Psychological Assessment - Domain Quiz Flashcards
(103 cards)
1
Q
A domain-referenced test would be most useful for:
Select one:
a. determining how much an examinee knows about statistics compared to other examinees.
b. determining how well an examinee has mastered a unit on inferential statistics.
c. determining whether or not test items are a representative sample of the information taught in a statistics class.
d. determining an examinee’s aptitude for statistics.
A
Knowing that domain-referenced tests are also known as content-referenced tests may have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
Answer B is correct: Domain-referenced tests are interpreted in terms of how much the examinee has learned or can do.
Answer A is incorrect: A norm-referenced test is useful for comparing the performance of an examinee to individuals in the norm group.
The correct answer is: determining how well an examinee has mastered a unit on inferential statistics.
2
Q
A measure of crystallized intelligence would include items that assess which of the following?
Select one:
a. short-term memory
b. general knowledge
c. ability to solve novel problems
d. processing speed
A
Horn and Cattell (1966) proposed that general intelligence (g) consists of two factors – crystallized intelligence and fluid intelligence.
Answer B is correct: As described by Horn and Cattell, crystallized intelligence includes acquired skills and knowledge and is affected by educational and cultural experiences.
Answer C is incorrect: Ability to solve novel problems is an aspect of fluid intelligence, which does not depend on specific instruction.
Answer D is incorrect: Processing speed is not directly reflective of crystallized or fluid intelligence, although it can impact performance on measures of fluid intelligence.
The correct answer is: general knowledge
3
Q
An adult in his or her late 50s is most likely to exhibit an age-related decline on cognitive tasks involving: Select one: a. verbal memory. b. spatial orientation. c. processing speed. d. inductive reasoning.
A
Investigators interested in the impact of increasing age on cognitive abilities have determined that some abilities are more negatively affected than others.
Answer C is correct: The effects of increasing age on the cognitive abilties listed in the answers were investigated by Schaie and collegues in their Seattle Longitudinal Study. They found that only perceptual speed declined prior to age 60. Additional information about this study is provided in the Psychological Assessment chapter of the written study materials.
The correct answer is: processing speed.
4
Q
In a scatterplot, a “slope bias” is indicative of which of the following?
Select one:
a. shrinkage
b. criterion contamination
c. measurement error
d. differential validity
A
The term “slope” refers to the angle of the regression line, and slope bias occurs when a predictor has different validity coefficients for different groups, which produces regression lines with different angles.
Answer D is correct: The term “differential validity” refers to different validity coefficients for different groups.
Answer A is incorrect: For the exam, you want to have shrinkage associated with cross-validation. It refers to the tendency of a predictor’s criterion-related validity coefficient to be smaller when the predictor and criterion are administered to a new sample.
Answer B is incorrect: Criterion contamination occurs when a rater’s knowledge of an individual’s performance on the predictor affects how the rater rates the individual on the criterion.
Answer C is incorrect: The term “measurement error” refers to random factors that reduce test reliability.
The correct answer is: differential validity
5
Q
Overall, the best conclusion that can be drawn about the effects of examiner race on the performance of African American children on standard IQ tests is that:
Select one:
a. African American children score higher when the examiner is of the same race.
b. African American children score higher when the examiner is White.
c. there is a consistent negative effect of examiner race only on tests that focus on verbal abilities.
d. there is no consistent effect of examiner race on the scores of African American children.
A
The effect of examiner race on the test performance of minority children continues to be a controversial topic, at least in part, because the research has not produced consistent results.
Answer D is correct: The research on this issue has produced inconsistent results, with many studies finding no effect of matching or mismatching in terms of race or ethnicity and others finding either a positive or negative effect.
The correct answer is: there is no consistent effect of examiner race on the scores of African American children.
6
Q
Research comparing actuarial and clinical predictions indicates that:
Select one:
a. predictions based on actuarial approaches or on clinical judgment are about equally accurate.
b. predictions based on clinical judgment are usually more accurate than predictions based on actuarial approaches.
c. predictions based on actuarial approaches are usually more accurate than predictions based on clinical judgment.
d. predictions based on actuarial approaches plus clinical judgment are no more accurate than predictions based on clinical judgment alone.
A
Actuarial (statistical) approaches are based on empirically validated relationships between test results and target criteria, while clinical judgment relies on the decision-maker’s intuition, experience, and knowledge.
Answer C is correct: The studies have consistently found that actuarial approaches lead to more accurate predictions than clinical judgment and that combining actuarial approaches and clinical judgment does not usually improve on actuarial approaches alone.
The correct answer is: predictions based on actuarial approaches are usually more accurate than predictions based on clinical judgment.
7
Q
Studies examining the impact of heredity on IQ have correlated the IQs of children and their siblings and/or parents. These studies suggest that the correlation for biological siblings reared together is about:
Select one:
a. .10 to .15.
b. .25 to .30.
c. .40 to .45.
d. .55 to .60.
A
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the IQ concordance rates included in the Psychological Assessment chapter of the written study materials.
Answer C is correct: The reported correlations vary somewhat from study to study but, of the ranges given, a range of .40 to .45 is closest to the correlations reported for biological siblings reared together.
The correct answer is: .40 to .45.
8
Q
“Testing the limits” is ordinarily done:
Select one:
a. as an alternative to administering the test using standardized procedures.
b. before the test is administered using standardized procedures.
c. after the test has been administered using standardized procedures.
d. whenever an examinee makes an unexpected or unusual response.
A
Testing the limits is a type of dynamic assessment that involves providing the examinee with cues, prompts, or suggestions in order to obtain additional information about the examinee.
Answer C is correct: Testing the limits is ordinarily done after standard administration of the test in order to maintain the test’s psychometric integrity.
The correct answer is: after the test has been administered using standardized procedures.
9
Q
Which data collection method would involve compiling data about the client from several different sources?
Select one:
a. Self-report
b. Direct observation
c. Structured interview
d. Multi-informant report
A
Answer D is correct: Multi-Informant reports involve collecting data from several different sources, such as a client’s medical history or speaking with the client’s family and friends. This format allows for a large amount of information to be gathered, but contrary information about the client may be gathered due to the number of sources. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect, as they only involve one source of information.
The correct answer is: Multi-informant report
10
Q
A child with ADHD would most likely obtain the HIGHEST score on which of the following WISC-V subtests?
Select one:
a. Picture Span
b. Arithmetic
c. Information
d. Coding
A
To identify the correct answer to this question, you need to know which of the four subtests listed in the answers is least affected by the core symptoms of ADHD.
Answer C is correct: Knowing that children with ADHD are likely to obtain the highest score on the Verbal Comprehension Index of the WISC-V and that, of the subtests listed in the answers, the Information subtest is the only one that contributes to the Verbal Comprehension Index score would have helped you identify it as the correct answer. See, e.g., D. Wechsler, WISC-V: Technical and interpretive manual supplement, Bloomington, MN, PsychCorp, 2014.
The correct answer is: Information
11
Q
An adult with mild Alzheimer’s dementia is likely to obtain the LOWEST score on which of the following WAIS-IV Indexes?
Select one:
a. Verbal Comprehension
b. Perceptual Reasoning
c. Working Memory
d. Processing Speed
A
Answer D is correct: The Technical Manual for the WAIS-IV reports the following mean index scores for patients with mild Alzheimer's dementia: Verbal Comprehension = 86.2 Perceptual Reasoning = 85.8 Working Memory = 84.3 Processing Speed = 76.6.
The correct answer is: Processing Speed
12
Q
An examinee’s score on the optional General Ability Index (GAI) on the WAIS-IV is derived from his or her scores on which of the following?
Select one:
a. Verbal Comprehension and Perceptual Reasoning
b. Verbal Comprehension and Working Memory
c. Processing Speed and Perceptual Reasoning
d. Working Memory and Processing Speed
A
Answer A is correct: The GAI score is useful when the examiner wants to derive a summary score that minimizes the impact of working memory and processing speed, which are both affected by a number of clinical conditions. It is derived from scores on the three Verbal Comprehension subtests and three Perceptual Reasoning subtests.
The correct answer is: Verbal Comprehension and Perceptual Reasoning
13
Q
Raven’s Progressive Matrices is a measure of:
Select one:
a. psychomotor ability.
b. simultaneous and sequential processing.
c. “successful intelligence.”
d. Spearman’s “g.”
A
Raven’s Progressive Matrices requires the examinee to solve problems involving abstract figures and designs by indicating which of several alternatives complete a given matrix.
Answer D is correct: Raven’s Progressive Matrices was designed to be a nonverbal measure of general intelligence (g).
The correct answer is: Spearman’s “g.”
14
Q
The PPVT-4 is the most recent version of the Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test, which was originally developed as a measure of:
Select one:
a. cognitive ability for individuals with Mental Retardation.
b. receptive vocabulary for individuals with physical disabilities.
c. nonverbal reasoning for non-English speakers.
d. short- and long-term memory for individuals with traumatic brain injury.
A
The Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test (PPVT) presents the examinee with stimulus cards that contain four pictures. As each card is presented, the examiner says a word and the examinee responds by indicating the picture that best illustrates the meaning of the word.
