the one described in this question.
The correct answer is: chaining
An operant technique in which all opportunities for positive reinforcement are made unavailable for a specified period of time following the performance of an undesirable behavior in order to reduce that behavior is known as:
Select one:
a. response cost.
b. overcorrection.
c. time-out.
d. classical extinction.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with all of the techniques listed in the answers to this question. These are described in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.
Answer C is correct: Time-out is also known as “time-out from positive reinforcement” and involves removing all reinforcement for a specified period of time following a behavior in order to decrease or eliminate that behavior.
The correct answer is: time-out.
A teacher uses verbal reprimands whenever students in his class misbehave in order to reduce their misbehavior. If the reprimands have the desired effect, they are acting as which of the following? Select one:
a. positive punishment
b. negative punishment
c. positive reinforcement
d. negative reinforcement
For the exam, you want to be able to distinguish between the different types of punishment and reinforcement so that you can answer questions like this one. Additional information about punishment and reinforcement is provided in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.
Answer A is correct: Verbal reprimands are used to reduce an undesirable behavior and involve applying a stimulus following that behavior – i.e., they are a form of positive punishment.
Answer B is incorrect: Negative punishment involves removing a stimulus following a behavior in order to reduce or eliminate that behavior.
Answer C is incorrect: Positive reinforcement involves applying a stimulus following a behavior in order to increase that behavior.
Answer D is incorrect: Negative reinforcement involves removing a stimulus following a behavior in order to increase that behavior.
The correct answer is: positive punishment
Differential reinforcement is best conceptualized as which of the following?
Select one:
a. a combination of punishment and positive reinforcement
b. a combination of extinction and positive reinforcement
c. a straightforward application of positive reinforcement
d. a straightforward application of negative reinforcement
Differential reinforcement involves reinforcing all behaviors except the target behavior.
Answer B is correct: When using differential reinforcement, the individual receives positive reinforcement for desirable behaviors while the target behavior is ignored. In other words, desirable behaviors are positively reinforced while the target behavior is extinguished. An example of differential reinforcement is provided in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.
The correct answer is: a combination of extinction and positive reinforcement
“Grandma’s rule” – e.g., “You must eat your string beans before you can go outside to play” – is most similar to which of the following techniques?
Select one:
a. Premack Principle
b. escape conditioning
c. response cost
d. negative practice
For the exam, you want to be familiar with all of the techniques listed in the answers to this question. These are described in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.
Answer A is correct: Use of a high-frequency behavior (going out to play) to reinforce a low-frequency behavior (eating string beans) to increase the low-frequency behavior is referred to as the Premack Principle.
The correct answer is: Premack Principle
In a token economy, the tokens are:
Select one:
a. back-up reinforcers.
b. generalized secondary reinforcers.
c. discriminitive stimuli.
d. unconditioned stimuli.
A token economy is a structured environment in which desirable behaviors are reinforced with tokens that can be exchanged for desired items, activities, etc.
Answer B is correct: Tokens are generalized secondary reinforcers that have value only because they can be exchanged for primary reinforcers.
Answer A is incorrect: The items and activities that can be “purchased” with tokens are back-up (primary) reinforcers.
Answer C is incorrect: Discriminative stimuli signal whether or not a particular behavior will be reinforced.
Answer D is incorrect: Tokens are conditioned (not unconditioned) stimuli since they have no reinforcing value on their own but are reinforcing only because they can be exchanged for desirable items, activities, etc.
The correct answer is: generalized secondary reinforcers.
The technique known as “overcorrection” consists of:
Select one:
a. education, behavioral rehearsal, and generalization.
b. positive punishment, positive practice, and generalization.
c. restitution, positive practice, and physical guidance.
d. restitution, behavioral rehearsal, and differential reinforcement.
Overcorrection is usually classified as a type of positive punishment and involves applying a penalty following an undesirable behavior in order to eliminate it.
Answer C is correct: Overcorrection consists of two phases – restitution and positive practice. In addition, it may also require physically guiding the individual through the corrective behaviors. [RPPP]
The correct answer is: restitution, positive practice, and physical guidance.
