2012 eastern nationals Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in 2012 eastern nationals Deck (358):
1

Question

Answer

2

What is the name for the famous Thoroughbred horse that was referred to as the original ?Big Red??

A. Man-O-War

3

What slang term refers to a racing stable employee who walks a hot horse after a race or workout?

A. Hot walker

4

What term refers to the right side of the horse?

Off side or far side

5

Q. Which gait is commonly referred to as the ?plantation gait??

A. Running walk

6

Q. Healthy horses usually have what body condition score?

A. 4 to 6 (accept anything within that range)

7

6. C2 Q. What type of equipment is described as a cross between a cavesson and a figure eight noseband?

A. Flash noseband

8

7. C3 Q. What is the result of breeding a donkey and a stallion?

A. Hinny

9

8. C4 Q. What current breed was formerly known as the ?Palouse horse??

A. Appaloosa

10

9. C1 Q. In general what does the prefix ?hepato? indicate?

A. Condition related to the liver

11

10. C2 Q. What is the common term for the behavior referred to as dominance hierarchy?

A. Pecking order

12

11. C3 Q. A grain that has been processed by rolling the kernels between corrugated rollers would be described as what type of processing?

A. Crimped or crimping

13

12. C4 Q. What type of knot forms the eye of the lariat that the rope passes through to form a loop?

A. Honda

14

13. Q. What type of Western saddle is being described? It usually has no horn; its most notable feature is the high ?thigh rolls? located near the front of the saddle and it is often used for trail riding.

A. Australian saddle

15

14. Q. The withers, back, coupling and croup are collectively referred to by what conformation term?

A. Top line

16

15. Q. Identify two types of teeth that would be present at birth or erupt within the first 2 weeks of life.

A. Deciduous central incisors and premolars (must specify central incisors but do not need to include deciduous in answer)

17

16. Q. Identify two general physiological processes in the horse that are affected by the length of daylight.

A. Hair coat; female reproduction (estrous cycles); male reproduction (testosterone production, sperm production)

18

17. Q. What term refers to the feces of a foal and is described as a yellow pasty material indicating that the meconium has been passed?

A. Milk feces

19

18. Q. What breed of horse is described as a combination of any breeds that are not 100% hot-blood or 100% cold-blood?

A. Warmblood

20

19. Q. You are an equine construction specialist and are preparing a site for a new barn. In regards to topography, what would be your recommendation for grading the soil to facilitate proper drainage and prevent erosion?

A. Slope of 2 to 6 percent

21

20. Q. The ingestion of which two plants would result in the condition nigropallidal encephalomalacia?

A. Yellow Star Thistle (Centaurea solstitialis) and Russian Knapweed (Centaurea repens)

22

21. Q. A spavin is a disease of the hock joint. What are the four different types of spavins?

A. Blind spavin (occult spavin), Bone spavin (true spavin or jack spavin), Blood spavin and Bog spavin

23

22. Q. What is the name of the person who looks after the horses on a trail ride?

A. Wrangler

24

23. Q. Which current breed of horse was previously known as a Golden Isabella?

A. Palomino

25

24. Q. Which internal parasite larvae cause the skin lesions known as ?summer sores??

A. Stomach worms (Habronema)

26

25. Q. Describe a four-in-hand hitch.

A. Two pairs with one pair in front of the other

27

26. Q. What are the three basic types of forward seat saddles?

A. All purpose, close contact (also accept jumping) and dressage

28

27. Q. Identify four general reasons why a horse may refuse a feed.

A. Illness or disease Overfeeding, insufficient water, something is wrong with feed, dental problems, sore tounge or mouth, not familiar with food, horse is stressed

29

A. Illness or disease Overfeeding

Insufficient water Something is wrong with the feed

30

28. Q. Which nerve is responsible for motor control of the eyelid, ear and facial muscles?

A. Facial nerve

31

29. Q. You are completing a cross country race and are approaching a brush fence with a white flag on the right side of the obstacle. What does this indicate?

A. You are approaching the fence from the wrong direction (the white flag should be on the left side of the obstacle)

32

30. Q. Lethal white foal syndrome is a genetic lethal associated with which specific color pattern?

A. Frame overo (must specify ?frame? overo)

33

31. Q. What breed is a result of crossing an Arabian and American Saddlebred horse?

A. National Show Horse

34

32. Q. In regards to evolution, which ancestor of the horse was the first to have the 2 side toes transformed into splint bones?

A. Pliohippus

35

1. C1 Q. What term describes a splotch of dark color on a base coat color?

A. ?Blood mark?

36

2. C2 Q. What anatomical structure receives oxygenated blood from the left gastric artery?

A. Stomach

37

3. C3 Q. What is the second race in the Triple Crown for 3 year old Thoroughbreds?

A. Preakness

38

4. C4 Q. What canine-related phrase is a slang term for a horse that is weak in its coupling and shallow in the flank?

A. Hound-gutted

39

5. C1 Q. Winging-in is associated with what conformation defect?

A. Splay footed (toed-out)

40

6. C2 Q. Vesicular stomatitis is a viral disease that results in the formation of vesicles in the mouth and on the lips, hooves and teats. What is a vesicle?

A. Fluid filled sac (blister)

41

7. C3 Q. Green forage is an important source of which essential vitamin?

A. Vitamin A

42

8. C4 Q. Which type of bit may be used as a snaffle or a curb and is commonly used on heavy harness or plow horses?

A. Liverpool bit

43

9. C1 Q. In general, what type of fencing is considered to have the longest life expectancy?

A. PVC (vinyl)

44

10. C2 Q. A thin protrusion of metal on the ground surface of the toe of a racing plate is known as what shoe alteration

A. Toe grab (toe grip)

45

11. C3 Q. Which endocrine gland is responsible for the maintenance of calcium levels in the blood?

A. Parathyroid (also accept thyroid due to the hormone calcitonin)

46

12. C4 Q. Who is the foundation sire for the American Albino?

A. Old King

47

13. Q. For what length of time are sperm viable in the reproductive tract of the mare?

A. 48 to 72 hours (accept anything within that range)

48

14. Q. What sensory deficit is exhibited in Belgian horses with the genetic condition aniridia?

A. Sight (also accept blindness although aniridia does not always cause blindness)

49

15. Q. Identify two other terms for the blemish commonly referred to as mud fever.

A. Grease, grease heel, scratches, cracked heel

50

16. Q. Describe three methods that can be used to help establish a patent or effective airway for a foal that is not breathing after delivery.

A. Clear and remove fetal membranes from over nostrils, place foal on sternum (head outstreached with rear end elevated), gently remove fluid from nostrils with fingers, tickle inside of nose to induce sneezing, suction fluids from mouth using a bulb syringe, rub with towels.

51

A. Clear and remove fetal membranes from over nostrils

Place foal on sternum (head outstretched with rear end elevated)

52

17. Q. In general, you should graze horses when forages are 6-8 inches high. What type of forage is an exception to this rule?

A. Kentucky bluegrass or White clover (ladino) (can be grazed at 4 inches)

53

18. Q. You are the conditioning veterinarian judge for an endurance trail ride. What condition would these vital signs indicate? Temperature 102 degrees, heart rate 80 beats/minute and respirations 100 breaths per minute.

A. Inversion (respiratory rate higher than the pulse rate)

54

19. Q. A caudal epidural anesthetic would result in numbness in what areas of the horse?

A. Hind legs (also accept pelvic and groin regions)

55

20. Q. Other than salt, identify two other minerals that would be found in trace mineralized salt.

A. Manganese, iron, cobalt, copper, iodine or zinc

56

21. Q. What specific color would be the result of a single dilution of the following three colors with the dominant dun dilution gene?black, bay and chestnut?

A. Black ? grullo; bay-zebra dun, chestnut - red dun

57

22. Q. What is the correct category for the behavior described as contagious or infectious behavior?

A. Allelomimetic

58

23. Q. What type of bar shoe would be used for a horse with navicular disease?

A. Egg bar (do not accept heart bar)

59

24. Q. What is the common term for the disease Borreliosis?

A. Lyme Disease

60

25. Q. What mineral is essential for the synthesis of vitamin B12?

A. Cobalt

61

26. Q. Which two parasites are most common in foals up to 6 months old?

A. Roundworms (parascaris equorum), threadworms (strogyloides westeri)

62

27. Q. From distal to proximal identify the three parts of the small intestine.

A. Ileum, jejunum and duodenum

63

28. Q. Plant poisoning from consumption of Milkweed would be treated as what type of sudden death poisoning?

A. Cardiac (cardiac glycoside) sudden death poisoning

64

29. Q. What term refers to the team of horses behind the lead team in an 8-horse hitch?

A. Point team

65

30. Q. Your horse sustained a laceration and has bright red blood spurting from the wound. What would be your initial action to control the bleeding?

A. Direct pressure to the wound

66

31. Q. Which farrier tool would be used to correct a flare?

A. Rasp

67

32. Q. What breed was developed by the east coast Indians?

A. Chickasaw

68

1. C1 Q. What type of joint is an enarthrosis?

A. Ball and socket

69

2. C2 Q. What term refers to the 7 « or 8 minute time period in a polo match?

A. Chukka (also accept chukker)

70

3. C3 Q. In general, what does the prefix ?cysto? refer to?

A. Bladder

71

4. C4 Q. Which type of pack saddle is rigged for a double cinch?

A. Crossbuck (sawbuck)

72

5. C1 Q. What type of shoe would be a good choice for a horse that needs temporary shoe protection until the hooves can grow out enough to handle nailing a shoe in place?

A. Glue-on shoe

73

6. C2 Q. What is the scientific name for the common horse bot?

A. Gastrophilus intestinalis

74

7. C3 Q. Blood is pulled from the peripheral circulation to the internal vital organs in a horse with shock. How would this physiological process affect the capillary refill time?

A. Delayed or slower capillary refill

75

8. C4 Q. Which type of melanin controls the expression of red and yellow pigment?

A. Pheomelanin

76

9. C1 Q. There are 5 walk gaits in a dressage test. Which of these would have a footfall pattern where the hind feet touch the ground behind the footprints of the forefeet?

A. Collected walk

77

10. C2 Q. Identify one of the breeds that the Tennessee Walking Horse was developed from.

A. Standardbred, Morgan or Narragansett pacer

78

11. C3 Q. A feed containing 10% crude protein and 15% crude fiber would be appropriate for what type of horse?

A. Mature idle horse or horse with minimal work

79

12. C4 Q. Thrombocytes are commonly referred to as what type of blood cells?

A. Platelets

80

13. Q. You do the math?How many furlongs is a 1 « mile race?

A. 12 furlongs (1 furlong equals 1/8 mile)

81

14. Q. What are you doing if you are fuzztail running?

A. Herding and catching wild horses

82

15. Q. Identify the three ?rough stock? events at a rodeo.

A. Saddle bronc riding, bareback riding and bull riding

83

16. Q. Identify three of the hormones produced by the anterior pituitary.

A. Growth hormone (GH) Adrenocortocotropin (ACTH) Luteinizing hormone (LH) Follice stimulating hormone (FSH) Thyrotropin (thyroid stimulating hormone TSH), Prolactin

84

A. Growth hormone (GH) Adrenocortocotropin (ACTH)

Luteinizing hormone (LH) Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)

85

17. Q. What term refers to the mounted horseman who rode on the outside of a stagecoach for protection from bandits?

A. Outrider

86

18. Q. In general, what does the prefix ?leuko? refer to?

A. White blood cells

87

19. Q. What type of negative reinforcement would be demonstrated by a horse moving away from pressure to avoid a more severe pressure?

A. Avoidance

88

20. Q. (Two Part) In regards to maturity, what is the term that describes the optimal growth stage for harvesting legumes and what is the optimal growth stage for harvesting grasses?

A. Legumes ? bud or vegetative stage (just prior to when the legumes flower); Grasses ? early or boot stage (when grasses begin to show heads through the sheath)

89

21. Q. Premature separation of the placenta during parturition resulting in hypoxia is a known cause for neonatal maladjustment syndrome. Identify three terms used to describe these foal as they progress through the stages of this disorder.

A. Wanderer, dummy, convulsive or barker foal

90

22. Q. The process that uses intense cold to destroy the pigments cells of the skin and that is used for identification of livestock is known as what procedure?

A. Freeze branding

91

23. Q. What is the specific location of the metatarsalphalangeal joint?

A. Hind fetlock joint (must specify hind for correct answer) (may also accept hind ankle or hind ankle joint)

92

24. Q. When looking at the feed tag for the concentrate you are currently feeding you notice the abbreviation GRAS. What does GRAS indicate?

A. Generally Recognized as Safe (safe for animal consumption)

93

25. Q. During the past 6 months horses across the United States were more likely to ingest poisonous plants due to what predominant weather condition?

