peds65 Flashcards

1
Q

scalding injuries

A

from hot liquids; most common types of burns

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2
Q

glasgow coma scale assess what?

A

eye opening (1-4), best motor response (1-6), and best verbal response (1-5)

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3
Q

eye opening

A

none, response to pain, response to voice, spontaneously

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4
Q

motor

A

none, decerebrate, decorticate, flexion withdrawl, localizes pain, obeys commands

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5
Q

verbal

A

none, incomprehensible, innapropriate words, disoriented conversation, oriented

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6
Q

glasgow coma scores

A

13-15 mild head injury; 9-12 moderate; less than 8 severe

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7
Q

first degree burns

A

involve only the epidermis; characterized by red, blanching, painful skin that heals without scarring

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8
Q

second degree burns

A

involve the entire epidermis and part of the dermis; superficial or deep

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9
Q

second degree superficial burn

A

partial thickness burns involve the entire epidermis and outer portion of the dermis; moist, painful and red; they blister but does not scar

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10
Q

second degree deep partial thickness burns

A

involve destruction fo the entire epidermis and lower part of the dermis; burns are pale white. They may blister and they heal with scarring

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11
Q

third degree burns

A

full thickness burns involve the complete destruction of the epidermis, dermis, and part of the subcutaneous tissue; bruns are dry, white, and leathery to the touch and skin grafts are needed

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12
Q

skin grafts for third degree burns

A

yes right

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13
Q

painful third degree burns?

A

no, usually victim is insens to pain

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14
Q

management of burns

A

ABCs (endotracheal intub, assess oxygenation, IV access through nonburned skin)

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15
Q

why is fluid resuscitation critical in management of burn victims

A

lots of fluid can be lost through the skin and leaky capillaries

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16
Q

first degree burns management

A

moisturizers and analgesics

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17
Q

second degree burns management

A

analgesics, debridement of dead skin to prevent infection; bullae (large blisters are not removed because forms barrier; ruptures bullae should be removed

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18
Q

third degree burn management

A

skin grafting and hydrotherapy; escharotomy may be needed if burn restricts blood flow or chest expansion

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19
Q

escharotomy

A

surgical removal of a constricting scar

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20
Q

antibiotics are important in the treatment of scars

A

in second and third degree burns; topical 1 percent silver sulfadiazine

21
Q

what is a “near drowner”

A

victim who survives sometimes only temporarily, after asphyxia when submerged in a liquid

22
Q

how does death by drownign happen?

A

asphyxia by aspirating liquid (wet drowner) or from larygospasm (dry drowner)

23
Q

how does inhaling liquid hurt you?

A

denaturing of surfactant, alveolar instability and collapse and pulm edema

24
Q

respirations in a near drowner

A

absent or irreg; and the victim may cough up a pink frothy material;

25
Q

lungs in a drowner on physical exam

A

rales, rhonchi, or wheezes

26
Q

how does a drowner get pneumonia

A

aspiration of fluid containing mouth flora

27
Q

how does a drowner get neuro insult

A

hypoxia

28
Q

other features of near drowning

A

CV abnormalities, heamtologic abnormalities, renal failure

29
Q

management of near drowner

A

ABCs, cervical spine immobilization, removal of wet clothing, intubation and mechanical ventilation, rewarming of body core

30
Q

why do you do cervical spine immobilization

A

possibility of coexistent head trauma

31
Q

why removal of wet clothing in a near drowner?

A

to reduce heat loss

32
Q

how to rewarm a patient who has drowned

A

warm saline gastric lavage, bladder washings, or peritoneal lavag should be perforemd if needed. Resuscitation should continue until patient temp is 32 deg C

33
Q

prognosis in a near drowner

A

children have a better outcome than adults because their primitve dive reflex shunts blood to vital organs

34
Q

risk of child abuse is greatest in which kids?

A

less than 4 years old; mental retardation; history of premature birth; chornic illness

35
Q

bruises inflicted injury vs noninflicted trauma

A

inflicted in bruises on fleshy or protected areas; exposed areas are typically noninflicted

36
Q

accidental vs nonaccidental burns

A

accidental have irreg, splashlike config; nonaccidental have a clear line of demarcation (glovelike pattern suggests submersion)

37
Q

what fracturs are highly suggestive of abuse?

A

metaphyseal fractures (bucket or corner fractures); fractures of the posterior or first ribs, sternum, scapula, and vertebral spinous processes

38
Q

leading cause of death and morbidity due to child abuse

A

head injury

39
Q

shaken baby syndrome

A

kids les than 2 yo; head injury

40
Q

lab studies for suspected child abuse

A

within 72 hours of abuse; tests for STDs, incl HIV; pregnancy test and test vaginal fluid for sperm

41
Q

SIDS

A

death of an infeant younger than 1 year whose death remains unexplained after a thorough case eval

42
Q

most common cause of death in kids less than 1 years

A

SIDS

43
Q

peak incidence of SIDs

A

2-4 mos

44
Q

typical victim of SIDs

A

found dead in the morning in bed after being put to sleep at night

45
Q

most common autopsy finding in SIDS

A

intrathoracic petechiae (unknown cause), pulm congestion or edema, small airway inflamm and evidence of hypoxia

46
Q

how do most poisonings happen

A

kids less than 6 yo; 90 percent are accidental; at home when the childs caregiver is distracted; usually ingested; mortality less than 1 percent

47
Q

most common toxic exposures

A

cosmetics and personal care products; cleaning agents; cough and cold preparations; vitamins (iron); analgesics; plants, alcohols; carbon monoxide; prescription meds

48
Q

bitter almond

A

cyanide

49
Q

garlic smell on a kid that ingested a poison

A

arsenic or organophosphates