You would conduct a functional behavioral assessment to:
Select one:
a. identify an examinee’s strengths and weaknesses with regard to a specific content domain.
b. identify the antecedents and consequences that control or maintain a specific behavior.
c. determine the expectations of others (e.g., parents or teachers) regarding a child’s performance.
d. determine the knowledge and skills required to perform a job or task successfully.
As its name implies, a functional behavioral assessment (FBA) is conducted to identify the functions of a behavior.
Answer B is correct: An FBA is conducted to identify the environmental factors (antecedents and consequences) that control the target behavior.
The correct answer is: identify the antecedents and consequences that control or maintain a specific behavior.
A researcher designs a study to investigate college students’ expectations regarding their ability to master a new skill, achieve a particular goal, or produce a particular outcome. Apparently, this researcher is interested in which of the following phenomena?
Select one:
a. locus of control
b. need for achievement
c. self-actualization
d. self-efficacy
For the exam, you want to be familiar with all of the constructs listed in the answers to this question.
Answer D is correct: Bandura used the term self-efficacy to refer to an individual’s beliefs or expectations regarding his or her ability to perform specific behaviors. For example, a person has high self-efficacy beliefs when she believes that she has the knowledge or skills necessary to successfully complete a particular task. Of the phenomena listed in the answers, self-efficacy best describes the researcher’s interest.
Answer A is incorrect: Rotter used the term locus of control to refer to a person’s beliefs about the factors that control his or her outcomes, and he distinguished between an internal and external locus of control.
Answer B is incorrect: McClelland used the term need for achievement to refer to an acquired characteristic that motivates individuals to undertake tasks when there is a moderate probability for successful performance.
Answer C is incorrect: As defined by Maslow, self-actualization refers to the full use or development of one’s potential.
The correct answer is: self-efficacy
Bandura’s notion of reciprocal determinism is useful for explaining:
Select one:
a. how a more desirable response can be used to replace an undesirable response.
b. how the individual and his or her environment influence each other.
c. how learning can occur without being manifested in performance.
d. why a behavior is performed without being internally or externally reinforced.
As defined by Bandura, reciprocal determinism refers to the interactions between a person’s characteristics, the person’s behavior, and the environment.
Answer B is correct: Bandura rejected the behavioral view of the environment as a one-way determinant of behavior and proposed, instead, that there is a reciprocal (influential and interactive) relationship between the person’s cognitive, affective, and other characteristics, the person’s behavior, and the environment.
Answer A is incorrect: This answer describes Wolpe’s notion of reciprocal inhibition.
Answer C is incorrect: Although Bandura believed that learning can occur without being manifested in performance, this is not a prediction or assumption of his notion of reciprocal determinism.
Answer D is incorrect: Bandura’s social learning theory addresses the role of reinforcement in the acquisition of a behavior, but this part of his theory is not directly relevant to the notion of reciprocal determinism. In addition, the theory states that learning of a behavior can occur without reinforcement but performance of that behavior is more likely when the behavior is reinforced.
The correct answer is: how the individual and his or her environment influence each other.
Bandura’s research on the effects of modeling for treating snake phobia found that which of the following was the most effective strategy?
Select one:
a. symbolic modeling
b. participant modeling
c. covert modeling
d. vicarious modeling
Bandura’s research on observational learning included comparing the effectiveness of several types of modeling.
Answer B is correct: Bandura found that participant modeling (observing a model followed by guided participation) was the most effective method for eliminating phobic reactions. Additional information about Bandura’s theory and research is provided in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.
The correct answer is: participant modeling
From the perspective of the reformulated version of the learned helplessness model, depression results when a person attributes negative events to:
Select one:
a. external, stable, and global factors.
b. external, unstable, and specific factors.
c. internal, unstable, and specific factors.
d. internal, stable, and global factors.
Abramson et al.’s (1978) reformulated version of the learned helplessness model added attributions for negative events to the original model.
Answer D is correct: According to the reformulated version, people who are depressed tend to blame themselves for negative events, believe that negative events will always happen to them, and think that negativity will affect all aspects of their lives – i.e., they make internal, stable, and global attributions.
