Hematologic

Question 1

proliferation of normal lymphoid tissue in response to antigenic challenge; clinical- lymph node enlargement; may involve nodes (commonly the anterior cervical chain), Waldeyer’s ring

Answer 1

lymphoid hyperplasia

Question 2

bleeding disorder secondary to a genetic deficiency of clotting factors

Answer 2

hemophilia

Question 3

Hemophilia _: deficiency of factor VIII

Answer 3

A

Question 4

Hemophilia _: deficiency of factor IX

Answer 4

B (Christmas disease)

Question 5

deficiency of von Willibrand’s factor

Answer 5

von Willbrand’s disease

Question 6

x-linked; severity depends upon the extent of the deficiency; increased PTT

Answer 6

hemophilia A

Question 7

pseudotumor of _; hemarthrosis; increased bleeding from many dental procedures

Answer 7

hemophilia

Question 8

general term, indicating a decrease in red blood cell volume (hematocrit) or concentration of hemoglobin; usually an indication of underlying systemic disease; conditions include vitamin deficiencies, liver disease, malignancies (myelophthisic _)

Answer 8

anemia

Question 9

fatigue, headache, lightheadednes; may see pallor of the mucous membranes

Answer 9

anemia

Question 10

genetic disorder of hemoglobin synthesis; thymine is substituted for adenine; deoxygenated hemoglobin subject to molecular aggregation and polymerization

Answer 10

Sickle cell anemia

Question 11

Codominant gene; abnormal gene confers a resistance to malaria; frequently affects patients in Africa, Mediterranean basin, and Asia; 8% African Americans carry the trait

Answer 11

Sickle cell anemia

Question 12

reduced blood flow to organs and tissues; susceptibility to infections secondary to spleen destruction; reduced trabeculae pattern; “hair on end” skull radiograph

Answer 12

Sickle cell

Question 13

Inherited disorder of hemoglobin synthesis; similar to sickle cell anemia, carriers of the trait are resistant to the malarial organism; Mediterranean, African, Indian and Southwest Asians are more often affected; Hair on end radiograph; bone marrow hyperplasia

Answer 13

Thalassemia

Question 14

hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy; tissue hypoxia; bacterial infections; high-output cardiac failure

Answer 14

thalassemia

Question 15

Complete failure of hematopoietic precursor (stem) cells to differentiate into all elements of the circulation; most cases appear to be an immune-mediated disease caused by cytotoxic T lymphocytes; unknown etiology, but environmental toxins, viruses, and drugs have been impicated

Answer 15

aplastic anemia

Question 16

fatigue, lightheadedness (secondary to erythrocyte deficiency); bleeding disorders (secondary to thombocytopenia)

Answer 16

aplastic anemia

Question 17

Infections (secondary to leukocytic deficiency); Oral: -hemorrhage, petechiae, pallor, ulcerations, gingival hyperplasia

Answer 17

aplastic anemia

Question 18

Aplastic anemia: recurrence is common and patient are at increased risk of developing _ _

Answer 18

acute leukemia

Question 19

Decreased numbers of circulating neutrophils; genetic (infants) or acquired (older children and adults), secondary to numerous infectious, neoplasia, or chemotherapeutic agents

Answer 19

neutropenia

Question 20

increased susceptibility to bacterial infections (ear, oral cavity, later pulmonary); oral lesions: gingival ulcerations

Answer 20

neutropenia

Question 21

decrease or absence of cells of granulocytic derivation, particularly neutrophils; decreased production or increased destruction secondary to certain drugs or some syndromes; may be idiopathic

Answer 21

agranulocytosis

Question 22

bacterial infections and their associated symptoms; oral lesions: punched-out ulcerations, NUG

Answer 22

agranulocytosis

Question 23

idiopathic, periodic reductions in neutrophils; isolated or autosomal dominant; symptoms are associated with the neutrophil count

Answer 23

cyclic neutropenia

Question 24

childhood onset; low neutrophil counts (3-6 days) correspond to infections and their associated symptoms; cycles are approximately 21 days; oral and other GI ulcerations; periodontal bone loss and gingival recession; “floating in air” radiographic appearance

Answer 24

cyclic neutropenia

Question 25

decrease in the number of platelets; secondary to reduced production, increased destruction or sequestration in the spleen (during splenomegaly); systemic diseases such as lupus or HIV also may be characterized by thrombocytopenia

Answer 25

thrombocytopenia

Question 26

_ thrombocytopenic purpura- occurs in childhood after nonspecific viral infection

Answer 26

idiopathic

Question 27

_ thrombocytopenic purpura- coagulation disorder, resulting in numerous thrombi within small blood vessels

Answer 27

thrombotic

Question 28

submucosal/cutaneous hemorrhage; epistaxis; hemoptysis; GI or urinary bleeding; petechia, ecchymosis, hematoma; spontaneous gingival hemorrhage

Answer 28

thrombocytopenia

Question 29

thrombocytopenia: biopsy specimens will show _ deposition within blood vessels

Answer 29

fibrin

Question 30

idiopathic increase in red blood cell mass, usually concurrently with uncontrolled platelet and granulocyte production; probably secondary to the behavior of an abnormal progenitor stem cell