Answer B is correct: The PPVT was originally designed as a measure of receptive vocabulary for individuals with cerebral palsy and other physical disabilities but is now also used for other individuals including those with autism, ADHD, or a neurological impairment.
The correct answer is: receptive vocabulary for individuals with physical disabilities.
15
Q
The WISC-V provides scores on all of the following indexes except:
Select one:
a. Verbal Comprehension.
b. Perceptual Organization.
c. Working Memory.
d. Processing Speed.
A
The WISC-V provides a Full Scale IQ score and scores on five indexes and numerous subtests.
Answer B is correct: The WISC-V provides scores on the following indexes:
Verbal Comprehension Visual Spatial Fluid Reasoning Working Memory Processing Speed.
The correct answer is: Perceptual Organization.
16
Q
Which of the following is a 12-minute, 50-item test of general cognitive ability for adults?
Select one:
a. Leiter-3
b. Kuhlmann-Anderson
c. Haptic
d. Wonderlic
A
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the purpose of each of the tests listed in the answers to this question. Additional information about these tests is provided in the Psychological Assessment chapter of the written study materials.
Answer D is correct: The Wonderlic Personnel Test-Revised is a 12-minute, 50-item test of general mental ability for adults that is used by employers to assist with hiring decisions.
Answer A is incorrect: The Leiter-3 is culture-fair measure of cognitive abilities for individuals ages 3 to 75+.
Answer B is incorrect: The Kuhlman-Anderson is a group intelligence test for children in grades K through 12.
Answer C is incorrect: The Haptic Intelligence Scale was designed for individuals ages 16 and older who are blind or partially sighted.
The correct answer is: Wonderlic
17
Q
You would use the Leiter-3 to assess:
Select one:
a. the cognitive abilities of a non-English speaking child or adolescent.
b. the linguistic abilities of a child with a language disability.
c. the functional skills of a child or adolescent with Intellectual Disability.
d. the intelligence of an adolescent or adult who is blind or partially sighted.
A
The Leiter-3 was designed as a culture-fair measure of cognitive abilities for individuals ages 3 to 75+ years.
Answer A is correct: Because the Leiter-3 can be administered without verbal instructions and does not require verbal responses, it would be useful for assessing the cognitive abilities of a non-English speaking child or adolescent.
The correct answer is: the cognitive abilities of a non-English speaking child or adolescent.
18
Q
Curriculum-based measures are useful for:
Select one:
a. monitoring a student’s progress to evaluate instructional effectiveness.
b. assessing a student’s mastery of the curriculum in high school to predict his or her performance in college.
c. determining what strategies a student is using to solve complex academic problems.
d. ensuring that test items are tailored to the abilities of the individual student.
A
Curriculum-based measures are standardized tests that are used to evaluate a student’s performance on items or tasks that are closely linked to the current curriculum.
Answer A is correct: A primary use of curriculum-based measures is to evaluate a student’s progress in order to determine if instruction needs to be modified.
The correct answer is: monitoring a student’s progress to evaluate instructional effectiveness.
19
Q
Factor analyses have indicated that psychomotor skills:
Select one:
a. are highly interdependent.
b. depend primarily on strength and speed.
c. are highly independent.
d. are reflective of “g.”
A
In contrast to intelligence, psychomotor ability does not seem to have an underlying “g” factor.
Answer C is correct: The research has confirmed that the various psychomotor skills are relatively independent and that there is no underlying “general psychomotor factor.”
The correct answer is: are highly independent.
20
Q
One criticism of multiaptitude test batteries is that they lack adequate differential validity, which means that:
Select one:
a. they are often less valid for members of minority groups than for members of the majority group.
b. their subtests have similar levels of validity for predicting outcomes for different criterion groups.
c. performance on their subtests is highly correlated with intelligence or other extraneous variable.
d. performance on their subtests is affected by “floor” and “ceiling” effects.
A
The term “differential validity” has different meanings depending on the context.
Answer B is correct: Multiaptitude batteries are used to make placement decisions but their ability to do so is limited when each subtest has high validity coefficients for more than one criterion group – i.e., when the subtests lack differential validity. (In the context of multiaptitude batteries, differential validity is a desirable characteristic.)
Answer A is incorrect: In the context of test bias and adverse impact, differential validity is undesirable refers to different validity coefficients for different groups.
The correct answer is: their subtests have similar levels of validity for predicting outcomes for different criterion groups.
21
Q
On the Self-Directed Search (SDS), the artistic theme is most similar to which of the following themes?
Select one:
a. enterprising
b. realistic
c. conventional
d. investigative
A
Holland’s model of career choice provides the framework fo the SDS and distinguishes between six personality or occupational types that are arranged in a hexagon in the following order – realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, conventional (“RIASEC”).
Answer D is correct: The artistic theme is adjacent to the investigative theme in the hexagon, which indicates they share some characteristics.
The correct answer is: investigative
22
Q
Research investigating the predictive validity of interest inventories suggests that they are LEAST accurate for predicting:
Select one:
a. job performance.
b. job choice.
c. job persistence.
d. job satisfaction.
A
Although interest tests are not very good predictors of academic and occupational success, they are useful for predicting other outcomes.
Answer A is correct: Of the outcomes listed in the answers, job performance is least related to interest test scores, probably because it is affected by a variety of factors including ability, experience, and motivation.
The correct answer is: job performance.
23
Q
The Scholastic Assessment Test (SAT) appears to be LEAST accurate as a predictor for:
Select one:
a. examinees who score in the mid-range.
b. examinees who score at the high or low end.
c. examinees who score in the lower one-third.
d. examinees who score in the upper one-third.
A
There is evidence that SAT scores are less accurate predictors of college GPA for certain examinees.
Answer A is correct: The SAT and similar tests are better predictors of college success for examinees who score at the extremes than for those who score in the mid-range.
The correct answer is: examinees who score in the mid-range.
24
Q
The Strong Interest Inventory provides scores on all of the following except:
Select one:
a. Personal Styles Scales.
b. Basic Interest Scales.
c. General Occupational Themes.
d. College Major Scales.
A
The Strong Interest Inventory provides scores on:
General Occupational Themes Basic Interest Scales Occupational Scales Personal Styles Scales Administrative Indices
Answer D is correct: The Kuder Occupational Interest Survey (KOIS) provides scores on College Major Scales.
The correct answer is: College Major Scales.
25
When using Holland's Self-Directed Search, the degree of match between an examinee's expressed interests and measured interests is referred to as:
Select one:
a. commonness.
b. consistency.
c. coherence.
d. congruence.
The detailed score report for Holland's Self-Directed Search (SDS) provides information on congruence, consistency, differentiation, commonness, and coherence.
Answer D is correct: CONGRUENCE refers to the degree of match between a person's measured interests (three-letter Summary Code) and expressed interests (occupations indicated in the Daydreams Section of the SDS).
Answer A is incorrect: COMMONNESS indicates the frequency with which an examinee's Summary Code occurred in the standardization sample (i.e., the percent of people in the sample who obtained the same code).
Answer B is incorrect: CONSISTENCY refers to the distance between the examinee's first two code letters in the RIASEC hexagon. When the first two code letters are adjacent in the hexagon, the individual's consistency is high.
Answer C is incorrect: COHERENCE is the degree to which an individual's vocational/career interests belong to the same Holland category.
The correct answer is: congruence.
26
A score of 24 or higher on the Mini Mental State Exam (MMSE) suggests which of the following?
Select one:
a. normal functioning
b. depression
c. delirium
d. dementia or psychosis
The MMSE consists of 11 items designed to assess six aspects of cognitive functioning in older adults:
```
orientation
registration
attention and calculation
recall
language
visual construction.
```
Answer A is correct: Scores on the MMSE range from 0 to 30, with higher scores indicating better cognitive functioning. A score above 23 suggests normal cognitive functioning.
The correct answer is: normal functioning
27
A T-score of 100 or higher on the MMPI-2's F Scale suggests:
Select one:
a. an invalid profile.
b. an absence of significant pathology.
c. an attempt to "fake good."
d. brain pathology.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the interpretation of the MMPI-2 validity scales described in the Psychological Assessment chapter of the written study materials.
Answer A is correct: The F (Frequency) Scale is used to assess the validity of the entire MMPI profile and a score of 100 or higher suggests that the test results are invalid.
The correct answer is: an invalid profile.
28
"Confabulation" on the Rorschach Inkblot Test is most suggestive of:
Select one:
a. brain damage.
b. giftedness.
c. sociopathy.
d. an invalid record.
On the Rorschach, confabulation refers to overgeneralizing from a part of an inkblot to the whole.
Answer A is correct: Confabulation is most associated with brain damage, emotional disturbance, and intellectual disability.
The correct answer is: brain damage.
29
Development of the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) was based on which of the following?
Select one:
a. factor analysis
b. empirical criterion keying
c. Murray's personality theory
d. Jung's personality theory
The TAT is a projective personality test that requires examinees to make up stories about pictures that include one or more human figures.
Answer C is correct: The TAT was based on Murray's personality theory which emphasizes the individual's needs, values, and attitudes.
The correct answer is: Murray's personality theory
30
On the Beck Depression Inventory-II (BDI-II), a score between ____ suggests severe depression.
Select one:
a. 90 and 100
b. 70 and 89
c. 29 and 63
d. 39 and 50
The BDI-II consists of 21 items that are rated in severity on a 4-point scale ranging from 0 to 3. The higher an examinee's score, the more severe the depression.
Answer C is correct: The total score on the BDI-II ranges from 0 to 63, with a score between 29 and 63 suggesting severe depression.
The correct answer is: 29 and 63
31
The Bender-Gestalt Test is commonly used as a:
Select one:
a. measure of personality.
b. screening test for brain damage.
c. measure of field dependence or independence.
d. screening test for substance use.
The Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt Test (Bender-Gestalt) is a brief measure of visual-motor integration that requires the examinee to copy geometric designs.
Answer B is correct: The Bender-Gestalt is often used as a screening test for neuropsychological impairment.
Answer A is incorrect: The research has generally found that the Bender-Gestalt is not a reliable measure of personality.
Answer C is incorrect: The Bender-Gestalt is not a measure of field dependence or independence.
Answer D is incorrect: The Bender-Gestalt has not been found useful as a screening tool for substance use.
The correct answer is: screening test for brain damage.
32
The initial identification of the personality traits that are included in the "Big Five" was based on which of the following?
Select one:
a. empirical criterion keying
b. the "logical content" method
c. a lexical approach
d. item response theory
The Big Five personality traits are extraversion, agreeableness, conscientiousness, neuroticism, and openness to experience.
Answer C is correct: Identification of these traits was based on an atheoretical lexical approach that assumes that all socially relevant personality characteristics are encoded in language. Additional information on this approach is provided in the Psychological Assessment chapter of the written study materials.
The correct answer is: a lexical approach
33
The K Scale of the MMPI-2 is treated as a(n):
Select one:
a. suppressor variable.
b. control variable.
c. extraneous variable.
d. criterion variable.
An examinee's score on the K (Correction) Scale is used to correct his or her scores on certain clinical scales.
Answer A is correct: The K Scale is considered to be a suppressor variable because scores correlate with defensiveness, education level, and socioeconomic status, which are unrelated to what is measured by the clinical scales but are likely to suppress scores on those scales.
The correct answer is: suppressor variable.
34
The primary issue in the case of Larry P. v. Riles was:
Select one:
a. the use of intelligence tests as job selection techniques.
b. the use of different cutoff scores for males and females on a placement test.
c. the use of intelligence tests to evaluate African American children for EMR classes.
d. the use of standard achievement tests to diagnose learning disorders in minority students.
The case of Larry P. was brought by plaintiffs on behalf of African American children who were disproportionately enrolled in EMR classes in the San Francisco school system.
Answer C is correct: The judge in this case concluded that IQ tests, which were the primary tool for placing children in EMR classes, were biased against African American children and could no longer be used to make placement decisions about them.
The correct answer is: the use of intelligence tests to evaluate African American children for EMR classes.
35
The Stroop Color-Word Association Test would be most useful for evaluating:
Select one:
a. impulse control and selective attention in a child with ADHD.
b. processing speed and divided attention in a child with ADHD.
c. implicit memory in an adult with Alzheimer's dementia.
d. problem-solving ability in an adult with Alzheimer's dementia.
The Stroop Test assesses the degree to which the examinee can suppress a prepotent response in favor of an unusual one and is considered to be a measure of cognitive flexibility, response inhibition, and selective attention.
Answer A is correct: Poor performance on the Stroop Test is associated with several disorders including ADHD, mania, depression, and Schizophrenia.
The correct answer is: impulse control and selective attention in a child with ADHD.
36
To confirm a diagnosis of Intellectual Disability for a six-year-old child, you would administer the SB5 and which of the following?
Select one:
a. Vineland-III
b. Fagan Test
c. WRAT4
d. KABC-II
A diagnosis of Intellectual Disability requires deficits in intellectual functions (e.g., reasoning, problem-solving, abstract thinking) that are confirmed by a clinical assessment and individualized, standardized intelligence testing; deficits in adaptive functioning that result in a failure to meet community standards of personal independence and social responsibility and impair functioning across multiple environments in one or more activities of daily life (e.g., communication, social participation, independent living); and the onset of intellectual and adaptive functioning deficits during the developmental period.
Answer A is correct: The Vineland-III evaluates adaptive functioning in three domains -- communication, daily living skills, and socialization.
Answer B is incorrect: The Fagan Test assesses an infant's selective attention to novel stimuli.
Answer C is incorrect: The WRAT4 is a screening test for grade-level functioning in reading, spelling, and arithmetic.
Answer D is incorrect: the KABC-II is a measure of cognitive ability for children ages 3 through 18 and would be less useful than the Vineland for confirming a diagnosis of Intellectual Disability when intelligence is being assessed using the SB5 (Stanford-Binet, 5th Edition).
The correct answer is: Vineland-III
37
The Slosson Intelligence Test - Revised 3rd Edition for Children and Adults was developed to be a:
Select one:
A. screening test for crystallized intelligence.
B. screening test for analytical, creative, and practical intellectual abilities.
C. measure of receptive language.
D. culture-fair measure of aptitude.
The Slosson tests include the Slosson Intelligence Test Primary and the Slosson Intelligence Test - Revised 3rd Edition for Children and Adults.
a. CORRECT The SIT-R3-1 was designed as a quick screening test of crystallized (verbal) intelligence for individuals aged 4 through 65.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: screening test for crystallized intelligence.
38
To determine if a predictor is biased against members of a particular group, you would compare:
Select one:
A. the means of the different groups on the predictor.
B. the means of the different groups on the criterion.
C. the regression lines for the different groups.
D. the Y-intercepts for the different groups.
A slope (predictive) bias is suggested when a predictor has different validity coefficients for different groups.
a. Incorrect Differences in mean scores on either the predictor or criterion may or may not be indicative of a slope bias.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT When a test has different validity coefficients for different groups, it will also have different regression lines since the slope of the regression line is directly related to the magnitude of the validity coefficient.
d. Incorrect Different Y-intercepts do not necessarily indicate bias but may, instead, reflect real differences in criterion performance.
The correct answer is: the regression lines for the different groups.
39
In general, interest inventories are least useful for predicting:
Select one:
A. job choice.
B. job satisfaction.
C. job persistence.
D. job performance.
Studies suggest that job performance is more closely related to ability than to interests.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Interest test scores are not good predictors of job performance since, as noted above, performance is more dependent on ability than interests. Interest test scores are, however, good predictors of job choice, satisfaction, and persistence.
The correct answer is: job performance.
40
The Fagan Test of Intelligence assesses which of the following?
Select one:
A. sensorimotor skills
B. visual-motor problem-solving
C. selective attention to novel stimuli
D. personal self-sufficiency
The Fagan Test of Intelligence is a measure of intelligence for infants 3 to 12 months of age.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT The Fagan Test evaluates an infant's selective attention, which is presumed to reflect his/her ability to retain information.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: selective attention to novel stimuli
41
The concordance rate for IQ for biological siblings reared together is approximately:
Select one:
A. .85.
B. .65.
C. .45.
D. .25.
The contribution of heredity to IQ is confirmed by studies showing that the greater the genetic similarity, the higher the concordance rate.
a. Incorrect The concordance rate for identical twins reared together is .85.
b. Incorrect A concordance rate of .65 is closest to the rate for identical twins reared apart.
c. CORRECT Although the rates vary somewhat from study to study, a rate of .45 is the average reported rate for biological siblings reared together.
d. Incorrect A concordance rate of .25 is closest to the rate reported for a biological parent and child living apart.
The correct answer is: .45.
42
Which of the following are the routing subtests for the Stanford-Binet, 5th Edition?
Select one:
A. Object Series/Matrices and Vocabulary
B. Quantitative Reasoning and Memory for Sentences
C. Vocabulary and Quantitative Reasoning
D. Picture Absurdities and Verbal Absurdities
The routing subtests are used to determine the appropriate starting point for the other Stanford-Binet, 5th Edition (SB5) subtests.
a. CORRECT Administration of each of the remaining subtests begins at a level at or slightly below the examinee's ability level, as indicated by his/her performance on the Object Series/Matrices and Vocabulary subtests.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: Object Series/Matrices and Vocabulary
43
A psychologist is designing a study that will investigate the impact of age on intelligence. The results of the psychologist's study will most likely indicate that intelligence test scores begin to decline in early adulthood if she uses which of the following research designs?
Select one:
A. cross-sequential
B. cross-sectional
C. longitudinal
D. analogue
The research has confirmed that the method used to investigate the impact of age on IQ can bias the results of the study.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Early cross-sectional studies on the relationship between age and IQ suggested that IQ scores begin to drop in late adolescence or early adulthood. Subsequent longitudinal and cross-sequential studies found, however, that this result was due more to methodology than to actual IQ score declines - i.e., the apparent age-related declines identified in cross-sectional studies were due to cohort (intergenerational) effects.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: cross-sectional
44
Which of the following is NOT one of Gardner's (1998) multiple intelligences?