The correct answer is: internal, stable, and global factors.
Kohler’s (1925) research with chimpanzees led to his description of which of the following?
Select one:
a. cognitive maps
b. observational learning
c. insight learning
d. “superstitious” behavior
Kohler’s research led him to conclude that learning can be the result of an “aha” experience.
Answer C is correct: Kohler proposed that learning can be the result of insight (an “aha” experience) that reflects an internal cognitive restructuring of the environment that allows the organism to achieve its goals.
Answer A is incorrect: Tolman concluded that rats in his studies had developed cognitive maps of the mazes they were allowed to explore.
Answer B is incorrect: Bandura is associated with observational learning.
Answer D is incorrect: Skinner found that accidental, noncontingent reinforcement can lead to “superstitious” behavior.
The correct answer is: insight learning
Tolman used the notion of “cognitive maps” as support for which of the following?
Select one:
a. the law of effect
b. insight learning
c. latent learning
d. observational learning
For the exam, you want to be familiar with all of the phenomena listed in the answers to this question. These are described in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.
Answer C is correct: Tolman’s notion of cognitive maps was derived from his research in which rats were allowed to explore a maze without being reinforced for doing so. The results indicated that the animals had learned something about the maze – i.e., they had formed cognitive maps. This led Tolman to conclude that learning can occur without apparent changes or improvements in behavior and he referred to this as latent learning.
The correct answer is: latent learning
According to Beck (1967, 1984), ideas or images that come without effort and that elicit an emotional reaction are:
Select one:
a. cognitive distortions.
b. automatic thoughts.
c. prototypes.
d. schemata.
Beck distinguishes between automatic thoughts, cognitive distortions, and cognitive schemas.
Answer B is correct: This is an accurate description of automatic thoughts, which occur automatically and elicit an emotional response.
Answer A is incorrect: Cognitive distortions are maladaptive ways of processing information and may underlie automatic thoughts.
Answer C is incorrect: Prototypes are models that contain the most salient or typical features of an event, object, etc.
Answer D is incorrect: Schemata are cognitive structures that guide an individual’s perceptions and appraisals.
The correct answer is: automatic thoughts.
A practitioner of Beck’s cognitive therapy uses __________ questions to help clients identify and correct their logical errors and biases.
Select one:
a. Socratic
b. exception
c. circular
d. scaling
Socratic questioning (dialogue) involves asking questions designed to help the client identify and replace maladaptive beliefs.
Answer A is correct: Examples of Socratic questions include “Is there any evidence for this belief?” and “What are the advantages and disadvantages of thinking this way?”
Answer B is incorrect: Exception questions are used by solution-focused therapies to help identify times in a client’s life that were not problematic.
Answer C is incorrect: Circular questions are used by Milan systemic therapists to help family members recognize similarities and differences in their perceptions.
Answer D is incorrect: Scaling questions are used by solution-focused therapists to measure changes in attitude, motivation, feelings, etc.
The correct answer is: Socratic
A therapy client says, “I feel useless and incompetent and, therefore, I must be a worthless, incompetent person.” As described by Aaron Beck, this is an example of:
Select one:
a. selective abstraction.
b. overgeneralization.
c. personalization.
d. emotional reasoning.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the cognitive distortions listed in the answers to this question. These are described in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.
Answer D is correct: Emotional reasoning occurs when a person believes that things are a certain way because he or she feels they are that way (i.e., “I feel, therefore I am”).
The correct answer is: emotional reasoning.
Biofeedback is more effective than relaxation training for which of the following?
Select one:
a. lower back pain
b. hypertension
c. insomnia
d. Raynaud’s disease
Researchers have compared the effectiveness of biofeedback and relaxation training for a number of disorders including those listed in the answers to this question.
Answer D is correct: As noted in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials, the research has found relaxation training to be as effective or more effective than biofeedback for lower back pain, hypertension, and insomnia. However, thermal biofeedback is more effective for Raynaud’s disease.
The correct answer is: Raynaud’s disease
Cognitive preparation, skills acquisition, and application and follow-through are the three overlapping phases of which of the following strategies?