A. Drought conditions

94

26. Q. (Two Part) What is the primary function of FSH in the mare and what is the primary function in the stallion?

A. Mare ? stimulates growth of follicles in the ovaries

95

27. Q. Stainless steel is the most common material bits are made from. Identify four other materials bits are made from.

A. German silver, solid nickel (or Never Rust), copper, aluminum, rubber, vulcanite or happy mouth

96

28. Q. What is the main physiological function of erythrocytes?

A. Transport oxygen in the blood

97

29. Q. What is the only draft horse breed recognized as originating in the United States?

A. American Cream

98

30. Q. If hay is stored above stalls, the bales of hay should be at least how far from the outside walls to allow hot, moist air to escape?

A. At least 12 inches

99

31. Q. What is the common term for the external parasite of the tabanids species?

A. Horse fly

100

32. Q. In general, in regards to the horse, what designates a fall?

A. When both the shoulder and quarter (hip area) on the same side touch the ground

101

1. C1 Q. What color dilution is often referred to as type B albino?

A. Perlino

102

2. C2 Q. Touching the saddle with a free hand is referred to by the slang term ?pulling leather? and is a disqualification in what rodeo event?

A. Saddle bronc riding

103

3. C3 Q. What term refers to the female side of the pedigree?

A. Distaff side (also accept dam side)

104

4. C4 Q. What type of sudden death poisoning would be the result of ingestion of water hemlock?

A. Alkaloid sudden death

105

5. C1 Q. What anatomical structure in the horse is described as a diverticulum of the auditory tube?

A. Guttural pouch

106

6. C2 Q. What is the difference between a roached mane and a hogged mane?

A. Hogged mane is clipped to a length of no more than 3 inches; roached mane is clipped close to the skin (less than 3 inches)

107

7. C3 Q. When fox hunting, what does the cry holloa indicate?

A. The fox has been sighted

108

8. C4 Q. In general, what does the suffix ?itis? indicate?

A. Inflammation

109

9. C1 Q. What is unique in the horse in regards to respiratory frequency and stride frequency, especially at the gallop?

A. 1:1 ratio (respiratory rate equals number of strides)

110

10. C2 Q. What specific term refers to the prophylactic surgical procedure that would be used for a pregnant broodmare with pneumovagina?

A. Caslick?s

111

11. C3 Q. What is the diploid number of chromosomes for a donkey?

A. 62 diploid chromosomes

112

12. C4 Q. What phase of the stride occurs when all 4 feet are off the ground?

A. Period of suspension

113

13. Q. What term refers to bursts of white on a gray coat color?

A. Rosettes

114

14. Q. What would be the general location of the manubrium and xiphoid process?

A. Sternum

115

15. Q. Identify two specific types of parasites that would cause pruritis ani.

A. Pinworms (oxyuris equi), tail mane mite (chorioptes equi), biting louse (damalina equi)

116

16. Q. Identify three of the four breeds that the Paso Fino breed was developed from.

A. Andalusian, Barb, Spanish Jennet and Friesian

117

17. Q. A broodmare whose foal is in a ?flexed capri? position would need what problem corrected to enable normal vaginal delivery?

A. Knees are bent, so the foal would need repositioned and the front legs straightened into normal position for delivery

118

18. Q. What type of electric fence is considered to be safer because it is more visible and less injurious to the horse?

A. Electric tape

119

19. Q. What is the term for the Australian game on horseback that is based on polo and lacrosse?

A. Polo crosse

120

20. Q. Identify the three general types of clinchers or clinching tongs.

A. Saddle horse, gooseneck and draft horse

121

21. Q. Identify six of the macro-minerals required by the horse.

A. Calcium Sodium, phosphorus chloride, potassium magnesium, sulfur

122

22. Q. In general, what does the prefix ?desmo? indicate?

A. Ligament

123

23. Q. What type of bit is non-allergic?

A. Happy Mouth

124

24. Q. There are 2 viruses that cause Rhinopneumonitis. Which of these can result in respiratory and neurologic symptoms as well as abortion in pregnant mares?

A. EHV-1 (Equine Herpes Virus 1)

125

25. Q. You do the math? If the cardiac output is 35 liters and the heart rate is 35 beats per minute?What is the stroke volume?

A. 1 liter

126

26. Q. In general, for successful ejaculation of the stallion, an artificial vagina must provide what two physical characteristics ?

A. Must provide warmth and pressure

127

27. Q. Your job at a breeding farm is management of the pregnant broodmares. Identify four management practices you follow in regards to herd management to prevent an abortion storm.

A. Isolate all new arrivals for at least 21 days, keep pregnant mares separated from weanlings and other horses, do not mix maiden mares with older mares, divide pregnant mares into small groups by stage of pregnancy, keep mares in a group until all have foaled, if pregnant mares are moved off the farm and later return-do not reintroduce them into the original group, if a foster mare is introduced do not place her in a group with other mares, maintain all pregnant mares on a vaccination program

128

A. Isolate all new arrivals for at least 21 days

Keep pregnant mares separated from weanlings and other horses

129

28. Q. What hormone is primarily responsible for diestrus?

A. Progesterone

130

29. Q. What is the common term for the tuber coxae?

A. Hip

131

30. Q. Sidebones are a condition associated with ossification of the collateral (or lateral) cartilages. What term refers to the condition that occurs when the collateral cartilages become infected?

A. Quittor

132

31. Q. Which contains more crude fiber ? complete feeds or long stem hay?

A. Long stem hay

133

A. Long stem hay

S. HIH 741-1 780/3

134

32. Q. Identify two different medical terms for the condition commonly referred to as moon blindness?

A. Periodic opthalmia, recurrent uveitis

135

1. C1 Q. At what age are all of the permanent incisors in place?

A. 4 « years

136

2. C2 Q. What two criteria determine the winner of an ?against the clock? jumping competition?

A. The rider with the fastest time and the fewest faults

137

3. C3 Q. What breed is being described? Dun color with a dorsal stripe and black mane and tail. Breed that has survived since the Ice Age and originated in Mongolia.

A. Asiatic Wild Horse (also accept Mongolian Wild Horse and Przewalski?s Horse)

138

4. C4 Q. Would the corium be considered to be part of the dermis or epidermis?

A. Dermis

139

5. C1 Q. The breeding of a sire with a daughter would be an example of what specific type of breeding?

A. Inbreeding (also accept close breeding) (do not accept linebreeding)

140

6. C2 Q. What two breeds were combined in the development of the Azteca?

A. Andalusian and Quarter Horse

141

7. C3 Q. In general, what does the prefix ?arthro? describe?

A. Joints

142

8. C4 Q. Would a feed with a 2% or 5% crude fiber have a higher digestible energy?

A. Feed with 2% crude fiber

143

9. C1 Q. What does the abbreviation PSSM indicate?

A. Polysaccharide Storage Myopathy

144

10. C2 Q. You recently purchased a new stallion for your breeding program. The previous owner stated that the stallion had a respiratory illness accompanied by a high fever 30 days ago. What impact would this have on the stallion?s fertility?