Select one:
A. spatial
B. bodily-kinesthetic
C. logical-mathematical
D. practical
Gardner's (1998) theory of multiple intelligences distinguishes between eight types of intellectual ability:
```
linguistic
musical
logical-mathematical
spatial
bodily-kinesthetic
interpersonal
intrapersonal and
naturalistic
```
a. Incorrect Spatial is one of Gardner's abilities.
b. Incorrect Bodily-kinesthetic is also one of Gardner's abilities.
c. Incorrect Logical-mathematical is one of the abilities identified by Gardner.
d. CORRECT Practical one of Sternberg's (but not Gardner's) abilities.
The correct answer is: practical
45
The ____________ provides information on the four cognitive abilities identified by Luria (1980) - i.e., planning, attention, simultaneous processing, and sequential processing.
Select one:
A. Slosson Intelligence Test Primary
B. Cognitive Assessment System
C. Kuhlman-Anderson Test
D. Woodcock Johnson III
For the licensing exam, you'll want to be familiar with the purpose of the tests listed in the answers to this question. Additional information about these tests is included in the Psychological Assessment chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect The Slosson Intelligence Test Primary is a screening test of intelligence for children aged 2 through 7 years, 11 months. It provides Verbal and Performance Scores and a Total Standard Score.
b. CORRECT The Cognitive Assessment System assesses basic cognitive processes that are central to learning. It is based on the PASS model of intelligence that distinguishes between the four cognitive functions identified by Luria (1980) - planning, attention, simultaneous processing, and sequential processing.
c. Incorrect The Kuhlman-Anderson Test is a group intelligence test for children in grades K through 12.
d. Incorrect The Woodcock Johnson III Tests of Cognitive Ability assess general and specific cognitive abilities and are based on the Cattell-Horn-Carroll model of intelligence.
The correct answer is: Cognitive Assessment System
46
The Wisconsin Card Sorting Test is most useful for assessing _____ lobe functioning.
Select one:
A. parietal
B. temporal
C. occipital
D. frontal
The Wisconsin Card Sorting Test (WCST) detects perseverative thinking and deficits in abstract reasoning.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT The WCST is considered to be a measure of executive cognitive abilities and is used by neuropsychologists to assess the functioning of the frontal lobes.
The correct answer is: frontal
47
An examinee whose highest score on Holland's Self-Directed Search is on the realistic scale would probably be least interested in pursuing a career as a:
Select one:
A. farmer.
B. bookkeeper.
C. technical writer.
D. social worker.
The Self-Directed Search provides scores on six occupational themes that are conceptualized as being similar to one another to varying degrees. These themes are described in the Psychological Assessment chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect Agricultural work is consistent with the realistic theme.
b. Incorrect Bookkeeper is associated with the conventional theme, which is similar to the realistic theme.
c. Incorrect Technical writer is associated with the investigative theme, which is also similar to the realistic theme.
d. CORRECT Social work is appropriate for people who score highest on the social theme which is the theme most dissimilar to the realistic theme.
The correct answer is: social worker.
48
To determine a student's instructional needs in terms of current course content, you would be best advised to use:
Select one:
A. a norm-referenced test.
B. a standardized achievement test.
C. a functional behavioral analysis.
D. a curriculum-based measurement.
You may have been able to answer this question through the process of elimination - i.e., by knowing that the description in the question doesn't fit three of the responses.
a. Incorrect A norm-referenced test is one that permits interpretation of an individual examinee's performance in terms of the performance of other examinees in the norm sample.
b. Incorrect A standardized achievement test provides information about an examinee's level of performance but usually doesn't yield the kind of information that is needed to pinpoint a student's instructional needs.
c. Incorrect A functional behavioral analysis is a type of behavioral assessment that is used to identify the characteristics of a target behavior as well as its antecedents and consequences in order to determine the best way to modify that behavior.
d. CORRECT As its name implies, curriculum-based measurement is closely linked to the curriculum. It involves periodic assessment of school-aged children with brief measures of basic academic skills that reflect the school's curriculum in order to identify the student's instructional needs.
The correct answer is: a curriculum-based measurement.
49
The Seattle Longitudinal Study (Schaie, 1994) examined age-related changes in six mental abilities and found that, of these abilities, only __________ declines substantially prior to age 60.
Select one:
A. verbal ability
B. numeric ability
C. inductive reasoning
D. perceptual speed
The Seattle Longitudinal Study examined age-related trends for six mental abilities: inductive reasoning, spatial orientation, perceptual speed, numeric ability, verbal ability, and verbal memory.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT The results of this study found that only perceptual speed declines substantially prior to age 60, while numeric ability begins to decline after age 60 and the other four abilities remain relatively stable until age 75 or later.
The correct answer is: perceptual speed
50
The use of anatomically correct dolls to determine if children have been sexually abused:
Select one:
A. may be helpful for children who are too embarrassed to talk about their experience or who have limited verbal skills.
B. may be helpful for eliciting repressed memories from children who have been sexually abused.
C. is contraindicated because it increases sexual responses to both leading and non-leading questions from abused and non-abused children.
D. is contraindicated for younger children because the dolls can be confusing or frightening.
Although the use of anatomically correct dolls to evaluate children for sexual abuse is controversial, there is evidence that they are useful in some circumstances.
a. CORRECT This is the best response of those given. There is evidence that children who have been sexually abused are more likely than those who have not to provide sexualized responses to these dolls. In addition, they are useful for children who have limited verbal abilities or are too embarrassed to verbally describe what has happened to them.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: may be helpful for children who are too embarrassed to talk about their experience or who have limited verbal skills.
51
Which of the following is the best conclusion about the research investigating the effects of examiner race on the IQ test scores obtained by African American children?
Select one:
A. The research has consistently found that African American children obtain higher scores when the examiner is of the same race.
B. The research has consistently found that African American children obtain lower scores when the examiner is of the same race.
C. The research has found that African American children tend to exhibit greater variability in subtest scores when the examiner is of the same race.
D. The research has not found a consistent effect of examiner race on the scores of African American children.
Like much of the research on racial/ethnic matching, the research on the effects of examiner race on examinee IQ test scores has provided inconsistent results.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT The research results on this issue are far from consistent. Consequently, the best conclusion that can be reached is that there is no consistent effect of a match or mismatch of the examiner and examinee in terms of race/ethnicity on the examinee's IQ test scores.
The correct answer is: The research has not found a consistent effect of examiner race on the scores of African American children.
52
The Cattell-Horn-Carroll (CHC) model can be used to interpret an examinee's scores on which of the following tests?
Select one:
A. KABC-II
B. PPVT-4
C. Cognitive Assessment System
D. Slosson Intelligence Test
Of the cognitive ability tests listed, only one makes use of the Cattell-Horn-Carroll theory of cognitive abilities.
a. CORRECT The interpretation of scores on the Kaufman Assessment Battery for Children, Second Edition (KABC-II) can be based on one of two models - Luria's neuropsychological model or the Cattell-Horn-Carroll theory of cognitive abilities.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: KABC-II
53
In the context of cognitive ability tests, "testing-the-limits" refers to:
Select one:
A. readministering the test to an examinee using standardized procedures after a period of formal instruction or training.
B. readministering the test (or portions of it) to an examinee while modifying the standardized procedures.
C. determining the accuracy of test results for predicting academic or job performance.
D. determining the accuracy of test results for a highly heterogeneous group of examinees.
Testing-the-limits is done in order to obtain additional information about an examinee and involves deviating from standardized testing procedures.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Testing-the-limits is done to obtain additional qualitative information about an examinee (e.g., how the examinee derived his/her responses or how the examinee responds when given cues or additional time to answer items). Testing-the-limits is done after the test has been administered using standardized procedures.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: readministering the test (or portions of it) to an examinee while modifying the standardized procedures.
54
A person who received a Level IV rating on the Rancho Scale of Cognitive Functioning:
Select one:
A. is nonresponsive to visual or auditory stimuli and seems to be in a state of deep sleep.
B. is confused and incoherent, may exhibit bizarre behavior, and is unable to care for him/herself.
C. is alert and oriented and can remember and integrate remote and recent events but may have some impairment in judgment, planning, and abstract reasoning.
D. is functioning at an intellectual level that is superior for his/her age, education, and demographic background.
Answer B is correct: The Rancho Scale of Cognitive Functioning was developed as a method for monitoring recovery from head trauma, and the current version involves rating the individual in terms of ten levels of functioning. The behaviors described in this answer are characteristic of Level IV. Even if you're not familiar with the specific characteristics of the eight levels of the Scale, knowing that Level IV is in the mid-range would have helped you identify this as the correct answer to this question.
Answer A: This describes behaviors characteristic of Level I.
Answer C: This answer describes Level VIII functioning.
Answer D: This answer does not accurately describe any of the levels of functioning assessed by the Rancho Scale.
The correct answer is: is confused and incoherent, may exhibit bizarre behavior, and is unable to care for him/herself.
55
The Embedded Figures Test is a measure of:
Select one:
A. visual-motor integration.
B. cognitive flexibility.
C. field dependence/independence.
D. ability to alter cognitive strategies.
If you're not familiar with the Embedded Figures Test, its name may have helped you identify the correct response to this question.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT The Embedded Figures Test is a paper-and-pencil measure of field independence and dependence and its items require the examinee to separate a targeted figure from a complex background.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: field dependence/independence.
56
The General Occupational Themes (GOT) scale of the current version of the Strong Interest Inventory provides information on which of the following?
Select one:
A. five personal styles
B. 30 basic occupational interests
C. Super's major life roles
D. Holland's occupational themes
The Strong Interest Inventory provides scores on four scales: General Occupational Themes, Basic Interest Scales, Occupational Scales, and Personal Styles Scales.
a. Incorrect The Personal Styles Scales provide scores on work style, learning environment, leadership style, risk taking, and team orientation.
b. Incorrect The Basic Interest Scales provide scores on 30 basic interests.
c. Incorrect The Strong Interest Inventory does not provide scores on Super's major life roles.
d. CORRECT As its name implies, the General Occupational Themes Scale provides information on occupational themes and, more specifically, on Holland's six occupational themes.
The correct answer is: Holland's occupational themes
57
Which of the following is an advantage of using technology during the assessment process?
Select one:
A. Clients are more familiar with technology and find it easier to use
B. Costs are decreased and data collection can be streamlined
C. Technology is less likely to be breached
D. Everyone has access to a computer, so assessment is more easily accessible
The correct answer is B. Technology provides ways to decrease costs of administration of assessments, as well as ways to easily collect and file data gathered in the assessment. Not all clients are familiar with technology, nor do they all have access to a computer, so answers A and D are incorrect. Though greater security measures may be put in place through the use of technology, cyber infiltration has also increased, so answer C is incorrect.
The correct answer is: Costs are decreased and data collection can be streamlined.
58
Which of the following Wechsler subtests is incorrectly described in terms of the abilities it measures?
Select one:
A. Comprehension: practical knowledge and social judgment
B. Similarities: abstract reasoning and auditory comprehension
C. Picture Completion: visual perception and concentration
D. Block Design: mental manipulation, concentration, and attention
For the exam, you'll want to be familiar with the abilities measured by the Wechsler subtests. Note that this question is asking which subtest is described incorrectly.
a. Incorrect The Comprehension subtest is a measure of practical knowledge and social judgment.
b. Incorrect The Similarities subtest assesses abstract reasoning.
c. Incorrect Visual perception and concentration are assessed by the Picture Completion subtest.
d. CORRECT The Block Design subtest is a measure of visual-motor coordination and nonverbal reasoning and concept formation.
The correct answer is: Block Design: mental manipulation, concentration, and attention
59
An examinee whose highest clinical scale scores on the MMPI-2 are on scales ________ is most likely to have a history of alcohol and drug abuse, antisocial behavior, and/or sex offenses.
Select one:
A. 2 and 6
B. 4 and 9
C. 9 and 0
D. 2 and 1
Knowing the names of the MMPI-2's clinical scales may have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
a. Incorrect Highest scores on Scales 2 and 6 (Depression and Paranoia) suggest hopelessness, hostility, and paranoia.
b. CORRECT Scale 4 is the Psychopathic Deviate scale, and Scale 9 is the Hypomania scale. The 4-9/9-4 code (highest scores on Scales 4 and 9) is characteristic of people with a history of alcohol and drug abuse, antisocial behaviors, and/or sex offenses.
c. Incorrect Highest scores on scales 9 and 0 (Hypomania and Social Introversion) suggest egocentrism and grandiosity.
d. Incorrect Highest scores on scales 2 and 1 (Depression and Hypochondriasis) suggest depression, worry, and pessimism.
The correct answer is: 4 and 9
60
Which of the following best describes the Flynn effect (Flynn, 1998)?
Select one:
A. IQ scores gradually decline over the lifespan.
B. Performance IQ declines more than Verbal IQ over the lifespan.
C. IQ test scores have gradually increased in developed nations in recent decades.
D. IQ test scores have gradually decreased in developed nations in recent decades.
Research by Flynn (1998) and others has shown that IQ test scores have generally increased from one generation to the next, especially in developed countries.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Flynn proposes that increases in IQ test scores from one generation to the next represent increases in abstract problem solving as the result of environmental factors (e.g., improved education).
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: IQ test scores have gradually increased in developed nations in recent decades.
61
The Leiter-3 would be most useful for measuring the intelligence of:
Select one:
A. adults with visual impairments.
B. children under the age of two.
C. children with hearing impairments.
D. adults who have received a diagnosis of Intellectual Disability.
The Leiter-3 was designed to be a culture-fair test of cognitive abilities for individuals ages 3 to 75+.
a. Incorrect The Haptic Intelligence Scale can be used to assess the intelligence of individuals with visual impairments.
b. Incorrect Tests used to assess the intellectual development of infants under age 2 include the Bayley Scales of Infant Development and the Fagan Test of Intelligence.
c. CORRECT A distinctive feature of the Leiter-3 is its non-reliance on verbal instructions or responses. Because of this feature, it is an appropriate test for individuals with hearing and language impairments.
d. Incorrect The intelligence of individuals with Intellectual Disability is commonly assessed with the Stanford-Binet.
The correct answer is: children with hearing impairments.
62
The Occupational Scales of the Kuder Occupational Interest Survey:
Select one:
A. are appropriate only for individuals considering careers that do not require a college education.
B. provide information on the similarity of the examinees interests with those of satisfied workers in different occupations.
C. provide an overview of the examinees occupational interests in terms of ten broad areas that are similar to Hollands themes.
D. indicate the degree to which the examinees personal characteristics match the work environments of particular jobs.
The Kuder Occupational Interest Survey (KOIS) provides scores on four scales - Occupational Scales, College Major Scales, Vocational Interest Estimates, and Dependability Indices.
a. Incorrect The Occupational Scales include a broad range of occupations.
b. CORRECT This answer accurately describes the Occupational Scales.
c. Incorrect This answer describes the Vocational Interest Estimates.
d. Incorrect This answer does not describe the Occupational Scales.
The correct answer is: provide information on the similarity of the examinees interests with those of satisfied workers in different occupations.
63
Which of the following methods was used to identify the "big five" personality traits?
Select one:
A. multidimensional scaling
B. homogeneous keying
C. actuarial approach
D. lexical hypothesis
Identification of the big five personality traits was based on the lexical hypothesis, which predicts that all socially-relevant traits have been incorporated into language (are included in the dictionary).
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT The big five personality traits - extroversion/introversion, conscientiousness, openness to experience, emotional stability, and agreeableness - were originally identified through factor analyses of personality characteristics that are included in the dictionary.
The correct answer is: lexical hypothesis
64
When empirical criterion keying is used to develop a test, items chosen for inclusion are those that:
Select one:
A. are consistent with the constructs identified by a specific theory or model.
B. distinguish between preselected groups or subgroups.
C. have been identified as representative of the content domain by subject matter experts.
D. accurately rank people from low to high on a predefined criterion.
The original MMPI clinical scales and the Occupational scales of the Strong Interest Inventory were developed on the basis of empirical criterion keying.
a. Incorrect This describes the theoretical method of test construction.
b. CORRECT When using empirical criterion keying to construct scales, items that distinguish between different criterion groups or between criterion groups and a control (general reference) group are included in each scale.
c. Incorrect This answer does not accurately describe empirical criterion keying.
d. Incorrect This answer does not accurately describe empirical criterion keying.
The correct answer is: distinguish between preselected groups or subgroups.
65
To assess the reading, spelling, and arithmetic skills of an elementary-school child who may have a learning disability, you would use which of the following?
Select one:
A. WRAT
B. DAT
C. PPVT
D. CAS
For the exam, you want to be familiar with all of the tests listed in the answers to this question. Additional information about these tests is provided in the Psychological Assessment chapter of the written study materials.
a. CORRECT The Wide Range Achievement Test (WRAT) is a rapid screening device for assessing reading, spelling, and math skills and was designed to be used to assist in the diagnosis of a learning disability.
b. Incorrect The Differential Aptitude Test (DAT) assesses job-related abilities and broad intellectual skills and is used for vocational counseling.
c. Incorrect The Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test (PPVT) is a measure of receptive vocabulary.
d. Incorrect The Cognitive Assessment System (CAS) is a measure of basic cognitive processes central to learning.
The correct answer is: WRAT
66
Which of the following describes a requirement of the Individuals with Disabilities Act (IDEA)?
Select one:
A. Children and adolescents with disabilities must be provided with education in the least restrictive environment.
B. Parents have the right to request a school to amend their minor child's school records if they believe the record is inaccurate or misleading.
C. Employers must make reasonable accommodations when testing examinees with disabilities.
D. Tests used to make selection and other employment decisions must have evidence of adequate criterion-related validity.
IDEA began as Public Law 94-142 (the Education of all Handicapped Children Act).
a. CORRECT The purpose of IDEA is to improve the educational opportunities for children and adolescents with disabilities, and this answer accurately describes one of its provisions.
b. Incorrect This answer describes one of the provisions of the Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act (FERPA).
c. Incorrect This answer describes one of the provisions of the Americans with Disabilities Act.
d. Incorrect This answer does not describe a provision of IDEA.
