Bone

Question 1

Osteogenesis imperfecta: secondary to mutation in either the _ or _ genes, which guide type 1 collagen formation

Answer 1

COL1A1 or COL1A2

Question 2

osteopenia, bowing, angulation, or deformity of long bones; multiple fractures; wormian bones of the skull

Answer 2

osteogenesis imperfecta

Question 3

most common and least severe form of osteogenesis imperfecta, moderately severe bone fragility, blue sclera, hearing loss before age 30, some show opalescent teeth

Answer 3

type 1

Question 4

most severe form of osteogenesis imperfecta, extreme bone fragility with frequent fractures, blue sclera, some opalescent teeth

Answer 4

type 2

Question 5

most severe form of osteogenesis imperfecta beyond perinatal period; moderately severe bone fragility, blue sclera, kyphoscoliosis, some opalescent teeth

Answer 5

type 3

Question 6

type _ of osteogenesis imperfecta; mild to moderate bone fragility, blue sclera fades with age, bone fractures, decrease after puberty, some opalescent teeth

Answer 6

type 4

Question 7

hereditary disorder characterized by increased bone density; secondary to defect in osteoclastic function; the defect results in thickening of cortical bone and sclerosis of cancellous bone

Answer 7

osteopetrosis

Question 8

_ form of osteopetrosis: normocytic anemia, symptoms secondary to cranial nerve pressure, pathologic fracture, skull deformities, hypertelorism, delayed tooth eruption, autosomal recessive

Answer 8

infantile (malignant)

Question 9

_ form of osteopetrosis: milder, typically detected upon routine radiograph, no anemia, no cranial nerve compression, uncommon pathologic fracture, osteomyelitis, autosomal dominant

Answer 9

adult (benign)

Question 10

numerous osteoclasts; lack of howship’s lacunae; dense bone formation

Answer 10

osteopetrosis

Question 11

hereditary bone defect of the bone and clavicles; secondary to defect in the CBFA 1 gene, which guides osteoblastic diffentiation and bone formation; autosomal dominant inheritance pattern

Answer 11

cleidocranial dysplasia

Question 12

frontal and parietal bossing; ocular hypertelorism; mid-face hypoplasia; open fontanels and wormian bones

Answer 12

cleidocranial dysplasia

Question 13

hypoplasia or absence of clavicles; oral: numerous unerupted and supernumerary teeth, high arched palate

Answer 13

cleidocranial dysplasia

Question 14

harmless process that may mimic pathology; may be secondary to aberrant bone regeneration following extraction, persistance of fetal marrow, and/or marrow hyperplasia

Answer 14

focal osteoporotic marrow defect

Question 15

F>M, posterior mandible, asymptomatic, ill-defined radiolucency with fine trabeculations; normal bone, cellular hematopoietic marrow

Answer 15

focal osteoporotic marrow defect

Question 16

focal area of bone density of unknown etiology; often confused with condensing osteitis

Answer 16

idiopathic osteosclerosis

Question 17

age 20-40; mandibular first molar area; asymptomatic; well defined area of radiopacity

Answer 17

idiopathic osteosclerosis

Question 18

disease of bone characterized by abnormal resorption and deposition of bone; unknown etiology; evidence has suggested a possible viral etiology; recent gene mutations have also been identified

Answer 18

paget’s disease of bone (osteitis deformans)

Question 19

M>F; older individuals; monostotic vs. polyostotic; thickened enlarged, and weakened bones; often painful

Answer 19

paget’s disease

Question 20

maxilla>mandible, enlarged alveolar ridges, may see spacing of the teeth

Answer 20

paget’s disease

Question 21

radiograph: early- decreased radiodensity and altered trabeculation, later- patchy, sclerotic bone (cotton wool), hypercementosis

Answer 21

paget’s disease

Question 22

increased serum alkaline phosphatase; normal calcium and phosphorous levels; elevated urinary hydroxyproline; osteoblastic formation and osteoclastic resorption of bone; basophilic reversal lines (mosaic or jigsaw pattern)