A. Would expect a lower sperm count for 65 days after the illness

145

11. C3 Q. A ?red bag delivery? is most commonly observed in mares that have been grazed on what type of pasture?

A. Fescue

146

12. C4 Q. You are the veterinarian on call and are examining a horse that sustained a laceration to the front lower leg sometime in the past 12 hours. There is no active bleeding from the wound. What would be the main reason to not suture this wound?

A. Suturing may increase the risk of infection due to elapsed time since injury (without the wound being properly cleaned)

147

13. Q. What is the purpose of a prophylactic medication?

A. To prevent an illness or disease

148

14. Q. What is the definitive host for Equine Protozoal Myeloencephalitis?

A. Opossum

149

15. Q. Which three types of western saddles would have a horn that is tall?

A. Barrel Racing, Roping and Cutting

150

16. Q. The permanent upper and lower teeth are located in what three bones?

A. Maxilla, mandible and incisive bone

151

17. Q. Based on research studies for initial re-feeding of the starved horse, the best approach is feeding what?

A. High quality alfalfa hay (frequent small amounts)

152

18. Q. What is the slang term for the main office of a rodeo where excuses and grievances are aired?

A. Crying room

153

19. Q. What is the main purpose of the close contact saddle?

A. Jumping

154

20. Q. Which two glands empty into the small intestine at the major duodenal papilla?

A. Liver (bile duct) and pancreas (pancreatic duct)

155

21. Q. Identify five advantages of maintaining horses on a well-managed pasture.

A. Reduces required supplemental deed (hay and/or grain), reduces nutrients from manure, exercise, reduces frequency of respiratory disease, maintains gastrointestinal health, aesthetically pleasing, increases grazing capacity, enhances water quality, socialization, decreases erosion

156

A. Reduces required supplemental deed (hay and/or grain)

Recycles nutrients from manure

157

22. Q. The orbatid mite is the intermediate host for which internal parasite?

A. Tapeworm

158

23. Q. What is the name for the radiopaque dye material given to a horse by mouth to outline the digestive tract on radiographs?

A. Barium

159

24. Q. Horses with recurrence of urinary calculi may benefit from feeding a diet that has less of what specific mineral?

A. Calcium

160

25. Q. What type of striding leg interference occurs when the toe of the forefoot strikes the hind leg at the pastern or fetlock?

A. Speedy cutting

161

26. Q. Which two criteria used to evaluate semen are not affected by the length of daylight or season of the year?

A. Morphology and motility

162

27. Q. The genetic conditions atresia coli and lethal white foal syndrome are both fatal conditions due to an inability to eliminate waste products from the intestines. In regards to anatomy, how do each of these conditions differ as to why the intestine does not function normally?

A. Atresia coli ? the lumen of the colon is not continuous and is described as severed Lethal white foal syndrome ? intestine does not empty correctly due to absence of nerves responsible for peristalsis in the intestines

163

28. Q. What is the slang term for a foal that is born with septicemia and is semi-comatose?

A. Sleeper or sleeper foal

164

29. Q. In what anatomical structure of the stallion are sperm stored and matured?

A. Epididymis

165

30. Q. What is a jerk line?

A. Single rein fastened to the brake handle of a carriage and run through the driver?s hand to the bit of the lead horse

166

31. Q. What would be the estimated age of a horse when the Galvayne?s groove extends to the wearing surface of the corner upper incisor?

A. 20 years

167

32. Q. Which external parasite usually feeds on the inside ear folds and may cause a horse to be head shy?

A. Black flies (?Buffalo gnats?)

168

1. C1 Q. What is the common name for the medication flunixin meglumine?

A. Banamine

169

2. C2 Q. In regards to physiology, why is the myometrium thicker around the left ventricle than it is around the other chambers of the heart?

A. The muscle around the left ventricle is thicker and stronger because it must contract with enough force to pump blood throughout the body

170

3. C3 Q. You are the manager at a Thoroughbred farm and will be breeding a 15.2 hand stallion to a 16.3 hand mare. What is your solution for dealing with the physical size difference?

A. Mare?s hind legs can be placed in a shallow depression or stand the stud on a hill or raised area (only need to give one answer) (do not accept option of AI or embryo transfer as these are not permitted with Thoroughbreds)

171

4. C4 Q. What term refers to supporting leg interference that results in an open wound?

A. Striking

172

5. C1 Q. What is the primary symptom of a horse that ingests wild onions?

A. Anemia

173

6. C2 Q. What type of grass provides the highest yield of hay-crop forage each year in the southern United States?

A. Bermuda grass

174

7. C3 Q. How quickly a horse?s heart rate decreases and returns to their resting heart rate is an indication of what?

A. Fitness of the horse (accept any answer that indicates this)

175

8. C4 Q. What is the common term for prognathia?

A. Monkey mouth (sow mouth)

176

9. C1 Q. What type of forage would be most appropriate for a horse with renal failure?

A. Grass forage (lower in protein, phosphorus and calcium)

177

10. C2 Q. What physical characteristic is described by the term micropthalmia?

A. Small eye

178

11. C3 Q. Evaluating a feed for aflatoxin-producing mold can be accomplished using ultraviolet light from what type of lamp?

A. Woods lamp

179

12. C4 Q. What general term refers to a horse that eats unnatural substances such as wood, hair or dirt?

A. Pica

180

13. Q. What glandular organ is located near the stomach and serves as a reservoir for red blood cells?

A. Spleen

181

14. Q. What is the recommended width of a gate that would be wide enough for hay equipment?

A. 16 feet

182

15. Q. Identify two problems that may occur when hay is baled with a moisture content greater than 20 percent.

A. Mold and heat (also spontaneous combustion)

183

16. Q. Jugging is the practice of administering a large quantity of a concentrated solution into the jugular vein. Identify three general types of nutrients or substances that would be included in this solution.

A. Amino acids , electrolytes, vitamins, glucose

184

17. Q. You are spending the day with a farrier. The farrier has 4 shoes that look identical set aside for the horse he is shoeing. He would like you to hand him a front shoe. How will you know which is a front shoe?

