Section 5

Question 1

What are the primary symptoms of acute coronary syndrome (ACS)?

Answer 1

Chest pain, shortness of breath, diaphoresis, and nausea.

Question 2

What is the first-line treatment for suspected myocardial infarction?

Answer 2

Administration of aspirin, oxygen, nitroglycerin, and morphine.

Question 3

What is the role of ECG in diagnosing cardiac emergencies?

Answer 3

Identifying ischemia, arrhythmias, and conduction abnormalities.

Question 4

What are the main types of myocardial infarction (MI)?

Answer 4

STEMI (ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction) and NSTEMI (Non-ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction).

Question 5

What is the significance of troponin levels in ACS?

Answer 5

Elevated troponin levels indicate myocardial injury and infarction.

Question 6

How is cardiogenic shock identified?

Answer 6

Hypotension, cool extremities, altered mental status, and poor perfusion.

Question 7

What is the initial management for cardiogenic shock?

Answer 7

Fluid resuscitation, inotropic support, and addressing the underlying cause.

Question 8

What is the purpose of thrombolytic therapy in STEMI?

Answer 8

To dissolve blood clots and restore coronary blood flow.

Question 9

When is percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) indicated?

Answer 9

For STEMI patients within 90 minutes of medical contact if facilities are available.

Question 10

What is the difference between atrial fibrillation and atrial flutter?

Answer 10

Atrial fibrillation is an irregular rhythm, while atrial flutter is a regular rhythm with rapid atrial contractions.

Question 11

What are common causes of atrial fibrillation?

Answer 11

Hypertension, heart disease, hyperthyroidism, and alcohol use.

Question 12

How is ventricular tachycardia managed in an emergency?

Answer 12

Cardioversion if unstable; antiarrhythmics if stable.

Question 13

What is the purpose of a defibrillator in cardiac arrest?

Answer 13

To deliver an electric shock to restore normal heart rhythm in ventricular fibrillation or pulseless VT.

Question 14

What is the significance of PEA (Pulseless Electrical Activity)?

Answer 14

The heart shows electrical activity without mechanical function, requiring immediate CPR and search for reversible causes.

Question 15

What are the ‘H’s and T’s’ of cardiac arrest?

Answer 15

Hypovolemia, Hypoxia, Hydrogen ion (acidosis), Hypo/Hyperkalemia, Hypothermia, Tension pneumothorax, Tamponade, Toxins, Thrombosis (cardiac or pulmonary).

Question 16

What is the purpose of CPR in cardiac emergencies?

Answer 16

To maintain blood flow to vital organs until advanced care is available.

Question 17

How is hypertensive emergency managed in the emergency department?

Answer 17

Gradual blood pressure reduction with IV antihypertensives and monitoring for organ damage.

Question 18

What is the role of beta-blockers in acute coronary syndrome?

Answer 18

To reduce myocardial oxygen demand and control heart rate.

Question 19

How is acute heart failure managed in emergency settings?

Answer 19

Diuretics, oxygen therapy, and vasodilators to reduce preload and afterload.

Question 20

What are the indications for transcutaneous pacing?

Answer 20

Symptomatic bradycardia or heart block unresponsive to medication.

Question 21

What is the role of calcium channel blockers in emergency cardiology?

Answer 21

To control heart rate and reduce myocardial oxygen consumption.

Question 22

What is the purpose of an aortic dissection protocol?

Answer 22

To rapidly diagnose and manage life-threatening tears in the aorta.

Question 23

What is the management strategy for pericardial tamponade?

Answer 23

Urgent pericardiocentesis to relieve pressure on the heart.

Question 24

What are the primary symptoms of peripheral arterial disease?

Answer 24

Claudication, rest pain, ulceration, and diminished pulses.

Question 25

How is atrial flutter identified on ECG?

Answer 25

Sawtooth-like waves in leads II, III, and aVF.

Question 26

What are common reversible causes of bradycardia?

Answer 26

Hypoxia, hypothermia, drug overdose, and metabolic disturbances.

Question 27

How is supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) managed acutely?

Answer 27

Vagal maneuvers, adenosine, and cardioversion if unstable.

Question 28

What is the role of cardiac enzymes in diagnosing myocardial infarction?

Answer 28

Troponin and CK-MB levels help confirm myocardial injury.

Question 29

How is hypertrophic cardiomyopathy identified?

Answer 29

Murmur that increases with Valsalva, family history, and echocardiography.

Question 30

What is the role of anticoagulation in atrial fibrillation?

Answer 30

To prevent thromboembolic events like stroke.

Question 31

What is the primary intervention for acute pulmonary edema?

Answer 31

Oxygen therapy, diuretics, and vasodilators.

Question 32

How is aortic stenosis managed in emergency settings?

Answer 32

Monitoring, oxygen therapy, and sometimes urgent valve intervention.

Question 33

What is the management of myocarditis in emergency care?

Answer 33

Supportive therapy, monitoring, and addressing underlying causes.

Question 34

What is the importance of echo in emergency cardiology?

Answer 34

To assess cardiac function, wall motion, and valve integrity.

Question 35

How is an embolic stroke managed acutely?

Answer 35

Thrombolytics within the therapeutic window and supportive care.

Question 36

What are the signs of right heart failure?

Answer 36

Peripheral edema, jugular venous distension, and hepatomegaly.

Question 37

What is the emergency treatment for endocarditis?

Answer 37

IV antibiotics and hemodynamic support.

Question 38

How is mitral regurgitation managed in emergencies?

Answer 38

Vasodilators, diuretics, and sometimes surgical intervention.

Question 39

What is the role of ACE inhibitors in cardiac emergencies?

Answer 39

To reduce blood pressure and prevent cardiac remodeling.

Question 40

What are common symptoms of cardiac tamponade?

Answer 40

Hypotension, muffled heart sounds, and jugular venous distension (Beck's triad).