Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Peds > peds23 > Flashcards

peds23 Flashcards

1
Q

management for NLD obstruction

A

observation for most kids (half resolve), nasolacrimal massage, topical antibiotics if infected; NLD probing through hasner’s valve into nose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

amniotocele (dacryocele)

A

swelling of the nasolacrimal sac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

cause of amniotocele

A

accum of fluid due to NLD obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

clinical features of amniotocele

A

blusih swelling in the medial canthal area may be apparent and represents fluid sequestered withn the nasolacrimal sac; infection may occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

management of amniotocele

A

local massage if no evidence of infection; IV antibiotics and urgent NLD probing if infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

retinal hemorrhages

A

highly suggestive of child abuse! Nonabuse causes include birth trauma, leukemia, incr ICP, malignant htn, bacterial endocarditis, immune thrombocytopenia purpura, and, rarely, cardiopulm resuscitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

clincal features of retinal hemorrhage

A

hemorrhagic dots and blots, or hemorrhage within the preretinal vitreous on a dilated fundoscopic exam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

corneal abrasion

A

cause is traum, incl injury from contact lens; pain, tearing, and photophobia. Also foreign body sensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

diagnosis of corneal abrasion

A

identification on fluorescein staining of the cornea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

management of corneal abrasion

A

ealing usually in 24-48 hours; placement of patch for that time is recommended in severe cases; topical antibiotic to prevent bacterial superinfection; optho consult if abrasion associated with contact lense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

hyphema

A

blood within the anterior chamber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

causes of hyphema

A

blunt trauma is most frequent cause; other causes are iris neovascularization and iris tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

iris tumor

A

juvenile xanthogranuloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

clinical features of hyphema

A

impaired vision, blood-aquoeous fluid level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

complications of hyphema

A

rebleeding 3-5 days after initial injury; glaucoma; staining of the cornea with blood; optic nerve damage in kids with sickle cell disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

management of hyphema

A

optho consult and bed rest for at least 5 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

orbital floor fracture due to what?

A

blunt trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

clinical features of orbital floor fracture

A

orbital fat and inferior rectus muscl can become trapped in the fracture and lead to diplopia due to restricted vertical eye movement, to strabismus, and to enophthalmos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

enophthalmos

A

backward displacement of the eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

why would numbness of the cheek and upper teeth below the orbital fracture occur?

A

infraorbital nerve injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

management of orbital floor fracture

A

empiral oral antibiotics to prevent max sinus organisms from getting to the orbit; also surgical repair if diplopia persists 2-4 wks after injury or if enophthalmos is signif

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

congenital glaucoma

A

incr intraocular pressure occuring at or soon after birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

adult glaucoma

A

pressure damages the optic nerve but does not change the size of the eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

congenital glaucoma

A

not only results in optic nerve injury but also expands the size of the eye; results in corneal edema, corneal clouding, and amblyopia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

cause of congenital glaucoma

A

outflow of acqueous humor is reduced bc of maldevelopment of the trabecular meshwork (aut dom); other causes are infection or genetic syndromes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

clinical features of glaucoma

A

tearing, photophobia, enlarged cornea, corneal clouding, and dull red reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

glaucoma is often misdiagnosed as what?

A

NLD obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

bilateral glaucoma?

A

seen bilaterally in congenital glaucoma in 70% of patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

management of glaucoma

A

surgery to open outflow channels is almos always required; topical or systemic b-ags and carbonic anhydrase inhib, may help lower pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

prognosis for congenital glaucoma

A

if not detected and surgically treated early, leads to blindness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

retinopathy of prematurity

A

proliferation of vessels in premature infants exposed to oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

late complications of ROP

A

myopia, astigatism, amblyopia, strabismus, and blindness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

management of ROP

A

optho exams every 1-2 weeks to monitor prgoress; if disease is severe, retinal cryotherapy and laser therapy may be effective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

two most impt ways to prevent ROP

A

limit oxygen delivered and effective treatment of hyaline membrane disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

who should get a dilated optho exam at 4-6 weeks of age

A

infants born at less than 28 weeks or less than 1500 g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

leukocoria

A

white pupil; refers to opacity at or behind the pupil; can be caused by cataract, opacity within the vitreous, or retinal disease like retinoblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

congenital cataract

A

crystalline opacity of the lens present at birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

most common cause of cataract?

A

idiopathic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

genetic syndromes that can cause cataracts

A

down, noonan, marfan, alport, and smith-lemli-opitz syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what metabolic derangements can cause cataracts

A

hypoglycemia, galactosemia, and DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what intrauterine infections can cuase cataracts?

A

CMV and rubella

42
Q

can trauma cause cataracts?

A

yes

43
Q

management of cataracts

A

early surgery to prevent amblyopia

44
Q

prognosis for congenital cataract

A

treated within the first few weeks of life- good prognosis; but surery performed later is associated with poor visual outcome

45
Q

most common ocular malignancy in childhood

A

retinoblastoma

46
Q

average age of presentation of retinoblastoma

A

13-18 months. More than 90% of cases dx before 5 years of age

47
Q

genetics of retnoblastoma

A

mutation or deletion of growth supp gene on both alleles on the long arm of chrom 13; two hit model

48
Q

two most common presenting signs of retinoblastoma

A

leukocoria and strabismus

49
Q

hallmark of retinoblastoma?

