Bone and Joint TEST #3 Flashcards

1
Q

What percent of Ca2+ is stored in bones?

A

99%

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2
Q

In adults what is the primary site of hematopoeises?

A

-Bones

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3
Q

What three hormones influence the remodeling of bone?

A
  • PTH
  • Vitamin D
  • Calcitonin
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4
Q

What type of bone resists compression forces?

A

-Medullary bone

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5
Q

What type of bone resists bending forces and is thick?

A

-Cortical bone

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6
Q

Periosteum is a tough fibrous membrane that covers bone surfaces except at what point?

A

-Joints

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7
Q

T/F The periosteum is well innervated and painful if injured

A

True

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8
Q

T/F Woven bone is mature

A

False

-It is immature

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9
Q

Osteogenesis imperfecta is deficient in what?

A

-Type I collagen that causes too little bone

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10
Q

What do you see with generalized osteopenia is osteogenesis imperfecta?

A
  • Multiple fractures and bone deformities
  • Malformed teeth because of a dentin deficiency
  • Blue sclera
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11
Q

What is Acohndroplastic dwarf?

A

-Reduced function of epiphyseal growth plates

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12
Q

What bones does Achondroplastic dwarf affect mostly?

A

-Long bones

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13
Q

T/F A person with Achondroplastic dwarf syndrome has normal intelligence and normal ifespan

A

True

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14
Q

What bone disease has defective osteoclasts?

A

-Osteopetrosis

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15
Q

T/F In osteopetrosis the bone is brittle and not dense enough

A

False

-It is brittle and too dense

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16
Q

What nerve problem can osteopetrosis cause?

A

-Cranial nerve palsies

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17
Q

What is Osteomalacia?

A

-Softening bone due to Vit. D defiency or kidney failure

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18
Q

What bone disease do you see delayed eruption of teeth and defects in the dentin and enamel assocaited with a Vit. D. deficiency

A

Osteomalacia

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19
Q

What is Albers-Schonberg disease?

A

-Impaired osteoclasts that reduces bone resorption

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20
Q

What is albers-Schonberg disease associated with?

A
  • Anemia
  • Bone fractures
  • Blindness
  • Deafness
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21
Q

What is the cause of Osteitis deformans?

A

-Mixed stages of osteolysis and osteogenesis

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22
Q

What is adults ricketts called?

A

-Osteomalacia

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23
Q

What acquired diseases of the bone deal with vitamin D. defciency?

A

-Rickets

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24
Q

What causes Rickets syndrome?

A
  • GI malabsorption syndrome

- Lack of sunlight exposure

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25
Q

What acquired diseases of the bone deal with Vit C deficiency?

A

-Scurvy

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26
Q

What are the different types of acquired diseases of the bone?

A
  • Osteoporosis
  • Osteomalacia (Rickets)
  • Hyperparathyroidism
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27
Q

What are the genetic causes of Osteoporosis?

A
  • Age
  • Low estrogen
  • Fair hair and skin
  • Tall and thin
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28
Q

What are the behavior causes of Osteoporosis?

A
  • Inactivity
  • Smoking/alcohol
  • Malnutrition
  • Medication (chronic corticosteroids)
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29
Q

T/F 1/3 of women over 50 years old have at least one osteoporitic fracture

A

True

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30
Q

What is Kyphosis?

A

-Abnormal forward curvature of spine

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31
Q

What is Scoliosis?

A

-Abnormal lateral curvature of spine

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32
Q

What are the different types of bone fractures?

A
  • Complete
  • Closed
  • Compound/open
  • Comminuted
  • Displaced
  • Pathological
  • Greenstick
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33
Q

What is a comminuted fracture?

A

-Bone splintered

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34
Q

What is a displaced fracture?

A

-Fractured bone not aligned

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35
Q

What is a pathological fracture?

A

-Fracture associated with cancers

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36
Q

What is a compound fracture?

A

-Bone pieces skin

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37
Q

What is osteomyelitis?