A. The front shoe would be more round (also accept wider at the heel)

185

18. Q. In general, what does the suffix ?emia? describe?

A. In the blood

186

19. Q. What are doing if you are ?drenching? a horse?

A. Pouring a liquid medication down the throat from a bottle

187

20. Q. Identify two of the organs that the celiac artery and its arterial branches supply with oxygenated blood.

A. Spleen, stomach and liver

188

21. Q. In regards to the stallion, identify four advantages for artificial insemination versus live cover breeding.

A. Prevent spread of venereal disease, able to breed injured/crippled stallions that are unable to mount a mare, eliminates injury to stallion from nervous, aggressive or shy mares, able to breed more mares per season, able to impregnate a mare located far away by shipping semen

189

22. Q. You do the math? You are judging a reining class and have indicated a total maneuver score of minus 1and a total penalty score of minus 3 «. What would be the final score for this competitor?

A. Score of 65 « points

190

23. Q. You are the on call veterinarian evaluating a horse with the following symptoms?Rapid and labored breathing, incoordination, dilated pupils, muscle tremors and dark cherry red mucous membranes. These symptoms would indicate what type of plant poisoning?

A. Cyanide poisoning

191

24. Q. The most common cause of spontaneous abortion is placental or uterine infections. Prior to the current widespread use of ultrasound, what accounted for about 25% of abortions and was considered to be the second most common cause?

A. Twinning

192

25. Q. What breed is being described? Noted for its speed and jumping ability although it can be stubborn. Able to withstand the severe weather in its country of origin which is Russia.

A. Akhal-Teke

193

26. Q. In regards to biosecurity identify three ways to diminish the possibility of transferring infective agents with your boots.

A. Disinfect boots using a spray disinfectant, disposable boots or boot covers, disinfect boots with a boot dip, change boots between farms and between dirty and clean areas

194

27. Q. What color would be the result of the silver dapple gene on the following three colors?black, bay and chestnut?

A. Black ? Blue silver or silver dapple; bay-red silver; chestnut-chestnut

195

28. Q. What is the scientific name for the stable fly?

A. Stomxys calcitrans

196

29. Q. When driving a horse and turning left?Which rein is the ?bearing rein??

A. Right rein (rein opposite the direction)

197

30. Q. In foxhunting, who hunts the hounds and is in charge of the kennels?

A. Huntsman

198

31. Q. In general, what does the suffix ?oma? describe?

A. Tumor (also accept cancer or neoplasm)

199

32. Q. The mating of imported draft stallions with native mares in Southern Pennsylvania produced what breed that eventually disappeared and never had a breed registry.

A. Conestoga horse

200

1. C1 Q. What is the correct term for the medication referred to by the slang term ?Ace??

A. Acetyl promazine (acepromazine)

201

2. C2 Q. The Tennessee Walking Horse was crossed with what other breed to develop the American Walking Pony?

A. Welsh Pony

202

3. C3 Q. The Chadwick spring provides constant outward pressure on the bars of the foot and would be used for what conformation defect of the hoof?

A. Contracted heels

203

4. C4 Q. In general, what type of muscling is preferred in all breeds?1.) thick, bulging muscle with definition, or 2.) long, clean, well-defined muscle?

A. Long, clean and well-defined

204

5. C1 Q. What anatomic structure is responsible for increasing absorption in the small intestine and is described as tiny, finger-like projections?

A. Villi

205

6. C2 Q. In what specific area of the uterus does the conceptus attach and the fetus develop in a normal horse pregnancy?

A. Uterine horn

206

7. C3 Q. The alkaloid slaframine would result in what symptom in horses grazing red clover affected with black patch?

A. Excessive salivation (slobbers)

207

27. Q. What color would be the result of the silver dapple gene on the following three colors?black, bay and chestnut?

A. Black ? Blue silver or silver dapple, Bay-Red Sliver, Chestnut - Chestnut

208

28. Q. What is the scientific name for the stable fly?

A. Stomxys calcitrans

209

29. Q. When driving a horse and turning left?Which rein is the ?bearing rein??

A. Right rein (rein opposite the direction)

210

30. Q. In foxhunting, who hunts the hounds and is in charge of the kennels?

A. Huntsman

211

31. Q. In general, what does the suffix ?oma? describe?

A. Tumor (also accept cancer or neoplasm)

212

32. Q. The mating of imported draft stallions with native mares in Southern Pennsylvania produced what breed that eventually disappeared and never had a breed registry.

A. Conestoga horse

213

1. C1 Q. What is the correct term for the medication referred to by the slang term ?Ace??

A. Acetyl promazine (acepromazine)

214

2. C2 Q. The Tennessee Walking Horse was crossed with what other breed to develop the American Walking Pony?

A. Welsh Pony

215

3. C3 Q. The Chadwick spring provides constant outward pressure on the bars of the foot and would be used for what conformation defect of the hoof?

A. Contracted heels

216

4. C4 Q. In general, what type of muscling is preferred in all breeds?1.) thick, bulging muscle with definition, or 2.) long, clean, well-defined muscle?

A. Long, clean and well-defined

217

5. C1 Q. What anatomic structure is responsible for increasing absorption in the small intestine and is described as tiny, finger-like projections?

A. Villi

218

6. C2 Q. In what specific area of the uterus does the conceptus attach and the fetus develop in a normal horse pregnancy?

A. Uterine horn

219

7. C3 Q. The alkaloid slaframine would result in what symptom in horses grazing red clover affected with black patch?

A. Excessive salivation (slobbers)

220

8. C4 Q. Who is the foundation sire for the American Saddlebred Horse?

A. Denmark

221

9. C1 Q. What is the primary benefit of extruded feed?

A. Improved digestibility

222

10. C2 Q. Ovulation will usually occur within how many days after the discontinuation of treatment with Regumate?

A. Approximately 12 days

223

11. C3 Q. Would the parasympathetic or sympathetic nervous system be stimulated with the ?fight or flight? instinct?

A. Sympathetic

224

12. C4 Q. What is the correct term for a full turn on the haunches in dressage?

A. Volte

225

13. Q. What are the two functions of the turbinate bones?

A. Warm, hydrate and filter inspired air (only need to give two answers)

226

14. Q. Which pony breed is referred to as the ?living fossil??

A. Exmoor

227

15. Q. (Two Part) The diaphragm is the muscle that separates the thoracic and abdominal cavities. What serous membrane covers the abdominal surface of the diaphragm and what serous membrane covers the thoracic surface?

