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From Flashcardlet > 12, 13, 14 - TERM, PRETERM, POSTTERM, INJURY/MALFORMATION: Key Terms > Flashcards

12, 13, 14 - TERM, PRETERM, POSTTERM, INJURY/MALFORMATION: Key Terms Flashcards

1
Q

A peripheral blueness of the hands and feet, due to reduced peripheral circulation (normal in newborns)

A

acrocyanosis

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2
Q

Swelling or edema of the newborn scalp that crosses the suture lines. It is self limiting and necessitates no treatment

A

caput succedaneum

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3
Q

Subperiosteal swelling containing blood, found on the head of some newborns. The swelling does not cross the suture lines and therefore often appears unilateral; usually disappears within a few weeks to 2 months without treatment

A

cephalohematoma

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4
Q

Prancing movements of the legs, seen when an infant is held upright on the examining table

A

dancing reflex

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5
Q

A postural reflex that is sometimes assumed by sleeping infants. The head is turned to one side, the arm and lef are flexed in a “fencing” position

A

tonic neck reflex

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6
Q

The accumulation of yellow-white epithelial cells on the hard palate of a newborn. They usually disappear within a few weeks of delivery

A

Epstein’s pearls

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7
Q

Openings at the point of union of skull bones, often referred to as soft spots

A

fontanelles

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8
Q

When the infant is lifted from the bed, the head will fall back

A

head lag

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9
Q

Jaundice in the newborn

A

icterus neonatorum

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10
Q

Fine, downy hair seen in all parts of the fetus, except the palms of the hands and soles of the feet, by the end of 20 weeks of gestation

A

lanugo

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11
Q

The first stool of the newborn; a mixture of amniotic fluid and secretions of the intestinal glands

A

meconium

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12
Q

Characteristic symptoms that result from aspiration of meconium in utero. The presence of meconium in the trachea or its appearance on a chest x-ray film helps to confirm this diagnosis

A

meconium aspiration syndrome

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13
Q

Amniotic fluid that contains meconium

A

meconium-stained fluid

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14
Q

Very small, white, keratin-filled cysts or papules normally found on a neonate’s face. They gradually disappear if left alone.

A

milia

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15
Q

The shaping of the fetal head to facilitate movement through the birth canal during labor

A

molding

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16
Q

A benign, blue-hued pigmentation caused by melanin deposits usually found around the lower back or buttock. It is seen most often in dark-skinned infants and may fade during childhood

A

mongolian spot

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17
Q

The newborn’s symmetrical response, when jarred, to extend and abduct the extremities in an embracing motion, including a spreading apart of the fingers with the thumb and forefinger forming a C shape.

A

Moro reflex

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18
Q

The Moro reflex evidences health of the newborn’s ___

A

central nervous system

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19
Q

The infant’s tendency to turn the head and open the lips to suck when that side of the mouth or cheek is touched or stroked

A

rooting reflex

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20
Q

Refers to the full-term infant’s resistance to attempts to bring one elbow farther than the midline of the chest. No resistance is observed in the preterm infant.

A

scarf sign

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21
Q

Refers to the hydration or dehydration of the skin (elasticity)

A

tissue turger

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22
Q

A protective cheeselike, whitish substance made up of sebum and desquamated epithelial cells that is present on fetal skin and the skin of the newborn

A

vernix caseosa

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23
Q

The ratio of the number of deaths of infants younger than age 1 during any given year, to the number of live births occurring in the same year

A

infant mortality rate

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24
Q

Refers to the state of being diseased or sick

A

morbidity

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25
Q

The study and support of the fetus and neonate

A

preinatology

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26
Q

Type of test used to measure infant hearing - analyzes hearing by sending a series of soft clicks into the sleeping infant’s ear

A

ALGO hearing screening test

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27
Q

ABR

A

auditory brain response

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28
Q

Type of test used to measure infant hearing - measures sounds from the cochlea in response to sound stimulation

A

otoacoustic emissions test (OAE)

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29
Q

OAE

A

otoacoustic emissions test

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30
Q

Phase of sleep-wake states: First 30 minutes of life, newborn is alert. Best time to initiate bonding between parent and newborn

A

First reactive phase

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31
Q

Phase of sleep-wake states: First few hours of life, infant gradually becomes sleepier and less responsive

A

Sleep phase

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32
Q

Phase of sleep-wake states: After a deep sleep, the infant again becomes responsive and alert

A

Second reactive phase

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33
Q

Phase of sleep-wake states: After 24h, the sleep-wake pattern becomes more stabilized. Pattern of sleep gradually develops into one in which the newborn is awake during hte day and asleep during the night