A

-Inflammation of bone/marrow

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38
Q

What is Granulomatous osteomyelitis called when associated with TB and in the spine?

A

-Pott disease

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39
Q

What is a greenstick fracture?

A

Bone cracks through only on side

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40
Q

What do you see a loss of in osteoarthritis?

A

-Articular cartilage with secondary changes in bone

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41
Q

What is the most common type of joint pain?

A

-Osteoarthritis

42
Q

What are boney swelling in osteoarthritis known as?

A

-Heberden nodes

43
Q

What is the most common form of autoimmune disease?

A

-Rheumatoid arthritis (1% prevalence)

44
Q

T/F Rheumatoid arthritis is less systemic and unilateral

A

False

-More systemic and bilateral

45
Q

Who is Rheumatoid arthritis more common in and uncommon in respectively?

A
  • Caucasians

- Asians

46
Q

What are the symptoms of Rheumatoid arthritis?

A
  • Joint swelling
  • Pain and tenderness
  • Often cause extreme distortions of joints and surrounding bone
  • Fever
  • Weakness
  • Malaise
47
Q

What are some other areas that can be affected by RA?

A
  • Ulcers
  • Pulmonary nodules and fibrosis
  • Carditis and pericarditis
  • Vasculitis
48
Q

What type of lab test can you do to determine RA?

A

-Anti CCP (cyclic citrillunated peptides)

49
Q

What is the primary cause of Gout?

A

-Reduced renal excretion of purine (uric acid is break down product)

50
Q

What is the primary treatment of gout?

A

-Allopurinol

51
Q

What are the symptoms of Gout?

A
  • Hot
  • Swollen
  • Pain in joints
52
Q

What is pseudo gout?

A

-Crystal deposits of calcium pyrophosphate

53
Q

Besides allopurinol what else can be used to treat Gout?

A
  • Colchicine
  • Allopurinol
  • Indomethacin
54
Q

What are Ganglion cysts?

A

-A cyst resulting from connective tissue around joints that is often painful

55
Q

What is Marfan Syndrome>

A

-Hereditary connective tissue disease caused by a mutate fibrillin gene

56
Q

What symptoms do you see with Marfan syndrome?

A
  • Spider like fingers
  • Tall growth
  • Necrosis of aorta
57
Q

what can cause hyperparathyroidism?

A

adenoma in the parathyroid

58
Q

what does hyperparathyroidism cause that relates to bones?

A

constant release of Ca2+

59
Q

how many people in the US have osteoporosis?

A

10 million, mostly women

60
Q

most osteoporosis-related hip fractures in women occur at what age? what does a hip fracture increase the likelihood of?

A
  • > 70

- increases the likelihood of death in the next year (mechanisms for this fatality are not fully understood)

61
Q

what are some causes of osteomyelitis?

A
  • trauma from compound fractures or surgery
  • pyogenic infections (staph aureus or salmonella)
  • granulomatous (TB or fungal)
  • diabetes due to poor circulation in the extremities
62
Q

what is the concern with osteomyelitis that results from diabetes?

A

it results from poor circulation in the extremeties, and if it is chronic, it can form a drainage site and can even become osteosarcoma

63
Q

___ is a degenerative joint disease

A

osteoarthritis

64
Q

osteoarthritis is present in some degree in most people greater than what age? what makes the symptoms worse?

A

> 65 years of age

-symptoms worsen with excessive use of joints (osteoarthritis is due to wear and tear)

65
Q

are there inflammatory changes associated with osteoarthritis?

A

no, changes are degenerative

66
Q

what is the age of onset of rheumatoid arthritis, and what % are female?

A
  • 25-50 years old (can have juvenile RA)

- 75% female

67
Q

what are some other inflammatory arthritites?

A
  • psoriatic arthritis
  • autoimmune - lupus erythematous, scleroderma
  • postinfections - rheumatic fever
  • infectious - staph/strep, TB
  • gout
  • lyme disease
68
Q

if lyme disease goes untreated, what can result?