A. Abdominal ? peritoneum; thoracis - pleura

228

16. Q. What are the four methods used to breed mares?

A. Pasture breeding, hand breeding, artificial insemination and embryo transfer

229

17. Q. Which two types of white spotting are described as rising up from the underline of the horse?

A. Splashed white and sabino

230

18. Q. What type of knot is used on the end of a rope to keep it from unraveling?

A. Crown knot

231

19. Q. You do the math? You are feeding a weanling that weighs approximately 400 pounds. If you are feeding twice a day and need to feed a total of 1% of the body?How many pounds would you feed in the morning?

A. 2 pounds

232

20. Q. Identify the three gaits of the Paso Fino beginning with the speed that is the fastest and ending with the speed which is slower and more collected.

A. Paso largo, paso corto and paso fino

233

21. Q. Identify three breeds that originated in the United States and were developed from crossing other breeds with Canadian pacers.

A. Standardbred, American Saddlebred and Tennessee Walking Horse

234

22. Q. What is the anatomical name for a natural passageway or opening in the body that blood vessels and nerves pass through?

A. Foramen (also accept foramina)

235

23. Q. Sprinting and galloping can produce an oxygen deficit within skeletal muscle and result in what type of metabolism?

A. Anaerobic

236

24. Q. What is the correct medical terminology for giving birth?

A. Parturition

237

25. Q. For what specific equine competition would you have herd holders?

A. Cutting

238

26. Q. Which two breeds were crossed to develop the Americana?

A. Shetland and Hackney Pony

239

27. Q. Identify two reasons why additional protein is not a desirable source of energy in the athletic horse.

A. Produces excess body heat, increased water loss (due to increased sweating), increased electrolyte deficit, more expensive

240

28. Q. English stagecoaches often were accompanied by a cockhorse that was ridden behind the coach. What was the purpose of the cockhorse?

A. Hitched in front of the team when going up steep hills or heavy going

241

29. Q. The heart, trachea and esophagus are contained in what specific area of the chest cavity?

A. Mediastinum

242

30. Q. Cremello is a double dilution of what color?

A. Chestnut

243

31. Q. Which farrier tool is used to cut hot metal?

A. Hardy

244

32. Q. What breed?s characteristics include a rat tail?

A. Appaloosa

245

1. C1 Q. What is the anatomical term for the hind cannon bone?

A. Large metatarsal or third metatarsal (do not accept third or large metacarpal)

246

2. C2 Q. What does the term open bridle describe?

A. A bridle without blinders or blinkers

247

3. C3 Q. At how many days after ovulation would the embryo be collected from a donor mare for nonsurgical embryo transfer?

A. 6-8 days (accept anything within this range)

248

4. C4 Q. What is the difference in the traditional grooming presentation of a Hackney Pony shown in a ?harness? versus a ?Hackney? class?

A. Ponies are shown with a cob-tail in Hackney classes and a long tail in a harness class

249

5. C1 Q. What is the common term for Enterotoxemia?

A. Overeating disease

250

6. C2 Q. For fire safety, a barn used for hay storage should be located at least how far from other buildings?

A. At least 100 feet

251

7. C3 Q. What type of parasite is only a problem for horses that are being grazed with ruminants?

A. Hairworms (Trichostrongylus axei)

252

8. C4 Q. What is the country of origin for the New Forest Pony?

A. England

253

9. C1 Q. Would front or hind plates have ?jar calks??

A. Front plates (are referred to as heel calks on hind plates)

254

10. C2 Q. What does the slang term ?owl head? describe?

A. A horse that is difficult to train

255

11. C3 Q. When using the Y-Tex Corporation system for freeze branding, the alpha character is used to identify what?

A. Breed of horse (or ?E? if grade or unregistered horse)

256

12. C4 Q. What is the scientific name for the type of bot fly that is associated with eggs that are black and deposited on the lips?

A. Gastrophilus hemorrhoidalis

257

13. Q. Common signs of ocular disease include color changes such as redness or cloudiness, increased tearing and blepharospasm. What is blepharospasm?

A. Squinting or closing the eye (indicates pain)

258

14. Q. You would collect prize money if the horses you bet on placed first and second in the order you predicted if you placed what type of wager?

A. Exacta

259

15. Q. What is the difference between hyperplasia and hypertrophy?

A. Hyperplasia is an increase in the number of cells

260

16. Q. Give four observations that would indicate that a foal with diarrhea would require medical attention.

A. Large amount of diarrhea, Diarrhea contains blood, decreased appetite, fever, depression/lethargy, dehydration, large volume of water in diarrhea

261

17. Q. What is the common term for alpha tocopherol?

A. Vitamin E

262

18. Q. What do the initials NHSRA stand for?

A. National High School Rodeo Association

263

19. Q. In general, what does the suffix ?malacia? describe?

A. Softening

264

20. Q. Identify two equine diseases that are caused by protozoa.

A. Equine Piroplasmosis (Babesiosis), Equine Protozoal Myeloencephalitis (EPM), Giardia Infection (Giardiasis

265

21. Q. (Four Part) In regards to balance, the angle or slope of the shoulder will directly influence the ratio of which two other areas. How are each of these areas altered if the shoulder is longer and more sloping? How do they change if the shoulder is shorter and straighter?

A. Length of back: Length of underline. More slope=length of back is shorter, straighter=length of back is longer, top line of neck-bottom of neck: More slope=top line of neck is longer, straighter=top of neck line is shorter

266

22. Q. Which pony breed has adapted to harsh winter weather with the growth of a cluster of short hairs on the top of the tail that is referred to as an ?ice-tail? or ?snow-chute??

A. Exmoor Pony

267

23. Q. In the zoological classification, what is the order the horse would be included in?

A. Perissodactyla

268

24. Q. Which bacterial disease is called ?shaker foal syndrome? when it affects foals?

A. Botulism

269

25. Q. What term refers to an overhanging of the top lip?

A. Elk lip

270

26. Q. Identify three areas on the horse where a hackamore bit would exert pressure.

A. Nose, face, jaw, chin, poll, cheeks (do not accept mouth)

271

27. Q. Identify the three foundation sires for the Rangerbred Horse.

A. Max, Leopard and Linden Tree

272

28. Q. Combined Immunodeficiency Disease and Epitheliogenesis imperfect would be classified as what type of genetic lethal?

A. Delayed lethal

273

29. Q. You do the math? A foal normally weighs 9-10% of the mare?s body weight. A foal that weighs 50 pounds would indicate that it?s dam weighs how much?

