Psychological Assessment - Domain Quiz Flashcards
A domain-referenced test would be most useful for:
Select one:
a. determining how much an examinee knows about statistics compared to other examinees.
b. determining how well an examinee has mastered a unit on inferential statistics.
c. determining whether or not test items are a representative sample of the information taught in a statistics class.
d. determining an examinee’s aptitude for statistics.
Knowing that domain-referenced tests are also known as content-referenced tests may have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
Answer B is correct: Domain-referenced tests are interpreted in terms of how much the examinee has learned or can do.
Answer A is incorrect: A norm-referenced test is useful for comparing the performance of an examinee to individuals in the norm group.
The correct answer is: determining how well an examinee has mastered a unit on inferential statistics.
A measure of crystallized intelligence would include items that assess which of the following?
Select one:
a. short-term memory
b. general knowledge
c. ability to solve novel problems
d. processing speed
Horn and Cattell (1966) proposed that general intelligence (g) consists of two factors – crystallized intelligence and fluid intelligence.
Answer B is correct: As described by Horn and Cattell, crystallized intelligence includes acquired skills and knowledge and is affected by educational and cultural experiences.
Answer C is incorrect: Ability to solve novel problems is an aspect of fluid intelligence, which does not depend on specific instruction.
Answer D is incorrect: Processing speed is not directly reflective of crystallized or fluid intelligence, although it can impact performance on measures of fluid intelligence.
The correct answer is: general knowledge
An adult in his or her late 50s is most likely to exhibit an age-related decline on cognitive tasks involving: Select one: a. verbal memory. b. spatial orientation. c. processing speed. d. inductive reasoning.
Investigators interested in the impact of increasing age on cognitive abilities have determined that some abilities are more negatively affected than others.
Answer C is correct: The effects of increasing age on the cognitive abilties listed in the answers were investigated by Schaie and collegues in their Seattle Longitudinal Study. They found that only perceptual speed declined prior to age 60. Additional information about this study is provided in the Psychological Assessment chapter of the written study materials.
The correct answer is: processing speed.
In a scatterplot, a “slope bias” is indicative of which of the following?
Select one:
a. shrinkage
b. criterion contamination
c. measurement error
d. differential validity
The term “slope” refers to the angle of the regression line, and slope bias occurs when a predictor has different validity coefficients for different groups, which produces regression lines with different angles.
Answer D is correct: The term “differential validity” refers to different validity coefficients for different groups.
Answer A is incorrect: For the exam, you want to have shrinkage associated with cross-validation. It refers to the tendency of a predictor’s criterion-related validity coefficient to be smaller when the predictor and criterion are administered to a new sample.
Answer B is incorrect: Criterion contamination occurs when a rater’s knowledge of an individual’s performance on the predictor affects how the rater rates the individual on the criterion.
Answer C is incorrect: The term “measurement error” refers to random factors that reduce test reliability.
The correct answer is: differential validity
Overall, the best conclusion that can be drawn about the effects of examiner race on the performance of African American children on standard IQ tests is that:
Select one:
a. African American children score higher when the examiner is of the same race.
b. African American children score higher when the examiner is White.
c. there is a consistent negative effect of examiner race only on tests that focus on verbal abilities.
d. there is no consistent effect of examiner race on the scores of African American children.
The effect of examiner race on the test performance of minority children continues to be a controversial topic, at least in part, because the research has not produced consistent results.
Answer D is correct: The research on this issue has produced inconsistent results, with many studies finding no effect of matching or mismatching in terms of race or ethnicity and others finding either a positive or negative effect.
The correct answer is: there is no consistent effect of examiner race on the scores of African American children.
Research comparing actuarial and clinical predictions indicates that:
Select one:
a. predictions based on actuarial approaches or on clinical judgment are about equally accurate.
b. predictions based on clinical judgment are usually more accurate than predictions based on actuarial approaches.
c. predictions based on actuarial approaches are usually more accurate than predictions based on clinical judgment.
d. predictions based on actuarial approaches plus clinical judgment are no more accurate than predictions based on clinical judgment alone.
Actuarial (statistical) approaches are based on empirically validated relationships between test results and target criteria, while clinical judgment relies on the decision-maker’s intuition, experience, and knowledge.