A

Stability phase

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34
Q

Patterns of reactivity: Infant sleeps and does not move

A

quiet sleep

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35
Q

Patterns of reactivity: Respirations are more irregular. Eye movements are evident beneath the eyelid, and limb and mouth movement may be seen

A

REM sleep (rapid eye movement)

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36
Q

Patterns of reactivity: The infant displays diffuse motor activity

A

active alert

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37
Q

Patterns of reactivity: Infant is awake, relaxed, and quiet. In this state, the infant is most responsive to testing and to bonding efforts

A

quiet alert

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38
Q

Patterns of reactivity: Infant’s cry is accomplished by vigorous motor activity of extremities

A

crying

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39
Q

Patterns of reactivity: Infant is moving between one of the states. Infant may be quiet and relaxed, but not very responsive to the environment

A

transitional

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40
Q

7-point scale that includes alertness, calmness, muscle tone, movement, facial tension, and respiratory response, and two physiologic items (HR and BP). #1 - 5 (high indicating increased distress)

A

COMFORT scale

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41
Q

FLACC: Pain tool that measures the pain of infants. Each parameter scored 0-2 - Parameters include:

A 
F - ace
L - egs
A - ctivity
C - ry
C - onsolability
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42
Q

Standardized method of evaluating the newborn’s condition immediately after delivery

A

Apgar score

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43
Q

Apgar Score: Five objective signs that are measured

A
  1. Heart Rate
  2. Respiration
  3. Muscle tone
  4. Reflexes
  5. Color
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44
Q

Two devices used for performing circumcisions

A
  1. Plastibell clamp

2. Gomco clamp

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45
Q

Opening of the urethra is on the undersurface of the penis

A

hypospadias

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46
Q

Assessing Jaundice: A plastic strip with increasingly deeper yellow stripes representing levels of jaundice. Strip is placed under the nose until skin blanches. Underlying skin tone is matched to the corresponding shade of yellow

A

Icterometer

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47
Q

Assessing Jaundice: Transcutaneous measurement of jaundice, noninvasive.

A

Trancutaneous bilirubin measurement (TcB)

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48
Q

Lacelike red or blue pattern on the skin surface of a newborn’s body

A

Cutis Marmorata

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49
Q

Peeling of the skin at birth; may indicate postmaturity

A

desquamation

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50
Q

Early removal of vernix can be followed by __ in term newborns.

A

desquamation

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51
Q

Pearly white pinpoint papules in midline of upper palate

A

Epstein’s pearls

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52
Q

Splotchy erythema with firm yellow-white papules that have a red base

A

erythema toxicum

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53
Q

Bruised area on skin in the shape of forceps or pattern of vacuum extractor

A

forceps marks

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54
Q

Imbalance of autonomic vascular regulatory mechanism; deep red color over half of body; pallor on the longitudinal half of body; usually occurs with preterm infants who are placed on their sides

A

Harlequin Color Change

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55
Q

Pearly white pinpoint papules on face and nose of newborn

A

milia

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56
Q

Dark blue or slate grey discolorations most commonly found in lumbosacral area; intensity and hue of color remain until fading occurs

A

mongolian spots

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57
Q

Known as stork bites; pink, easily blanched patches that can appear on eyelids, nose, lips, and nape of neck

A

nevi

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58
Q

Known as nevus flammeus; a collection of capillaries in the skin. It is a flat, red-purple lesion that does not blanch on pressure

A

port-wine stain

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59
Q

Immunoglobulin that crosses the placenta; provides the newborn with passive immunity to infections to which the mother was immune. Immunity rarely lasts longer than 3 months

A

IgG

60
Q

Immunoglobulin produced by the newborn; and elevated level suggests SERIOUS INFECTION

A

IgM

61
Q

Immunoglobulin produced after neonatal period (about age 1 month); contained in breast milk; provides some resistance to respiratory and GI infections. Before 1 month of age, infants are at risk for such infections.

A

IgA

62
Q

A cessation of respirations

A

apnea

63
Q

Standardized method used to estimate gestational age within 1-2 weeks; based on infant’s external characteristics and neurological development

A

Ballard scoring system

64
Q

A HR slower than the expected rate for age. In a newborn, a HR

A

bradycardia

65
Q

A complication of artificial oxygen ventilation characterized by scarring of the lung tissue, which inhibits lung ventilation and perfusion

A

bronchopulmonary dysplasia

66
Q

Increased metabolic rate required to generate body heat causes increased respiratory rate and oxygen consumption

A

cold stress

67
Q

An infant born between 37 weeks and 38 weeks, 6 days gestation

A

early term infant

68
Q

The actual time, from conception to birth, that the fetus remains in the uterus

A

gestational age

69
Q

An infant born between 39 weeks and 40 weeks, 6 days gestation

A

full term infant

70
Q

An excessive amount of bilirubin in the blood; more commonly seen in association with hemolytic disorders of the newborn, infection, and extreme cold stress

A

hyperbilirubinemia

71
Q

In __ __, the parathyroid fails to respond to the preterm infant’s low calcium levels.