A. 450-500 pounds (accept anything within that range)

274

30. Q. Praziquantel and pyrantel pamoate are both effective for the control of tapeworms. How does the dosage of pyrantel paomate need to be altered when treating tapeworms?

A. Give twice the standard dose

275

31. Q. What term refers to the discipline described as ?gymnastics on horseback??

A. Vaulting

276

32. Q. What are the two types of balance to consider when trimming the hoof?

A. Heel to toe (front to back) and medial/lateral (side to side)

277

1. C1 Q. What is the correct term for the medication referred to by the abbreviation DMSO?

A. Dimethyl sulfoxide

278

2. C2 Q. What is the common term for Lethal White Foal Syndrome?

A. ?Megacolon?

279

3. C3 Q. What color describes a dun with black points and a black dorsal stripe?

A. Coyote dun

280

4. C4 Q. What breed is being described?Sometimes used as a pack animal; dun color with black and silver mane and tail, eel stripe and zebra markings; resembles the wild horses of the Ice Age; country of origin is Norway.

A. Fjord

281

5. C1 Q. Equine supplements that contain valerian root provide what affect?

A. Calming effect, sedative effect, anti-spasmodic effect (only need to give one answer)

282

6. C2 Q. What mineral imbalance results in the condition commonly referred to as ?bob-tail disease??

A. Excess selenium (must designate excess for answer to be correct)

283

7. C3 Q. For an obese horse, weight loss should occur gradually over several months. What amount of weight loss in pounds or what change in the body condition score is recommended in one month?

A. Approximately 50 pounds or one body condition score

284

8. C4 Q. What type of parasite may result in coughing, fever and nasal discharge which is commonly referred to as a ?summer cold? in foals?

A. Roundworms (parascaris equorum)

285

9. C1 Q. In general, what does the term viscera describe?

A. Internal organs

286

10. C2 Q. Which breed was developed by crossing the Thoroughbred and Irish Draft breeds?

A. Irish Hunter

287

11. C3 Q. Horses that are stalled 24 hours a day are more likely to be deficient in which vitamin?

A. Vitamin D

288

12. C4 Q. Halitosis with an odor of garlic would be an indication of what specific mineral toxicity?

A. Selenium

289

13. Q. What omega 3 fatty acid source when added to the diet has recently been identified as providing a significant improvement in sweet itch or other allergic skin conditions?

A. Flaxseed

290

14. Q. What ligament connects the splint bone to the cannon bone?

A. Interosseous ligament

291

15. Q. Identify two systemic fungal diseases that affect horses.

A. Aspergillosis Blastomycosis; coccidiomycosis hisoplasmosis

292

16. Q. Identify three of the five classifications of donkeys according to size.

A. Miniature, small, standard, large standard, mammoth

293

17. Q. What is considered to be the primary reservoir host for rabies in horses?

A. Skunk

294

18. Q. A mare that shows lack of interest to a stallion but is not aggressive toward the stallion would be given what estrus behavioral score?

A. Score of 2

295

19. Q. Hay feeders should be placed at a height no higher than what part of the horse?s anatomy?

A. Shoulder

296

20. Q. Weakening of the broad ligaments can cause a downward tilting of the uterus and can predispose a mare to uterine infections and infertility. Other than injury or illness, identify two things that would contribute to the weakening of these ligaments

A. Age of the mare, number of pregnancies the mare has had

297

21. Q. What is the correct name for the following four vitamins?Vitamin B1, B2, B6 and B12?

A. Vitamin B1 Thiamin; Vitamin B2=Riboflavin, Vitamin B6=Pyridoxine, Vitamin B12= Cobalamin

298

22. Q. What does the slang term dog soldier describe?

A. A stallion that has been cast out from a wild herd

299

23. Q. Clipping along the belly, under the neck and above the thigh is known as what type of body clip?

A. Trace clip

300

24. Q. You do the math? Water hemlock ingestions results in sudden death in horses. Death results after ingestion of as little as 0.1 ounce for each 100 pounds of body weight. A horse that weighs 1000 pounds would be fatally poisoned after consuming how many ounces of water hemlock?

A. Poisoned after ingesting only 1 ounce

301

25. Q. Identify which two grasses are the most palatable.

A. Kentucky bluegrass and timothy

302

26. Q. Identify two types of colic in regards to the position of the small intestine.

A. Displacement, Telescoping (intussusception) or twisting (volvulus)

303

27. Q. Identify four physiological and/or anatomical factors that would indicate a horse?s racing performance or athletic ability.

A. Conformation; oxygen intake ability (respiratory capacity), gait, heart size and heart rate capacity (cardiac capacity) proportion/type muscle fibers

304

28. Q. What part of a decker saddle is described as a heavy canvas or poly cover with a wooden bar at the bottom?

A. Half Breed

305

29. Q. What substance is produced in the body in response to an allergen?

A. Histamine

306

30. Q. How would a base-wide, toe-out conformation affect the break over and landing of the foot?

A. Would break over and land on the inside toe

307

31. Q. What function do the superior labial levator muscles provide?

A. Raise the upper lip

308

32. Q. In regards to the racing industry, what does the expression ?buy a lot? describe?

A. Falling off the horse

309

1. C1 Q. What mineral toxicity is associated with hemochromatosis?

A. Iron

310

2. C2 Q. How does the relative humidity affect length of grazing time?

A. Higher humidity results in longer grazing time

311

3. C3 Q. What is the main purpose of the breeching on a pack saddle when going down a steep hill?

A. To keep the saddle from sliding forward

312

4. C4 Q. Identify the two land masses that were once connected by the Bering Land Bridge.

A. Alaska and Siberia (also accept Alaska and Russia)

313

5. C1 Q. Which pony breed that originated in Norway and Sweden is also known as the Swedish Ardennes?

A. Norwegian Fjord Pony

314

6. C2 Q. In general, what does the suffix ?centesis? describe?

A. Aspiration of fluid

315

7. C3 Q. Under which circumstance is the requirement for magnesium the highest?

A. Lactating mares or exercising horses (only need to give one answer)

316

8. C4 Q. What do the initials OLWS refer to?

A. Overo Lethal White Syndrome

317

9. C1 Q. What term refers to the process of determining various body measurements in order to monitor growth?

A. Morphometrics

318

10. C2 Q. What is the Spanish term for a cinch strap?

A. Latigo

319

11. C3 Q. What is the trade name for the medication that is sometimes used for the prevention of EIPH and is also referred to by the generic name of furosemide?

A. Lasix (also accept Salix)

320

12. C4 Q. Which enzyme in the mouth transforms starch into maltose?

A. Ptyalin

321

13. Q. Give two guidelines for changing the type of hay that is being fed.

A. Mix the old hay with the new hay and change over period of 2 weeks

322

14. Q. The Przewalski?s horse and zebras are affected by which equine genetic disorder?

A. Equine degenerative myeloencephalopathy (EDM)

323

15. Q. What is the difference between a hybrid and a synthetic breed?

A. Hybrid is the result of crossing 2 different breeds; synthetic is the result of crossing 2 or more breeds and then mating the first generations of those crossbred animals

324

16. Q. (Two Part) Identify three diseases that are caused by a type of Clostridium bacteria and identify the specific type of Clostridium bacteria for each disease.

A. Tetanus ? Clostridium tetani; botulism-clostridium botulinum; enterotoxemia-clostridium perfingens

325

17. Q. In the evolution of the horse, which ancestor was the first to resemble the appearance of a horse and was about the size of a miniature horse?

A. Mesohippus

326

18. Q. Pandiculation is an indication of the well-being of a foal and usually occurs within 4 hours after birth. What is pandiculation?

A. Stretching

327

19. Q. You do the math? If Carrolton Hounds ran 35 hounds at the hunt, how many couple hounds were there?

A. 17 and 1/2 couple hounds

328

20. Q. Identify two of the three acceptable methods for euthanasia for horses.

A. Overdose of barbiturate anesthesia; gunshot; penetrating captive bolt

329

21. Q. Scientific methods make it possible to break down the nutritional components in the equine diet. Identify what each of the following three abbreviations stands for and what specific basic nutrient is indicated. DCP, DCF and DEE

A. DCP = digestible crude protein protein; DCF=digestive crude fiber (carbohydrates); DEE digestive ether extract (fat)

330

22. Q. Intense exercise correlates with an increased incidence of EGUS. What is EGUS?

A. Equine Gastric Ulcer Syndrome

331

23. Q. What is the common term for dermatitis granulosa?

A. Summer sores

332

24. Q. Identify two advantages of a synthetic saddle.

A. Less expensive, lighter weight, easier to care for

333

25. Q. Ovulation will usually occur in a mare with a large pre-ovulatory follicle within 48 hours after intravenous administration of what commonly used gonadotropin hormone?

A. HCG (human chorionic gonadotropin)

334

26. Q. Identify two types of blood cells produced by the bone marrow.

A. Red blood cells, white blood cells, platelets

335

27. Q. Heat exhaustion and the more critical condition of heat stroke are terms that describe hyperthermia. Use the following five criteria to differentiate between these two conditions?

1. General behavior, 2. Sweating. 3. Willingness to Drink, 4. Gut Sounds, 5. Response of heart and respiratory rate to cooling effects. Heat exhaustion: tired but alert, sweating, willing to drink, good gut sounds, responds to cooling. Heat Stroke: Depressed, unwilling to drink, poor gut sounds, does not respond to cooling, absence of sweating

336

28. Q. The Russian equestrian sport of kabakhi is ridden at a full gallop and includes what other type of sport?

A. Archery

337

29. Q. Horses with Equine Metabolic Syndrome can be differentiated from other obese horses by what characteristic regional adiposity?

A. Fat deposits located in the crest of the neck and tail head (only need to identify one of these two areas for a correct answer)

338

30. Q. You are the farrier shoeing a base-narrow toe-out conformation horse. Which shoe modification would be most appropriate for this horse?rolled toe, raised inside branch, or outside toe extension?

A. Outside toe extension

339

31. Q. Exercises that include circles, serpentines and half turns would be included in what specific type of suppling exercises?

A. Lateral

340

32. Q. What is the correct medical terminology for the long, wavy, non-shedding hair coat associated with Equine Cushing?s Disease?

A. Hirsutism

341

1. Q. Identify four different variations of the rings on snaffle bits.

A. D-ring, Egg butt, half cheek, loose ring (o-ring), full cheek

342

2. Q. Other than infection, identify four problems that would result in a FPT or ?failure of passive transfer? foal.

A. Mare that grazed endophyte-infested fescue, maiden mare, low immunoglobulin G in colostrum, mare that is leaking milk longer than 24 hours before foaling, mare that rejects foal, weak foal that is unable to stand, foal that lacks suckling reflecx

343

3. Q. Identify three genetic disorders that primarily affect draft breeds.

A. Junctional Epidermolysis Bullosa (JEB); aniridia, epitheliogenesis imperfecta, rhabdomyolysis (Monday morning disease, azoturia)

344

4. Q. What are the two predominant sire lines for Standarbred pacers and the two predominant sire line for Standarbred trotters?

A. Pacers ? The Direct and The Abbe lines; Trotters-The Axworthly and Peter the Great lines

345

1. Q. What are the two general types of chronic exertional rhabdomyloysis?

A. Recurrent exertional rhabdomyloysis (RER), polysaccharide storage myopathy (PSSM)

346

2. Q. Which two hormones are produced by the adrenal glands?

A. Epinephrine (adrenaline) and corticoids (also accept glucocorticoids,

347

3. Q. The two semilunar valves are located between what specific structures?

A. Right ventricle and pulmonary artery; left ventricle and aorta

348

4. Q. Which two external parasites are intermediate hosts for habronemiasis?

A. House fly and stable fly

349

1. Q. For what maximum period of time after parturition would the foal be able to absorb the immunoglobulins in colostrum?

A. up to 12-36 hours after birth (accept anything within this range)

350

2. Q. What breed is often confused with the Appaloosa because most are spotted?

A. Rangerbred Horse

351

3. Q. In the hind legs, what is the anatomical term for the short pastern bones?

A. Middle phalanx or Second phalanx

352

4. Q. What term describes plant toxins that cross the placental barrier during pregnancy and cause defects in the foal?

A. Teratogenic

353

5. Q. What is the contributing factor to the condition known as anaphylaxis?

A. Severe allergy

354

1. Q. What term describes the breakdown of feed into its smaller components?

A. Digestion

355

2. Q. In general, what is the expected effect of an antipyretic medication ?

A. Fever reduction (also accept increases heat loss; reduces heat production)

356

3. Q. What is the toxin in white snakeroot?

A. Tremetol

357

4. Q. What type of activity would you use an Association saddle for?

A. Rodeo events

358

5. Q. A horse that stands camped under in the hind legs usually has what other conformation defect when viewed from the side?

A. Sickle hock