Answer C is correct: The studies have consistently found that actuarial approaches lead to more accurate predictions than clinical judgment and that combining actuarial approaches and clinical judgment does not usually improve on actuarial approaches alone.
The correct answer is: predictions based on actuarial approaches are usually more accurate than predictions based on clinical judgment.
Studies examining the impact of heredity on IQ have correlated the IQs of children and their siblings and/or parents. These studies suggest that the correlation for biological siblings reared together is about:
Select one:
a. .10 to .15.
b. .25 to .30.
c. .40 to .45.
d. .55 to .60.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the IQ concordance rates included in the Psychological Assessment chapter of the written study materials.
Answer C is correct: The reported correlations vary somewhat from study to study but, of the ranges given, a range of .40 to .45 is closest to the correlations reported for biological siblings reared together.
The correct answer is: .40 to .45.
“Testing the limits” is ordinarily done:
Select one:
a. as an alternative to administering the test using standardized procedures.
b. before the test is administered using standardized procedures.
c. after the test has been administered using standardized procedures.
d. whenever an examinee makes an unexpected or unusual response.
Testing the limits is a type of dynamic assessment that involves providing the examinee with cues, prompts, or suggestions in order to obtain additional information about the examinee.
Answer C is correct: Testing the limits is ordinarily done after standard administration of the test in order to maintain the test’s psychometric integrity.
The correct answer is: after the test has been administered using standardized procedures.
Which data collection method would involve compiling data about the client from several different sources?
Select one:
a. Self-report
b. Direct observation
c. Structured interview
d. Multi-informant report
Answer D is correct: Multi-Informant reports involve collecting data from several different sources, such as a client’s medical history or speaking with the client’s family and friends. This format allows for a large amount of information to be gathered, but contrary information about the client may be gathered due to the number of sources. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect, as they only involve one source of information.
The correct answer is: Multi-informant report
A child with ADHD would most likely obtain the HIGHEST score on which of the following WISC-V subtests?
Select one:
a. Picture Span
b. Arithmetic
c. Information
d. Coding
To identify the correct answer to this question, you need to know which of the four subtests listed in the answers is least affected by the core symptoms of ADHD.
Answer C is correct: Knowing that children with ADHD are likely to obtain the highest score on the Verbal Comprehension Index of the WISC-V and that, of the subtests listed in the answers, the Information subtest is the only one that contributes to the Verbal Comprehension Index score would have helped you identify it as the correct answer. See, e.g., D. Wechsler, WISC-V: Technical and interpretive manual supplement, Bloomington, MN, PsychCorp, 2014.
The correct answer is: Information
An adult with mild Alzheimer’s dementia is likely to obtain the LOWEST score on which of the following WAIS-IV Indexes?
Select one:
a. Verbal Comprehension
b. Perceptual Reasoning
c. Working Memory
d. Processing Speed
Answer D is correct: The Technical Manual for the WAIS-IV reports the following mean index scores for patients with mild Alzheimer's dementia: Verbal Comprehension = 86.2 Perceptual Reasoning = 85.8 Working Memory = 84.3 Processing Speed = 76.6.
The correct answer is: Processing Speed
An examinee’s score on the optional General Ability Index (GAI) on the WAIS-IV is derived from his or her scores on which of the following?
Select one:
a. Verbal Comprehension and Perceptual Reasoning
b. Verbal Comprehension and Working Memory
c. Processing Speed and Perceptual Reasoning
d. Working Memory and Processing Speed
Answer A is correct: The GAI score is useful when the examiner wants to derive a summary score that minimizes the impact of working memory and processing speed, which are both affected by a number of clinical conditions. It is derived from scores on the three Verbal Comprehension subtests and three Perceptual Reasoning subtests.
The correct answer is: Verbal Comprehension and Perceptual Reasoning
Raven’s Progressive Matrices is a measure of:
Select one:
a. psychomotor ability.
b. simultaneous and sequential processing.
c. “successful intelligence.”
d. Spearman’s “g.”
Raven’s Progressive Matrices requires the examinee to solve problems involving abstract figures and designs by indicating which of several alternatives complete a given matrix.
Answer D is correct: Raven’s Progressive Matrices was designed to be a nonverbal measure of general intelligence (g).
The correct answer is: Spearman’s “g.”