A

early hypocalcemia

72
Q

__ __ usually occurs about age 1 week in newborn or preterm infants who are fed cow’s milk. (Cow’s milk increases serum phosphate levels)

A

Late hypocalcemia

73
Q

__ is common among preterm infants; they have not remained in the uterus long enough to acquire sufficient stores of glycogen and fat.

A

Hypoglycemia

74
Q

Inadequate oxygenation of the tissues

A

hypoxia

75
Q

The liver of the newborn is immature, which contributes to a condition called __, or jaundice.

A

icterus

76
Q

The use of skin-to-skin contact between the neonate or infant and the caregiver; used to promote bonding between the parent and the infant

A

kangaroo care

77
Q

Infant born between 41 weeks and 41 weeks, 6 days

A

late term infant

78
Q

Infant born beyond 42 weeks

A

postterm infant

79
Q

Acute inflammation of the bowel that leads to bowel necrosis

A

necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC)

80
Q

NEC

A

necrotizing enterocolitis

81
Q

An environment that is neither too hot nor too cold; thus, the body does not need to overwork itself to deliver oxygen or increase its metabolic rate to maintain normal body temperature

A

neutral thermal environment

82
Q

Premature infant; an infant born before 37 weeks of gestation

A

preterm infant

83
Q

Not sufficiently developed to survive outside the uterus

A

previability

84
Q

Measure of oxygen on the Hb in the circulating blood, divided by the oxygen capacity of the Hb

A

pulse oximetry

85
Q

A result of lung immaturity which leads to decreased gas exchange; symptoms are apparent after delivery, but they may not manifest for several hours

A

RDS (respiratory distress syndrome)

86
Q

RDS

A

respiratory distress syndrome

87
Q

Condition in which there is damage to immature retinal blood vessels, which can lead to blindness; thought to be caused by high oxygen levels of arterial blood.

A

retinopathy of prematurity (ROP)

88
Q

ROP

A

retinopathy of prematurity

89
Q

Formerly called retrolental fibroplasia

A

ROP

90
Q

A generalized infection of the blood stream

A

sepsis

91
Q

A mixture of lipoproteins secreted in the alveoli and air passages that reduces the surface tension within the alveoli and contributes to the expansion of the lungs

A

surfactant

92
Q

Involves maintaining a stable body temperature and preventing hypothermia and hypertermia

A

thermoregulation

93
Q

low body temperature

A

hypothermia

94
Q

high body temperature

A

hyperthermia

95
Q

Intravenous infusion of lipids and nutrients; may be prescribed to meet the infant’s nutritional and growth needs

A

TPN (total parenteral nutrition)

96
Q

LGA

A

large for gestational age (> 4000 g / 8.8 lb)

97
Q

SGA

A

small for gestational age

98
Q

Refers to how well developed the infant is at birth and the ability of the organs to function outside the uterus

A

level of maturation

99
Q

Abnormalities that are apparent at birth

A

birth defects

100
Q

Surgical repair for cleft lip; repaired before age 6 months when weight gain is established and infant is free of infection

A

cheiloplasty

101
Q

Characterized by a fissure or opening in the upper lip

A

cleft lip

102
Q

Result of a failure of the maxillary and median nasal processes

A

cleft lip

103
Q

A failure of the hard palate to fuse at the midline during the seventh to twelfth weeks of gestation

A

cleft palate

104
Q

One of the most common deformities of the skeletal system; a congenital anomaly characterized by a foot that has been twisted inward or outward

A

clubfoot

105
Q

An anomaly present at birth

A

congenital malformation

106
Q

Hemolytic disease found in the newborn; caused when an Rh-negative mother and an Rh-positive father produce an Rh-positive fetus

A

erythroblastosis fetalis

107
Q

A term used to describe the treatment of a patient who is handicapped from birth and therefore is learning, not relearning a task

A

habilitation

108
Q

In the newborn; characterized by an increase of CSF within the ventricles of the brain

A

hydocephalus

109
Q

An excessive amount of bilirubin in the blood; more commonly seen in association with hemolytic disorders of the newborn, infection, and extreme cold stress

A

hyperebilirubinemia

110
Q

A grave form of jaundice in the newborn caused by hyperbilirubinemia and resulting in brain damage