The correct answer is: Children and adolescents with disabilities must be provided with education in the least restrictive environment.
67
A 10-year-old who has received a diagnosis of ADHD is likely to obtain the lowest scores on which of the following WISC-V subtests?
Select one:
A. Arithmetic and Coding
B. Visual Puzzles and Similarities
C. Information and Vocabulary
D. Figure Weights and Letter-Number Sequencing
The Technical and Interpretive Manual Supplement for the WISC-V provides the scores obtained by children in the standardization sample who had received a diagnosis of ADHD.
a. CORRECT Children with ADHD obtained the lowest scores on the Arithmetic and Coding subtests and highest scores on the Information, Visual Puzzles, Figure Weights, and Cancellation subtests. See D. Wechsler, WISC-V: Technical and interpretive manual supplement, Bloomington, MN, PsychCorp, 2014.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: Arithmetic and Coding
68
When an interest test yields ipsative scores, this means that scores indicate:
Select one:
A. the absolute strengths of an examinee's interests.
B. the relative strengths of an examinee's interests.
C. the occupational group that an examinee most closely resembles.
D. the consistency of an examinee's interests.
Some interest and personality tests provide ipsative scores, which permit intraindividual comparisons but not interindividual comparisons.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT When an interest test yields ipsative scores, an individual's scores indicate his/her relative standing in terms of the interests measured by the test (i.e., they indicate which interest is the strongest for the examinee, which is the second strongest, etc.).
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: the relative strengths of an examinee's interests.
69
Dynamic assessment is most useful for:
Select one:
A. identifying an examinees ability to recall specific information from a well-defined content domain.
B. identifying the antecedents and consequences that are maintaining a behavior.
C. determining if test items accurately predict performance on an external criterion.
D. determining if an examinee would benefit from assistance or instruction.
Dynamic assessment involves deviating from standardized procedures for a test after the test has been administered to the examinee using the standardized procedures.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Dynamic assessment is based on the assumption that cognitive abilities and processes are modifiable and is used to assess an examinee's learning potential - i.e., to determine if an examinee's test performance improves when he/she receives assistance or instruction.
The correct answer is: determining if an examinee would benefit from assistance or instruction.
70
Some experts argue that achievement tests can be used as substitutes for aptitude tests because:
Select one:
A. achievement and "aptitude" are essentially synonymous.
B. both types of tests are measures of past learning in controlled situations.
C. future accomplishments are largely the result of innate capacities.
D. past accomplishments are a good indicator of what can be expected in the future.
A distinction is often made between achievement and aptitude tests. Strictly speaking, achievement tests assess the extent of past learning in classrooms or other controlled settings, while aptitude tests focus on future behavior, in particular the capacity to learn.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Advocates of the position described in this question contend that past learning is due to a substantial degree to aptitude and, therefore, view achievement test performance as an indicator of aptitude (i.e., view past performance as a good predictor of future learning). Although not all experts agree with this position, most do agree that there is not a clear distinction between the two and that achievement is affected by aptitude and vice versa.
The correct answer is: past accomplishments are a good indicator of what can be expected in the future.
71
Scores on the MMPI-2's clinical scales are most commonly interpreted:
Select one:
A. by considering each clinical scale score separately.
B. in terms of a profile analysis.
C. by referring to expectancy tables.
D. in terms of percentile bands.
The MMPI-2 provides scores on 10 clinical scales.
a. Incorrect Many test items are included in more than one clinical scale. Thus, the validity of considering each clinical scale without reference to the others is questionable.
b. CORRECT Since the validity of interpreting clinical scale scores in isolation is dubious, most experts agree that the MMPI clinical scales are most effectively interpreted in terms of score patterns; i.e., in terms of profile (pattern) analysis. A number of available coding systems facilitate this type of interpretation.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: in terms of a profile analysis.
72
Which of the following WAIS-IV indexes is least sensitive to (least adversely affected by) Alzheimer's dementia?
Select one:
A. Processing Speed
B. Working Memory
C. Perceptual Reasoning
D. Verbal Comprehension
Answer D is correct: The research has confirmed that the WAIS is useful for assessing aspects of cognitive ability that are affected by Alzheimer's dementia. The Technical Manual for the WAIS-IV reports the following mean index scores for individuals with mild Alzheimer's dementia:
Verbal Comprehension = 86.2
Perceptual Reasoning = 85.8
Working Memory = 84.3
Perceptual Speed = 76.6
The correct answer is: Verbal Comprehension
73
As defined by Horn and Cattell (1966) intellectual ability consists of:
Select one:
A. three general components analytical, creative, and practical.
B. two general components fluid and crystallized.
C. a (general) factor plus specific factors unique to the task.
D. eight distinct abilities (e.g., linguistic, spatial, interpersonal).
For the licensing exam, you'll want to be familiar with the major theories of intelligence described in the answers to this question. These are addressed in the Psychological Assessment chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect Sternberg describes intelligence as consisting of analytical, creative, and practical components.
b. CORRECT Horn and Cattell distinguish between two general intelligences: Fluid intelligence enables the individual to solve novel problems and perceive relations and similarities and does not depend on specific instruction. In contrast, crystallized intelligence consists of acquired knowledge and skills and is affected by educational and cultural experiences.
c. Incorrect This answer describes Spearman's theory of intelligence.
d. Incorrect This answer describes Gardner's theory of intelligence.
The correct answer is: two general components fluid and crystallized.
74
Which of the following tests would be useful for confirming a diagnosis of Intellectual Disability?
Select one:
A. Vineland-III
B. Beery
C. Wonderlic
D. WRAT4
A diagnosis of Intellectual Disability requires deficits in intellectual functions (e.g., reasoning, problem-solving, abstract thinking) that are confirmed by a clinical assessment and individualized, standardized intelligence testing; deficits in adaptive functioning that result in a failure to meet community standards of personal independence and social responsibility and impair functioning across multiple environments in one or more activities of daily life (e.g., communication, social participation, independent living); and the onset of intellectual and adaptive functioning deficits during the developmental period.
Answer A is correct: Knowing that the full name of this test is the Vineland Adaptive Behavior Scales would have helped you identify this as the correct answer. The Vineland provides information on the personal and social skills of individuals from birth to age 90.
b. Incorrect The Berry Developmental Test of Visual-Motor Integration is used to assess visual-motor skills of children ages 3 through 18.
c. Incorrect The Wonderlic is a 12-minute test of mental ability for adults. It would not be useful for diagnosing Intellectual Disability.
d. Incorrect The WRAT4 (Wide-Range Achievement Test, Revision 4) is a rapid screening measure for estimating grade level functioning in reading, spelling, and arithmetic.
The correct answer is: Vineland-III
75
Longitudinal studies have generally found that scores on infant intelligence tests administered prior to the age of 24 months have what relation to later IQ test scores?
Select one:
A. They have high validity for predicting childhood and adolescent IQ scores.
B. They have moderate validity for predicting childhood, adolescent, and adult IQ scores.
C. They have little validity for predicting adult IQ scores.
D. They tend to overestimate adolescent and adult IQ scores.
Knowing that intelligence tests for infants and older children, adolescents, and adults measure different traits may have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Studies have found that infant and preschool intelligence tests administered after age 24 months have moderate validity for predicting future IQ scores but that these tests have little or no validity for predicting future IQ when administered prior to 24 months of age. Therefore, of the answers given, this one best describes the results of the research.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: They have little validity for predicting adult IQ scores.
76
The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator was derived from:
Select one:
A. Freud's personality theory.
B. Jung's personality theory.
C. Murray's 15 needs.
D. Allport's list of personality traits.
The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator is an objective personality inventory that is based on the personality theory of Carl Jung.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT The Myers-Briggs provides information on the four bipolar dimensions identified by Jung: introversion vs. extraversion, perceiving vs. judgment, sensing vs. intuition, and thinking vs. feeling.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: Jung's personality theory.
77
A score of 50 on the Beck Depression Inventory-II suggests:
Select one:
A. no or minimal depression.
B. mild depression.
C. moderate depression.
D. severe depression.
The Beck Depression Inventory-II consists of 21 items that the examinee rates on a four-point scale ranging from 0 (minimal) to 3 (severe).
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT An examinee's score on the BDI-II can range from 0 to 63, and scores of 29 and above are considered indicative of severe depression. Additional information about the BDI-II is provided in the Psychological Assessment chapter of the written study materials.
The correct answer is: severe depression.
78
Which of the following is the best conclusion that can be drawn from the research comparing actuarial and clinical approaches to test score interpretation?
Select one:
A. The actuarial method is more accurate than the clinical method.
B. The clinical method is more accurate than the actuarial method.
C. The actuarial and clinical methods are equivalent in terms of accuracy.
D. A strategy that combines actuarial and clinical methods is substantially more accurate than is either method alone.
Actuarial (statistical) interpretations are based on empirically validated relationships between test results and target criteria, while clinical interpretations are based on the decision-maker's intuition, experience, etc.
a. CORRECT Although the research has not provided entirely consistent results, in general, the studies have shown that the actuarial method alone is more accurate than clinical judgment alone and about equally accurate as a combination of actuarial and clinical methods (e.g., Grove and Meehl, 1996).