Select one:
a. problem-solving therapy
b. attribution retraining
c. stress inoculation
d. self-instructional training
For the exam, you want to be familiar with all of the strategies listed in the answers to this question. These are described in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.
Answer C is correct: Stress inoculation was designed to help people deal effectively with stress by enhancing their coping skills. It consists of the three phases listed in this question (cognitive preparation, skills acquisition, and application and follow-through).
The correct answer is: stress inoculation
In Albert Ellis’s A-B-C model, B refers to:
Select one:
a. behaviors and emotions that occur in response to an antecedent event.
b. beliefs about an antecedent event.
c. behaviors and emotions that occur in response to beliefs about an antecedent event.
d. biological (physiological) responses to an antecedent event.
Ellis’s Rational-Emotive Behavior Therapy (REBT) is based on the assumption that emotional and behavioral reactions are the result of a chain of events.
Answer B is correct: In Ellis’s model, A refers to the antecedent event; B is the person’s belief about the antecedent event; and C is the emotional or behavioral consequence (response) to B.
The correct answer is: beliefs about an antecedent event.
Rehm’s self-control therapy focuses on which of the following?
Select one:
a. self-monitoring, self-evaluation, and self-reinforcement
b. self-esteem, self-determination, and self-evaluation
c. self-monitoring, self-management, and self-actualization
d. self-evaluation, self-determination, and self-acceptance
Rehm’s self-control therapy is based on the assumption that deficits in three aspects of self-control can increase a person’s vulnerability to depression.
Answer A is correct: Self-monitoring, self-evaluation, and self-reinforcement are the three targets of self-control therapy.
The correct answer is: self-monitoring, self-evaluation, and self-reinforcement
The notion of “collaborative empiricism” is associated with:
Select one:
a. Ellis.
b. Beck.
c. Adler.
d. Perls.
Collaborative empiricism refers to the collaborative relationship between client and therapist that involves working together to gather data and test the logic of the client’s thoughts and beliefs.
Answer B is correct: Collaborative empiricism is a key strategy of Beck’s cognitive-behavioral therapy. When using this strategy, the therapist and client work together to gather evidence and test hypotheses about the client’s beliefs.
The correct answer is: Beck.
A person with deficits in prospective memory will have trouble:
Select one:
a. remembering a future meeting with a co-worker.
b. remembering what she did on her last birthday.
c. recalling how to play the violin after not doing so for several years.
d. recalling the information needed to answer this question.
Prospective memory refers to the ability to remember to perform an action in the future.
Answer A is correct: A person with deficits in prospective memory would have trouble remembering a future meeting or appointment.
Answer B is incorrect: Deficits in episodic memory would affect the ability to recall a personally experienced event that occurred in the past.
Answer C is incorrect: Deficits in procedural memory might affect a person’s ability to recall how to play a musical instrument.
Answer D is incorrect: Deficits in semantic memory might affect the ability to recall the answer to this question.
The correct answer is: remembering a future meeting with a co-worker.
A research participant remembers a list of unrelated words by envisioning each item in a different location in her living room while memorizing and then recalling the list (e.g., one item on the TV, one under the coffee table, one on the chair). This is referred to as:
Select one:
a. the keyword method.
b. the method of loci.
c. the serial position effect.
d. elaborative rehearsal.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with all of the terms listed in the answers to this question. They are described in the section on memory and forgetting in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.
Answer B is correct: The method of loci (“method of places”) is a mnemonic device that makes use of visual imagery.
The correct answer is: the method of loci.
As conceptualized in Baddeley and Hitch’s (1974) multi-component model, the ________ is responsible for directing attention to relevant sensory information.
Select one:
a. cognitive sketchpad
b. sensory coding system
c. central executive
d. episodic buffer
According to the multi-component model, working memory consists of a central executive and three subsystems – the phonological loop, the visuo-spatial sketchpad, and the episodic buffer.
Answer C is correct: The central executive is the primary component of working memory and acts as an “attentional control system.” Additional information about this model is provided in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.