A

calcification within the tumor identified on imaging studes of the eye

50
Q

management of retinoblastoma

A

large tumors involving the macula are treated by removing the eye; smaller tumors may be treated with external beam radiation (which may induce secondary tumors); very small peripheral tumors can be treated with cryotherapy or laser photocoagulation

51
Q

starbismus

A

misalignment of the eyes

52
Q

esotropia

A

eye turned nasally

53
Q

exotropia

A

eye turned laterally

54
Q

vertical strabismus

A

eye turned up or down

55
Q

pseudostabismus

A

prominence of the epicanthal folds that results the false appearance of stabismus

56
Q

if strabismus occurs before age 6

A

child suppresses the image in the deviated eye and amblyopia may result

57
Q

if strabismus occurs after age 6

A

the mature visual system can’t suppress the image and diplopia develops

58
Q

management

A

ocular patching to prevent amblyopia; corrective lenses if farsighted; surgery if misalignment does not respond to patch or glasses

59
Q

when is fifth disease no longer contagious?

A

when facial rash appears

60
Q

management of fifth disease

A

supportive. IV IG can be used to treat chronic anemia in immunosupp patients

61
Q

roseola infantum

A

aka exanthem subitum

62
Q

roseloa most common in what agr

A

under 2

63
Q

what causes roseola?

A

HHV 6 and 7; other causes ar adenovirus, parvi, b19, and echovirus 16

64
Q

clinical features of roseola

A

begins with 3-5 days of high fever; once the fever resolves, a pink papular eruption occurs in the trunk and fades in 24-48 hrs

65
Q

management of roseola infantum

A

supportive

66
Q

gianotti-crosti syndrome

A

papular acrodermatitis; associated with hep B infection, EBV, CMV, and coxsackievirus

67
Q

clinical features of gianotti-crosti syndrome

A

red or flescolored papules in acral areas; URI symptoms may precede the eruption; treatment is supportive

68
Q

clinical features of varicella

A

intensely pruriti erythematous macules develop after a 7 to 21 day incubation period; looks like a dew drop on a rose petal (vesicle on a red background)

69
Q

management of varicella

A

antipyretics, cleansing with antibacterial soaps; antihistamines for itching; acyclovir for varicella pneumonia and encephalitisi or in eyes for eye involvement

70
Q

most common HSV infection during infancy

A

gingiostomatitis, almost always caused by hsv 1

71
Q

characteristic lesions for hsv

A

grouped vesicles on an erythematous base

72
Q

hsv gingivostamatitis

A

young infants with grouped vesicles and ulcers on the lips, mouth, tongue

73
Q

neonatal hsv

A

first week of life; may have just a few vesicles; serious sequelae include meningoencephalitis, hepatitis, sepsis, shock and death; hsv2 more common than hsv1

74
Q

herpetic whitlow

A

hsv-1 infection; of the thumb or fingers (usually 2/2 thumb sucking by kid with oral hsv lesion)

75
Q

where does hsv reside?

A

dorsal root ganglion; can reactivate

76
Q

recurrent hsv lesions?

A

more mild and less symptomatic; generally occur on lip

77
Q

how to diagnose hsv?

A

tzanck preparation, by detection of hsv antigen on fluorescent antibody testing, or culture of base of lesion; pcr of cerebrospinal fluid

78
Q

management of hsv

A

neonatal hsv is medical emergency! Iv acyclovir; cutaneous and oral hsv may be treated with oral acyclovir promptly

79
Q

hand-foot-mouth disease

A

coxsackievirus

80
Q

clinical features of hand-foot-mouth diseae

A

vesicles, papules, or pustules on the palms, soles, fingers, and shallow ulcer on the soft palate or tongue

81
Q

if only oral lesions are present in hand-foot-mouth disease, what do you call it?

A

herpangina

82
Q

management of herpangina or hand foot mouth

A

supportive

83
Q

what causes warts?

A

hpv

84
Q

condylomata acuminata

A

term to describe multiple external warts in the genital area

85
Q

management of warts

A

resolve spontaneously in 1-2 years; can treat but recurrance after treatment is high

86
Q

molloscum cantagiosum is caused by what?

A

pox virus

87
Q

molloscum features

A

flesh-olored papules with central umbilication

88
Q

what disease is associated with eruption of molluscum

A

hiv infection

89
Q

management of molluscum

A

just watchful waiting; can remove like wart

90
Q

louse infestation

A

pediculus humanus (head and body lice) and phthirus pubis (pubic lice)

91
Q

louse associated with what?

A

crowded living conditions, sharing hats, clothes, combs

92
Q

body lice

A

papules and pustules on the trunk with excoriations

93
Q

pubic lice

A

lice or nits in the groin and blackcrusted papules or blue macules (macula cerulea)

94
Q

management of head lice

A

permethrin shampoo and comb

95
Q

management of body and pubic lice

A

12 hours application of hexachloride lotion

96
Q

scabies caused by what?

A

mite named sarcoptes scabei

97
Q

clinical features of scabies

A

pruritic papules or vesicles all over body; severe itchign and S shaped burrows

98
Q

management of scabies

A

overnight applic of permethrin lotion or lindane (adults only); highly contagious so treat all household contacts; wash all sheet and clothes

99
Q

causes of hypopigmentation

A

postinflamm; pityriasis alba; vitiligo; oculocutaneous albinism

100
Q

postinflamm hypopigmentation caused by what and resolves in how long?

A

may follow any skin inflamm (like atopic dermatitis) and resolves in months to years

Peds (99 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions