Section 7 Flashcards

(40 cards)

1
Q

What are the primary symptoms of a stroke?

A

Sudden numbness or weakness, confusion, trouble speaking, vision problems, and severe headache.

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2
Q

What is the immediate management for suspected stroke?

A

Rapid assessment, stabilization of airway, breathing, circulation (ABC), and urgent CT scan.

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3
Q

What is the difference between ischemic and hemorrhagic stroke?

A

Ischemic stroke is caused by a blockage, while hemorrhagic stroke is due to bleeding in the brain.

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4
Q

What is the role of thrombolysis in stroke management?

A

To dissolve the clot and restore blood flow, typically within 4.5 hours of symptom onset.

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5
Q

How is transient ischemic attack (TIA) managed in emergency settings?

A

Immediate evaluation, antiplatelet therapy, and risk factor modification.

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6
Q

What are the symptoms of increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?

A

Headache, vomiting, altered mental status, and papilledema.

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7
Q

What is the emergency management for seizures?

A

Secure the airway, prevent injury, administer benzodiazepines, and assess underlying causes.

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8
Q

What is status epilepticus and how is it treated?

A

A seizure lasting more than 5 minutes or multiple seizures without regaining consciousness; treated with IV lorazepam or diazepam.

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9
Q

What is the purpose of a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) assessment?

A

To evaluate the level of consciousness in head injury patients.

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10
Q

What are the common causes of altered mental status?

A

Hypoxia, hypoglycemia, infections, toxins, trauma, and stroke.

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11
Q

How is bacterial meningitis managed in emergency care?

A

Immediate antibiotic therapy, corticosteroids, and supportive care.

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12
Q

What is the significance of Brudzinski’s and Kernig’s signs?

A

Indicators of meningeal irritation seen in meningitis.

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13
Q

What are the key clinical features of encephalitis?

A

Fever, headache, altered mental status, and focal neurological deficits.

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14
Q

How is acute subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) identified?

A

Sudden, severe headache often described as “the worst headache of my life,” with neck stiffness and photophobia.

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15
Q

What is the emergency intervention for subdural hematoma?

A

Immediate neurosurgical consultation and possible surgical evacuation.

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16
Q

What is the purpose of a lumbar puncture in neurological emergencies?

A

To diagnose infections, bleeding, and inflammatory diseases of the CNS.

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17
Q

What are the symptoms of Guillain-Barré Syndrome?

A

Ascending muscle weakness, loss of reflexes, and potential respiratory failure.

18
Q

What is the management of myasthenic crisis in emergency settings?

A

Airway protection, IV immunoglobulin, plasmapheresis, and supportive care.

19
Q

How is Bell’s palsy typically managed in emergency care?

A

Corticosteroids, eye protection, and sometimes antiviral therapy.

20
Q

What is the role of MRI in diagnosing neurological emergencies?

A

To identify brain lesions, tumors, bleeding, and demyelinating diseases.

21
Q

What is the first-line treatment for migraines in emergency settings?

A

NSAIDs, triptans, and antiemetics.

22
Q

What are common signs of brain herniation?

A

Cushing’s triad (hypertension, bradycardia, irregular respirations) and pupil dilation.

23
Q

How is a brain abscess identified and treated?

A

Identified via CT or MRI; treated with antibiotics and sometimes drainage.

24
Q

What is the emergency management of a spinal cord injury?

A

Spinal immobilization, airway management, and immediate transport to a trauma center.

25
What is the difference between decorticate and decerebrate posturing?
Decorticate indicates cerebral damage; decerebrate suggests brainstem injury.
26
How is multiple sclerosis exacerbation managed in emergency care?
High-dose corticosteroids and supportive care.
27
What are the signs of Horner's Syndrome?
Ptosis, miosis, and anhidrosis on the affected side of the face.
28
What is the purpose of hypertonic saline in head injury?
To reduce cerebral edema and lower intracranial pressure.
29
How is an epidural hematoma identified on CT scan?
Lens-shaped (biconvex) hyperdensity confined to one hemisphere.
30
What is the role of antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) in seizure management?
To prevent recurrent seizures and stabilize neuronal activity.
31
What is neurogenic shock and how is it managed?
Hypotension and bradycardia due to spinal cord injury; managed with fluid resuscitation and vasopressors.
32
What is the management strategy for trigeminal neuralgia in emergency settings?
Pain control with carbamazepine or gabapentin.
33
What are the clinical signs of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)?
Progressive muscle weakness, atrophy, and spasticity.
34
How is a brainstem stroke typically presented?
Dizziness, dysphagia, double vision, and altered consciousness.
35
What is the role of corticosteroids in spinal cord compression?
To reduce inflammation and preserve neurological function.
36
What are the common causes of syncope in emergency care?
Vasovagal response, cardiac arrhythmias, dehydration, and orthostatic hypotension.
37
What is the significance of carotid bruits in neurological assessment?
May indicate carotid artery stenosis or risk of stroke.
38
How is Wernicke's encephalopathy managed in emergency care?
Administration of thiamine before glucose to prevent neurological damage.
39
What is the primary intervention for suspected brain aneurysm rupture?
Immediate neurosurgical evaluation and blood pressure control.
40
What is the purpose of mannitol in managing increased ICP?
To reduce intracranial pressure by promoting diuresis.