Answer 22

paget’s disease

Question 23

_ develops in about 1% of Paget’s patients

Answer 23

osteosarcoma

Question 24

non-neoplastic lesion of the jaws; significance lies in differentiation from brown tumor of hyperparathyroidism and association with cherubism

Answer 24

central giant cell granuloma

Question 25

F>M, aggressive vs. non-aggressive, typically painless expansile, mandible, anterior to the first molar, may cross the midline, unilocular to multilocular radiolucency

Answer 25

central giant cell granuloma

Question 26

spindle cell proliferation with variable numbers of multinucleated giant cells, erythrocytic extravasation and hemosiderin deposition, may see osteoid

Answer 26

central giant cell granuloma

Question 27

rare autosomal dominant condition of the jaws, children, painless bilateral expansion, usually involves the posterior mandible

Answer 27

cherubism

Question 28

"eyes turned up to heaven" appearance, multilocular, expansile radiolucencies, Noonan-like syndrome

Answer 28

cherubism

Question 29

giant cell granuloma with more loosely arranged stroma, giant cells are focally aggregated, eosinophilic hyaline angiopathy

Answer 29

cherubism

Question 30

benign empty or fluid-filled cavity of uncertain pathogenesis; actually not a true cyst (no epithelial lining); trauma-hemorrhage theory is probably the most popular of the potential explanations; others include ischemic necrosis, growth disturbances

Answer 30

traumatic bone cyst (simple bone cyst)

Question 31

M>F, most involve the mandible; typically asymptomatic; radiolucency with sharply or ill-defined margins; scalloping between roots; thin lining of fibrovascular connective tissue along the bony wall; no epithelial lining

Answer 31

traumatic bone cyst

Question 32

nonspecific term used to describe a number of processes that are characterized by fibrous connective tissue and mineralized tissue; due to similarity in histopathologic features, radiographic and/or clinical correlation is necessary to establish a definitive diagnosis

Answer 32

benign fibro-osseous lesions of the jaws

Question 33

All of theses processes are _: fibrous dysplasia, cemento-osseous dysplasia, ossifying (cemento-ossifying) fibroma

Answer 33

benign fibro-osseous lesions of the jaws

Question 34

developmental process secondary to a postzygotic mutation in the GNAS 1 gene; three froms; typically affects children during the first or second decade; M=F

Answer 34

fibrous dysplasia

Question 35

_ fibrous dysplasia: slowly growing enlargement of a single bone; frequently involves the jaws; "ground glass" radiograph

Answer 35

monostotic

Question 36

_ of fibrous dysplasia: typically involves the long bones; pathologic fracture, pain, deformity; cafe au lait pigmentation

Answer 36

jaffe-lichtenstein

Question 37

_ of fibrous dysplasia: polyostotic features; cafe au lait pigmentation; multiple endocrinopathies (sexual precocity, gigantism, etc)

Answer 37

McCune-Albright syndrome

Question 38

cellular fibrous stroma; irregular shaped trabeculae of woven bone (chinese script writing); skull and jaw lesions mature differently

Answer 38

fibrous dysplasia

Question 39

african-american females; mandibular anterior area, asymptomatic; radiolucent to mixed appearance

Answer 39

periapical cemental dysplasia

Question 40

F>M; whites>blacks; posterior mandible; solitary; asymptomatic

Answer 40

focal cemento-osseous dysplasia

Question 41

adult black females; often symmetric involvement of all four quadrants

Answer 41

florid cemento-osseous dysplasia

Question 42

Neoplasm of fibro-osseous differentiation; amount of cementum-like and osseous-like is variable from lesion to lesion and can be used to determine the terminology

Answer 42

ossifying fibroma

Question 43

F>M; adults; mandibular molar-premolar area; typically an asymptomatic swelling

Answer 43

ossifying fibroma

Question 44

unilocular; varying degrees of opacity; bowing of inferior cortex

Answer 44

ossifying fibroma

Question 45

benign tumor of compact or cancellous bone; predominantly restricted to the bones of the craniofacial skeleton; may occur on the surface (periosteal) or within medullary bone (endosteal)

Answer 45

osteoma

Question 46

young adults; asymptomatic; most commonly affect the mandible or condyle; circumscribed, sclerotic mass; sinus lesions- sinusitis, headache, exopthalmos

Answer 46

osteoma

Question 47

autosomal dominant condition characterized by colorectal polyps (adenomatous), osteomas, epidermoid cysts of the skin, and desmoid tumors; chief significance lies in the potential for adenocarcinoma of the colon

Answer 47

gardner syndrome

Question 48

osteomas, particularly of the jaws and bones of the skull; epidermoid cysts; multiple odontomas and impacted, supernumerary teeth

Answer 48

gardner syndrome

Question 49

Without appropriate treatment of gardner syndrome, the incidence of colorectal carcinoma approaches _% in the elderly

Answer 49

100

Question 50

Benign lesion of bone arising from osteoblasts; significant radiographic and histopathologic similarities with cementoblastoma

Answer 50

osteoblastoma

Question 51

M

Answer 51

osteoblastoma

Question 52

odontogenic neoplasm; probably the only true neoplasm of cementum; many similarities to osteoblastoma, warranting discussion with bone pathology

Answer 52

cementoblastoma

Question 53

mandibular molar region; variable pain; expansile; calcified mass with radiolucent rim associated with the root of a tooth

Answer 53

cementoblastoma

Question 54

similar to osteoblastoma, but fused to the tooth root; sheets or trabeculae of mineralized material; uncalcified matrix arranged in radiating columns at the periphery

Answer 54

cementoblastoma

Question 55

malignancy of mesenchymal cells that are characterized by the ability to produce osteoid or bone; most common malignant tumor of bone; increased prevalence associated with Paget's disease or previous radiation

Answer 55

osteosarcoma

Question 56

M>F; avg. age 33 for jaw lesions; most occur in the area of the knee; swelling, pain, parasthesia, loosening of teeth; variable radiographic appearance; spiking root resorption; "sunburst or sunray" appearance; early widening of PDL

Answer 56

osteosarcoma

Question 57

Osteosarcoma: Direct production of _ by mesenchymal cells

Answer 57

osteoid

Question 58

variant of osteosarcoma that arises from the surface of bone; much better prognosis than intramedullary osteosarcoma; parosteal and periosteal trypes

Answer 58

peripheral (juxtacortical) osteosarcoma

Question 59

malignant tumor of cartilage formation; about half as common as osteosarcoma; rarely affects the jaws

Answer 59

chondrosarcoma

Question 60

M=F; avg. age ?; painless mass or swelling; separation or loosening of teeth; poorly defined radiolucency; scattered radiopaque flecks; may see the sunburst pattern

Answer 60

chondrosarcoma

Question 61

controversial lesion of bone, probably neuroectodermal in origin; distinct genetic translocation - t(11;22); uncommon tumor of the jaws

Answer 61

ewing's sarcoma

Question 62

M>F; children and adolescents; swelling with intermittent pain; parasthesia and loosening of teeth; lytic bone destruction with ill-defined margins; "onion-skin" periosteal reaction; fever, leukocytosis; "blue cell tumor"

Answer 62

ewings sarcoma

Question 63

most common malignancy involving bone; hematogenous spread; uncommon in the jaws?; breast, lung, thyroid, prostate, and kidney

Answer 63

metastatic tumors to the jaws

Question 64

older patients; mandible>maxilla; pain, swelling, loosening of teeth, parasthesia; may mimic periodontal disease; moth-eaten radiographic appearance; breast and prostate may show mixed radiolucent/opaque pattern

Answer 64

metastatic tumors to the jaws