A

arthritis and neurologic consequences

69
Q

what is gouty tophi?

A

crystalized aggregates of uric acid

70
Q

malignant carcinomas that spread to bone most likely come from where?

A

lungs, prostate, breast, thyroid, and kidneys

71
Q

what tumors are most likely to be seen in the maxilla or mandible?

A
  • osteomas
  • giant cell tumor
  • fibrous dysplasia
  • osteosarcoma
  • ewing sarcoma
72
Q

what tumor that is commonly seen in the jaws is made up of immature bone?

A

osteomas

73
Q

what tumor that is commonly seen in the jaws is benign but aggressive?

A

giant cell tumor

74
Q

is fibrous dysplasia malignant?

A

no

75
Q

what tumor that is commonly seen in the jaws is most often seen in adolescents or older patients?

A

osteosarcoma

76
Q

what is the most frequent sarcoma that is commonly seen in the jaws? what about the second most frequent?

A

1 - osteosarcoma

2 - ewing sarcoma

77
Q

what age patient is ewing sarcoma common in?

A

10-20 years old

78
Q

what location are osteosarcomas most common in?

A

long bones mostly, but sometimes in the mandible

79
Q

what is a benign tumor of cartilage? is it seen in the mandible or maxilla?

A
  • osteocondroma

- no

80
Q

what is a malignancy of cartilage?

A

chondrosarcoma

81
Q

what is benign medullary bone that does not properly mature, and is often in the jaws?

A

fibrous and fibro-osseous tumors

82
Q

what are 6 types of soft tissue tumors?

A
  • lipomas
  • liposarcoma
  • fibrous tumors
  • fibrosarcoma
  • rhabdomyosarcoma
  • leiomyoma
  • leiomyosarcoma
83
Q

what is a malignant neoplasm of fibroblasts?

A

fibrosarcoma

84
Q

what is a reactive tumor?

A

fibrous tumor (can be malignant or benign)

85
Q

are lipomas common? do they require treatment?

A
  • yes

- not usually

86
Q

what area are rhabdomyosarcomas frequently found in? are they common?

A
  • head and neck region

- they are rare

87
Q

muscular dystrophy is most common in ___

A

duchenne muscular dystonia

88
Q

what are the symptoms of muscular dystrophy?

A
  • weakness of voluntary muscles

- breakdown of muscle tissue

89
Q

when does muscular dystrophy typically present?

A

it can occur anytime and in any part of the body

90
Q

muscular dystrophy represents a group of ___ diseases

A

genetic

91
Q

congenital myopathies tend to present with ___ and ___

A

congenital hypotonia and weakness

92
Q

___ is diffuse destruction of skeletal muscle

A

rhabdomyolysis

93
Q

what are the symptoms of rhabdomyolysis?

A
  • acute

- muscles are tender and swollen

94
Q

what are two things that can cause rhabdomyolysis?

A
  • may develop with a flu episode

- can be caused by some drugs, like statins

95
Q

ALS and polio are considered ___ diseases that typically result in ___

A
  • denervation

- typically result in muscle degeneration

96
Q

myasthenia gravis is an ___ myopathy

A

inflammatory

97
Q

what are the symptoms of myasthenia gravis?

A
  • weakness in skeletal muscles responsible for breathing and mobility
  • can include other skeletal muscles such as those for eyelids, facial movement, chewing, talking, and swallowing
98
Q

what can worsen myasthenia gravis? what improves it?

A
  • activity worsens it

- rest improves it

99
Q

what causes myasthenia gravis? is it inherited?

A
  • auto-antibodies kill ACh receptors (thymus may contribute to formation)
  • not inherited
100
Q

what is the treatment and prognosis of myasthenia gravis?

A
  • acetylcholinesterase inhibitors - pyridostigmine
  • immunosuppressants - prednisone and rituximab
  • prognosis is typically good with proper treatment