Answer 30

polycythemia vera

Question 31

older adults; nonspecific early symptoms; thrombus formation; hypertension, splenomegaly; ruddy complexion; erythromelalgia; excess hemorrhage (gingival, epistaxis, ecchymosis)

Answer 31

polycythemia vera

Question 32

heterogeneous group of malignancies of hematopoietic stem cell derivation; probably due to genetic and environmental factors (pesticides, benzene, ionizing radiation, viruses); Philadelphia chromosome

Answer 32

leukemia

Question 33

Most common from of leukemia, elderly adults

Answer 33

CLL

Question 34

Form of leukemia associated with children

Answer 34

ALL

Question 35

symptoms related to reduction of normal red and white blood cells (infections, bleeding, fatigue, oral ulceration); hepatosplenomegaly; lymphadenopathy

Answer 35

leukemia

Question 36

Occasional infiltration of oral soft tissue with _ cells; granulocytic sarcoma/chloroma

Answer 36

leukemic

Question 37

poorly understood malignancy; lesional cell (Reed-Sternberg cell) makes up only 1-3% of cells

Answer 37

Hodgkin's Lymphoma

Question 38

M>F; almost uniformly begins in lymph nodes, especially the cervical and supraclavicular; fever, night sweats, pruritis

Answer 38

Hodgkin's Lymphoma

Question 39

Hodgkins lymphoma histo: Reed Sternberg cells (look like kernels of popcorn

Answer 39

nodular lymphocyte predominant

Question 40

Hodgkins lymphoma histo: large nuclei form; 5 subtypes

Answer 40

Classical Hodgkins lymphoma

Question 41

heterogeneous group of lymphoreticular malignancies; usually arise in lymph nodes; grow as solid masses; more common in the immunocompromised

Answer 41

non-hodgkins

Question 42

primarily adults; nodal and extranodal (oral); slowly growing mass; oral lesions; extranodal, "boggy" swelling, usually normal or purplish in color; may occur in bone

Answer 42

non hodgkins lymphoma

Question 43

Lymphoma: _-grade lesions tend to be characterized by a follicular arrangement

Answer 43

low

Question 44

Lymphoma: _-grade lesions will be more diffuse

Answer 44

higher

Question 45

high-grade, undifferentiated lymphoma of B-lymphocyte origin; American (sporadic) and African (endemic) variants; thought to be associated with Epstein-Barr virus (African)

Answer 45

Burkitt's lymphoma

Question 46

_ variant of Burkitts: children; more likely to affect the jaws (50-79%), especially the maxilla; swelling, tooth mobility or premature exfoliation; pain and paresthesia typically minimal

Answer 46

African

Question 47

_ variant of Burkitt's: wider age range; typically presents as an abdominal mass; radiographic: early loss of lamina dura; patchy, ill-defined radiolucency

Answer 47

American

Question 48

small, non-cleaved cells with scattered macrophages; "starry sky" classic pattern

Answer 48

burkitt's lymphoma

Question 49

uncommon malignancy of plasma cell origin; monoclonal proliferation results in production of abnormal, nonfunctional immunoglobulin (monoclonal gammopathy, M-protein)

Answer 49

Multiple myeloma

Question 50

older men; blacks>whites; bone pain, pathologic fracture; petechiae; fever; radiographic: multiple punched out radiolucencies

Answer 50

multiple myeloma

Question 51

Bence Jones protein: excess light chain proteins presents in serum and urine; amyloid: deposition of Bence Jones protein

Answer 51

multiple myeloma

Question 52

monoclonal sheets of malignant plasma cells; amyloid: congo red positive stain

Answer 52

multiple myeloma

Question 53

solitary, monoclonal lesion of plasma cells; may progress to multiple myeloma; adult males; 55 years; most occur in bone (extramedullary if outside bone); well-defined, solitary radiolucency

Answer 53

plasmacytoma

Question 54

aggressive, destructive process of T lymphocytes; diagnosis is usually made after tertiary syphilis and Wegener's granulomatosa have been ruled out

Answer 54

Extranodal NK/T-Cell Lymphoma Nasal Type

Question 55

adults; nasal stuffiness, epistaxis; deep necrotic ulcerations; may progress to palatal perforation; angiocentric arrangement of atypical inflammatory cells; necrosis

Answer 55

Extranodal NK/T-cell lymphoma

Question 56

neoplastic proliferation of Langerhans cells (dendritic mononuclear cells normally found in the epidermis, mucosa, lymph node, and bone marrow)

Answer 56

Langerhans Cell Histocytosis

Question 57

Form of Langerhans cell histiocytosis: acute, disseminated

Answer 57

letterer-siwe disease

Question 58

form of langerhans cell: chronic, disseminated

Answer 58

hand-schuller-christian disease

Question 59

M=F; less than 15 years old; solitary or multiple bone lesions; "floating in air" radiograph; dull pain and tenderness often accompany bone lesions; ulcerative or proliferative gingival masses may also be seen; birbeck granules

Answer 59

Langerhans cell histiocytosis