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: The actuarial method is more accurate than the clinical method.
79
Administration of the ________________ involves asking the examinee to make up stories about pictures that include one or more human figures in order to obtain information about unconscious aspects of the examinee's personality.
Select one:
A. Thematic Apperception Test
B. Myers-Briggs Type Indicator
C. Rorschach Inkblot Test
D. Bender-Gestalt Test
This question describes a projective personality test, which eliminates two of tests listed in the answers.
a. CORRECT The Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) is a projective personality test that consists of picture cards that depict one or more human figures. The examinee is asked to make up a story about each picture and his/her responses are scored and interpreted using one of several scoring and interpretation systems.
b. Incorrect The Myers-Briggs Types Indicator is an objective personality test that assesses four personality dimensions derived from Jung's personality types - i.e., extraversion/introversion, sensate/intuitive, thinking/feeling, and judging/perceiving.
c. Incorrect The Rorschach is a projective personality test that presents the examinee with ten bilaterally symmetrical inkblots. The examinee is asked to describe what he/she sees in each inkblot.
d. Incorrect The Bender-Gestalt test is a measure of visual-motor integration that requires the examinee to copy geometric figures.
The correct answer is: Thematic Apperception Test
80
A psychologist would use the Mini Mental State Exam (MMSE) to:
Select one:
A. determine if a child has a learning disability.
B. determine if an adult has a psychotic disorder.
C. evaluate the quality of life of an adult with a physical disability.
D. evaluate the cognitive functioning of an older adult.
The MMSE was developed as a measure of cognitive functioning for older adults and is also used as a screening tool for dementia.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT The MMSE assesses six aspects of cognitive functioning: orientation, registration, attention and calculation, recall, language, and visual construction.
The correct answer is: evaluate the cognitive functioning of an older adult.
81
Which of the following is NOT one of the cognitive factors assessed by the Stanford Binet, 5th Edition (SB5)?
Select one:
A. Fluid Reasoning
B. Quantitative Reasoning
C. Verbal Comprehension
D. Working Memory
Answer C is correct: The SB5 provides scores on five cognitive factors:
```
Fluid Reasoning
Knowledge
Quantitative Reasoning
Visual-Spatial Processing
Working Memory
```
Verbal Comprehension is one of the four indices of the WAIS-IV.
The correct answer is: Verbal Comprehension
82
A test developer would most likely administer test items to samples of people who vary in terms of age, gender, race/ethnicity, and socioeconomic status for the purpose of:
Select one:
A. standardization.
B. assessing incremental validity.
C. establishing criterion-related validity.
D. domain-referenced testing.
This is a fairly straightforward question, but you may have had to be careful not to be misled by an answer you're not familiar with.
a. CORRECT The purpose of standardization is to develop norms, which are scores obtained by clearly described samples. Norms facilitate test score interpretation by making it possible to compare an examinee"s test performance to that of the performance of people in an appropriate norm group (e.g., examinees of the same age and race/ethnicity).
b. Incorrect A measure has incremental validity when its use results in an increase in decision-making accuracy.
c. Incorrect Establishing criterion-related validity involves correlating test (predictor) and criterion scores.
d. Incorrect Domain-referenced testing is also known as criterion- or content-referenced testing and refers to a method of score interpretation that indicates what an examinee knows or can do in terms of a particular content or behavior domain.
The correct answer is: standardization.
83
A "general representative sample" was used to develop which of the following Strong Interest Inventory scales?
Select one:
A. General Occupational Themes
B. Basic Interest Scales
C. Occupational Scales
D. College Major Scales
The Strong Interest Inventory provides scores on General Occupational Themes, Basic Interest Scales, Occupational Scales, and Personal Styles Scales.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT The Occupational Scales were derived using a criterion keying method that involved comparing the responses of individuals employed in specific occupational groups to individuals in a general representative sample. The General Occupational Themes and Basic Interest Scales utilized a logical content method.
d. Incorrect College Major Scales are included in the KOIS, not in the Strong Interest Inventory.
The correct answer is: Occupational Scales
84
A criticism of the Scholastic Assessment Test (SAT) is that it is a relatively poor predictor of the college grades of students who:
Select one:
A. score in the lower third.
B. score in the upper third.
C. score in the lower and upper thirds.
D. score in the mid-range.
You may have been able to make an educated guess when choosing the answer to this question if you"re unfamiliar with the SAT but are familiar with scatterplots: Often, in a scatterplot there is a slight "bulge" in the middle of the distribution, indicating that the relationship between variables is not quite as strong in the mid-region of the scores as it is at the extremes.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT A shortcoming of the SAT is that it is less accurate in predicting the college GPA of examinees who obtain SAT scores in the mid-range than it is for predicting the GPA of examinees who obtain higher or lower scores.
The correct answer is: score in the mid-range.
85
An examinee answers all items on the MMPI-2 randomly. This will produce which of the following score patterns?
Select one:
A. high scores on the F, L, and K scales and low scores on most or all clinical scales
B. a low score on the F scale, high scores on the L and K scales, and elevated scores on most or all clinical scales
C. a high score on the K scale and a "sawtooth" pattern on the clinical scales
D. a very high score on the F scale and elevated scores on most or all clinical scales
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the specific MMPI-2 profiles that are described in the written study materials.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT A very high score on the F scale in conjunction with scores over 65 on most or all clinical scale suggests random responding.
The correct answer is: a very high score on the F scale and elevated scores on most or all clinical scales
86
Development of which of the following personality tests was based on Murray's 15 needs (e.g., achievement, autonomy, affiliation)?
Select one:
A. 16 PF
B. CPI
C. EPPS
D. NEO-PI-3
For the licensing exam, you'll want to be familiar with the purpose and assumptions underlying the four tests listed in the answers to this question. These tests are described in the Psychological Assessment chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect The developers of the 16 PF (Sixteen Personality Factor Questionnaire) used factor analysis to categorize adjectives that describe personality traits.
b. Incorrect The CPI (California Psychological Inventory) was developed as a measure of normal personality traits for adolescents and adults. Items for each scale were chosen on the basis of their ability to distinguish between groups of people who differed with regard the trait measured by the scale.
c. CORRECT The developer of the EPPS (Edwards Personal Preference Schedule) used the 15 needs identified by Murray to generate items for the test.
d. Incorrect The NEO-PI-3 (NEO Personality Inventory, Third Edition) assesses the "Big Five" personality traits.
The correct answer is: EPPS
87
When administering the __________, the examinee is presented with a list of color names that are printed in a color that differs from the name (e.g., the name red might be printed in blue or green ink) and the examinee is asked to go through the list and say the ink color rather than read the color name.
Select one:
A. Beery Test
B. Benton Test
C. Stroop Test
D. Glasgow Scale
The test described in this question is a measure of cognitive flexibility and selective attention.
a. Incorrect The Beery Test of Visual-Motor Integration is a measure of visual-motor skills.
b. Incorrect The Benton Visual Retention Test is used to assess visual memory.
c. CORRECT The Stroop Color-Word Association Test assesses the degree to which the examinee can suppress a prepotent response in favor of an unusual one (i.e., can name the print color rather than the color name). Poor performance on the Stroop Test has been linked to frontal lobe damage, ADHD, autism, and depression.
d. Incorrect The Glasgow Coma Scale is used to assess consciousness following a traumatic brain injury.
The correct answer is: Stroop Test
88
Factor analyses of tests designed to measure psychomotor skills have found that these skills:
Select one:
A. are relatively independent.
B. reflect an underlying g (general) factor.
C. represent three interdependent factors (speed, strength, and coordination).
D. are strongly related to intelligence
Measures of psychomotor skills are usually apparatus tests that assess speed, coordination, strength, and other movement responses.
a. CORRECT Factor analyses have shown that there is no "general psychomotor factor" and that the various psychomotor skills are relatively independent.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: are relatively independent.
89
Development of the Illinois Test of Psycholinguistic Abilities, Third Edition (ITPA-3) was based on:
Select one:
A. Horn and Cattell's fluid-crystallized theory.
B. Osgood's model of communication.
C. Sternberg's model of "successful intelligence."
D. Luria's distinction between simultaneous and sequential processing.
This is an example of a question for which the most obvious answer is the correct answer.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT The ITPA is a measure of linguistic abilities and is based on a model of communication -- and, more specifically, on Osgood's communication model, which distinguishes between channels of communication, psycholinguistic processes, and levels of organization.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: Osgood's model of communication.
90
An examinee's score on the Benton Visual Retention Test (BVRT) reflects his/her ability to:
Select one:
A. reproduce geometric figures from memory.
B. inhibit prepotent responses.
C. distinguish figure from ground.
D. verbally describe visual stimuli.
The BVRT is used to assess visual memory, spatial perception, and visual motor skills for the purpose of identifying brain injury.
a. CORRECT Administration of the BVRT requires the examinee to reproduce (draw) simple geometric figures from memory. The greater the number of errors, the more likely that the examinee has a brain injury.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: reproduce geometric figures from memory.