A

kernicterus

111
Q

An abnormally large infant, or neonatal birth weight above the 90th percentile

A

macrosomia

112
Q

Characteristic symptoms that result from aspiration of meconium in utero. The presence of meconium in the trachea or its appearance on a chest x-ray film helps to confirm this diagnosis

A

meconium aspiration syndrome (MAS)

113
Q

MAS

A

meconium aspiration syndrome

114
Q

Type of spina bifida cystica; contains portions of the membranes and CSF; size varies from that of a walnut, to that of a newborn’s head

A

meningocele

115
Q

More serious type of spina bifida cystica; protrusion of the membranes and spinal cord through this opening; may be paralysis of the legs and poor control of b/b functions

A

meningomyelocele

116
Q

Spina bifida is also known as

A

myelodysplasia

117
Q

Occurs when the fetus has prenatal exposure to drugs such as opiates, amphetamines, tranquilizers, or multiple illicit drugs while in utero

A

neonatal abstinence syndrome

118
Q

In infants aged 1 - 2 months with developmental dislocation of the hip, the physician can actually feel and hear the femoral head slip back into the acetabulum under gentle pressure

A

Ortolani’s sign

119
Q

A maneuver performed while examining a newborn to determine the presence or absence of congenital hip dysplasia

A

Ortolani’s maneuver

120
Q

Specially designed to gently position your baby’s hips so they are aligned in the joint, and to keep the hip joint secure. It is typically used to treat babies from 2 (to 6) months of age

A

Pavlik harness

121
Q

The treatment of disease by exposure to light; often used to treat hyperbilrubinemia in the newborn

A

phototherapy

122
Q

An immune globulin given to the mother (not the infant) after the delivery of an Rh-positive infant to an Rh-positive mother

A

RhoGAM

123
Q

A bypass

A

shunt

124
Q

A congenital embryonic neural tube defect in which there is an imperfect closure of the spinal vertebrae. There are two types: occulta (hidden) and cystica (sac or cyst)

A

spina bifida

125
Q

Encircles the waist and extends to the ankles or toes

A

spica cast

126
Q

Usually occurs after a cesarean section birth of an uneventful vaginal delivery of a term infant; characterized by tachypnea and may also include chest retractions, grunting, and mild cyanosis - typically resolves suddenly in 3 days

A

transient tachypnea of the newborn (TTN)

127
Q

TTN

A

transient tachypnea of the newborn

128
Q

TTN is a condition also referred to as ____

A

respiratory distress syndrome, type II

129
Q

__ is thought to be caused by slow absorption of the fluid in the lungs after birth

A

TTN

130
Q

The inspection of a cavity or organ by passing a light through its walls; simple diagnostic procedure useful in visualizing fluid

A

transillumination

131
Q

Inherited diseases that affect body chemistry

A

inborn errors of metabolism

132
Q

Minor variation of spina bifida in which the opening is small and there is no associated protrusion of structurees

A

spina bifida occulta

133
Q

Consists of the development of a cystic mass in the midline of the opening in the spine

A

spina bifida cystica

134
Q

Refers to a group of CNS disorders; characterized by malformation of the spinal cord

A

spina bifida

135
Q

Dislocation of the hip joint that is present at birth. The condition is found in babies or young children.

A

developmental hip dysplasia

136
Q

Genetic disorder caused by the faulty metabolism of phenylalnine

A

PKU (classic phenylketonuria)

137
Q

PKU

A

classic phenylketonuria

138
Q

Considered the most reliable test for PKU

A

Guthrie Test (blood from heel stick)

139
Q

The Guthrie Test: It is recommended that the blood be obtained after ____

A

48 - 72 hours of life

140
Q

Caused by a defect in the metabolism of branched-chain amino acids; causes marked elevations of leucine, isoleucine, and valine.

A

Maple syrup urine disease

141
Q

Drug designed to break down excess phenylalaline in the blood

A

Saproptein dihydrochloride (Kuvan)

142
Q

An inborn error of metabolism; transmitted by an autosomal recessive gene; associated with blood phenylalanine levels above 20 mg/dL

A

PKU

143
Q

The body is unable to use the carbohydrates galactose and lactose

A

galactosemia

144
Q

An increase in the amount of galactose in the urine

A

galactosuria

145
Q

The failure of a chromosome to follow the normal separation process into daughter cells

A

nondisjunction

146
Q

Test done in the second trimester that involves testing of the blood for levels of AFP, unconjugated estriol (UE), inhibin-A (placental hormone), and hCG

A

quad test

147
Q

Blood vessels within the skull are broken, and bleeding into the brain occurs

A

intracranial hemorrhage

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