The PPVT-4 is the most recent version of the Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test, which was originally developed as a measure of:
Select one:
a. cognitive ability for individuals with Mental Retardation.
b. receptive vocabulary for individuals with physical disabilities.
c. nonverbal reasoning for non-English speakers.
d. short- and long-term memory for individuals with traumatic brain injury.
The Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test (PPVT) presents the examinee with stimulus cards that contain four pictures. As each card is presented, the examiner says a word and the examinee responds by indicating the picture that best illustrates the meaning of the word.
Answer B is correct: The PPVT was originally designed as a measure of receptive vocabulary for individuals with cerebral palsy and other physical disabilities but is now also used for other individuals including those with autism, ADHD, or a neurological impairment.
The correct answer is: receptive vocabulary for individuals with physical disabilities.
The WISC-V provides scores on all of the following indexes except:
Select one:
a. Verbal Comprehension.
b. Perceptual Organization.
c. Working Memory.
d. Processing Speed.
The WISC-V provides a Full Scale IQ score and scores on five indexes and numerous subtests.
Answer B is correct: The WISC-V provides scores on the following indexes:
Verbal Comprehension Visual Spatial Fluid Reasoning Working Memory Processing Speed.
The correct answer is: Perceptual Organization.
Which of the following is a 12-minute, 50-item test of general cognitive ability for adults?
Select one:
a. Leiter-3
b. Kuhlmann-Anderson
c. Haptic
d. Wonderlic
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the purpose of each of the tests listed in the answers to this question. Additional information about these tests is provided in the Psychological Assessment chapter of the written study materials.
Answer D is correct: The Wonderlic Personnel Test-Revised is a 12-minute, 50-item test of general mental ability for adults that is used by employers to assist with hiring decisions.
Answer A is incorrect: The Leiter-3 is culture-fair measure of cognitive abilities for individuals ages 3 to 75+.
Answer B is incorrect: The Kuhlman-Anderson is a group intelligence test for children in grades K through 12.
Answer C is incorrect: The Haptic Intelligence Scale was designed for individuals ages 16 and older who are blind or partially sighted.
The correct answer is: Wonderlic
You would use the Leiter-3 to assess:
Select one:
a. the cognitive abilities of a non-English speaking child or adolescent.
b. the linguistic abilities of a child with a language disability.
c. the functional skills of a child or adolescent with Intellectual Disability.
d. the intelligence of an adolescent or adult who is blind or partially sighted.
The Leiter-3 was designed as a culture-fair measure of cognitive abilities for individuals ages 3 to 75+ years.
Answer A is correct: Because the Leiter-3 can be administered without verbal instructions and does not require verbal responses, it would be useful for assessing the cognitive abilities of a non-English speaking child or adolescent.
The correct answer is: the cognitive abilities of a non-English speaking child or adolescent.
Curriculum-based measures are useful for:
Select one:
a. monitoring a student’s progress to evaluate instructional effectiveness.
b. assessing a student’s mastery of the curriculum in high school to predict his or her performance in college.
c. determining what strategies a student is using to solve complex academic problems.
d. ensuring that test items are tailored to the abilities of the individual student.
Curriculum-based measures are standardized tests that are used to evaluate a student’s performance on items or tasks that are closely linked to the current curriculum.
Answer A is correct: A primary use of curriculum-based measures is to evaluate a student’s progress in order to determine if instruction needs to be modified.
The correct answer is: monitoring a student’s progress to evaluate instructional effectiveness.
Factor analyses have indicated that psychomotor skills:
Select one:
a. are highly interdependent.
b. depend primarily on strength and speed.
c. are highly independent.
d. are reflective of “g.”
In contrast to intelligence, psychomotor ability does not seem to have an underlying “g” factor.
Answer C is correct: The research has confirmed that the various psychomotor skills are relatively independent and that there is no underlying “general psychomotor factor.”
The correct answer is: are highly independent.
One criticism of multiaptitude test batteries is that they lack adequate differential validity, which means that:
Select one:
a. they are often less valid for members of minority groups than for members of the majority group.
b. their subtests have similar levels of validity for predicting outcomes for different criterion groups.
c. performance on their subtests is highly correlated with intelligence or other extraneous variable.
d. performance on their subtests is affected by “floor” and “ceiling” effects.
The term “differential validity” has different meanings depending on the context.