91
The Differential Aptitude Test (DAT) is used to:
Select one:
A. assist in evaluating the creativity of children and adolescents.
B. assist in educational and career counseling for adolescents.
C. evaluate the intelligence of students with learning disabilities.
D. evaluate the intelligence of gifted children and adolescents.
The Differential Aptitude Test was designed primarily to assist in the educational and career counseling of students in grades 7 through 12.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT The DAT provides scores on eight skills that are related to occupational peformance --
```
verbal reasoning
numerical ability
abstract reasoning
clerical speed and accuracy
mechanical reasoning
space relations
spelling and
language usage.
```
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: assist in educational and career counseling for adolescents.
92
A new study involves providing a new medication to participants, then two weeks later the participants fill out a survey on any side effects that they encountered. What type of data collection procedure was used?
Select one:
A. Psychophysiological measures
B. Direct observation
C. Self-report
D. Structured interview
The correct answer is C. Surveys can be used to quickly gather self-reported data from individuals. No physiological measures were used, nor was a direct observation or a structured interview conducted, so answers A, B, and D are incorrect.
The correct answer is: Self-report
93
Crystallized intelligence refers to:
Select one:
A. skills and abilities that are relatively "culture-free."
B. skills and knowledge derived from formal and informal education.
C. abilities that are relatively independent from specific instruction.
D. abilities needed to solve novel problems.
Crystallized and fluid intelligence were originally distinguished by Cattell and Horn (1966).
a. Incorrect. See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Crystallized intelligence is dependent on school-acquired learning and acculturation. The abilities described in answers a, c, and d are associated with fluid intelligence.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: skills and knowledge derived from formal and informal education.
94
A school psychologist will administer which of the following tests to evaluate the intelligence of a 13-year old who received a diagnosis of intellectual disability when she was 6 years old?
Select one:
A. Wechsler Preschool and Primary Scale of Intelligence
B. Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale
C. Stanford Binet
D. Columbia Mental Maturity Scale
Answer C is correct: The SB5 (Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scales, Fifth Edition) was designed for use with individuals aged 2 to 85+ and is considered a reliable measure for lower functioning individuals.
Answer A: The WPPSI-IV is the most recent version of this test and is appropriate for individuals aged 2 years, 6 months to 7 years, 7 months.
Answer B: The WAIS-IV is the most recent version of this test and is appropriate for individuals aged 16 through 90.
Answer D: The CMMS (Columbia Mental Maturity Scale) is a measure of general reasoning for individuals aged 3 through 10.
The correct answer is: Stanford Binet
95
Raven's Progressive Matrices is a:
Select one:
A. measure of simultaneous and sequential processing.
B. measure of inductive and deductive reasoning.
C. nonverbal measure of general intelligence.
D. culture-fair measure of academic achievement.
Raven's Progressive Matrices requires the examinee to solve problems involving abstract figures and designs by indicating which of several alternatives complete a given matrix.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Raven's Progressive Matrices is a nonverbal measure of general intelligence (g). Although it is considered a culture-fair test, it does not evaluate academic achievement.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: nonverbal measure of general intelligence.
96
The _______________ is useful for tracking a patient's level of consciousness during the first hours to days after experiencing a severe head trauma.
Select one:
A. Glasgow Coma Scale
B. Global Deterioration Scale
C. Trail Making Test
D. Neuropsychiatric Inventory Questionnaire
Of the instruments listed, only one is useful for tracking level of consciousness.
a. CORRECT The Glasgow Coma Scale is a 15-point scale that evaluates level of consciousness through eye, verbal, and motor responses.
b. Incorrect The Global Deterioration Scale is a measure of cognitive functioning that is useful for assessing individuals with Alzheimer's dementia or other type of primary degenerative dementia.
c. Incorrect The Trail Making Test is a measure of motor speed, visual attention, and cognitive flexibility.
d. Incorrect The Neuropsychiatric Inventory Questionnaire (NPI-Q) is a screening test for dementia.
The correct answer is: Glasgow Coma Scale
97
Administration of the __________ involves two phases -- the copy phase and the recall phase.
Select one:
A. Bender-Gestalt
B. Stroop
C. ITPA
D. Slosson
Only one of the tests listed in the answers requires examinees to copy and recall figures.
a. CORRECT The Bender-Gestalt (Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt Test) is a brief measure of visual-motor integration and requires the examinee to first copy geometric figures and then draw them from memory.
b. Incorrect The Stroop Color-Word Association Test requires the examinee to say the ink color of a word rather than read the color name.
c. Incorrect The ITPA (Illinois Test of Psycholinguistic Abilities) assesses the examinee's strengths and weakness in terms of language.
d. Incorrect The Slosson tests are measures of intelligence for children and adults.
The correct answer is: Bender-Gestalt
98
According to Sternberg (1996), "successful intelligence" consists of:
Select one:
A. eight intelligences (e.g., linguistic, spatial, interpersonal).
B. g (general intelligence) plus specific cognitive abilities related to the task.
C. three abilities analytical, creative, and practical.
D. a combination of fluid and crystallized intelligence.
Sternberg's triarchic theory of intelligence (more recently referred to as successful intelligence) distinguishes between three components.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT According to Sternberg, successful intelligence consists of the three abilities described in this answer (analytical, creative, and practical). He has criticized traditional intelligence tests on the ground that they focus on analytical ability only.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: three abilities analytical, creative, and practical.
99
When administering the Rorschach Inkblot Test, the purpose of the inquiry phase is to:
Select one:
A. initially find out what the examinee sees in the inkblot.
B. obtain information needed to score the test.
C. determine what questions to ask during the free association phase.
D. give the examinee an opportunity to ask questions about the tests purpose and procedures.
Information on the administration of the Rorschach that you want to be familiar with for the exam is provided in the Psychological Assessment chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect This is a better description of the initial free association phase.
b. CORRECT The inquiry phase is the second phase of Rorschach administration. During this phase, the examiner actively questions the examinee about the features of the inkblots that determined the examinee's responses in order to facilitate scoring.
c. Incorrect This answer does not describe the purpose of the inquiry phase.
d. Incorrect This answer does not describe the purpose of the inquiry phase.
The correct answer is: obtain information needed to score the test.
100
The subtests of the Stanford Binet, 5th Edition (e.g., vocabulary, verbal analogies, quantitative reasoning) have a mean of ___ and a standard deviation of ___.
Select one:
A. 10; 3
B. 12; 5
C. 20; 6
D. 25; 8
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the mean and standard deviation of the SB5's Full Scale IQ, composite scores, and subtest scores.
a. CORRECT The Full Scale IQ and composite (cognitive factor) scores have a mean of 100 and standard deviation of 15, while the subtest scores have a mean of 10 and standard deviation of 3.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: 10; 3
101
In a cross-sectional study designed to assess the effects of age on reaction time, you have adults belonging to different age groups respond to visual stimuli on a computer screen. A colleague suggests that the results of your study might be confounded by the fact that older participants may have less experience using a computer than do younger participants. This potential source of error is best described as a:
Select one:
A. Rosenthal effect.
B. Hawthorne effect.
C. carryover effect.
D. cohort effect.
Your colleague is predicting that your research findings will be confounded by differences in computer experience that are related to differences in age. This is often a problem in cross-sectional research.
a. Incorrect The Rosenthal effect is another name for the self-fulfilling prophecy effect and is not relevant to this situation.
b. Incorrect The Hawthorne effect refers to the tendency of research participants to act in atypical ways because they are participating in a research study (e.g., because of the novelty of the situation or the special attention they are receiving).
c. Incorrect A carryover effect is a potential problem in within-subjects research. It occurs when exposure to one level of an independent variable impacts how participants respond to another level of the independent variable.
d. CORRECT "Cohort effect" refers to the confounding effects of intergenerational differences in experience or other characteristics. Cohort effects can be a source of error in cross-sectional studies (such as the study described in this question).
The correct answer is: cohort effect.
102
The Wonderlic Personnel Test is a:
Select one:
A. measure of psychomotor skills.
B. measure of clerical skills.
C. brief measure of cognitive ability.
D. brief interest inventory.
The Wonderlic Personnel Test is a 12-minute, 50-item exam.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT The Wonderlic Personnel Test assesses cognitive ability (general intelligence) and is used in organizations as a selection test.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: brief measure of cognitive ability.
103
Which of the following MMPI-2 scales is considered to be a "suppressor" variable?
Select one:
A. Cannot Say (?) Scale
B. L (Lie) Scale
C. F (Frequency) Scale
D. K (Correction) Scale
A suppressor variable affects scores or status on another variable but is irrelevant to that variable.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT The K Scale is considered a suppressor variable because it correlates with defensiveness and other characteristics (education level and SES) that are irrelevant to what is being measured by several the MMPI-2's clinical scales but that may affect scores on those scales.. Consequently, an examinee's score on the K scale is used to correct his/her scores on certain clinical scales and thereby increase their validity.
The correct answer is: K (Correction) Scale