The correct answer is: central executive
Craik and Lockhart’s (1972) levels-of-processing model:
Select one:
a. describes memory in terms of a “dual store.”
b. implies that elaborative rehearsal is more effective than maintenance rehearsal.
c. focuses on the biological correlates of sensory, short-term, and long-term memory.
d. implies that the duration of rehearsal is more important than the depth of rehearsal.
As its name suggests, the levels-of-processing model assumes that memory for information is affected by the depth of processing of that information.
Answer B is correct: The levels-of-processing model distinguishes between three levels – structural, phonemic, and semantic. The deepest and most effective level is the semantic (“meaning”) level, and elaborative rehearsal involves encoding information at the semantic level.
The correct answer is: implies that elaborative rehearsal is more effective than maintenance rehearsal.
Echoic is to iconic as:
Select one:
a. procedural is to declarative.
b. temporary is to permanent.
c. external is to internal.
d. auditory is to visual.
The terms echoic and iconic provide cues as to what they refer to – i.e., “echo” suggests sound, while “icon” suggests an image.
Answer D is correct: The terms echoic and iconic are used to describe sensory memories and refer, respectively, to memory for auditory stimuli and memory for visual stimuli.
The correct answer is: auditory is to visual.
In high school, Stuart S. took Spanish for four years and, as a result, became a pretty good speaker of Spanish. During his first year of college, Stuart took French and, at the end of the year, he found that he had trouble remembering many Spanish words. This is best explained by which of the following?
Select one:
a. retroactive interference
b. proactive interference
c. anterograde decay
d. retrograde decay
For the exam, you want to be able to distinguish between retroactive and proactive interference so that you can answer questions like this one. The Learning Theory chapter includes diagrams that may help you distinguish between them.
Answer A is correct: Retroactive interference occurs when something learned in the present interferes with the ability to recall something learned in the past.
Answer B is incorrect: Proactive interference occurs when something learned in the past interferes with the ability to learn or recall something learned in the present.
Answer C is incorrect: See explanation for Answer A.
Answer D is incorrect: See explanation for Answer A.
The correct answer is: retroactive interference
Sensory memory:
Select one:
a. holds a very small amount of sensory data for a brief period.
b. holds a very small amount of sensory data for a long period.
c. holds a large amount of sensory data for a brief period.
d. holds a large amount of sensory data for a long period.
The multi-store (information processing) model divides memory into three components – sensory, short-term, and long-term.
Answer C is correct: While sensory memory seems to be able to hold a large amount of incoming sensory information, it does so for no more than a few seconds.
The correct answer is: holds a large amount of sensory data for a brief period.
Studies on the “serial position effect” have provided information on:
Select one:
a. primacy and recency effects.
b. retrograde and anterograde amnesia.
c. echoic and iconic memory.
d. proactive and retroactive interference.
The serial position effect is the tendency to recall items at the beginning and end of a list better than items in the middle of the list.
Answer A is correct: Enhanced recall of items at the beginning of a list is referred to as the primacy effect, while enhanced recall of items at the end of a list is called the recency effect.
The correct answer is: primacy and recency effects.
A psychologist who views learning as the result of operant conditioning would likely attribute the acquisition of complex behaviors to which of the following?
Select one:
A. behavioral chaining
B. stimulus substitution
C. higher-order conditioning
D. stimulus generalization
From the perspective of operant conditioning, new behaviors are acquired as the result of reinforcement.
a. CORRECT When using chaining (also known as behavioral chaining), each response in the chain of responses required to learn and perform a complex behavior serves as reinforcement for the previous response in the chain.
b. Incorrect Pavlov used the term stimulus substitution to describe the connection between a CS and US - i.e., as the result of this connection, the CS substitutes for the US.
c. Incorrect Higher-order conditioning is a form of classical conditioning involving the pairing of a neutral stimulus with a conditioned stimulus so that the neutral stimulus also elicits the conditioned response.
d. Incorrect Stimulus generalization is occurring when stimuli similar to the conditioned stimulus also elicit the conditioned response. It explains why behaviors occur in situations outside the context in which they were originally learned.
The correct answer is: behavioral chaining