Answer B is correct: Multiaptitude batteries are used to make placement decisions but their ability to do so is limited when each subtest has high validity coefficients for more than one criterion group – i.e., when the subtests lack differential validity. (In the context of multiaptitude batteries, differential validity is a desirable characteristic.)
Answer A is incorrect: In the context of test bias and adverse impact, differential validity is undesirable refers to different validity coefficients for different groups.
The correct answer is: their subtests have similar levels of validity for predicting outcomes for different criterion groups.
On the Self-Directed Search (SDS), the artistic theme is most similar to which of the following themes?
Select one:
a. enterprising
b. realistic
c. conventional
d. investigative
Holland’s model of career choice provides the framework fo the SDS and distinguishes between six personality or occupational types that are arranged in a hexagon in the following order – realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, conventional (“RIASEC”).
Answer D is correct: The artistic theme is adjacent to the investigative theme in the hexagon, which indicates they share some characteristics.
The correct answer is: investigative
Research investigating the predictive validity of interest inventories suggests that they are LEAST accurate for predicting:
Select one:
a. job performance.
b. job choice.
c. job persistence.
d. job satisfaction.
Although interest tests are not very good predictors of academic and occupational success, they are useful for predicting other outcomes.
Answer A is correct: Of the outcomes listed in the answers, job performance is least related to interest test scores, probably because it is affected by a variety of factors including ability, experience, and motivation.
The correct answer is: job performance.
The Scholastic Assessment Test (SAT) appears to be LEAST accurate as a predictor for:
Select one:
a. examinees who score in the mid-range.
b. examinees who score at the high or low end.
c. examinees who score in the lower one-third.
d. examinees who score in the upper one-third.
There is evidence that SAT scores are less accurate predictors of college GPA for certain examinees.
Answer A is correct: The SAT and similar tests are better predictors of college success for examinees who score at the extremes than for those who score in the mid-range.
The correct answer is: examinees who score in the mid-range.
The Strong Interest Inventory provides scores on all of the following except:
Select one:
a. Personal Styles Scales.
b. Basic Interest Scales.
c. General Occupational Themes.
d. College Major Scales.
The Strong Interest Inventory provides scores on:
General Occupational Themes Basic Interest Scales Occupational Scales Personal Styles Scales Administrative Indices
Answer D is correct: The Kuder Occupational Interest Survey (KOIS) provides scores on College Major Scales.
The correct answer is: College Major Scales.
When using Holland’s Self-Directed Search, the degree of match between an examinee’s expressed interests and measured interests is referred to as:
Select one:
a. commonness.
b. consistency.
c. coherence.
d. congruence.
The detailed score report for Holland’s Self-Directed Search (SDS) provides information on congruence, consistency, differentiation, commonness, and coherence.
Answer D is correct: CONGRUENCE refers to the degree of match between a person’s measured interests (three-letter Summary Code) and expressed interests (occupations indicated in the Daydreams Section of the SDS).
Answer A is incorrect: COMMONNESS indicates the frequency with which an examinee’s Summary Code occurred in the standardization sample (i.e., the percent of people in the sample who obtained the same code).
Answer B is incorrect: CONSISTENCY refers to the distance between the examinee’s first two code letters in the RIASEC hexagon. When the first two code letters are adjacent in the hexagon, the individual’s consistency is high.
Answer C is incorrect: COHERENCE is the degree to which an individual’s vocational/career interests belong to the same Holland category.
The correct answer is: congruence.
A score of 24 or higher on the Mini Mental State Exam (MMSE) suggests which of the following?
Select one:
a. normal functioning
b. depression
c. delirium
d. dementia or psychosis
The MMSE consists of 11 items designed to assess six aspects of cognitive functioning in older adults:
orientation registration attention and calculation recall language visual construction.
Answer A is correct: Scores on the MMSE range from 0 to 30, with higher scores indicating better cognitive functioning. A score above 23 suggests normal cognitive functioning.
The correct answer is: normal functioning
A T-score of 100 or higher on the MMPI-2’s F Scale suggests:
Select one:
a. an invalid profile.
b. an absence of significant pathology.
c. an attempt to “fake good.”
d. brain pathology.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the interpretation of the MMPI-2 validity scales described in the Psychological Assessment chapter of the written study materials.
Answer A is correct: The F (Frequency) Scale is used to assess the validity of the entire MMPI profile and a score of 100 or higher suggests that the test results are invalid.
The correct answer is: an invalid profile.
“Confabulation” on the Rorschach Inkblot Test is most suggestive of:
Select one:
a. brain damage.
b. giftedness.
c. sociopathy.
d. an invalid record.
On the Rorschach, confabulation refers to overgeneralizing from a part of an inkblot to the whole.
Answer A is correct: Confabulation is most associated with brain damage, emotional disturbance, and intellectual disability.
The correct answer is: brain damage.
Development of the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) was based on which of the following?
Select one:
a. factor analysis
b. empirical criterion keying
c. Murray’s personality theory
d. Jung’s personality theory
The TAT is a projective personality test that requires examinees to make up stories about pictures that include one or more human figures.
Answer C is correct: The TAT was based on Murray’s personality theory which emphasizes the individual’s needs, values, and attitudes.
The correct answer is: Murray’s personality theory
On the Beck Depression Inventory-II (BDI-II), a score between ____ suggests severe depression.
Select one:
a. 90 and 100
b. 70 and 89
c. 29 and 63
d. 39 and 50
The BDI-II consists of 21 items that are rated in severity on a 4-point scale ranging from 0 to 3. The higher an examinee’s score, the more severe the depression.
Answer C is correct: The total score on the BDI-II ranges from 0 to 63, with a score between 29 and 63 suggesting severe depression.
The correct answer is: 29 and 63
The Bender-Gestalt Test is commonly used as a:
Select one:
a. measure of personality.
b. screening test for brain damage.
c. measure of field dependence or independence.
d. screening test for substance use.
The Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt Test (Bender-Gestalt) is a brief measure of visual-motor integration that requires the examinee to copy geometric designs.
Answer B is correct: The Bender-Gestalt is often used as a screening test for neuropsychological impairment.
Answer A is incorrect: The research has generally found that the Bender-Gestalt is not a reliable measure of personality.
Answer C is incorrect: The Bender-Gestalt is not a measure of field dependence or independence.
Answer D is incorrect: The Bender-Gestalt has not been found useful as a screening tool for substance use.
The correct answer is: screening test for brain damage.
The initial identification of the personality traits that are included in the “Big Five” was based on which of the following?
Select one:
a. empirical criterion keying
b. the “logical content” method
c. a lexical approach
d. item response theory
The Big Five personality traits are extraversion, agreeableness, conscientiousness, neuroticism, and openness to experience.
Answer C is correct: Identification of these traits was based on an atheoretical lexical approach that assumes that all socially relevant personality characteristics are encoded in language. Additional information on this approach is provided in the Psychological Assessment chapter of the written study materials.
The correct answer is: a lexical approach
The K Scale of the MMPI-2 is treated as a(n):
Select one:
a. suppressor variable.
b. control variable.
c. extraneous variable.
d. criterion variable.
An examinee’s score on the K (Correction) Scale is used to correct his or her scores on certain clinical scales.
Answer A is correct: The K Scale is considered to be a suppressor variable because scores correlate with defensiveness, education level, and socioeconomic status, which are unrelated to what is measured by the clinical scales but are likely to suppress scores on those scales.
The correct answer is: suppressor variable.
The primary issue in the case of Larry P. v. Riles was:
Select one:
a. the use of intelligence tests as job selection techniques.
b. the use of different cutoff scores for males and females on a placement test.
c. the use of intelligence tests to evaluate African American children for EMR classes.
d. the use of standard achievement tests to diagnose learning disorders in minority students.
The case of Larry P. was brought by plaintiffs on behalf of African American children who were disproportionately enrolled in EMR classes in the San Francisco school system.
Answer C is correct: The judge in this case concluded that IQ tests, which were the primary tool for placing children in EMR classes, were biased against African American children and could no longer be used to make placement decisions about them.
The correct answer is: the use of intelligence tests to evaluate African American children for EMR classes.
The Stroop Color-Word Association Test would be most useful for evaluating:
Select one:
a. impulse control and selective attention in a child with ADHD.
b. processing speed and divided attention in a child with ADHD.
c. implicit memory in an adult with Alzheimer’s dementia.
d. problem-solving ability in an adult with Alzheimer’s dementia.
The Stroop Test assesses the degree to which the examinee can suppress a prepotent response in favor of an unusual one and is considered to be a measure of cognitive flexibility, response inhibition, and selective attention.
Answer A is correct: Poor performance on the Stroop Test is associated with several disorders including ADHD, mania, depression, and Schizophrenia.
The correct answer is: impulse control and selective attention in a child with ADHD.
To confirm a diagnosis of Intellectual Disability for a six-year-old child, you would administer the SB5 and which of the following?
Select one:
a. Vineland-III
b. Fagan Test
c. WRAT4
d. KABC-II
A diagnosis of Intellectual Disability requires deficits in intellectual functions (e.g., reasoning, problem-solving, abstract thinking) that are confirmed by a clinical assessment and individualized, standardized intelligence testing; deficits in adaptive functioning that result in a failure to meet community standards of personal independence and social responsibility and impair functioning across multiple environments in one or more activities of daily life (e.g., communication, social participation, independent living); and the onset of intellectual and adaptive functioning deficits during the developmental period.
Answer A is correct: The Vineland-III evaluates adaptive functioning in three domains – communication, daily living skills, and socialization.
Answer B is incorrect: The Fagan Test assesses an infant’s selective attention to novel stimuli.
Answer C is incorrect: The WRAT4 is a screening test for grade-level functioning in reading, spelling, and arithmetic.
Answer D is incorrect: the KABC-II is a measure of cognitive ability for children ages 3 through 18 and would be less useful than the Vineland for confirming a diagnosis of Intellectual Disability when intelligence is being assessed using the SB5 (Stanford-Binet, 5th Edition).
The correct answer is: Vineland-III
The Slosson Intelligence Test - Revised 3rd Edition for Children and Adults was developed to be a:
Select one:
A. screening test for crystallized intelligence.
B. screening test for analytical, creative, and practical intellectual abilities.
C. measure of receptive language.
D. culture-fair measure of aptitude.
The Slosson tests include the Slosson Intelligence Test Primary and the Slosson Intelligence Test - Revised 3rd Edition for Children and Adults.
a. CORRECT The SIT-R3-1 was designed as a quick screening test of crystallized (verbal) intelligence for individuals aged 4 through 65.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: screening test for crystallized intelligence.
To determine if a predictor is biased against members of a particular group, you would compare:
Select one:
A. the means of the different groups on the predictor.
B. the means of the different groups on the criterion.
C. the regression lines for the different groups.
D. the Y-intercepts for the different groups.
A slope (predictive) bias is suggested when a predictor has different validity coefficients for different groups.
a. Incorrect Differences in mean scores on either the predictor or criterion may or may not be indicative of a slope bias.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT When a test has different validity coefficients for different groups, it will also have different regression lines since the slope of the regression line is directly related to the magnitude of the validity coefficient.
d. Incorrect Different Y-intercepts do not necessarily indicate bias but may, instead, reflect real differences in criterion performance.
The correct answer is: the regression lines for the different groups.
In general, interest inventories are least useful for predicting:
Select one:
A. job choice.
B. job satisfaction.
C. job persistence.
D. job performance.
Studies suggest that job performance is more closely related to ability than to interests.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Interest test scores are not good predictors of job performance since, as noted above, performance is more dependent on ability than interests. Interest test scores are, however, good predictors of job choice, satisfaction, and persistence.
The correct answer is: job performance.
The Fagan Test of Intelligence assesses which of the following?
Select one:
A. sensorimotor skills
B. visual-motor problem-solving
C. selective attention to novel stimuli
D. personal self-sufficiency
The Fagan Test of Intelligence is a measure of intelligence for infants 3 to 12 months of age.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT The Fagan Test evaluates an infant’s selective attention, which is presumed to reflect his/her ability to retain information.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: selective attention to novel stimuli
The concordance rate for IQ for biological siblings reared together is approximately:
Select one:
A. .85.
B. .65.
C. .45.
D. .25.
The contribution of heredity to IQ is confirmed by studies showing that the greater the genetic similarity, the higher the concordance rate.
a. Incorrect The concordance rate for identical twins reared together is .85.
b. Incorrect A concordance rate of .65 is closest to the rate for identical twins reared apart.
c. CORRECT Although the rates vary somewhat from study to study, a rate of .45 is the average reported rate for biological siblings reared together.
d. Incorrect A concordance rate of .25 is closest to the rate reported for a biological parent and child living apart.
The correct answer is: .45.
